Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 23 Apr 2017 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2017

150 questions150 minutes
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I_______ you to be at the party this evening.

  1. AOption (a)

    look forward to

  2. BOption (b)

    hope

  3. COption (c)

    expect

  4. DOption (d)

    think

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

expect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points 

  • Expect: regard (something) as likely to happen. (संबंध (कुछ) होने की संभावना के रूप में)
  • Look forward to: await eagerly. (बेसब्री से इंतजार)
  • Hope: a feeling of expectation and desire for a particular thing to happen. (किसी विशेष चीज के होने की उम्मीद और इच्छा की भावना)
  • Think: have a particular belief or idea. (एक विशेष विश्वास या विचार है)

Option 1 will take a -ing form of a verb after it. Eg: I look forward to meeting you. Since the blank already follows the pronoun 'you', the usage is incorrect.

Option 2 & 4 also do not fit in the sentence.

Question 2

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I ______ him since Christmas.

  1. AOption (a)

    saw

  2. BOption (b)

    have seem

  3. COption (c)

    had seen

  4. DOption (d)

    have been seeing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

had seen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'had seen'.

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the past tense.
  • There is a possibility of both past tense 'saw' and past perfect 'had seen' being correct.
  • But as we have two actions in the past and the action of meeting happened first, it is better to use past perfect.
  • We use perfect tense when we talk about two actions that happened in the same or near time period.
  • Structure of sentence in the past perfect tense: Subject + had + V3 (past participle)
  • ​Example: The player had broken his foot before the game finished.
  • Present perfect and present perfect continuous tense violates the rule as the tense is not in accordance with the sentence.
  • Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that the most appropriate option to be filled in the given blank is 'had seen'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I had seen him since Christmas.

Additional Information

TenseSimple tenseContinuous tensePerfect tensePerfect continuous
Presentv1+s/esis/am/are+v1+inghas/have+v3has/have been+v1+ing
Pastv2was/were+v1+inghad+v3had been+v1+ing
Futurewill/shall+v1will be+v1+ingwill have+v3will+have been+v1+ing

Hinglish

  • वाक्य past tense में है।
  • Past tense 'saw' और Past perfect 'had seen' दोनों के सही होने की संभावना है।
  • लेकिन चूंकि हमारे पास past में दो क्रियाएं हैं और बैठक की क्रिया पहले हुई है, इसलिए past perfect का उपयोग करना बेहतर है।
  • जब हम दो क्रियाओं के बारे में बात करते हैं जो एक ही या निकट समय अवधि में हुई हैं, तो हम perfect tense का उपयोग करते हैं।
  • Past perfect tense में वाक्य की संरचना: Subject + had + V3 (past participle)
  • उदाहरण: The player had broken his foot before the game finished.
  • Present perfect और Present perfect continuous tense नियम का उल्लंघन करता है क्योंकि काल वाक्य के अनुसार नहीं है।
  • अतः उपरोक्त स्पष्टीकरण से यह स्पष्ट है कि दिए गए रिक्त स्थान को भरने के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प 'had seen' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।
  • | Tense | Simple tense | Continuous tense | Perfect tense | Perfect continuous | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Present | v1+s/es | is/am/are+v1+ing | has/have+v3 | has/have been+v1+ing | | Past | v2 | was/were+v1+ing | had+v3 | had been+v1+ing | | Future | will/shall+v1 | will be+v1+ing | will have+v3 | will+have been+v1+ing |

 

पुरा वाक्य: When I met John yesterday, it was the first time I had seen him since Christmas.

Question 3

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He _______to listen to my arguments and walked away.

  1. AOption (a)

    denied

  2. BOption (b)

    disliked

  3. COption (c)

    prevented

  4. DOption (d)

    refused

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

refused

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points 

  • Denied: past tense of denying; state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of. (इनकार करने का भूतकाल; यह कहना कि कोई सत्य या अस्तित्व को स्वीकार करने से इनकार करता है।)

Eg: The inquiry was denied access to the department.

  • Disliked: past tense of dislike; feel distaste for or hostility towards. (नापसंद का भूतकाल; के प्रति अरुचि या शत्रुता महसूस करना)

Eg: He disliked the dish.

  • Prevented: past tense of prevent; keep (something) from happening. (रोकथाम का भूतकाल; (कुछ) होने से रखना)

Eg: Strict rules are implemented to prevent accidents.

  • Refused: past tense of refuse; indicate or show that one is not willing to do something. (मना करने का भूतकाल; इंगित करें या दिखाएं कि कोई कुछ करने को तैयार नहीं है)

Eg: He refused to answer.

Thus the other options do not fit in the blank.

Question 4

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The flow of blood was so _____ that the patient died.

  1. AOption (a)

    intense

  2. BOption (b)

    adequate

  3. COption (c)

    profuse

  4. DOption (d)

    extensive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

profuse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3- Profuse

  • Intense: of extreme force, degree, or strength.

Eg: The job demands intense concentration.

  • Adequate: satisfactory or acceptable in quality or quantity.

Eg: The security was adequate to welcome the guests.

  • Profuse: (especially of something offered or discharged) very plentiful; abundant.

Eg: I offered my profuse apologies.

  • Extensive: covering or affecting a large area.

Eg: The garden was really extensive.

  • Other options do not fit in the blank correctly. The meaning is not conveyed.
  • Thus 'profuse' is the correct word. It means that the blood flow was so profuse that the patient died.
  • Note: 'Profuse bleeding' is a standard phrase in English

Question 5

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

You have never _______ me about your experiences in America.

  1. AOption (a)

    said

  2. BOption (b)

    told

  3. COption (c)

    explained

  4. DOption (d)

    spoken

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

told

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. told.

Key Points

  • The verb said takes an object with after it.
  • The verb told is the utterance of the speaker.
  • Option 3 & 4 do not convey the meaning correctly, as it takes the conjunction 'to' after it.
  • Thus, option 2 is correct here.

Thus the correct sentence is: You have never told me about your experiences in America.

Additional Information

  • Said is the past tense of the verb say.
  • Told is the past tense of the verb tell.

Question 6

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I always felt hungry_____ I heard the dinner bell.

  1. AOption (a)

    as much as

  2. BOption (b)

    as well as

  3. COption (c)

    as soon as

  4. DOption (d)

    as close as

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

as soon as

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • The given options below are conjunctive phrases.
  • As soon as infers that something will happen immediately after a particular action.

Eg: As soon as the train arrives, the seats will be full.

  • As well as is a conjunctive phrase, which means in addition or along with

Eg: Ram, as well as Sita, entered the room.

  • As much as: is used to compare two things
  • Eg: She is perfect as much as the others.
  • As close as means something which is near to or immediate

Eg: The information provided is as close as it could be.

None of the other phrases convey the exact meaning. Thus as soon as is the correct phrase.

Question 7

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Although they took every precaution, they could not _____ the accident.

  1. AOption (a)

    defer

  2. BOption (b)

    allow

  3. COption (c)

    avoid

  4. DOption (d)

    block

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

avoid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Defer: put off (an action or event) to a later time; postpone.

Eg: She wants to defer her admission process.

  • Allow: let (someone) have or do something.

Eg: Her parents will allow her to go on the trip.

  • Avoid: keep away from or stop oneself from doing (something).

Eg: One must avoid taking the wrong routes on the road.

  • Block: make the movement or flow in (a passage, pipe, road, etc.) difficult or impossible.

Eg: The road is blocked after the signal.

Thus the other options do not fit in the sentence.

Question 8

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The ambitious nobleman _____ to marry the king's daughter.

  1. AOption (a)

    transpired

  2. BOption (b)

    perspired

  3. COption (c)

    aspired

  4. DOption (d)

    expired

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

aspired

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "aspired" 

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the selected option:
  • Aspired: direct one's hopes or ambitions towards achieving something.
  • Look at the meanings of the other options:
  • Transpired: ;(of a secret or something unknown) come to be known; be revealed.
  • Perspired- gives out sweat through the pores of the skin as a result of heat, physical exertion, or stress.
  • Expired: (of a document, authorization, or agreement) come to the end of the period of validity; (of a person) die.
  • Thus the other words do not fit in the context.

Hence, the correct sentence- The ambitious nobleman aspired to marry the king's daughter.

Question 9

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The dictator of that country was a monster of wickedness, insatiable in his _____ for blood and plunder.

  1. AOption (a)

    idea

  2. BOption (b)

    vision

  3. COption (c)

    lust

  4. DOption (d)

    intention

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

lust

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. i.e. lust.

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of each words here.
  • Idea: a thought or suggestion as to a possible course of action; the aim or purpose.
  • Vision: the faculty or state of being able to see; the ability to think about or plan the future with imagination or wisdom; imagine
  • Lust: a very strong desire or wish
  • Intention: a thing intended; an aim or plan.
  • Since the sentence talks about the dictator's desire for blood and plunder, 'lust' is correct here.
  • Other words do not fit in the context.

The correct sentence becomes: The dictator of that country was a monster of wickedness, insatiable in his lust for blood and plunder.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at some of the synonyms of  'lust'
  • ​desire, hunger, longing etc.
  • Let's look at some of the antonyms of 'lust'.​
  • ​hate, disgust, hate etc.

Question 10

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Please don't give me any more, I have had _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    few

  2. BOption (b)

    too 

  3. COption (c)

    little

  4. DOption (d)

    enough

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

enough

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'enough'.

Key Points .

  • Enough means to the required degree or extent.
  • Example: Do you have enough money to pay the fare of train and taxi?
  • Few means a small number; the minority.
  • Example: Few would be in favor of police officers carrying weapons.
  • Too means in addition to; overly, excessively.
  • Example: This coffee is too sweet.
  • Little means small in size, small amount of.
  • Example: Little is known about his upbringing and education.
  • I have had enough means you have exceeded the limit; usually said when you are tired of a particular situation and want to stop.
  • Other options are incorrect in their usage in the sentence.
  • Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that the most appropriate option to fill in the given blank is 'enough'.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: Please don't give me anymore, I have had enough.

Additional Information

  • When we say 'a little' or 'a few', we mean a small amount, but it's enough.
  • Example: I have a little money, enough for the cinema at least.
  • We use 'a little' with singular uncountable nouns.
  • We use 'a few' with plural countable nouns.

Hinglish 

  • Enough का अर्थ है आवश्यक डिग्री या सीमा तक।
  • उदाहरण: Do you have enough money to pay the fare of train and taxi?
  • Few का अर्थ है एक छोटी संख्या; अल्पसंख्यक।
  • उदाहरण: Few would be in favor of police officers carrying weapons.
  • Too का अर्थ है इसके अतिरिक्त; अत्यधिक, अत्यधिक।
  • उदाहरण: This coffee is too sweet.
  • Little का अर्थ है आकार में छोटा, छोटी मात्रा में।
  • उदाहरण: Little is known about his upbringing and education.
  • मेरे पास enough साधन हैं कि तुम हद पार कर चुके हो; आमतौर पर तब कहा जाता है जब आप किसी विशेष स्थिति से थक जाते हैं और रुकना चाहते हैं।
  • वाक्य में उनके उपयोग में अन्य विकल्प गलत हैं।
  • अतः उपरोक्त व्याख्या से यह स्पष्ट है कि दिए गए रिक्त स्थान को भरने के लिए सर्वाधिक उ��युक्त विकल्प 'enough' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है।
  • जब हम 'a little' या 'a few' कहते हैं, तो हमारा मतलब छोटी राशि से होता है, लेकिन यह काफी है।
  • उदाहरण: I have a little money, enough for the cinema at least.
  • हम Singular uncuntables noun के साथ 'a Little' का प्रयोग करते हैं।
  • हम Plural countable nouns के साथ 'a few' का उपयोग करते हैं।

 

पुरा वाक्य: Please don't give me anymore, I have had enough.

Question 11

In this section, each item consists of sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

My first lecture in the classroom was a fiasco.

  1. AOption (a)

    success

  2. BOption (b)

    joy

  3. COption (c)

    fun

  4. DOption (d)

    disaster

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

success

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points:- 

  • Fiasco: a complete failure, especially a ludicrous or humiliating one. (एक पूर्ण विफलता, विशेष रूप से एक हास्यास्पद या अपमानजनक)
  • Success: the accomplishment of an aim or purpose. (किसी उद्देश्य या उद्देश्य की सिद्धि)
  • Joy: a feeling of great pleasure and happiness; rejoice. (बहुत खुशी और खुशी की भावना; आनन्द )
  • Fun: enjoyment, amusement, or light-hearted pleasure; amusing, entertaining, or enjoyable. (आनंद, मनोरंजन, या हल्का-फुल्का आनंद; मनोरंजक)
  • Disaster: An event or fact that has unfortunate consequences. (एक घटना या तथ्य जिसके दुर्भाग्यपूर्ण परिणाम होते हैं)

Options 2, 3 & 4 are incorrect.

Question 12

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

It was indeed arduous  to cross streets in New York.

  1. AOption (a)

    pleasant 

  2. BOption (b)

    effortless

  3. COption (c)

    interesting 

  4. DOption (d)

    risky

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

effortless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points:- 

  • Arduous: involving or requiring strenuous effort; difficult and tiring. (शामिल या ज़ोरदार प्रयास की आवश्यकता; कठिन और थका देने वाला)
  • Pleasant: giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment. (सुखद संतुष्टि या आनंद की भावना देना)
  • Effortless: requiring no physical or mental exertion; achieved with admirable ease. (किसी शारीरिक या मानसिक परिश्रम की आवश्यकता नहीं; सराहनीय सहजता के साथ हासिल किया)
  • Interesting: arousing curiosity or interest; holding or catching the attention. (जिज्ञासा या रुचि जगाना; ध्यान रखना या पकड़ना)
  • Risky: full of the possibility of danger, failure, or loss. (खतरे, असफलता या हानि की संभावना से भरा हुआ)

Effortless is the antonym of arduous. Other options are incorrect here.

Question 13

Directions

In this section, each item consists of sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Unlike his brother, he is affable.

  1. AOption (a)

    reserved

  2. BOption (b)

    gullible

  3. COption (c)

    irritable

  4. DOption (d)

    lovable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

irritable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'irritable.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'affable' means pleasant, friendly, and easy to talk to. (मिलनसार, सुशील)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Reserved' means shy and keeping your feelings hidden. (संकोची तथा मनोभावों को छिपाकर रखने वाला)
  • 'Gullible' means someone believing and trusting people too easily, and therefore easily tricked. (दूसरों पर शीघ्र विश्‍वास करने और अतएव धोखा खाने वाला; भोला-भाला)
  • 'Irritable' means becoming angry easily. (जल्‍दी गुस्सा हो जाने वाला; चिड़चिड़ा)
  • 'Lovable' means having a personality or appearance that is easy to love. (प्‍यारा लगने वाला, आकर्षक)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'affable' are "irritable, rude, impolite".
  • The synonyms of the word 'affable' are "nice, pleasant, gracious".
  • Example of 'affable' in a sentence:
  • The chairman was quite affable at the meeting.

Question 14

In this section, each item consists of sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

The birth of his child decidedly proved to be an auspicious event in his life.

  1. AOption (a)

    precious

  2. BOption (b)

    ominous

  3. COption (c)

    useless

  4. DOption (d)

    unforgettable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ominous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points:- 

  • Auspicious: conducive to success; favourable; characterized by success; prosperous. (सफलता के लिए अनुकूल; अनुकूल; सफलता की विशेषता; समृद्ध)
  • Precious:  of great value; not to be wasted or treated carelessly; used as a term of address for a beloved person. (महान मूल्य का; लापरवाही से बर्बाद या इलाज नहीं किया जाना चाहिए; किसी प्रिय व्यक्ति के लिए पते की अवधि के रूप में उपयोग किया जाता है)
  • Ominous: giving the worrying impression that something bad is going to happen; threateningly inauspicious. (कुछ बुरा होने वाला है कि चिंताजनक धारणा देना; खतरनाक रूप से अशुभ)
  • Useless: not fulfilling or not expected to achieve the intended purpose or desired outcome; having no ability or skill in a specified activity or area. (इच्छित उद्देश्य या वांछित परिणाम को प्राप्त करने के लिए पूरा नहीं करना या अपेक्षित नहीं होना; किसी निर्दिष्ट गतिविधि या क्षेत्र में कोई क्षमता या कौशल नहीं होना)
  • Unforgettable: impossible to forget; very memorable. (भूलना असंभव; बहुत यादगार)

Ominous is the correct opposite word for auspicious. Other options are incorrect here in their usage.

Question 15

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and is followed by four words. Select the word that is the most opposite in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

The witness corroborated word for word the statement of the victim.

  1. AOption (a)

    accepted

  2. BOption (b)

    confirmed

  3. COption (c)

    denied

  4. DOption (d)

    repeated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

denied

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "denied"

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the word in the question:
  • Corroborated: confirm or give support to (a statement, theory, or finding).
  • Look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Denied: state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of; refuse to give (something requested or desired) to (someone).
  • Look at the meanings of the other words given in the options: 
  • Accepted: generally believed or recognized to be valid or correct.
  • Confirmed: (of a person) firmly established in a particular habit, belief, or way of life and unlikely to change their ways.
  • Repeated: done or occurring several times in the same way.
  • Denied is the opposite of corroborated. Other options do not fit in the context.
  • Look at the example:
  • Caroline denied that she had done the mistake.

Hence, the correct option is Option 3 i.e. 'Denied'

Hinglish

  • Corroborated: किसी चीज़ की पुष्टि करना

Question 16

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

It is unwise to sever diplomatic relations with a neighbouring country over small matters.

  1. AOption (a)

    engage

  2. BOption (b)

    estrange

  3. COption (c)

    cut off

  4. DOption (d)

    twist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cut off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Sever: divide by cutting or slicing, especially suddenly and forcibly.
  • Engage: occupy or attract (someone's interest or attention); participate or become involved in.
  • Estrange: cause (someone) to be no longer on friendly terms with someone
  • Cut off: is a phrasal verb. It means to separate from things that they are normally connected with
  • Twist: form into a bent, curling, or distorted shape; cause to rotate around a stationary point; turn.

Cut off is synonymous with sever. Other options do not fit in the context

Question 17

Directions

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Bad tendencies are to be countered by good ones until all that is evil disappears.

  1. AOption (a)

    opposed

  2. BOption (b)

    balanced

  3. COption (c)

    reduced

  4. DOption (d)

    bypassed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

opposed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'opposed.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'countered' means to speak or act in opposition to someone or something. (किसी के या किसी चीज़ के विरोध में बोलना या कार्य करना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Opposed' means to disagree with somebody’s beliefs, actions, or plans and to try to change or stop them. (किसी का विरोध करना)
  • 'Balanced' means keeping or showing a balance; in good proportions. (संतुलित, स्थिर)
  • 'Reduced' means to bring someone or something to a worse or less desirable state or condition. (व्यक्ति या वस्‍तु को बदतर स्थिति में ला देना या धकेल देना)
  • 'Bypassed' means to avoid or circumvent an obstacle or problem. (किसी बाधा या समस्या से बचना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'countered' are "opposed, fought, resisted".
  • The antonyms of the word 'countered' are "nourished, nurtured, promoted".
  • Example of 'countered' in a sentence:
  • They countered our proposal with one of their own.

Question 18

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The police fired indiscriminately at the crowd, killing many innocent women and children.

  1. AOption (a)

    continuously

  2. BOption (b)

    without distinguishing

  3. COption (c)

    foolishly

  4. DOption (d)

    rapidly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

without distinguishing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'without distinguishing'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Indiscriminately: not showing careful choice or planning, especially so that harm results.
  • Example: The indiscriminate use of fertilizers can cause long-term problems.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Distinguishing: A distinguishing mark or feature is one that makes someone or something different from similar people or things.
  • Example: The main distinguishing feature of the new car is its fast acceleration.
  • Thus 'without distinguishing' means without making any particular choice.
  • Therefore, the word nearest in the meaning of the underlined word 'indiscriminate' is 'without distinguishing'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

​

Additional Information 

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options:
  • Continuously: without interruption or gaps.
  • Foolishly: in an unwise manner; stupidly.
  • Rapidly: very quickly; at a great rate.

Hinglish

  • Indiscrimately: सावधानी से चुनाव या योजना नहीं दिखाना, खासकर ताकि नुकसान हो।
  • उदाहरण: The indiscriminate use of fertilizers can cause long-term problems.
  • Distinguishing: एक विशिष्ट चिह्न या विशेषता वह है जो किसी को या किसी चीज को समान लोगों या चीजों से अलग बनाती है।
  • उदाहरण:  The main distinguishing feature of the new car is its fast acceleration.
  • इस प्रकार 'without distinguishing' का अर्थ है बिना किसी विशेष विकल्प या चीजों में कोई अंतर किए बिना।
  • Continuously: बिना रुकावट या अंतराल के।
  • Foolishly: नासमझ तरीके से; बेवकूफी।
  • Rapidly: बहुत जल्दी; एक महान दर पर।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'indiscriminately' के अर्थ में निकटतम शब्द 'without distinguishing' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।

Question 19

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response accordingly.

Businessmen who lack acumen cannot be expected to be very successful.

  1. AOption (a)

    fairness

  2. BOption (b)

    sharpness

  3. COption (c)

    boldness

  4. DOption (d)

    righteousness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

sharpness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'sharpness'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Acumen: the ability to make good judgment and take quick decisions.
  • Example: She has a considerable business/financial acumen.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Sharpness: the quality or state of being sharp; intensity.
  • Example: She has a remarkable sharpness of mind.
  • Therefore, the word nearest in the meaning of the underlined word 'acumen' is 'sharpness'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options: 
  • Fairness: impartial and just treatment or behavior without favoritism or discrimination; the quality of having light-colored hair or a pale complexion.
  • Boldness: willingness to take risks and act innovatively; confidence or courage; the quality of having a strong, vivid, or clear appearance.
  • Righteousness: the quality of being morally right or justifiable.

Hinglish

  • Acumen: अच्छा निर्णय लेने और त्वरित निर्णय लेने की क्षमता।
  • उदाहरण: She has considerable business/financial acumen.
  • Sharpness: तीक्ष्ण होने की अवस्था या भाव; तीव्रता।
  • उदाहरण: She has a remarkable sharpness of mind.
  • Fairness: पक्षपात या भेदभाव के बिना निष्पक्ष और न्यायपूर्ण व्यवहार या व्यवहार; हल्के रंग के बाल या पीला रंग होने का गुण।
  • Boldness: जोखिम लेने और नवीन कार्य करने की इच्छा; आत्मविश्वास या साहस; एक मजबूत, विशद या स्पष्ट उपस्थिति होने का गुण।
  • Righteousness: नैतिक रूप से सही या न्यायसंगत होने का गुण।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'Acumen' के अर्थ में निकटतम शब्द 'sharpness' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।

Question 20

In this section, each item consists of a sentence with a word underlined and followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

His candid opinions have won him many friends.

  1. AOption (a)

    kind

  2. BOption (b)

    courteous

  3. COption (c)

    generous

  4. DOption (d)

    frank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

frank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points:- 

  • Candid: truthful and straightforward; frank. (सच्चा और सीधा; खुलकर)
  • Kind: good-natured; kind-hearted; loving. (अच्छे स्वभाव वाले; दयालु; प्यारा)
  • Courteous: polite, respectful, or considerate in manner. (विनम्र, सम्मानजनक, या तरीके से विचारशील)
  • Generous: showing a readiness to give more of something, especially money, than is strictly necessary or expected. (कुछ और देने की तत्परता दिखाना, विशेष रूप से धन, जो कड़ाई से आवश्यक या अपेक्षित है)
  • Frank: open, honest, and direct in speech or writing, especially when dealing with unpalatable matters; sincere, or undisguised. (भाषण या लेखन में खुला, ईमानदार और प्रत्यक्ष, विशेष रूप से अप्रिय मामलों से निपटने के दौरान; ईमानदार, या निर्विवाद)

Frank is synonymous with candid. Other options do not fit in the context.

Question 21

In the given sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

I disliked him not so much for his meanness but for his dishonesty.

  1. AOption (a)

    as for

  2. BOption (b)

    but because

  3. COption (c)

    but due to 

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

as for

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'as for'

Key Points

  • The phrase '...not so much...' indicates that a comparison is going to be made in the sentence which would hint at a contrasting fact wherein the author dislikes something more than what he/she has mentioned just after the phrase 'not so much'
  • Such a comparison, when described by the phrase 'not so much', is combined with the phrase 'as...' in the latter part of the sentence, to be completed
  • This is because 'as' is a preposition used for comparisons.
  • On the other hand, the preposition 'but' is used to indicate two contrasting situations or facts
  • ​Hence we find that "as for" is the most appropriate option here.

 

Thus the correct sentence will be: I disliked him not so much for his meanness as for his dishonesty.

Question 22

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

He preferred death rather than imprisonment.

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    to 

  3. COption (c)

    than 

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "to"

Key Points

  • We don't use 'than' after 'prefer':
  • Prefer is followed by the preposition 'to'.
  • It is used when we compare two things or actions.
  • Here, death is compared with imprisonment.
  • Rather than must be replaced with to.
  • Look at the following example:
  • I prefer movies to books.
  • Other prepositions do not stand any meaning in the context.

Thus the correct sentence will be: He preferred death to imprisonment.

Question 23

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

They kept the idea secretly.

  1. AOption (a)

    secretive

  2. BOption (b)

    secret

  3. COption (c)

    secretively

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

secretively

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Secretly must be replaced with secretively.

Secretly means to hide, keep covertly. Secretively means it is kept in a secretive manner.

  • Secret means something that is kept or meant to be kept unknown or unseen by others.
  • Secretive: (of a person or an organization) inclined to conceal feelings and intentions or not to disclose information.
  • Secretively: Having a tendency to keep one's thoughts or activities unknown to others.

Thus options 1 & 2 are incorrect in their usage here.

Thus the correct sentence will be: They kept the idea secretively.

Question 24

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

He ought not to tell me your secret, but he did.

  1. AOption (a)

    telling

  2. BOption (b)

    have told

  3. COption (c)

    having told

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

have told

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2. i.e. have told.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, we need to use a perfect infinitive because the action of the verb "tell" has already been performed as this we can catch from the subordinate clause "he did". It means that he has done something in the past which is why he is not telling the secret.
  • Thus 'tell' will be replaced by 'have told'.
  • Option 2 is correct here.

Thus the correct sentence is: He ought not to have told me your secret, but he did.

Additional Information

  • The format of present perfect tense is
  • Subject + has/have + verb (V3) + object.

Question 25

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

If I don't know the meaning of a word, I look after it in the dictionary.

  1. AOption (a)

    look it out

  2. BOption (b)

    look it for

  3. COption (c)

    look it up

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

look it up

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Look after it means to take care of something. It must be replaced with look it up.
  • Look it up: to find a particular piece of information by looking in a book or on a list.

The other phrases mean:

  • Look out: warning for someone to be careful
  • Look for: search for something that you want or need

Thus the correct sentence will be: If I don't know the meaning of a word, I look it up in the dictionary.

Question 26

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every evening.

  1. AOption (a)

    at home

  2. BOption (b)

    inside home

  3. COption (c)

    within their home

  4. DOption (d)

    No Improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No Improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "No Improvement".

Key Points

  • The underlined segment of the given sentence is grammatically and semantically correct.
  • The usage of the preposition "in" for indicating the position or place in the given sentence is correct.
  • The usage of the possessive pronoun "their" before the noun "home" is correct.
  • We use a possessive pronoun to show ownership of something.

The correct sentence is: Mr. and Mrs. Rao stay in their home every evening.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 27

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

When we saw him last, he ran to catch a bus.

  1. AOption (a)

    has run

  2. BOption (b)

    had run

  3. COption (c)

    was running

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

was running

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "was running".

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the past tense.
  • Option 1 is not correct for improving the underlined segment as it is in the present perfect tense.
  • As the first clause of the sentence is in the simple past tense, the second clause should also be in the past tense.
  • Option 2 is incorrect as it will make the given sentence into past perfect tense which would mean the action has ended in the past.
  • This is not true as the speaker states that when they saw him, the person ran to catch the bus. The action is still in progress in the past tense.
  • Thus "ran" must be replaced with "was running" which is the past continuous tense.

The correct sentence will be: When we saw him last, he was running to catch a bus.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 28

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage.

  1. AOption (a)

    made a sorry

  2. BOption (b)

    cut a sorry face

  3. COption (c)

    cut a sorry figure

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cut a sorry figure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "cut a sorry figure".

Key Points

  • The idiomatic phrase "cut a sad figure" in the given sentence is erroneous.
  • The phrase "cut a sad figure" in the sentence must be replaced with the idiom "cut a sorry figure".​
  • The meaning of the idiom "cut a sorry figure" is to appear in a way or make an impression that causes oneself to be regarded unfavorably by others.
  • ​Example: Ronit cut a sorry figure in front of the school after he fell down while trying to juggle the football.
  • ​In the given sentence, the speaker is saying that the girl made a bad impression in her first performance on stage.

The correct sentence is: She cut a sorry figure in her first performance on the stage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 29

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles.

  1. AOption (a)

    a spectacle

  2. BOption (b)

    two spectacles

  3. COption (c)

    a pair of spectacles

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a pair of spectacles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "a pair of spectacles".

Key Points

  • As per the rules of grammar, when we are talking about an item that exists by nature in two's like shoes, trousers, or gloves; we use the word "pair" to refer to a single item.
  • Spectacles is a plural verb that implies that there is one lens for each eye but together they form a single item so we refer to them as "a pair".
  • As the subject is 'pair' which is singular, we use the word 'a pair'.
  • In the given sentence, we need to replace the phrase spectacles with "a pair of spectacles".

The correct sentence will be: Last evening I went to the optician and bought a pair of spectacles.

 Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 30

In this section, look at underlined part of each sentence. There are three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be signified by the letter (D).

I would like to avail a fifteen days' holiday this summer.

  1. AOption (a)

    to avail of 

  2. BOption (b)

    to avail myself of 

  3. COption (c)

    to avail myself

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to avail myself of 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "to avail myself of ".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the underlined segment should be replaced by "to avail myself of".
  • We need to use the object pronoun "myself" after the infinitive "to avail" in the given sentence.
  • We always "myself" which is a reflexive pronoun as an object of the sentence where we are the object of our own action.
  • We also myself when you are the subject of the sentence i.e. when the subject pronoun "I" is used in the sentence.
  • In the given sentence, the subject pronoun "I" is followed by the infinitive form of the verb "to avail"  which is followed by the object pronoun "myself".
  • Myself is the reflexive pronoun of the object pronoun "me"
  • In the given sentence, we need to use the preposition "of" after the object "myself" of the sentence to show the connection with the noun "holiday".

The correct sentence will be: I would like to avail myself of a fifteen days' holiday this summer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 31

Read each part of the sentence labelled (a), (b) and (c) to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

I can fly (a) / if I will be (b) / a bird. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2. i.e. b.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the 2nd part of the sentence.
  • Will expresses future tense. It must be replaced with 'were'.
  • 'Were' expresses improbability or unreal situation in the present.
  • It expresses an event in the present but is certain that it does not occur. This is called the past subjunctive mood.

Thus the correct sentence will be: I can fly if I were a bird.

Additional Information

  • Past subjunctive is a term in traditional grammar in which 'were' is used in a clause to express an unreal or hypothetical condition in the present, past, or future.
  • ​Example: If I were you, I would have taken it.

Question 32

Read each part of the sentence labelled (a), (b) and (c) to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) As soon as 

b) the train arrived

c) the passengers entered the compartments 

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. i.e. d.

Key Points

  • The sentence does not have any error.
  • Here, 'as soon as' is followed by the noun 'the train'.
  • Here, the sentence has two clauses. Subordinate clause and main clause.
  • Here, the subordinate clause is in part (b) and main clause in part (c).
  • Both the verbs are in V3 format, thus the sentence is in past tense.
  • It is grammatically correct.
  • Thus option 4 is correct here.

The correct sentence will be: As soon as the the train arrived, the passengers entered the compartments.

Question 33

Read each part of the sentence labelled (a), (b) and (c) to find out whether there is any error. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

 Never (a) / I have (b) / seen such a town (c) /  No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2. i.e. b.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the 2nd part. The word order of the sentence is incorrect.
  • When a sentence begins with an adverb such as never, the verb (Helping Verb) order is inverted.
  • Order: Adverb + Helping Verb + Subject + Main Verb + Other words.

Thus the correct sentence will be: Never have I seen such a town.

Additional Information

  • The verb which is used along with the main verb or the principal verb that denotes the action done by the subject is called a helping verb.
  • Here, 'have' is the helping verb.

Question 34

Read each part of the sentence labelled (a), (b) and (c) to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) He goes to his office

b) by bicycle

c) every day

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. i.e. d.

Key Points 

  • The sentence does not have any errors.
  • Note: We use by+ noun when we talk about means of transport. We do not use the or a before the nouns.
  • Option 4 is correct. The sentence is grammatically correct and error free.

Thus the correct sentence will be: He goes to his office by bicycle every day.

Question 35

Read each part of the sentence labelled (a), (b) and (c) to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) Far from being appreciated,

b) his conduct was discussed

c) and sharply commented 

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. i.e. c

Key Points

  • The error is in the last part of the sentence.
  • When we talk about considerations, preposition 'upon' is used.
  • Thus, we must use 'upon' after 'commented'.
  • Option 3 is correct here.

The correct sentence will be: Far from being appreciated, his conduct was discussed and commented upon.

Additional Information

  • A preposition is a word placed before a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation a person or thing stands in regard to something else.
  • ​Example: for, of, with etc.

In this section, you have a short passage. Read the passages and answer the items that follow. 

We had just passed Tenali, where I roused myself in order to hear the name of the station. As I was falling asleep again, a violent jolt shot me into the arms of somebody in the seat opposite. The engine with one wheel broken was lying across the track and beside it was the luggage van, likewise, derailed. Groaning in its death agony, the engine was like a fallen horse which seems incapable of making the smallest effort to struggle on to its legs again.

Question 36

The author had roused himself as he wanted to 

  1. AOption (a)

    get off

  2. BOption (b)

    meet someone

  3. COption (c)

    know the name of the station

  4. DOption (d)

    keep himself awake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

know the name of the station

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. ie; to know the name of the station.

Key Points

  • It can be referred to in the lines: I roused myself in order to hear the name of the station...
  • Thus clearly, option 3 is correct. Other options are incorrect.

The correct answer is: Know the name of the station.

Additional Information

  • Let's understand the meaning of the word 'roused'
  • ​It means to awaken from sleep.
  • ​Example: I was roused in the middle of the night by hearing a huge noise.

Question 37

The engine stopped because

  1. AOption (a)

    the driver had stopped it

  2. BOption (b)

    one of the wheels was broken

  3. COption (c)

    there was halting place 

  4. DOption (d)

    there was no fuel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

one of the wheels was broken

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2. ie, one of the wheels was broken.

Key Points

  • It can be referred in the lines: The engine with one wheel broken was lying across the track .
  • Thus it means that a wheel was broken.
  • Option 2 is correct here and all other options are incorrect in the context.

The correct answer is: one of the wheels was broken.

Question 38

The engine is compared to a fallen horse because

  1. AOption (a)

    it was groaning like a fallen horse

  2. BOption (b)

    it was lying across the track

  3. COption (c)

    it could make no effort to stand upright

  4. DOption (d)

    it had a broken wheel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

it could make no effort to stand upright

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. ie; it could make no effort to stand upright.

Key Points

  • It can be referred from the line: 'Groaning in its death agony, the engine was like a fallen horse which seems incapable of making the smallest effort to struggle on to its legs again.'
  • Here, option 3 is correct and all other options are incorrect.

The correct answer is: it could make no effort to stand upright.

Additional Information

  • Here, the engine is personified to a horse.
  • Personification means representation of human characteristics to non-human things.

In this section, you have a short passage. Read the passages and answer the questions that follow. 

I was beginning to tire a little now. I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours, and Tenzing, too, was moving very slowly. As I chipped steps around still another corner, I wondered rather dully just how long we could keep it up. Our original zest had now quite gone and it was turning more into a grim struggle. I then realized that the ridge ahead, instead of still monotonously rising, now dropped sharply away, and far below I could see the North Col and Rongbuk glacier. I looked upwards to see a narrow ridge running up to a snowy summit. A few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow and we stood on top.

Question 39

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the area in which the narrator had been moving ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    A steep rocky slope

  2. BOption (b)

    A peak with a flight of steps

  3. COption (c)

    A high peak covered with snow

  4. DOption (d)

    A long ridge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A high peak covered with snow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 ie; A high peak covered with snow

Key Points

  • The narrator was moving in an area that has a high peak covered with snow.
  • It can be referred to the lines in the passage: I looked upwards to see a narrow ridge running up to a snowy summit. A few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow and we stood on top.
  • Thus clearly, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: A high peak covered with snow.

Additional Information

  • A mountain peak covered with snow is also known as a snow-capped mountain.

Question 40

 'I had been cutting steps continuously for two hours' suggests that

  1. AOption (a)

    the climber was unskilled in the art of making steps 

  2. BOption (b)

     he had to cut the steps out of snow before climbing up which was necessarily a slow process

  3. COption (c)

    the slowness was caused by the fact that as soon as he cut the steps they were again covered with snow 

  4. DOption (d)

    he had to work suspended from a ledge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the slowness was caused by the fact that as soon as he cut the steps they were again covered with snow 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, ie; The slowness was caused by the fact that as soon as he cut the steps they were again covered with snow.

Key Points

  • The line suggests that the narrator was tired of cutting steps for two hours.
  • It can be further referred to in the lines: I looked upwards to see a narrow ridge running up to a snowy summit. A few more whacks of the ice-axe in the firm snow and we stood on top.
  • Thus option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: The slowness was caused by the fact that as soon as he cut the steps they were again covered with snow.

Additional Information

  • Cutting steps is made while a person is mountaineering in snow and ice.

Question 41

It was turning more into a grim struggle' would mean 

  1. AOption (a)

    that after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature

  2. BOption (b)

    that Tenzing was making the task more difficult

  3. COption (c)

    that strong cold wind was pushing him down from above and that he had to struggle with the forces of nature

  4. DOption (d)

    that he was in a mood to give up ultimately' 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

that after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "that after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature."

Key Points

  • The narrator was in an area which was a high peak covered with snow. As much as he tried to cut the steps, it was again covered in snow.
  • This meant that he had to do it all over again, which was tiring for the narrator.
  • Thus option 1 is correct. Other options are incorrect.

The correct answer is: That after the long exertion he was feeling so weak that any further climbing meant a hard struggle with the forces of nature.

Additional Information

  • Let's understand the meaning of the word 'grim struggle'
  • ​It means harsh or formidable in manner or appearance.
  • ​Example: Crossing the river was a grim struggle.

Question 42

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a) , (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) Farm workers

Q) Spend

R) outdoors

S) most of their time

The proper sequence should by

a) P Q R S

b) P R Q S

c) P Q S R

d) R P Q S

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • P introduces the subject of 'Farm workers'. Thus it can be framed at the beginning of the sentence, following the subject-verb-object order.
  • As mentioned above, the S-V-O order, Q fits correctly, as it expresses the verb 'spend'.
  • S follows Q. The adverbial phrase 'most of their time' refers to the verb 'spend.'

Adverbs that modify the verb, must be placed in the close proximity.

  • R tells the location, where time was spent.

Thus the correct sentence will be: Farmers spend most of their time outdoors.

Question 43

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a) , (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) He 

Q) shuffled the papers

R) in a drawer

S) together

The proper sequence should by

a) P Q R S

b) P R Q S

c) P Q S R

d) R P Q S

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • A sentence cannot start with a preposition. A preposition is always followed by a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation the person or thing denoted by it stands in regard to something else. Eg: The mobile is on the table.

Thus R is ruled out.

  • A sentence cannot start with a verb. A verb is a word used to tell or assert something about some person or thing. It comes in the middle of the sentence followed by a subject. Eg: John plays music.

Thus Q is ruled out.

  • P is the 2nd person pronoun 'he' which is the subject of the sentence.
  • Following the subject-verb-object order, Q follows. It tells about the activity done by the subject i.e., shuffling of the papers.
  • R follows Q. It talks shuffling of papers 'together'.
  • S is thus followed in the end, describing where it was done - in a drawer.

Thus the correct sentence is: He shuffled the papers together in a drawer.

Question 44

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a) , (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) Do you think

Q) will

R) this soap

S) shrink woollen clothes?

The proper sequence should by

a) P Q R S

b) P R Q S

c) P Q S R

d) R P Q S

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • An interrogative statement is formed using 'wh' words or even an auxiliary like 'do' or 'does' or 'did' is used. Thus P is the first part of the sentence. Eg: Do you know him?
  • The object of the verb 'think' 'this soap' follows. Thus R is next after P.
  • QS as a pair follows. This is an interrogative statement. Hence the phrase 'will shrink woollen clothes?' ends the statement.

Thus the correct statement will be: Do you think this soap will shrink woollen clothes?

Question 45

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) We advised

Q) the hijackers to surrender

R) to the police

S) themselves

The proper sequence should by

a) P Q R S

b) P R Q S

c) P Q S R

d) R P Q S

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • The subject of the sentence is very well introduced in P. Thus it is used at the beginning of the sentence.
  • QS follows as a pair. The indirect object 'the hijackers' is clearly the second part of the sentence with the reflexive pronoun 'themselves', referring back to the hijackers.

A reflexive pronoun is used as the object of a verb and refers to the same person or thing as that denoted by the Subject of the verb.

  • R connects with QS to ends the statement It suggests to surrender 'to the police'.

Thus the correct statement will be: We advised the hijackers to surrender themselves to the police.

Question 46

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a) , (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) Sports cars

Q) appeal

R) to some motorists only

S) with noisy exhausts

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P R Q S

  3. COption (c)

    P S Q R

  4. DOption (d)

    R P Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • A sentence cannot start with a verb in its base form. Thus Q is ruled out at the beginning of the sentence.
  • A sentence cannot start with a preposition. A preposition is always followed by a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation the person or thing denoted by it stands in regard to something else. Eg: The mobile is on the table.

Thus R & S are ruled out.

  • P forms the subject of the sentence 'sports car'. It forms the first part of the sentence.
  • S follows next.  A relation is established with a preposition 'with' and complements the sports car about its noisy exhausts.
  • Following the subject-verb-object order, Q follows which is the verb 'appeal'.
  • The object of the verb 'to the motorist' ends the sentence. Thus R completes the sentence.

Thus the correct sentence will be: Sports car with noisy exhausts appeal to some motorists only.

Question 47

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) He 

Q) almost 

R) planned the entire strategy of operation

S) single-handedly

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P R Q S

  3. COption (c)

    P Q S R

  4. DOption (d)

    R P Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P R Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PRQS"

Key Points

  • While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.
  • Hence, we will create a logical connection between them.
  • Let's look at how we can join the sentence using the logic of grammar and understanding:
  • P introduces the subject, which is the 2nd person pronoun 'He'.
  • Following the subject-verb-object order, R follows which is the verb "planned" the strategy
  • QS follows as a pair. it talks about the strategy that was planned single-handedly.

Thus the correct sentence: He planned the entire strategy of operation almost single-handedly.

Question 48

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a) , (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) She has

Q) more

R) intelligence

S) than we suspected her to possess

  1. AOption (a)

     P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P R Q S

  3. COption (c)

     P Q S R

  4. DOption (d)

    R P Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 P Q R S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • 'Than' indicates that something is compared between one or more things of the same value or proportion. Thus a sentence cannot begin with S.
  • The subject 'she' is introduced in P. Thus P forms the beginning of the sentence.
  • QR forms as a pair - more intelligence. It relates to the subject that she has more intelligence.

Some adjectives take more and most as comparative and superlative forms respectively.

  • A comparison is formed in S with QR. 'than we suspected her to possess'

Thus the correct sentence will be: She has more intelligence than we suspected her to possess.

Question 49

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a) , (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) They 

Q) should implant 

R) in the minds of young children 

S) sound principles

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P R Q S

  3. COption (c)

    P Q S R

  4. DOption (d)

    R P Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P Q S R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • The subject of the sentence is introduced in P, with 3rd person plural 'they'.
  • Following the subject-verb-object order, Q follows. The verb, should implant follows.
  • The object of the verb is mentioned in S I.e., sound principles.
  • Thus, the last part clearly is R. It is in the indirect object that refers to 'in the minds of the young children.

Thus the correct sentence will be: They should implant sound principles in the minds of the young children.

Question 50

The items in this section consist of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S, Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P) When I was a student

Q) I learnt swimming at the age of 15

R) of class X

S) in a government school

The proper sequence should be

a) P Q R S

b) P R Q S

c) Q P R S

d) Q S P R

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

While reordering the words of a sentence, it is important to establish a connection between them.

  • A sentence cannot start with a preposition. A preposition is always followed by a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation the person or thing denoted by it stands in regard to something else. Eg: The mobile is on the table.

Thus R and S are ruled out.

  • The sentence P starts with a  time period and fits the beginning of the sentence. when I was a student

It defines an action that happened in the past.

  • The next statement R follows referring that the subject is a class X student.
  • QS follows as a pair. It says that the student learnt swimming in a government school.

Thus the correct sentence will be: When I was a student of class X, I learnt swimming at the age of 15 in a government school.

Question 51

Which one of the devices changes low voltage alternating current to high voltage alternating current and vice versa?

  1. AOption (a)

    Generator

  2. BOption (b)

    Motor

  3. COption (c)

    Transformer

  4. DOption (d)

    Vibrator

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Transformer

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • A transformer is an electrical device which transfers electrical energy from one circuit to another
  • It works based on the principle of electromagnetic induction
  • It is used for increasing or decreasing the amount of voltage or current as per our requirement based on these transformers are classified into two types step-up (increasing) or step-down (decreasing) transformer.

 

Explanation:

In our case from the below diagram, we can see the structure of a simple transformer

A transformer is a device which is used to increase or decrease voltage or current based on our requirement

Hence a device which is used to increase the output voltage is known as a step-up transformer in this type, the number of coiling in the secondary circuit is greater than no of coiling in the primary circuit (i.e., N­2 > N1) similarly for the step-down transformer (N­2 < N1).

Low voltage can be increased using a step-up transformer and high voltage can be reduced as per our needs using a device known as a transformer.

Question 52

An optical illusion which occurs mainly in desert during hot summer is based on the principle of

  1. AOption (a)

    Reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    Interference 

  3. COption (c)

    Dispersion

  4. DOption (d)

    Total internal reflection

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Total internal reflection

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Total Internal Reflection (TIR): When a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium it bends away from the normal and as the angle of incidence in denser medium increases, the angle of refraction in rarer medium also increases and at a certain angle, angle of refraction becomes 90°, this angle of incidence is called critical angle (C).
  • When Angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle than light ray comes back in to the same medium after reflection from interface. This phenomenon is called Total internal reflection (TIR).

Conditions for TIR: 

  1. The ray must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
  2. The angle of incidence i must be greater than critical angle C.

EXPLANATION:

  • On hot summer days, the air near the ground becomes hotter than the air at higher levels.
  • The refractive index of air increases with its density. Hotter air is less dense, and has smaller refractive index than the cooler air.
  • If the air currents are small, that is, the air is still, the optical density at different layers of air increases with height.
  • As a result, light from a tall object such as a tree, passes through a medium whose refractive index decreases towards the ground.
  • Thus, a ray of light from such an object successively bends away from the normal and undergoes total internal reflection, if the angle of incidence for the air near the ground exceeds the critical angle.
  • To a distant observer, the light appears to be coming from somewhere below the ground. The observer naturally assumes that light is being reflected from the ground, say, by a pool of water near the tall object.
  • Such inverted images of distant tall objects cause an optical illusion to the observer. This phenomenon is called mirage.
  • This type of mirage is especially common in hot deserts.

Question 53

At which place Earth’s magnetic field becomes horizontal

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnetic meridian

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnetic equator 

  3. COption (c)

    Geographical pole

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropic of cancer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Magnetic equator 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Elements of Earth's Magnetic Field:

  • The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field of the earth at a place are completely given by certain quantities known as magnetic elements.

Magnetic Declination (θ):

  • It is the angle between geographic and magnetic meridian planes.
  • Declination at a place is expressed at θ° E or θ° W depending upon whether the north pole of the compass needle lies to the east or the west of the geographical axis.

The angle of inclination or Dip (Φ):

  • It is the angle between the direction of the intensity of the total magnetic field of earth and a horizontal line in the magnetic meridian.

EXPLANATION:

  • The magnetic inclination or Angle of dip is one of the techniques used to measure the polarity of the earth’s magnetic field.
  • The angle made by the earth’s total magnetic field, B with the horizontal direction in the magnetic meridian is called as the magnetic inclination at that place
  • It is the angle by which the total intensity of the earth’s magnetic field dips or comes out of the horizontal plane. It is different at different places and measured using a “Dip Circle”.
  • At the magnetic equator, the dip needle rests horizontally at an angle of zero degrees while, at the magnetic poles, the magnetic needle rests vertically, at an angle of 90 degrees.
  • At all the other places, the angle of dip is between 0° and 90°.

Question 54

The Speed of a car travelling on a straight road is listed below at successive intervals of 1 s:

Time (s)
Time (s)Speed (m / s)
00
12
24
36
48

Which of the following is/are correct?

The car travels:

  1. With a uniform acceleration of 2 m / s2
  2. 16 m in 4 s
  3. With an average speed of 4 m / s

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 & 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 & 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 & 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 & 3

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Uniform acceleration: A body is said to have uniform acceleration if the magnitude and direction of the acceleration remain constant during particle motion.
  • Average speed: The average speed of a particle for a given ‘Interval of time’ is defined as the ratio of total distance travelled to the time taken i.e

Average;speed=Total;distance;travelled;Time;taken;{\rm{Average;speed}} = \frac{{{\rm{Total;distance;travelled;}}}}{{{\rm{Time;taken}}}}{\rm{;}}

CALCULATION:

Given - v = 8 m/s at t = 4 s

From the given table we can find uniform acceleration, 

As we know that acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity i.e.,

a=ΔvΔta=\frac{{\Delta v}}{{\Delta t}}

⇒a= 8 4=2 m/s2\Rightarrow a=\frac{{\ 8}}{{\ 4}}=2\ {m/s^2}

Thus car travels with a uniform acceleration of 2 m / s2.

Now displacement after 4 sec can be expressed as

s=ut+12at2=0+12×2×42=16;ms = ut + \frac{1}{2}a{t^2} = 0 + \frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times {4^2} = 16;m

Thus displacement after 4 sec is 16 m.

For calculating average velocity

average;velocity=total;displacementtotal;time=16−04−0=4;m;/;saverage;velocity = \frac{{total;displacement}}{{total;time}} = \frac{{16 - 0}}{{4 - 0}} = 4;m;/;s

Hence option 1, 2 and 3 are all correct

Question 55

The speed of a body that has Mach number more than 1 is

  1. AOption (a)

    Supersonic

  2. BOption (b)

    Subsonic

  3. COption (c)

    300 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    About 10 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Supersonic

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Shock waves: When an object moves with a velocity greater than that of sound, it is termed as Supersonic.
  • When such a supersonic body or plane travels in air, it produces energetic disturbance that moves in the backward direction and diverges in the form of a cone.
  • Such disturbance is called the shock waves.
  • The speed of supersonic is measured in Mach number.
  • One mach number is the speed of sound and it defined as the ratio of the velocity of the source to the velocity of sound i.e.,

Mach;Number=Velocity;of;sourceVelocity;of;soundMach;Number = \frac{{Velocity;of;source}}{{Velocity;of;sound}}

EXPLANATION:

So these are the ratios of different speed of the body, for

  • Hypersonic > 5.0 mach
  • Supersonic > 1 mach
  • Subsonic < 1 mach

In our case, only option 1 is true since only for an object traveling at supersonic will have mach greater than 1

Question 56

Molecules of which of the following have cage-like structure?

  1. Diamond
  2. Graphite
  3. Fullerenes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e 3 (Fullerenes) only.

  • All three are allotropes of Carbon.
  • But Diamond and Graphite have layered structures.
  • Buckminsterfullerene has hexagonal and pentagonal rings.
  • These rings attach to itself and form a cage-like structure or soccer like structure.
  • Hence, such a type of structure is found only in Fullerene.

Question 57

Temporary hardness in water is due to which one of the following of Calcium and Magnesium?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrogen carbonates

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbonates

  3. COption (c)

    Chlorides

  4. DOption (d)

    Sulphates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hydrogen carbonates

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen Carbonates.

Key Points

  • Temporary hardness is due to the presence of Calcium hydrogen carbonate Ca(HCO3)2(aq) and Magnesium hydrogen carbonate Mg(HCO3)2(aq).
  • The hydrogen carbonates of both Calcium and Magnesium decompose upon heating.
  • The original insoluble carbonate is reformed when water is boiled.
  • The following is the precipitation reaction -
  • Ca(HCO3)2(aq) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) + CaCO3
  • Mg(HCO3)2(aq)

→CO2(g) + H2O(l) + MgCO3

  • Boiling of water results in the removal of Magnesium and Calcium ions from water, and thus its hardness.
  • This is the reason why it is called temporary hardness.

Question 58

Stung by hairs of nettle leaves causes burning pain. This is due to the injection of

  1. AOption (a)

    Acetic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Methanoic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Sulphuric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrochloric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Methanoic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Methanoic acid.

Key Points

  • Methanoic acid, also called Formic acid is present in the Nettle leaves.
  • The accidental touch to Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation due to this Methanoic acid.
  • The traditional remedy for the same is Dock leaves, which grows just behind the Nettle leaves.
  • Dock leaves themselves contain Oxalic acid.
  • Citric acid is present as oranges, lemon, etc.
  • Hydrochloric and Sulphuric acid are used as strong inorganic acid.

Question 59

Which one of the following elements is least reactive with water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lithium

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium

  4. DOption (d)

    Cesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lithium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Lithium**.**

Key Points

  • All the elements given in the option are alkali metals.
  • Among these lithium is less reactive with the water.
  • It belongs to the first group and second period in the periodic table and has a higher tendency to lose electrons.
  • Hence it acts as a strong reducing agent and reacts slowly with the water.

Question 60

Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

  1. AOption (a)

    Electron

  2. BOption (b)

    Proton

  3. COption (c)

    Nucleus

  4. DOption (d)

    Helium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nucleus

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • In the Rutherford's Alpha Scattering Experiment, a beam of α-particles was made to fall on a thin gold foil. These particles then deflected in different directions and were detected by an α-particle detector.
  • The following observations were made:
  1. Most α-particles passed through the gold foil without suffering any deflection.
  2. In passing through the foil, particles suffered different amounts of deflection.
  3. While most of the particles suffered fewer deflections, a small number of particles suffered defections of nearly 180 °, practically retracing their paths, because the positive charge is concentrated at the center.
  4. From this experiment he had concluded that almost all mass is concentrated at the center of an atom which was later termed as Nucleus.

EXPLANATION:

  • Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of Nucleus.

Question 61

Glass is a

  1. AOption (a)

    Liquid

  2. BOption (b)

    colloid

  3. COption (c)

    non-crystalline amorphous solid

  4. DOption (d)

    crystalline solid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

non-crystalline amorphous solid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e non-crystalline amorphous solid.

Key Points

  • Glass, an inorganic solid material that is usually transparent or translucent amorphous as well as hard, brittle, and impervious to the natural elements.
  • Example of Colloid - milk, butter, gelatin, jelly, muddy water, plaster, whipped cream.\
  • Examples of crystalline solids include salt (sodium chloride), diamond, and sodium nitrate

Question 62

Cell wall of any fungus is different from plants in having

  1. AOption (a)

    cellulose

  2. BOption (b)

    chitin

  3. COption (c)

    cholesterol

  4. DOption (d)

    glycogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

chitin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Chitin.

  • The main difference between fungi and the plant cell wall is instead of cellulose which is present in plant cell walls, fungi have chitin as a major component of their cell wall.
  • Both chitin and cellulose are composed of polysaccharide chains.
  • Further, while fungi don’t have chlorophyll, it is present in plants.
  • This is because instead of performing photosynthesis, fungi extracts nutrients from the soil.

Question 63

Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease of humans and other animals. It is caused by

  1. AOption (a)

    Histomonas

  2. BOption (b)

    Trypanosoma

  3. COption (c)

    Angomonae

  4. DOption (d)

    Naegleria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Trypanosoma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Trypanosoma.

  • Human African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is a vector-borne parasitic disease.
  • It is caused by infection with protozoan parasites belonging to the genus Trypanosoma.
  • They are transmitted to humans by the tsetse fly (Glossina genus) bites that have acquired their infection from human beings or from animals harboring human pathogenic parasites.
  • Histomoniasis is caused by the protozoan Histomonas meleagridis which acts with existing intestinal bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, to cause the condition.
  • Naegleria fowleri causes the disease primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), a brain infection that leads to the destruction of brain tissue.

Question 64

Which one of the following agencies enforces the laws on food security in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    FDA

  2. BOption (b)

    WHO

  3. COption (c)

    FSSAI

  4. DOption (d)

    FAO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

FSSAI

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e FSSAI.

  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an apex food regulator in India.
  • It functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
  • The FSSAI is responsible for implementing and enforces food regulations as prescribed in the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act)
  • How to solve such questions?
  • While India is guided by international laws, it is absurd to think that Indian law would be enforced by a foreign agency.
  • Foreign agency here refers to the Food and Agricultural Organization and World Health Organization.
  • So, we are left with FSSAI and FDA. Food and Drug Administration is a generic term more related to US FDA. Hence, by calculated guess, you could have chosen option 3 just by knowing other agencies.

Question 65

Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes and reduces the number of a particular type of blood cells. Those blood cells are

  1. AOption (a)

    Monocytes

  2. BOption (b)

    Platelets

  3. COption (c)

    Eosinophils

  4. DOption (d)

    Neutrophils

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Platelets

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Platelets.

  • Dengue is an infectious disease that is caused by dengue viruses, which are transmitted to humans by mosquitoes.
  • Young children and Babies show mild symptoms such as rash and fever.
  • Older adults show symptoms like a high fever which may last as long as seven days, join pain, rashes, pain behind eyes, vomiting.
  • Other symptoms include a decreased number of white blood cells along with a low level of platelets in the blood.

Question 66

Kidney secretes an enzyme, which changes plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin. The enzyme is

  1. AOption (a)

    Renin

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitrogenase

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrolase

  4. DOption (d)

    Mono-oxygenase

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Renin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Renin.

  • Renin is an enzyme that is secreted into the blood from specialized cells encircling the arterioles at the entrance to the glomeruli of the kidneys.
  • Renin catalyzes the conversion of a plasma protein called angiotensinogen into a decapeptide (consisting of 10 amino acids) called angiotensin I.
  • Nitrogenase is an enzyme that helps in catalyzing nitrogen fixation. Nitrogen fixation is the reduction of Nitrogen to Ammonia.

Question 67

Red blood cells (RBCs) have

  1. AOption (a)

    no nucleus, no mitochondria, and no endoplasmic reticulum

  2. BOption (b)

    nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum

  3. COption (c)

    nucleus, mitochondria but no endoplasmic reticulum

  4. DOption (d)

    no mitochondria but endoplasmic reticulum is present

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

no nucleus, no mitochondria, and no endoplasmic reticulum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e no nucleus, no mitochondria, and no endoplasmic reticulum.

  • Lack of Nucleus in Red Blood Cells help in containing more hemoglobin and hence carrying more oxygen molecules.
  • RBCs also lack DNA and organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum or mitochondria.
  • Red blood cells cannot replicate or divide like the other bodily cells, and hence cannot independently synthesize proteins.
  • Each human red blood cell contains approximately 270 million hemoglobin biomolecules, each carrying four heme groups to which oxygen binds.

Question 68

According to the Census 2011, the density of the population in which one among the following States is the lowest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikkim

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagaland

  3. COption (c)

    Manipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Mizoram.

According to the Census 2011, the population density of the states given in option is -

  • Mizoram - 52 per sq km
  • Sikkim - 86 per sq km
  • Nagaland - 119 per sq km
  • Manipur - 122 per sq km
  • Among the states, Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density with 17 per sq km.
  • The highest population density is in NCT of Delhi with 11297 people per sq km.

Question 69

Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in

  1. AOption (a)

    Washington

  2. BOption (b)

    Geneva

  3. COption (c)

    Moscow

  4. DOption (d)

    London

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Geneva

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Geneva.

  • The headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in Geneva.

Key Points

  • The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is an intergovernmental organization with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, and is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
  • The Headquarters of both the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund is in Washington, United States.
  • The headquarters of the UN Information Centre is located in Moscow, Russia.
  • The headquarters of the International Maritime Organization is located in London, United Kingdom.

Additional Information

  • Geneva is also the headquarters for the International Labor Organisation and World Health Organisation (WHO).
  • Washington is the headquarters of NASA.
  • London is the headquarters of the International Maritime Organization.

Question 70

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Industry)List II (Place)
A. Petrochemical1. Coimbatore
B. Aircraft2. Pinjore
C. Machine tools3. Bengaluru
D. Cotton textiles4. Bongaigaon

 

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

  3. COption (c)

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  4. DOption (d)

    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

  • Bongaigaon in Assam has Indian Oil refinery and petrochemical complex.
  • Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is situated in Bengaluru.
  • Pinjore in Haryana is known for Hindustan Machine Tools Limited.
  • Textiles industries cluster is situated in Coimbatore.

Question 71

Consider the following statements pertaining to Coffee plantation in India:-

  1. Need a warm and moist climate with a spell of dry weather during the ripening period
  2. Rolling fields having good drainage
  3. Strong sunshine over hilly slopes exceeding temperature 35°C
  4. Karnataka is the leading producer in India

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e 1, 2 and 4.

  • While sunshine is required, it should not exceed more than 25 degrees. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Other conditions include -
  • Moist climate with rainfall of about 160 to 250 cm.
  • Hot and humid temperature.
  • Rolling fields with good drainage.
  • Well-drained loamy soil.
  • Karnataka is the leading producer of coffee in India.

Question 72

Dr. Urjit Patel, who has been appointed recently as Governor of Reserve Bank of India, was holding which position immediately prior to this appointment?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chief Economist, IMF

  2. BOption (b)

    Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

  3. COption (c)

    Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Professor of Economics at Harvard University

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India.

  • Dr. Urjit R. Patel assumed charge as the twenty-fourth Governor of the Reserve Bank of India effective September 4, 2016 after serving as Deputy Governor since January 2013.
  • He was re-appointed as Deputy Governor on January 11, 2016 after completion of his first three-year term of office.
  • Dr. Patel has also served at the International Monetary Fund (IMF). He was on deputation from the IMF to the Reserve Bank during 1996-1997,
  • Dr. Patel has a Ph.D in economics from Yale University, an M. Phil from University of Oxford and a B. Sc. from the University of London.

Question 73

Who among the following personalities is NOT a Governor of any Indian State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Najma Heptulla

  2. BOption (b)

    Ram Nath Kovind

  3. COption (c)

    Acharya Dev Vrat

  4. DOption (d)

    Arvind Subramaniam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Arvind Subramaniam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Arvind Subramaniam.

  • Arvind Subramaniam an Indian economist and the current Chief Economic Advisor to the government of India, succeeding R. Rajan on October 16, 2014.
  • Acharya Dev Vrat was the governor of Gujarat.
  • Ram Nath Kovind was the governor of Bihar.
  • Najma Heptulla was the governor of Manipur.

Important Points

  • The current governor of Manipur is Lakshman Acharya.
  • The current governor of Gujarat is Acharya Dev Vrat.
  • The current governor of Bihar is Rajendra Arlekar.

Question 74

Which of the following cricket teams was defeated by India to lift the Women’s Twenty 20 Asia Cup 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bangladesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Srilanka

  3. COption (c)

    Pakistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Afghanistan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pakistan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Pakistan.

  • Indian women’s team beat Pakistan consecutively for the second time to lift the Women’s Twenty 20 Asia Cup 2016.
  • It was their sixth title in as many editions with a 17-run win over Pakistan in Bangkok.
  • It was Mithali Raj who set up the win, scoring an unbeaten 73 after India opted to bat and taking them to 121 for 5.

Question 75

Which one of the following was the venue of the 2nd BRICS Youth Summit of the Ministers, Officials and Youth Delegations?

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai

  3. COption (c)

    Shillong

  4. DOption (d)

    Guwahati

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Guwahati

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Guwahati.

  • The venue of the 2nd BRICS Youth Summit of the Ministers, Officials and Youth Delegations was Guwahati, Assam.
  • The theme of the summit was “Youth as bridge for intra-BRICS exchanges“.
  • The focus was also on Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

Question 76

Which one among the following States of India has recently proposed to frame the first Internal Security Act to deal with the challenges of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and caste violence?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Gujarat

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Chhattisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Maharashtra.

  • The Maharasthra Government proposed to enact a stringent law in the form of Maharashtra Protection of Internal Security Act — to deal with the challenges of terrorism, insurgency, communalism and caste violence.
  • The draft defines critical infrastructure sectors and proposes setting up of special security zones where movement of arms, explosives and inflow of unaccounted funds will be prohibited.
  • It will be the responsibility of the committee to frame guidelines to deal with challenges to internal security, to examine and discuss emerging intelligence inputs pertaining to challenges to the maintenance of internal security, to ensure that necessary resources are marshalled without any loss of time and made available to authorities concerned.

Question 77

The World Humanitarian Day is being observed every year on which date?

  1. AOption (a)

    24 October

  2. BOption (b)

    19 August

  3. COption (c)

    10 December

  4. DOption (d)

    8 March

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19 August

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e 19th August.

  • World Humanitarian Day is celebrated as an annual reminder to the need of alleviating the suffering of humankind.
  • The day was designated by the United Nations to coincide with the anniversary of the 2003 bombing of the United Nations headquarters in Baghdad (Iraq).
  • 24 October has been celebrated as United Nations Day since 1948.
  • Human Rights Day is celebrated every year on 10th December.
  • International Women's Day is annually held on March 8 to celebrate women's achievements throughout history and across nations.

Question 78

Surge pricing takes place when a service provider

  1. AOption (a)

    raise the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply

  2. BOption (b)

    follows present prices immune to demand and supply dynamics

  3. COption (c)

    fixes a minimum price for its services

  4. DOption (d)

    fixes an average price on the basis of transactions carried over a day

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

raise the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is raise the price of its product or service as demand outstrips supply

  • Surge pricing is also referred to as Dynamic Pricing.
  • It is the pricing strategy that involves businesses setting flexible prices for services or products based on the demand of the same in the market.
  • This is a common practice for services like travel, and retail, hospitality.
  • Price Capping is the fixing of a minimum price for its services.

Question 79

By fulfilling which of the following conditions can a political party claim the status of national party?

  1. It secures at least six percent (6%) of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly
  2. It wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States or wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having 543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States
  3. The party in question has got recognition as a state party in at least two states
  4. It must have its headquarters in New Delhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

Political Parties:

A party is recognised as a National Party a fulfil the following conditions:

  • If it secures 6 % of the valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • If it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha for many states.
  • If it wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election.
  • Being recognised as a national party means a party is entitled to a reserved symbol for its candidates contesting from across the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The headquarters is not required to be in New Delhi and it can be anywhere across the country. Hence, the statement is 4 incorrect
  • The party in question must have got recognition as a state party in at least four states. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 80

In its emphasis on enhancing human capabilities, which one among the following does NOT figure in the Twelfth Five-Year Plan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Life and longevity

  2. BOption (b)

    Education

  3. COption (c)

    Delivery of Public Service

  4. DOption (d)

    Skill development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Life and longevity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Life and Longevity.

  • The Twelfth Plan places emphasis on developing human capabilities for enhancing productive capacity.
  • These include Mean years of schooling to increase to 7 years, and of gender gap in school enrollment under Education.
  • In public service delivery, subsidies and welfare related payment to be routed through Aadhar based Direct Cash Transfer Scheme.
  • The 12th Five Year Plan also placed special emphasis on pri ori tis ing skill training for the informal sector.

Question 81

Which one of the following is NOT a target of the 12th Five-Year Plan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Real GDP Growth Rate of 8 per cent

  2. BOption (b)

    Agriculture Growth Rate of 5 per cent

  3. COption (c)

    Manufacturing Growth Rate of 10 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase in green cover by 1 million hectare every year during the Plan period

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Agriculture Growth Rate of 5 per cent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • 12th Five Year Plan 2012-17 as per the draft document released by the Planning Commission aims at a growth rate of 8%.
  • The other monitorable targets are divided into 7 headings.
  • Some of the most important ones include
  • ECONOMIC GROWTH
  • Real GDP growth at 8%.
  • Agriculture growth at 4%. Hence 2nd Option is incorrect.
  • Manufacturing growth at 10%.
  • Every state must attain a higher growth rate than the rate achieved during the 11th plan.
  • POVERTY AND EMPLOYMENT
  • Poverty rate to be reduced by 10% than the rate at the end of 11th plan.
  • 5 Crore new work opportunities and skill certifications in non-farm sector.
  • EDUCATION
  • Mean years of schooling to increase to 7 years.
  • 20 lakh seats for each age bracket in higher education.
  • End gender gap and social gap in school enrollment.
  • HEALTH
  • Reduce : IMR to 25; MMR to 1. Increase Child Sex Ratio to 950.
  • Reduce Total Fertility Rate to 2.1
  • Reduce under nutrition of children in age group 0-3 to half of NFHS-3 levels.
  • INFRASTRUCTURE
  • Investment in Infrastructure at 9% of GDP
  • Electricity to all villages; Reduce AT&C losses by 20%.
  • Connect Villages with All Weather Roads
  • Complete Eastern and Western Dedicated Freight Corridors.
  • Rural Tele-Density to 70%.
  • ENVIRONMENT AND SUSTAINABILITY
  • Increase green cover by 1 million hectare every year.
  • 30,000 MW renewable energy during Five Year Period.
  • Emission intensity of GDP to be reduced to 20-25% of 2005 levels by 2020.
  • SERVICE DELIVERY
  • Banking Services to 90% of Indian Households.
  • Subsidies and Welfare related payment to be routed through Aadhar based Direct Cash Transfer Scheme.

Question 82

A homogeneous mixture contains two liquids. How are they separated?

  1. AOption (a)

    By filtration

  2. BOption (b)

    By evaporation

  3. COption (c)

    By distillation

  4. DOption (d)

    By condensation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

By distillation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3, i.e By Distillation.

  • A Homogeneous Mixture is separated by distillation.
  • This method is based on the various boiling points of the mixture.
  • The components of the mixture are vapourized, condensed, and then isolated.
  • A homogeneous mixture is a type of mixture in which its components are present in the same proportion.
  • An alloy is considered a homogeneous mixture.
  • Gunpowder is a homogeneous mixture of sulfur, charcoal and potassium nitrate.
  • Examples of homogeneous mixture are rainwater, vinegar, air, saline solution, etc.

Question 83

Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    In the conduction mode of transference of heat, the molecules of solid pass heat from one molecule to another without moving from their positions

  2. BOption (b)

    The amount of the heat required to raise the temperature of a substance is called its heat capacity

  3. COption (c)

    The process of heat transfer in liquid and gases is through convection mode

  4. DOption (d)

    The process of heat transfer from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature without heating the space between them is known as radiation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The process of heat transfer from a body at higher temperature to a body at lower temperature without heating the space between them is known as radiation

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

There are three ways of energy transfer

1.Convection:

Convection is a method of heat transfer in fluids (gases and liquids) and heat transfer takes place due to the movement of particles.

E.x: Heat is then transferred from the metal to the water by convection.

2.Conduction:

Conduction is a method of heat transfer in solids and heat transfer takes place without the movement of particles.

E.x: Heat received by the heating surface travels through the metal by conduction

3.Radiation:

Radiation is a method of heat transfer where heat is transferred from one place to another without affecting the medium of heat transfer.

E.x: The glass surface is been heated by filament because of radiation.

 4. Heat capacity

Heat capacity is defined as the heat energy supplied to a substance to change its temperature while specific heat capacity is the amount of heat per unit mass of the substance that is required to raise the temperature by 1° C.

Thus energy transfer not always depends on the difference in temperature.

Explanation:

  • According to the first law of thermodynamics “heat always flows from higher temperature to lower temperature until they attain thermal equilibrium“ but this law holds for convection and conduction only in radiation the energy can transfer without any temperature difference and it is transferred in a form of E.M wave.
  • For example heat from the sun can’t reach earth directly through convection or conduction since there is no medium present, it’s been transferred through radiation since E.M wave doesn’t require a medium for propagation and neither it depends on the temperature difference between two objects
  • Hence all a, b and c are correct and only option d is incorrect

Question 84

The amount of heat required to change a liquid to gaseous state without any change in temperature is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Specific heat capacity

  2. BOption (b)

    Mechanical equivalent of heat

  3. COption (c)

    Latent heat of vaporization

  4. DOption (d)

    Quenching

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Latent heat of vaporization

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Latent Heat can be defined as the heat energy that is taken in or given out by a substance when it changes state at a constant temperature.
  • The specific heat capacity of the material is the amount of heat energy per unit mass of the substance that is required to raise the temperature by 1° C.
  • Quenching is a heat treatment process where the material is cooled at a rapid rate from elevated temperature to produce highly durable metal.
  • Mechanical equivalent of heat (J) defined as the amount of work needed to produce 1 Cal of heat.

Or

Mechanical equivalent of heat states that 4.1868 J of mechanical energy or work is required to raise the temperature of 1g of water for 1°C change in temperature.

Explanation:

  • When a substance changes from solid to liquid, the latent heat involved is called the latent heat of fusion. When the substance changes from a liquid to a vapor, the heat involved is known as the latent heat of vaporization.
  • In simple terms latent heat is the heat energy required for phase change per unit mass.

Question 85

The following figure shows displacement versus time curve for a particle executing simple harmonic motion:

Which of the following statement Is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 1 s and t = 3 s

  2. BOption (b)

    Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 2 s and t = 8 s

  3. COption (c)

    Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 3 s and t = 7 s

  4. DOption (d)

    Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 4 s and t = 10 s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Phase of the oscillating particle is same at t = 3 s and t = 7 s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Simple harmonic motion:

  • Simple harmonic motion is a special type of periodic motion, in which a particle moves to and fro repeatedly about a mean position.
  • In linear S.H.M. a restoring force which is always directed towards the mean position and whose magnitude at any instant is directly proportional to the displacement of the particle from the mean position at that instant i.e. Restoring force ∝  Displacement of the particle from mean position.

F x F = -kx

Where k is known as force constant. Its S.I. unit is Newton/meter

  • The general expression for the wave is given by:

y = A Sin (ωt + θ)

Where A = amplitude of wave, ω = angular frequency, t is time and θ = phase angle.

EXPLANATION:

From the given graph of displacement versus time curve under a simple harmonic motion, we can say that

  • Displacement curve at 1 sec and 3 sec are at the opposite peak as displacement at 1 sec is at a positive maximum and at 3 sec on a negative maximum hence they are in a different phase.
  • The displacement curve at 2 sec is moving from positive to negative maximum and at 8 sec it’s moving from negative to positive hence phase of the oscillator is not the same.
  • Displacement curve at 3 sec and 7 sec are both at negative maximum hence both waves will be in the same phase and option c is correct
  • The displacement curve at 10 sec is moving from positive to negative maximum and at 4 sec it’s moving from negative to positive hence phase of the oscillator is not the same.

Question 86

Match list one with list two and select the correct answers using the code given below the lists:

List one (Disease)List two (Remedy)
AHypermetropia1concave lens
BPresbyopia2bifocal lens
CMyopia3Surgery
DCataract4Convex lens
  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

  4. DOption (d)

    A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Human eye: The organ due to which we can see the world is called a human eye.
  • It consists of a convex lens/converging lens and the image by the human eye lens forms at the retina.

EXPLANATION:

From the below table we can say that only option 1 is correct

Defects of VisionDetailsCorrections
Myopia or Near-sightednessThe eye can see nearby objects clearly but the distant objects appear indistinct.Concave Lens
Hypermetropia or FarsightednessThe human eye can see Distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.Convex Lens
PresbyopiaPeople suffer from near-sightedness as well as farsightedness.bifocal lenses
CataractPeople suffer from the cloudiness of lens which causes a decrease in vision.Surgery

Question 87

A circular coil of single turn has a resistance of 20 Ω. Which one of the following is the correct value for resistance between the ends of any diameter of the coil?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 Ω 

  2. BOption (b)

    10 Ω

  3. COption (c)

    20 Ω 

  4. DOption (d)

    40 Ω 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5 Ω 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Resistance: The obstruction offered to the flow of current is known as the resistance. It is denoted by R.
  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them then it is called resistances in series.
  • The equivalent resistance in series combination is will be

 

Rser = R1 + R2 + R3

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal then it is called resistances in parallel.

 

  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

 

1R=1R1+1R2\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

EXPLANATION:

Given - Resistance of wire = 20 Ω

  • Now if we measure the resistance across the diameter, it will be like two semicircular loops connected in parallel as shown and the resistance of each semicircular loop is half of that of total resistance

∴ R1 = R2 = 10 Ω and for our simplicity we can imagine it as two resistance connected in parallel.

Hence the correct value of resistance will be

 ⇒1R=R2R1R1+R2=102=5;Ω\Rightarrow \frac{1}{R}= \frac{{{R_2}{R_1}}}{{{R_1} + {R_2}}} = \frac{{10}}{2} = 5;{\rm{\Omega }}

Question 88

In a solenoid, the current flowing through the wire is I and number of turns per unit length is n. This gives a magnetic field B inside the solenoid. If number of turn per unit length is increased to 2n, what will be the value of magnetic field in the solenoid?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    2B

  3. COption (c)

    B / 2

  4. DOption (d)

    B / 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2B

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • A solenoid is an instrument consists of copper coiling over a cylinder designed to create a strong magnetic field inside the coil because of the flow of current through the coil.
  • By wrapping the same wire many times around a cylinder, the magnetic field due to the flow of current can become quite strong.
  • Hence we can say that the strength of the magnetic field will change as a current through coil or number of turn’s changes.
  • Magnetic field strength is independent of the diameter of the cylinder of a solenoid.
  • Strength of the magnetic field in a solenoid will be directly proportional to the number of turns and amount of current flowing through a wire and will be inversely proportional to its length.
  • Thus it is given by B=μ0NIlB = \frac{{{\mu _0}NI}}{l}

CALCULATION:

Given that,

No of turns of the coil is increased twice

N1 = N and N2 = 2N

B1 = B,

Current is constant in both cases

The magnetic field in 1st coil is

B1=μ0N1Il=μ0NIl{B_1} = \frac{{{\mu _0}{N_1}I}}{l} = \frac{{{\mu _0}NI}}{l}         ---------(1)

The magnetic field in 2nd coil is

B2=μ0N2Il=μ02NIl{B_2} = \frac{{{\mu _0}{N_2}I}}{l} = \frac{{{\mu _0}2NI}}{l}         ---------(2)

∴ The ratio of the magnetic field B1B2=μ0NIlμ02NIl⇒12\frac{{B1}}{{B2}} = \frac{{\frac{{{\mu _0}{N}I}}{l}}}{{\frac{{{\mu _0}{2N}I}}{l}}}\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2}

Hence, B2 = 2B

Question 89

Which one of the following statement is correct about the magnification of an optical microscope?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnification increases with the increase in focal length of objective

  3. COption (c)

    Magnification does not depend upon the focal length of eyepiece

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

A microscope is an instrument having a double convex lens with a short focal length which produces an enlarged image of a small object.

The magnification (M) of a microscope is given by:

M=Lfo(Dfe)M = \frac{L}{{{f_o}}}\left( {\frac{D}{{{f_e}}}} \right)

Where,

L =  length of the microscope,

D = the least distance of clear vision,

f0 = focal length of objective

fe = focal length of eyepiece

Explanation:

The microscope has two convex lenses- one of them is called an objective lens and the other one is known as the eyepiece.

And magnification for the microscope is given as M=Lfo(Dfe)M = \frac{L}{{{f_o}}}\left( {\frac{D}{{{f_e}}}} \right)

From this, we can say that relationship between the magnification and focal length of an eyepiece

∴ M∝1feM \propto \frac{1}{{{f_e}}}

Hence Magnification decreases with the increase in focal length of eyepiece

Question 90

Which one of the following elements forms the highest number of compounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Chlorine

  4. DOption (d)

    Carbon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Carbon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Carbon.

  • Carbon can form a large number of chemical compounds, at least 10 million in number.
  • It also has the highest sublimation point among all the elements.
  • It is the 15th most abundant element on Earth’s Crust.
  • Graphite, Diamond, Fullerenes are some of the allotropes of Carbon.

Question 91

Which one of the following elements corrodes rapidly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aluminium

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Zinc

  4. DOption (d)

    Silver

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iron

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iron.

Key Points

  • Corrosion is the slow oxidation of metals by either oxygen or water.
  • In the case of iron it is given by the equation:
  • 4Fe + 3O2 + 2H2O→ 2Fe2O3.2H2O
  • The substance so formed is called hydrated ferric oxide.
  • It forms an immediate layer on the surface of iron which degrades the properties of iron immediately.
  • Hence, iron corrodes rapidly.

Question 92

20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of water. What is the mass percentage of the salt in the solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    5%

  2. BOption (b)

    9%

  3. COption (c)

    10%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10%

Why this answer is correct

Given,

Mass of solute (salt) = 20 g

Mass of solvent (water) = 180 g

We know,

Mass of solution = Mass of solute + Mass of solvent

= 20 g + 180 g

= 200 g

mass percentage of salt = massofsolutemassofsolution\frac{mass of solute}{mass of solution} x 100

mass percentage of salt =  20;g200;g\frac{20; g}{200;g} x 100

mass percentage of salt = 10 %

Question 93

The valency of an element depends upon the

  1. AOption (a)

    total number of protons in atom

  2. BOption (b)

    mass number of an atom

  3. COption (c)

    total number of neutrons in an atom

  4. DOption (d)

    total number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

total number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

  • Valency is the total number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom.
  • Atomic number is the total number of protons in an atom.
  • Mass number of atoms is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

Question 94

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Noble gas)List II (Use)
A. Argon1. In lights for advertising display
B. Neon2. Airport landing lights and in light houses
C. Krypton3. Light in photographer’s flash gun
D. Xenon4. In tungsten filament to last

 

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

  • Argon is used in tungsten filament to last.
  • Neon is used in lights for advertising display.
  • Krypton is used in Airport landing lights and in light houses.
  • Xenon is used as light in Photographer’s flash gun.

Question 95

Colour vision in human eyes is the function of photoreceptor cells named

  1. AOption (a)

    Rods

  2. BOption (b)

    Cones

  3. COption (c)

    Blind spot

  4. DOption (d)

    Fovea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cones

Why this answer is correct

Concept:-

  • The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs.
  • It uses light and enables us to see the colorful world around us.
  • The human eye is more or less like a photographic camera.
  • The eye's lens system forms an image of an object on a light-sensitive screen.
  • The eyeball is almost spherical, having a diameter of about 23 mm.

​Two photoreceptor cells, viz., the rods and cones are present in the retina. 

  • Rods -
  • They are adapted for visibility in low illumination and in the dark due to the presence of a pigment called rhodopsin.
  • They help in twilight or scotopic vision.
  • Cones - 
  • ​These contain the pigment iodopsin that aids visibility in high illumination.
  • They contain 3 specific photopigments for red, blue, and green lights.
  • They help in color vision as well as daylight or photopic vision.
<br>

Key Points

  • Rod cells work the best in dim light.
  • The blind spot is a small portion of the visual field of each eye that corresponds to the position of the optic disk (also known as the optic nerve head) within the retina.
  • The fovea is a tiny pit located in the macula of the retina that provides the clearest vision.

Question 96

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    All proteins are enzymes

  2. BOption (b)

    Mostly enzymes are proteins

  3. COption (c)

    All fats are energy rich compounds

  4. DOption (d)

    Glucose is a common carbohydrate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All proteins are enzymes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

  • Most of the proteins are enzymes, except some may exist in the form of catalytic RNA Molecules.
  • But most enzymes are proteins.
  • Proteins can also be membrane receptors, hormones.
  • Enzymes are biological catalysts.
  • Fats store a large amount of energy per unit.
  • Glucose is one of the most common carbohydrates, a monosaccharide, a reducing sugar, and an aldohexose in size.

Question 97

Sugarcane is one of the important cash crops in India. It is grown to obtain

  1. AOption (a)

    Starch

  2. BOption (b)

    Glucose

  3. COption (c)

    Fructose

  4. DOption (d)

    Sucrose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sucrose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, Sucrose.

  • Sugar cane is one of the most important cash crops grown in India.
  • Recently, the production of Sugarcane has been increasing in Southern India which was centered to states like Uttar Pradesh in the North.
  • One of the major reasons for this is the high sucrose content from the sugar cane obtained in Southern parts of India.
  • Ethanol is also produced by the sugarcane industry

Question 98

The colourful part of the Sunflower or Marigold plant is

  1. AOption (a)

    Flower

  2. BOption (b)

    Inflorescence

  3. COption (c)

    Fruit

  4. DOption (d)

    Seed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Inflorescence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Inflorescence.

  • A capitulum or head, the characteristic inflorescence of the sunflower family (Asteraceae).
  • Inflorescence may consist of disk flowers, ray flowers, or both depending on the tribe.
  • Each flower has the ovary located below the stamens and corolla.
  • This condition is referred to as inferior.
  • This is the largest family of flowering plants, having over 24,000 species.

Question 99

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Mineral)List II (Leading State)
A. Manganese1. Uttarakhand
B. Gypsum2. Karnataka
C. Limestone3. Rajasthan
D. Magnesite4. Odisha

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

  • Uttarakhand has the second largest deposit of magnesite (19%) after Tamil Nadu (74.1%).
  • About 90% of the Gypsum is located in Rajasthan.
  • Karnataka has the largest reserves of limestones in India.
  • Odisha has the largest reserves of Manganese.

Question 100

Which one among the following is the correct order of tiger reserves situated from North to South in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Corbett – Simlipal – Sariska - Periyar

  2. BOption (b)

    Periyar - Sariska - Simlipal - Corbett

  3. COption (c)

    Corbett – Sariska - Simlipal - Periyar

  4. DOption (d)

    Periyar - Simlipal – Sariska - Corbett

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Corbett – Sariska - Simlipal - Periyar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Corbett-Sariska-Simlipal-Periyar.

  • Corbett National Park is in Uttarakhand.
  • Sariska National Park is in Rajasthan.
  • Simlipal National Park is in Odisha.
  • Periyar National Park is in Kerala.

Question 101

Which of the following are correct with regard to Indian Monsoonal Rainfall?

  1. Largely governed by the topographical features
  2. Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of rainfall
  3. Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff
  4. Beginning and end of rain is regular and on time

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • The rainfall pattern in India is really uneven. So, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • This is because a large number of factors like El-Nino, Western Disturbances, etc can have an effect on the rain patterns.
  • Mountain topography affects the rainfall pattern in India.
  • Each region receives different amounts of rainfall due to varying factors.
  • Runoff results in a large amount of soil erosion, which has been called out by the Global Land Outlook report of the UNCCD.

Question 102

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Type of climate)List II (State)
A. Monsoon with Short Dry Season (Amw)1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
B. Cold Humid Winter with Short Summer (Dfc)2. Tamil Nadu Coast
C. Monsoon with Dry Winter (Cwg)3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Monsoon with Dry Summer (As)4. Kerala and Karnataka Coast
  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

  3. COption (c)

    A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

  4. DOption (d)

    A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

The following table correctly matches the type of climate and the states these climates are found in:

List-I (Type of climate)List-II (State)
A. Monsoon with Short Dry Season (Amw)1. Kerala and Karnataka Coast
B. Cold Humid Winter with Short Summer (Dfc)2. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Monsoon with Dry Winter (Cwg)3. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
D. Monsoon with Dry Summer (As)4. Tamil Nadu

Question 103

Which one of the following Himalayan rivers does NOT originate from across the Himalayas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indus

  2. BOption (b)

    Satluj

  3. COption (c)

    Ganga

  4. DOption (d)

    Brahmaputra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brahmaputra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4, i.e Brahmaputra.

  • The Brahmaputra rises from the Chemayungdung glacier near Mansarovar in Tibet.
  • Though it is 2900 km long, its small length comprises 800 km in India and rest goes to China and Bangladesh.
  • The Indus also known as the Sindhu, is the westernmost of the Himalayan rivers in India. It originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash Mountain range.
  • The Satluj originates in the Rakas lake near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab.
  • Ganga rises in the Gangotri Glacier and cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges.

Question 104

The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhubaneswar

  2. BOption (b)

    Kolkata

  3. COption (c)

    Hajipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Guwahati

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kolkata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Kolkata.

  • Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone is located in Kolkata.
  • The divisions under Eastern Railway Zone are Asansol, Howrah, Malda, Sealdah.
  • The headquarters of East Coast Railway is in Bhubaneswar.
  • The headquarters of East Central Railway is in Hajipur.
  • The headquarters of Northeast Frontier Railway, Guwahati.
  • Each year, UPSC asks a question from this source. Please refer the same -
  • https://indianrailways.gov.in/railwayboard/view_section.jsp?lang=0&id=0,1,304,366,533,1007,1012

Question 105

Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in external trade for the year 2015-2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States of America

  2. BOption (b)

    United Kingdom

  3. COption (c)

    United Arab Emirates

  4. DOption (d)

    China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e United States of America.

  • According to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the United States with $40.4 billion (15.3%) tops as India’s external trade partner following the UAE and Hong Kong.
  • NOTE - Current Trends (2019)
  • According to the data of the commerce ministry, in 2018-19, the bilateral trade between the US and India stood at USD 87.95 billion.
  • During the period, India's two-way commerce with China aggregated at USD 87.07 billion.

Question 106

Which one of the following statements regarding king Krishnadevaraya is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    He was a great scholar of Telugu and Sanskrit

  2. BOption (b)

    Foreign travellers Paes and Nuniz visited his court

  3. COption (c)

    Barbosa praised him for the great justice and equity prevailing in his empire

  4. DOption (d)

    He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He wrote his magnum opus Amuktamalyada in Sanskrit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

  • Krishnadeva Raya (ruled 1509-29), the most famous ruler of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft known as the Amuktamalyada.
  • Amuktamalyada was composed by Krishnadevaraya but it was in Telugu. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
  • Domingo Paes and Fernão Nuniz from Portugal, who came in the sixteenth century, visited his court.
  • Barbosa described the houses of ordinary people, which have not survived as: “The other houses of the people are thatched, but nonetheless well built and arranged according to occupations, in long streets with many open places.”
  • Barbosa also praised the justice system and equality in the Vijayanagara Empire.

Question 107

The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 20 cm. The refractive index of the glass is 1.5. What is the power of this lens (in units of diopter)?

  1. AOption (a)

    +7.5 D

  2. BOption (b)

    -7.5 D

  3. COption (c)

    +2.5 D

  4. DOption (d)

    +5.0 D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

+7.5 D

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Dioptre is the S.I. Unit of Power of a lens.
  • A dioptre is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length measured in meters.
  • The power of a lens is the ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays depending on its focal length.
  • The power of the lens is the ability of the lens to converge the rays of light falling on it. Definition: The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters.
  • P = 1 / f

CALCULATION:

Given that,

Radius of curvature of first surface R­1 = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Radius of curvature of first surface R­1 = - 20 cm = - 0.2 m

Refractive index of the glass = 1.5

The focal length of the double concave lens can be given using

1f=(μ−1)(1R1−1R2)\frac{1}{f} = \left( {\mu - 1} \right)\left( {\frac{1}{{{R_1}}} - \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}} \right)

∴1f=(1.5−1)(10.1+10.2)=152=;+7.5;m−1=;+7.5;D;\therefore \frac{1}{f} = \left( {1.5 - 1} \right)\left( {\frac{1}{{0.1}} + \frac{1}{{0.2}}} \right) = \frac{{15}}{2} = ; + 7.5;{m^{ - 1}} = ; + 7.5;D;

Question 108

The time period of a simple pendulum made using a thin copper wire of length L is T. Suppose the temperature of the room in which the simple pendulum is placed increases by 30°C, what will be the effect on the time period of the pendulum?

  1. AOption (a)

    T will increases slightly 

  2. BOption (b)

    T will remain the same

  3. COption (c)

    T will decreases slightly

  4. DOption (d)

    T will become more than 2 times

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

T will increases slightly 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Simple Pendulum:

  • An ideal simple pendulum consists of a heavy point mass body (bob) suspended by a weightless, inextensible and perfectly flexible string from a rigid support about which it is free to oscillate.
  • For a simple pendulum the time period of swing of a pendulum depends on the length of the string and acceleration due to gravity.

T=2;ΠlgT = 2;{\rm{\Pi }}\sqrt {\frac{{\rm{l}}}{{\rm{g}}}}

The above formula is only valid for small angular displacements.

Where, T = Time period of oscillation, l = length of the pendulum and g = gravitational acceleration

  • The force which acts to bring a body to its mean position/equilibrium position is called as restoring force.

 

EXPLANATION:

The time period of a simple pendulum can be given as

T=2πLgT = 2\pi \sqrt {\frac{L}{g}}

  • As we know that metals expand on heating. Therefore if the temperature is increased, then the length of the string will also increase and which is given by

Δl=LαΔT{\rm{\Delta }}l = L\alpha {\rm{\Delta }}T

Change in length of string = Δ l

Original length = L

Change in temperature = Δ T

  • And since T ∝ √ L for a simple pendulum and length will increase because of change in temperature hence the time period for oscillation will also increase but it will increase slightly since the change in length Δl will not be much.
  • Hence only a is correct among all.

Question 109

Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure

  1. AOption (a)

    Angular momentum

  2. BOption (b)

    Stress

  3. COption (c)

    Strain

  4. DOption (d)

    Work

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stress

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The pressure is defined as the force applied on a surface per unit area i.e.

Pressure=ForceAreaPressure = \frac{{Force}}{{Area}}

  • The pressure is always normal to the surface area.
  • SI unit of pressure is N/m2 or pascal.

 

EXPLANATION:

  • The internal restoring force acting per unit area of cross-section of the deformed body is called stress i.e.

Stress=Force;(F)Area;(A)Stress = \frac{{Force;\left( F \right)}}{{Area;\left( A \right)}}

  • At equilibrium, restoring force is equal in magnitude to external force, therefore stress can also be defined as external force per unit area on a body that tends to cause it to deform.
  • SI unit of stress is N/m2.
QuantityUnitDimension
WorkJoule or N.m[M1L2T-2]
Angular momentumKg-m2 / s[M1L2T-1]
stressN / m2[M1L-1T-2]
pressureN / m2[M1L-1T-2]

Question 110

Which one of the following statement is correct with regards to the material of electrical insulators?

  1. AOption (a)

    They contain no electron

  2. BOption (b)

    Electrons do not flow easily through them

  3. COption (c)

    They are crystals

  4. DOption (d)

    They have more number of electrons than the protons of their surface

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Electrons do not flow easily through them

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Insulators: The substances through which electric charges cannot flow easily are called insulators.
  • In the atoms of such substances, electrons of the outer shell are tightly bound to the nucleus.
  • Due to the absence of free charge carriers, these substances offer high resistance to the flow of electricity through them.
  • Most of the non-metals like glass, diamond, porcelain, plastic, nylon, wood, mica, etc. are insulators.

EXPLANATION:

  • Insulators possess high resistivity and low conductivity.

  • Their atoms have tightly bound electrons that do not move throughout the material.

  • Because the electrons are static and not freely roaming, a current cannot easily pass.

  • An important difference between conductors and insulators is that when some charge is transferred to a conductor, it readily gets distributed over its entire surface.

  • On the other hand, if some charge is put on an insulator, it stays at the same place.

Question 111

Which one of the following physical quantities does NOT affect the resistance of a cylindrical resistor?

  1. AOption (a)

    The current through it

  2. BOption (b)

    Its length

  3. COption (c)

    The resistivity of the material used in the resistor 

  4. DOption (d)

    The area of cross-section of the cylinder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The current through it

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Resistance (R): The obstruction offered to the flow of current is known as the resistance.
  • SI unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω).
  • Mathematically resistance can be written as
  • R=ρlAR = \frac{{\rho l}}{A}
  • Where R = resistance, l = length, A = area of cross-section and ρ = resistivity which depends on the material type

EXPLANATION:

As given Resistance R=ρlAR = \frac{{\rho l}}{A}

  • From above equation it is clear that R will be effected with a change in length, area of a cross-section of cylinder and resistivity of the material.
  • But the resistance of cylinder will be independent of the current passing through the cylinder.

Question 112

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Amendment to the Constitution of India)List II (Subject)
A. 52nd Amendment Act, 19851. Reduction of voting age from 21 to 18
B. 73rd Amendment Act, 19922. Right to Education
C. 61st Amendment Act, 19883. Panchayati Raj
D. 86th Amendment Act, 20024. Disqualification on grounds of defection
  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

  3. COption (c)

    A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

  4. DOption (d)

    A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

List I (Amendment to the Constitution of India)List II (Subject)
A. 52nd Amendment Act, 19851. Disqualification on grounds of defection
B. 73rd Amendment Act, 19922. Panchayati Raj
C. 61st Amendment Act, 19883. Reduction of voting age from 21 to 18
D. 86th Amendment Act, 20024. Right to Education

Important Points

  • 52nd Amendment Act:
  • The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
  • It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
  • 73rd Amendment Act:
  • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India.
  • This part is entitled ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
  • The Act gives constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions.
  • 61st Amendment Act:
  • It reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
  • This came into force on March 28, 1989.
  • 86th Amendment Act:
  • ​Elementary Education was made a fundamental right – Free and compulsory education to children between 6 and 14 years.
  • A new Fundamental Duty under Article 51 A was added – “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years”.

Question 113

Which one of the following was NOT a cause of the Revolt of 1857?

  1. AOption (a)

    The rumour that the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour being sold in the market

  2. BOption (b)

    The prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey on 23rd June, 1857

  3. COption (c)

    Popular discontent with British rule

  4. DOption (d)

    The Prophecy that the end of British rule would lead to the end of the Kali Yuga and return of Ram Rajya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Prophecy that the end of British rule would lead to the end of the Kali Yuga and return of Ram Rajya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Word had spread that the bullet cartridges that were being issued by the Britishers were greased with cow and pig fat, and the bone dust was being mixed in the flour in the market.
  • This led to widespread outrage among the Hindu and Muslim population.
  • The Maulvis and the Pandits had prophesied that the English rule would come to an end on June 23.
  • There was a very high growing discontent among Indians who thought that this intermingling with the Indian culture was the first step towards christianization.
  • There was no prophecy of Kali Yuga ending and Ram Rajya returning.
  • ​Infact, since the struggle was mostly dependent on Hindu Muslim unity, it would have flared more violence if such a thing was proposed, considering how the same happened during the Swadeshi movement. Hence, option 4 is wrong.

Source - S.L Sharma - Indian Freedom Struggle Centenary, 1857-1957.

Question 114

Which one of the following was not a feature of the Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley?

  1. AOption (a)

    The British were responsible for protecting the ally from any external threats

  2. BOption (b)

    All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British

  3. COption (c)

    The ally was to provide resources for maintaining a British armed contingent stationed in its territory

  4. DOption (d)

    The ally could not enter into any agreement with other rulers without the permission of the British

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • The Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by Lord Wellesley in 1798.
  • All those who entered into such an alliance with the British had to accept certain terms and conditions:
  • The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
  • The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining this contingent.
  • The ally could enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission of the British.

Question 115

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Place)List II (Mineral)
A. Lakwa1. Copper
B. Malanjkhand2. Petroleum
C. Kalakot3. Zinc
D. Zawar4. Coal

 

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

  3. COption (c)

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  4. DOption (d)

    A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Lakwa is located in Assam.
  • Malanjkhand is located near Balaghat, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Kalakot area in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Zawar is in Udaipur, Rajasthan.

 

List I (Place)List II (Mineral)
A. Lakwa1. Petroleum
B. Malanjkhand2. Copper
C. Kalakot3. Coal
D. Zawar4. Zinc

Question 116

Which of the following are the major coral reef areas of India?

  1. Gulf of Kachchh
  2. Gulf of Mannar
  3. Lakshadweep
  4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e 1, 2, 3, 4

  • Coral reefs are one of the most biologically diverse marine ecosystems on the Earth.
  • Corals grow over geological time scales and have been in existence for about 200 million years.
  • Corals reached their current level of diversity 50 million years ago.
  • Coral reefs are present in the areas of Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep Islands and Malvan.

Question 117

Which of the following regions is/are NOT known for the cotton-textile industry?

  1. Mumbai – Pune region
  2. Madurai – Coimbatore region
  3. Dhanbad – Jamshedpur region
  4. Indore – Ujjain region

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e 3 only.

  • Dhanbad-Jamshedpur Region is an industrial region with heavy industries like those for iron, steel, coal extraction, locomotives, heavy engineering, cement, etc being located there.
  • Industries manufacturing nylon and polyester yarns are located in Mumbai-Pune region.
  • Presently, the major centres of the cotton textile industry are Ahmedabad, Bhiwandi, Solapur, Kolhapur, Nagpur, Indore and Ujjain.
  • All these centres are the traditional centres and are located close to the cotton producing regions.
  • Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu (Madurai-Coimbatore region) are the leading cotton producing states.
  • West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and Punjab are the other important cotton textile producers.

Question 118

Which one of the following States does NOT have the Headquarters of any Railway Zone?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jharkhand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

  • As mentioned in one of the questions above, each year UPSC picks up at least one question from this source - https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=168812
  • So, if you are well known for the facts mentioned here, you can easily answer this question.
  • Headquarters of South East Central Railway is located at Bilaspur, Chattisgarh.
  • Headquarters of East Central Railway is located at Hajipur, Bihar.
  • Headquarters of East Coast Railway is located at Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

Question 119

Suppose a rod is given a negative charge by rubbing it with wool. Which one of the following statements is correct in this case?

  1. AOption (a)

    The positive charges are transferred from rod to wool

  2. BOption (b)

    The positive charges are transferred from wool to rod

  3. COption (c)

    The negative charges are transferred from rod to wool

  4. DOption (d)

    The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The negative charges are transferred from wool to rod

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

  • Triboelectricity is the transfer of charge between any two objects by the friction.
  • When two materials are rubbed together, the materials having stronger affinity for electrons pulls them from the other materials.
  • For this to take place, a mere rub or touch between the two materials is sufficient.
  • This thus leaves a lot of negative charge on the material, a material that has gained electrons, and a net positive charge on the material that has lost electrons.
  • This is according to the ranking of the materials in accordance with their ability to pull electrons from the other materials, called the triboelectric series.
  • When the rod gains negative charge after being rubbed by the wool, it leaves a net positive charge on the wool. Hence, option 1 is correct.

Question 120

Radon is

  1. AOption (a)

    an inert gas

  2. BOption (b)

    an artificial fibre

  3. COption (c)

    an explosive

  4. DOption (d)

    a metal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

an inert gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e an inert gas.

  • Group 18 consists of six elements: helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon and radon.
  • All these are gases and chemically unreactive.
  • They form very few compounds.
  • Because of this they are termed noble gases.
  • All the noble gases except radon occur in the atmosphere.
  • Xenon and radon are the rarest elements of the group.
  • Radon is obtained as a decay product of 226Ra.

Question 121

Which one of the following is the correct relation between frequency (f) and angular frequency (ω)

  1. AOption (a)

    f = π ω 

  2. BOption (b)

    ω = 2π f

  3. COption (c)

    f = 2ω / π 

  4. DOption (d)

    f = 2π ω

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ω = 2π f

Why this answer is correct

EXPLANATION:

  • Frequency (f): It is defined as the number of oscillations executed by the body per second.
  • S.I unit of frequency is hertz (Hz).
  • Angular Frequency (ω): Angular frequency of a body executing periodic motion is equal to the product of the frequency of the body with factor 2π.
  • ω = 2πf
  • The S.I unit of angular frequency is rad /sec.

Question 122

A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer both give the same reading for a certain sample. What would be the corresponding reading in a Celsius thermometer?

  1. AOption (a)

    574

  2. BOption (b)

    301

  3. COption (c)

    273

  4. DOption (d)

    232

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

301

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Celsius scale:

  • In this scale, a lower fixed point (ice point) is taken 0° and the upper fixed point (steam point) is taken 100°.
  • The temperature measured on this scale all in degree Celsius (° C).

Fahrenheit scale:

  • This scale of temperature has a lower fixed point at 32° F and an upper fixed point at 212° F.
  • The change in temperature of 1° F corresponds to a change of less than 1° on the Celsius scale.

Kelvin scale:

  • The Kelvin temperature scale is also known as the thermodynamic scale. The triple point of water is also selected to be the zero of the scale of temperature.
  • The temperatures measured on this scale are in Kelvin (K).

All these temperatures are related to each other by the following relationship:

F−329=C5=K−2735\frac{{F - 32}}{9} = \frac{C}{5} = \frac{{K - 273}}{5}

CALCULATION:

Given that at given instance, Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer both give the same reading for a certain sample

To calculate this temperature using the above relation

K−273=59(F−32)K - 273 = \frac{5}{9}\left( {F - 32} \right)

But given that at any point K = F thus substituting K in place of F

∴ 9(K - 273) = 5(K - 32) ⇒ 4K = 2297

K = 574.25 K

Now the temperature in degree Celsius

C = 574 - 273 = 301° C

Question 123

If the potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is doubled while keeping the separation between the filaments and the target as same, what will happen to the cutoff wavelength?

  1. AOption (a)

    Will remains same

  2. BOption (b)

    Will be doubled

  3. COption (c)

    Will be halved

  4. DOption (d)

    Will be four times of the original wavelength

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Will be halved

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The instrument which is used for the production of X-ray beams using fast cathode rays is known as X-ray tube.

 

 

  • For an X-ray tube relation between stopping potential and minimum energy of X-ray beam is can be given as
  • Eminimum=eV0=hcλcut−off{E_{minimum}} = e{V_0} = \frac{{hc}}{{{\lambda _{cut - off}}}}

Where Eminimum = The energy of X-ray beam, V0 = Stopping potential, h = Plank’s constant, c = Speed of light and λcut-off = Cutoff Wavelength

CALCULATION:

Given that

Stopping potential is increases twice hence V2 = 2V0 where V1 = V0,

∴ Cut off potential when stopping potential is Vo

λcut−off=hceV1=hceVo{\lambda _{cut - off}} = \frac{{hc}}{{e{V_1}}} = \frac{{hc}}{{e{V_o}}}

Cut off potential when stopping potential is doubled, then

Hence

λcut−off;′=hceV2=hce(2V0);=λcut−off2\lambda {'_{cut - off;}} = \frac{{hc}}{{e{V_2}}} =\frac{{hc}}{{e\left( {2{V_0}} \right)}}; = \frac{{{\lambda _{cut - off}}}}{2}

From this we can say that the cutoff wavelength becomes half when stopping potential is increased to twice its initial value.

Question 124

Which one of the following statement is true for the relation, F=Gm1m2r2F= \frac{{G{m_1}{m_2}}}{{{r^2}}} ?

(All symbols have their usual meanings)

  1. AOption (a)

    The quantity G depends on the local value of g, acceleration due to gravity

  2. BOption (b)

    The quantity G is greater at the surface of the Earth

  3. COption (c)

    The quantity G is used only when earth is one of the two masses

  4. DOption (d)

    The quantity G is a universal constant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The quantity G is a universal constant

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Newton's law of Gravitation:

  • Newton's law of gravitation states that every body in this universe attracts every other body with a force, which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • The direction of the force is along the line joining the particles.
  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F is

F=GM1M2R2F = G\frac{{{M_1}{M_2}}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = universal gravitational constant, M1 = mass of 1st body, M2 = mass of 2nd body and R = distance between the two body.

EXPLANATION:

  • The value of G does not depend on the nature and size of the bodies.
  • It also does not depend on the nature of the medium between the two bodies. This is why G is called universal gravitational constant.
  • Hence it is a independent quantity and does not depends on the mass of plants or on gravitational acceleration. Therefore option 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
  • The value of Gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N m2 / kg

Question 125

Why is it difficult to measure the coefficient of expansion of a liquid than solid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Liquid tend to evaporate at all temperature

  2. BOption (b)

    Liquid conduct more heat

  3. COption (c)

    Liquid expand too much when heated

  4. DOption (d)

    Their containers also expand when heated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Their containers also expand when heated

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Coefficient of expansion can be defined as the ratio of the increase of length, area, or volume of a body per degree rise in temperature to its length, area, or volume, respectively, at some specified temperature, commonly 0°C at standard pressure
  • It can be expressed as

αΔT=ΔLL=ΔVV=ΔAA\alpha \Delta T = \frac{{\Delta L}}{L} = \frac{{\Delta V}}{V} = \frac{{\Delta A}}{A}

Coefficient of expansion = α

Change in temperature = ΔT

Change in volume vs. original volume = ΔV / V

Change in area vs. original area = ΔA / A

Change in length vs. original length = ΔL / L

EXPLANATION:

  • In solid, coefficient of expansion can be easily calculated since there change in dimensions can be easily evaluated.
  • As we all know liquids are always to be heated along with a vessel which contains them so initially on heating the system (liquid + vessel), the level of liquid in vessel falls (as vessel expands more since it absorbs heat and liquid expands less) but later on, it starts rising due to faster expansion of the liquids.
  • The actual increase in the volume of the liquid = The apparent increase in the volume of liquid + the increase in the volume of the vessel.

Question 126

If the absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3 / 2 and 4 / 3 respectively, what will be the ratio of velocity of light in glass and water?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 : 4

  2. BOption (b)

    4 : 3

  3. COption (c)

    8 : 7

  4. DOption (d)

    8 : 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8 : 9

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Refractive index: 

  • The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of that medium.
  • It is also called an absolute refractive index.

Refractive;index;(μ)=;;Speed;of;light;in;vaccum(C)Speed;of;light;in;a;medium(v){\rm{Refractive;index;}}\left( \mu \right) = {\rm{;;}}\frac{{Speed;of;light;in;vaccum\left( C \right)}}{{Speed;of;light;in;a;medium\left( v \right)}}

Relative refractive index:

  • When a light ray is going from one medium (other than vacuum) to another medium then the value of the refractive index is said to be a relative refractive index.

Refractive;index;of;medium;1;with;respect;to;medium;2(n21)=;;refractive;index;of;medium;1(n1);Refractive;index;of;medium;2(n2){\rm{Refractive;index;of;medium;}}1{\rm{;with;respect;to;medium;}}2{(n_{21})} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{;refractive;index;of;medium;1 {(n_1)}}}{{;Refractive;index;of;medium;2{(n_2)}}}

CALCULATION:

Given that,

  • Refractive indices of glass

⇒ n1 = 3 / 2

  • Refractive indices of water

⇒ n2 = 4 / 3

  • For a refractive index of glass (n1) is

⇒n1=32=cv1⇒c=32v1⇒ {n_1} = \frac{3}{2} = \frac{c}{{{v_1}}} ⇒ c = \frac{3}{2}{v_1}

  • For a refractive index of water (n2) is

⇒n2=43=cv2⇒c=43v2⇒ {n_2} = \frac{4}{3} = \frac{c}{{{v_2}}} ⇒ c = \frac{4}{3}{v_2}

  • By comparing both the equations

⇒32v1=43;v2⇒v1v2=89;⇒ \frac{3}{2}{v_1} = \frac{4}{3};{v_2} ⇒ \frac{{{v_1}}}{{{v_2}}} = \frac{8}{9};

Question 127

The chemical name of baking soda is

  1. AOption (a)

    Na2CO3

  2. BOption (b)

    NaHCO3

  3. COption (c)

    CaCO3

  4. DOption (d)

    NaOH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

NaHCO3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e NaHCO3.

  • Baking Soda or Sodium bicarbonate is white fine powder with the chemical formula NaHCO3.
  • Washing Soda or Sodium Carbonate has the chemical formula Na2CO3.
  • Calcium Carbonate or Chalk, Limestone and Marble has a chemical formula CaCO3.
  • Sodium Hydroxide or Caustic Soda has a chemical formula NaOH.

Question 128

Which one of the following elements is used in pencil-lead?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zinc

  2. BOption (b)

    Lead

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon (Graphite)

  4. DOption (d)

    Tin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Carbon (Graphite)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Carbon (Graphite).

  • Graphite is most commonly used in making pencil leads.
  • These lead are a mixture of clay and graphite which is in an amorphous form.
  • Graphite is a naturally occurring form of crystalline carbon.
  • However, this mineral is commonly referred to as the mineral of all extremes.

Question 129

Who among the following is one of the authors of the book “philosophy of the Bomb”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhagat Singh

  2. BOption (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Surya Sen

  4. DOption (d)

    Yashpal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Yashpal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Yashpal.

Key Points

  • A bomb exploded under Viceroy Lord Irwin’s Special train, in December 1929.
  • He however escaped.
  • Gandhi had thanked God that Viceroy could narrowly escape.
  • He in fact condemned this act of the revolutionaries in his article “The Cult of Bomb”.
  • It was in reply to Gandhi's article that this outstanding document was written by Bhagawati Charan in consultation with Chandra Shekhar Azad, Yashpal.
  • This document called “The Philosophy of Bomb '' was drafted in a room located above the Solomon Company, Aminabad, Lucknow.

Additional Information 

AuthorBook
Bhagat SinghWhy I Am an Atheist
Jawaharlal NehruThe Discovery of India
Surya SenMasterda Surya Sen

Question 130

Which of the following statements about the Chittagong group is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its membership included a large number of youth including Ganesh Ghose, Lokenath Baul and Anant Singh.

  2. BOption (b)

    Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before joining the group.

  3. COption (c)

    Surya Sen and his group were closely associated with Congress work in Chittagong.

  4. DOption (d)

    This group had prepared an action plan to occupy the armouries in Chittagong..

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Its leader Surya Sen had been a lawyer in Dhaka before joining the group.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • Among the new Revolt Groups, the most active and famous was the Chittagong group led by Surya Sen.
  • Surya Sen soon gathered around himself a large band of revolutionary youth including Anant Singh, Ganesh Ghosh, and Lokenath Baul.
  • He had become a teacher in a National School in Chittagong, which led to his being popularly known as Masterda.
  • He was never a lawyer. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • They decided to organize a rebellion to show their might to the Britishers and to send a message that it was possible to challenge the might of the British Raj in India.
  • Their action plan was to include occupation of the two main armouries in Chittagong and the seizing of their arms.

Question 131

Which one of the following was a significant feature of the Quit India Movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Women did not play an important role in the movement.

  2. BOption (b)

    Nasik in Maharashtra was an important regional base during the movement.

  3. COption (c)

    It was marked by anti-zamindari violence.

  4. DOption (d)

    It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It was marked by the emergence of parallel governments in different parts of India.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 and it was made clear that now there was no distinction to be made between the people of British India and the States: every Indian was to participate.

  • The Quit India Resolution was ratified at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on August 8, 1942.
  • Parallel governments were established at many places like Ballia under Chittu Pandey, Tamluk under Jatiya Sarkar, Satara named Prati Sarkar, and was organised under leaders like Y.B. Chavan, Nana Patil. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Women, especially school and college girls, actively participated (Aruna Asaf Ali, Sucheta Kripalani and Usha Mehta). Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • Even some zamindars participated. These peasants concentrated their offensive on symbols of authority and there was a complete absence of anti-zamindar violence. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • The main storm centres of the movement were in eastern United Provinces, Bihar, Midnapore, Maharashtra, Karnataka. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.

Question 132

Which one of the following characteristics does NOT describe the Khilafat movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahatma Gandhi sought to link it to the Non-Cooperation movement.

  2. BOption (b)

    It was not supported by the Congress.

  3. COption (c)

    It demanded that the Turkish Sultan must retain control over Muslim sacred spaces in the erstwhile Ottoman empire.

  4. DOption (d)

    It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It was not supported by the Congress.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • The Khilafat issue paved the way for the consolidation of the emergence of a radical nationalist trend among the younger generation of Muslims and the section of traditional Muslim scholars who were becoming increasingly critical of British rule.
  • Muslims demanded from the British that the Khalifa’s control over Muslim sacred places should be retained, and
  • The Khalifa should be left with sufficient territories after territorial arrangements.
  • In early 1919, a Khilafat Committee was formed under the leadership of the Ali brothers (Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali), Maulana Azad, Ajmal Khan, and Hasrat Mohani, to force the British government to change its attitude towards Turkey.
  • While initially, Tilak was against the idea of forming an alliance with the Muslim Leaders over a religious issue, Gandhi convinced him and Congress supported the Khilafat agitation too.

Question 133

Which one of the following was NOT a feature of railways in colonial India?

  1. AOption (a)

    The main purpose of the setting up of railways in India was to serve the interest of the empire.

  2. BOption (b)

    British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues.

  3. COption (c)

    The construction work disturbed ecology.

  4. DOption (d)

    The construction of the railways was planned in such a way that it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between internal market cities.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

British capital investments were invited with 15% guaranteed interest to be paid if necessary from Indian revenues.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • The main purpose of this railway construction was to tie up the Indian hinterland in the interest of foreign trade, rather than favour Indian economic development.
  • So British capital investments were invited with 5 per cent guaranteed interests to be paid, if necessary, from Indian revenues. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
  • The construction planning favoured this goal, as it connected the internal markets with the ports, but provided no interconnection between the internal market cities.
  • The preferential freight charges also betrayed this motive: there were less freight charges for bulk manufactured goods travelling from the ports to the interior and raw materials from the interior to the ports, than vice versa.
  • This made the railway projects, as Sabyasachi Bhattacharya describes them, "an instance of private enterprise at public risk".
  • It was quite natural, therefore, that between 1858 and 1869 Indian railways would attract capital investments to the tune of £70, 110,000.
  • Apart from this, the multiplier effect of the railway construction boom benefited the British economy, as machinery, railway lines, and even coal were imported from England.
  • The transfer of technology remained confined to low technology areas, such as plate-laying, bridge-building or tunnelling, while in the 'hi-tech' area the expertise that was imported was never Indianised to develop "a truly national technology".
  • And in certain cases, the construction work disturbed ecology, subverted the natural sewage system, and in Bengal for example, created a malaria epidemic in the nineteenth century.

Question 134

Which colonial administrator made the following declaration about the partition of Bengal in 1904? “Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme”

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Curzon

  2. BOption (b)

    H. H. Risley

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Minto

  4. DOption (d)

    Sir Lancelot Hare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

H. H. Risley

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e H.H. Risley.

  • Andrew Fraser, the then Lieutenant-Governor of Bengal, was convinced that certain districts of Bengal had become the “hotbed of purely Bengali movement”.
  • H.H. Riskey, who was the Home Secretary of Government of India, believed that the best way to diminish the preponderance of Bengalis in Provincial Politics was to divide them.
  • “Bengal united is a power. Bengal divided will pull in different ways. That is perfectly true and one of the merits of the scheme”
  • Sir Lancelot Hare (1851–1922) was a British civil servant and former Lieutenant Governor of the Bengal province of the British Raj.

Question 135

Who launched the Bardoli Satyagraha on 4th February, 1928?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Vallabhbhai Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Rajendra Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalyanji Mehta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vallabhbhai Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Vallabhbhai Patel.

  • Bardoli Satyagraha was a peasant uprising in Gujarat led by Vallabhbhai Patel.
  • In 1928, Vallabhbhai Patel led the peasant movement in Bardoli, a taluka in Gujarat, against enhancement of land revenue.
  • The struggle was widely publicised and generated immense sympathy in many parts of India.
  • Bardoli had undergone a process of intense politicization and resulted in widespread awareness of the political scene, with the local leaders like Kalyanji and Kunverji Mehta, Dayalji Desai spreading the message of Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 136

Which one of the following Princely States did NOT support the Congress during the course of the Quit India Movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhavnagar

  2. BOption (b)

    Mysore

  3. COption (c)

    Junagadh

  4. DOption (d)

    Kathiawar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Junagadh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Junagarh.

  • Quit India Movement was launched in 1942.
  • This time the Congress made no distinction between British India and the Indian States and the call for the struggle was extended to the people of the States.
  • The people of the States thus formally joined the struggle for Indian independence, and in addition to their demand for a responsible government, they asked the British to quit India and demanded that the States become integral parts of the Indian nation.
  • Junagadh didn’t formally become a part of the Quit India Movement.
  • They instead supported the Britishers.

Question 137

Which one of the following is a feature of thought and philosophy of the Kandukuri Veeresalingam?

  1. AOption (a)

    He believed that science and morality were unconnected to truth

  2. BOption (b)

    He believed in universal education

  3. COption (c)

    He believed that language had no role in inculcating morality in students

  4. DOption (d)

    He did not attempt to build a national consciousness on a cultural base

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He believed in universal education

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • Kandukuri Veeresalingam was known as the ‘Father of the renaissance movement in Telugu’.
  • He was known for his contribution to the reformation of the Telugu Society.
  • He wrote extensively for the emancipation of women.
  • He also wrote satires on the prevailing superstitions and the degradation of the society.
  • He performed the first widow remarriage in Andhra Pradesh and set up schools for the education of women and girls.
  • From the options, we can easily deduce that he believed in the Universalization of Education.
  • He believed in the power of language to inculcate moral values among students.
  • He attempted to build national consciousness against the orthodoxy prevailing in the society.

Question 138

Name the calligrapher in Akbar’s court who was honoured with the title “Zarrin Kalam” or Golden Pen.

  1. AOption (a)

    Abdul Fazl

  2. BOption (b)

    Tansen

  3. COption (c)

    Muhammad Husayn

  4. DOption (d)

    Muhammad Kasim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Muhammad Husayn

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Muhammad Husayn.

  • Muhammed Husayn came from Kashmir and was one of the most well known artists of calligraphy in Akbar’s Court.
  • Nastaliq was Akbar’s favourite calligraphy style, which was a fluid style having long horizontal strokes.
  • Muhammad Husayn was honored with the title “Zarrin Kalam” or Golden Pen.
  • Abdul Fazl was the Grand vizier of the Mughal emperor Akbar, and author of the Akbarnama.
  • Tansen was a Indian musician and poet, and an important figure in the North Indian tradition of Hindustani classical music

Question 139

Which one of the following sections of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is the longest in terms of route distance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi - Kolkata

  2. BOption (b)

    Kolkata - Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai - Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Mumbai - Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kolkata - Chennai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e Kolkata-Chennai.

  • It is a 1684 km stretch from Kolkata to Chennai.
  • It consists of NH6 (Kolkata to Kharagpur), NH60 (Kharagpur to Balasore), and NH5 (Balasore to Chennai).
  • The distance between Delhi and Kolkata is 1,453 km.
  • The distance between Chennai and Mumbai is 1290 km.
  • The distance between Mumbai and Delhi is 1419 km.
  • The total distance of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway in India is 5846 km.

Question 140

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Classification of resources)**List-II (Example)
A. Basic inexhaustible resource1. Hydel power
B. Conventional non-renewable resource2. Coal
C. Non-conventional renewable resource3. Solar energy
D. Non-conventional Non-renewable resource4. Natural gas
  1. AOption (a)

    A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Key Points

List-I (Classification of resources)**List-II (Example)
A. Basic inexhaustible resource1. Solar Energy
B. Conventional non-renewable resource2. Coal
C. Non-conventional renewable resource3. Hydel Power
D. Conventional Non-renewable resource4. Natural gas

Question 141

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Mineral deposit)**List-II (State)
A. Gypsum1. Odisha
B. Graphite2. Gujarat
C. Fluorspar3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Nickel4. Rajasthan

 

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

  2. BOption (b)

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

  3. COption (c)

    A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3, i.e A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

  • Bopi, Khetabari, and Zaliha are in Arunachal Pradesh and are known for their Graphite Deposits.
  • Gypsum is mostly found in the bedded deposits of Rajasthan.
  • Fluorspar is found in Kadipani, Gujarat and it is the largest place of the reserves.
  • The largest deposit of Nickel is found in Odisha and it is of high grade. Infact, 90% of Nickel is found in Odisha.
List-I (Mineral deposit)**List-II (State)
A. Gypsum1. Rajasthan
B. Graphite2. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Fluorspar3. Gujarat
D. Nickel4. Odisha

Question 142

Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is NOT correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tharu : Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Adi : Arunachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Irula : Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Shaharia : Rajasthan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tharu : Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

  • Tharu is a tribe in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand.
  • Irular is rat-catching tribes that are found in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
  • Shaharia can be found in Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Adi is a tribe from Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 143

Consider the following Indian States:

  1. Bihar
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Jammu and Kashmir
  4. Haryana

Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above States on the basis of percentage of State’s population to total population of India (based on census 2011)?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 – 4 – 1 – 2

  2. BOption (b)

    4 – 2 – 1 – 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 – 4 – 2 – 1

  4. DOption (d)

    2 – 3 – 4 – 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 – 4 – 2 – 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Uttar Pradesh (199.5 million) is the most populous state in the country followed by Maharashtra with 112 million.
  • The percentage decadal growth rates of the six most populous States have declined during 2001-2011 compared to 1991-2001:
  • Uttar Pradesh (25.85% to 20.09%)
  • Maharashtra (22.73% to 15.99%)
  • Bihar (28.62% to 25.07%)
  • West Bengal (17.77 % to 13.93%)
  • Andhra Pradesh (14.59% to 11.10%)
  • Madhya Pradesh (24.26% to 20.30%)

Question 144

A positive charge +q is placed at the centre of a hollow metallic sphere of inner radius a and outer radius b. the electric field at a distance r from the centre is denoted by E. In this regards, which one of the following statement is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    E = 0 for a < r < b

  2. BOption (b)

    E = 0 for r < a

  3. COption (c)

    E = q / 4πϵ­0r for a < r < b

  4. DOption (d)

    E = q / 4πϵ­0r for r < a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

E = 0 for a < r < b

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • According to gauss law,
  • "The total flux of electric field through any simple connected closed surface is equal to the total charge enclosed by that surface, divided by electric permittivity of material".
  • It can be used to find the charge on simple surfaces which can be called Gaussian surfaces.
  • The expression for the law is ϕ = q / ϵ₀ where
  • q = charge enclosed by the surface
  • ϵ₀ = electric permittivity constant

Explanation:

  • We know that if a charge in closed inside a uniform surface its Electric field inside a surface is zero
  • So in this case charge is kept at the center of concentric spherical shell hence charge will be induced on each of the surfaces because of flux passing through them
  • But there will be a point between two spherical surfaces where the net Electric field is zero.
  • Hence at any point between a and b, the net Electric field will be zero

Question 145

Who among the following was the author of the Badshah Nama?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abdul Hamid Lahori

  2. BOption (b)

    Abul Fazl

  3. COption (c)

    Shah Jahan

  4. DOption (d)

    Sadullah Khan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Abdul Hamid Lahori

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Abdul Hamid Lahori.

  • Among the important illustrated Mughal chronicles the Akbar Nama and Badshah Nama (The Chronicle of a King) are the most well known.
  • The author of the Akbar Nama was Abu’l Fazl.
  • A pupil of Abu’l Fazl, Abdul Hamid Lahori is known as the author of the Badshah Nama.
  • Emperor Shah Jahan, hearing of his talents, commissioned him to write a history of his reign modelled on the Akbar Nama.
  • The Badshah Nama is the official history in three volumes (daftars) of ten lunar years each.
  • Lahori wrote the first and second daftars comprising the first two decades of the emperor’s rule (1627-47); these volumes were later revised by Sadullah Khan, Shah Jahan’s wazir.
  • Edited versions of the Akbar Nama and Badshah Nama were first published by the Asiatic Society in the nineteenth century.
  • In the early twentieth century the AkbarNama was translated into English by Henry Beveridge after years of hard labour.
  • Only excerpts of the Badshah Nama have been translated into English to date; the text in its entirety still awaits translation.

Question 146

Which one of the following statements about Fatehpur Sikri is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It was located on the direct road to Ajmer

  2. BOption (b)

    Akbar commissioned the building of a marble tomb for Sheikh Salim Chisti next to the Friday mosque at Fatehpur Sikri

  3. COption (c)

    The arched gateway or Bulund Darwaza was meant to remind visitors of the Mughal victory in Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    In 1585, the capital of the Mughal emperor shifted from Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

In 1585, the capital of the Mughal emperor shifted from Fatehpur Sikri to Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

  • Fatehpur Sikri is a small city in northern India in the west of Agra.
  • The Red Sandstone buildings are clustered at its center.
  • Buland Darwaza Gate is present at the entrance of the Jama Masjid, Fatehpur Sikri.
  • The capital cities of the Mughals frequently shifted during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
  • Babur took over the Lodi capital of Agra, though during the four years of his reign the court was frequently on the move.
  • During the 1560s Akbar constructed the fort of Agra with red sandstone quarried from the adjoining regions.
  • In the 1570s he decided to build a new capital, Fatehpur Sikri.
  • One of the reasons prompting this may have been that Sikri was located on the direct road to Ajmer, where the dargah of Shaikh Muinuddin Chishti had become an important pilgrimage centre.
  • The Mughal emperors entered into a close relationship with sufis of the Chishti silsila.
  • Akbar commissioned the construction of a white marble tomb for Shaikh Salim Chishti next to the majestic Friday mosque at Sikri.
  • The enormous arched gateway (Buland Darwaza) was meant to remind visitors of the Mughal victory in Gujarat.
  • In 1585 the capital was transferred to Lahore (NOT Delhi) to bring the north-west under greater control and Akbar closely watched the frontier for thirteen years.

Question 147

Which one of the following cities hosted the 3rd World Trauma Congress recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Dacca

  3. COption (c)

    Singapore

  4. DOption (d)

    Bangkok

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e New Delhi.

  • The 3rd World Congress was a call to action to all stakeholders to end all deaths due to trauma.
  • Some of the important reasons of increased mortality in developing countries like India that included non-availability of trauma systems.
  • The first and second World Trauma were held at ‘Rio de Janeiro’ and ‘Frankfurt’ respectively.
  • The congress was organized by the ‘J P N Apex Trauma Centre’, AIIMS New Delhi and co-hosted by the Indian Society for Trauma, Acute Care (ISTAC) and the World Coalition for Trauma Care (WCTC).
  • The objectives included the exchange ideas, experiences and lessons learned about the role of internationally accepted systems and protocols in the field of trauma care, mass casualty incidents, and disasters.

Question 148

Which one of the following is NOT one of the objectives of Act East Policy?

  1. AOption (a)

    To promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Asia- Pacific region.

  2. BOption (b)

    To promote peace and amity with the neighbouring countries of Asia.

  3. COption (c)

    To place emphasis on India-ASEAN cooperation in India’s domestic agenda.

  4. DOption (d)

    To provide enhanced connectivity to the North East of India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To promote peace and amity with the neighbouring countries of Asia.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • India's Act East Policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • The policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative, but it has gained political, strategic, and cultural dimensions including the establishment of institutional mechanisms for dialogue and cooperation.
  • The Objective of ''Act East Policy” is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationships with countries in the Asia-Pacific region through continuous engagement at bilateral, regional and multilateral levels.
  • This would thereby provide for enhanced connectivity to the States of the North Eastern Region including Arunachal Pradesh with other countries in our neighbourhood.
  • Act East Policy has placed emphasis on Indo-ASEAN cooperation in our domestic agenda on infrastructure, manufacturing, trade, skills, urban renewal, smart cities, Make in India, and other initiatives.
  • Connectivity projects, cooperation in space, S&T, and people-to-people exchanges could become a springboard for regional integration and prosperity.

Question 149

Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of the total medals earned by them in Rio Olympic 2016:

  1. United States
  2. China
  3. Great Britain
  4. Russia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3, 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3, 2, 4

  3. COption (c)

    4, 3, 2, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 3, 1, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4, 3, 2, 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Russia was placed at 4th position with 56 total medals.
  • Great Britain came third with 67 total medals.
  • China won 70 medals.
  • The US led the medal table with 121 medals.

Question 150

Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Establish an integrated ecosystem which will lead to significant growth of civil aviation sector.

  2. BOption (b)

    To promote tourism, increase employment and lead to a balanced regional growth.

  3. COption (c)

    Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors through the use of technology.

  4. DOption (d)

    Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure development.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors through the use of technology.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Ensure safety, security and sustainability of all sectors through the use of technology is NOT an objective of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016

  • This is the first time since independence that an integrated Civil Aviation Policy has been brought out by the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
  • The centre-piece of the policy is to make regional air connectivity a reality.
  • The policy aims to take flying to the masses by
  • Making it affordable and convenient.
  • Establish an integrated ecosystem which will lead to significant growth of the civil aviation sector to promote tourism, employment and balanced regional growth.
  • Enhance regional connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure development and
  • Enhance ease of doing business through deregulation, simplified procedures and e-governance.

150 questions in the full paper