Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 17 April 2016 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2016

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was________.

  1. AOption (a)

    inevitable

  2. BOption (b)

    undeniable

  3. COption (c)

    fatal

  4. DOption (d)

    miserable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

inevitable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "inevitable"

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the selected word**:**
  • Inevitable: Something which can not be avoided.
  • Look at the example:
  • We can't escape death, it's inevitable.
  • Look at the meanings of the rest of the words:
  • Undeniable: Unable to deny or disputed.
  • Fatal: Something that causes death.
  • Miserable: Sorrowful
  • Since the bus was at full speed and then its brakes failed, as a result, there was a very high probability of the bus meeting with an accident. In other words, under the mentioned circumstances, the accident was unavoidable or inevitable.

Hence the correct sentence: When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was inevitable.

Hinglish

  • Inevitable- जिसको टाला न जा सके
  • Fatal- जिससे मौत हो जाती है
  • Miserable- दुखी
  • undeniable- जिसको मना न किये जा सकते

Question 2

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

To explain his design to his visitors, the architect _______ a simple plan on the blackboard.

  1. AOption (a)

    built

  2. BOption (b)

    finalised

  3. COption (c)

    sketched

  4. DOption (d)

    arranged

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

sketched

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Sketched.

 

Explanation 

  • An architect is a person who designs buildings. Here, it is mentioned that the architect used the blackboard to explain his designs to the visitors. The appropriate verb for the noun 'design' is 'sketch'. So, sketched is the most suitable answer.

 

  • One must not get confused with 'built'. Built is generally used for any construction work. Here, the word 'design' is used. So, on the blackboard, the sketches are drawn.

Question 3

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was _____by the Japanese.

  1. AOption (a)

    cultivated

  2. BOption (b)

    finished

  3. COption (c)

    perfected

  4. DOption (d)

    enlarged

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

perfected

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. perfected.

 

Explanation

  • Cultivated means well refined, educated.
  • Finished means completed.
  • Perfected means make something flawless, faultless.
  • Enlarged means made larger in size.
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As per the context of the given sentence, Bonsai was originated in China, but it was made perfect in its characteristics by the Japanese. So, all the other three options are not fit to be used in the sentence.

Question 4

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is greatly admired for his ________ behaviour.

  1. AOption (a)

    decrepit

  2. BOption (b)

    decadent

  3. COption (c)

    decorative

  4. DOption (d)

    decorous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

decorous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. decorous.

Explanation:

  • Decrepit means worn out because of age or neglegency, infirm, weak.
  • Decadent means reflecting a state of moral or cultural decline.
  • Decorative means relating to decoration, attractive.
  • Decorous means having good taste, polite, restrained.

Important Point:

  • Clearly, option 1 and 2 are giving out negative meanings and the context of the sentence is positive. So, the first two options are ruled out.
  • The behaviour of a person can not be decorative since the word 'behaviour' is an abstract noun and can not be touched but only felt. Whereas, attractive is used for physical beauty. So, decorous, which means polite is the correct answer.

Mistake point:

  • One must not get confused between the words decorous and decorative. Read the important points for the difference between these two words.

Question 5

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Would you mind ________ to the Principal how the trouble started?

  1. AOption (a)

    remarking

  2. BOption (b)

    saying

  3. COption (c)

    explaining 

  4. DOption (d)

    talking

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

explaining 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. explaining.

Explanation

  • Since the sentence talks of a trouble, which is to be explained to the principal. The only correct and suitable answer will be 'explaining'.

  • Explain means give a reason so as to justify an event. The context of the sentence is the same. The principal needs a justification about the problem and not just that he be informed about the occurrence of a trouble. Therefore, saying is not suitable here.

  • Please note that interrogative sentences mentioning 'mind' is always followed by a gerund (Here, explaining). The first form of the verb, here, explain, would be grammatically wrong.

Question 6

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Vaccination will make people immune______certain diseases for a given period.

  1. AOption (a)

    against

  2. BOption (b)

    to

  3. COption (c)

    with

  4. DOption (d)

    for

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to'.

Key Points

  • Immune means "free, exempt" or "protected from" in general use, and "resistant to a disease" in common medical use.
  • When immune is in context with any disease, the fixed preposition 'to' is used with immune.
  • If you are immune to something, it generally has no effect on you, for example, you might be immune to a disease or to criticism. 
  • Example: Most people who have had chickenpox once are immune to it for the rest of their lives.
  • ​Therefore, the most appropriate option to be filled in the given blank is 'to'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: Vaccination will make people immune to certain diseases for a given period.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the given options:
  • 'Against' means as protection or defense from the bad effects of.
  • 'To' is used after many verbs of agreeing, needing, and wanting.
  • 'With' is used to say that people or things are in a place together or are doing something together.
  • 'For' means intended to be given to.

Hinglish

  • Immune का अर्थ है "मुक्त, छूट" या सामान्य उपयोग में "संरक्षित", और सामान्य चिकित्सा उपयोग में "बीमारी के लिए प्रतिरोधी"।
  • Immune के साथ प्रयोग किया जाने वाला निश्चित preposition, जब प्रतिरक्षा किसी रोग के संदर्भ में हो, 'to' है।
  • यदि आप किसी चीज से immune हैं, तो आमतौर पर इसका आप पर कोई प्रभाव नहीं पड़ता है, उदाहरण के लिए, आप किसी बीमारी या आलोचना के प्रति प्रतिरक्षित हो सकते हैं।
  • उदाहरण: Most people who have had chickenpox once are immune to it for the rest of their lives.
  • अत: दिए गए रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प 'to' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।
  • आइए दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • 'Against' का अर्थ है के बुरे प्रभावों से सुरक्षा या बचाव।
  • सहमत, आवश्यकता और चाहने की कई क्रियाओं के बाद 'to' का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  • 'With' का प्रयोग यह कहने के लिए किया जाता है कि लोग या चीजें एक जगह पर हैं या एक साथ कुछ कर रहे हैं।
  • 'For' का अर्थ है देने का इरादा।

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: Vaccination will make people immune to certain diseases for a given period.

Question 7

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to ______ between them.

  1. AOption (a)

    discriminate

  2. BOption (b)

    discern

  3. COption (c)

    distinguish

  4. DOption (d)

    identify

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

distinguish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. distinguish.

Explanation

  • Discriminate means make an unjust or prejudicial distinction in the treatment of different categories of people.
  • Discern means to recognize or find out.
  • Distinguish means to recognize or treat as different.
  • Identify means to recognize or point out something.

     

  • Discriminate provides a negative meaning, therefore, it is ruled out as per the context of the sentence. Discern, Distinguish, and identify mean the very same thing. But for the use of the preposition 'between', the only suitable option is 'distinguish'. As among the given options only 'distinguish' is always followed by the preposition 'between'.

Question 8

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The campers _______ their tents at the base of the mountain.

  1. AOption (a)

    installed

  2. BOption (b)

    dug

  3. COption (c)

    pitched

  4. DOption (d)

    established

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

pitched

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. pitched.

Explanation:

  • Dug means made a hole by breaking up and moving earth.
  • Installed means place or fix equipment or machinery in position ready for use.
  • Established means having existed or done something for a long time and therefore recognized and generally accepted.
  • Pitched in context of a tent means setting up of a tent.
<br>

Important Point:

  • From the above explanations, we can say that only Pitched is the correct option to use in the sentence. Since tent is not machinery, so it can not be installed. Nor it can be set inside the earth, therefore, dug is also ruled out. Also, tent is a temporary stay, so it is not set very long time ago, therefore, established too cannot be used. Whereas, pitch is used specially for setting up of tents.

Question 9

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word can be considered most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still, he refused to ______ the state secrets.

  1. AOption (a)

    divulge

  2. BOption (b)

    divert

  3. COption (c)

    indulge

  4. DOption (d)

    invert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

divulge

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. divulge.

Explanation

  • Divert means draw the attention of someone from something, to turn from one direction to another.
  • Indulge means involve oneself in some sort of pleasure.
  • Invert means put something in the opposite position.
  • Divulge means make known private or sensitive information.
  • As evident from the context of the sentence, a person was captured by the enemy, even though the captured person's life was at stake, he did not reveal any personal or secret information to the enemy. From the words explained, only divulge fits contextually to the sentence.

Question 10

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He handled the machine with deft fingers.

  1. AOption (a)

    delicate

  2. BOption (b)

    sturdy

  3. COption (c)

    quick

  4. DOption (d)

    clumsy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

clumsy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. clumsy.

 

Explanation

  • Deft means skillful.
  • Delicate means fragile, easily breakable.
  • Sturdy means strongly built.
  • Quick means fast.
  • Clumsy means awkward or unskillful.
<br>

From the above explanations, we can clearly determine that Clumsy is the correct answer.

Question 11

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

I was deeply affected by his urbane behaviour.

  1. AOption (a)

    rural

  2. BOption (b)

    rude

  3. COption (c)

    irrational

  4. DOption (d)

    indifferent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

rude

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. rude.

Explanation

  • Urbane means polite or courteous in behavior.
  • Rural means places that are far away from cities.
  • Irrational means not reasonable.
  • Indifferent means having no interest or Unconcerned.
  • Rude means bad mannered or impolite.
  • Since the meaning of Urbane is courteous or polite, its opposite word is Rude.

 

  • One must not get confused between Urbane and Urban. Urban means characteristics of a town or city, whereas Urbane means polite.

Question 12

Directions

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

His timidity proved costly.

  1. AOption (a)

    arrogance

  2. BOption (b)

    boldness

  3. COption (c)

    skillfulness

  4. DOption (d)

    cunning

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

boldness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'boldness'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Timidity' means lack of courage or confidence. (साहस या आत्मविश्वास की कमी)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Arrogance' means the quality of being arrogant. (घमंडी, अभिमानी)
  • 'Boldness' means fearless before danger or showing a fearless daring spirit. (साहस, निडरता और आत्‍मविश्‍वास)
  • 'Skillfulness' means accomplished with skill. (कुशलता से संपन्न)
  • 'Cunning' means clever in a dishonest or bad way. (बेईमान या बुरे तरीके से चतुर, चालाक)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Timidity' are "boldness, courage, confidence".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Timidity' are "fear, panic, anxiety".
  • Example of 'Boldness' in a sentence:
  • He is famous for the boldness of his business methods.

Question 13

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.

  1. AOption (a)

    significant

  2. BOption (b)

    small

  3. COption (c)

    unruly

  4. DOption (d)

    noisy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

small

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Small.

Explanation:

  • Mammoth means enormous, gigantic, very large in size.
  • Significant means noteworthy, important.
  • Unruly means disorderly.
  • Noisy means involving a lot of noise.
  • Small means insignificant or unimportant.
  • As per the above explanation, mammoth and small are opposite in meaning to each other.

Important point:

  • Mammoth and significant are synonyms to each other as evident from the above explanation.

Question 14

Directions

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.

  1. AOption (a)

    occupied

  2. BOption (b)

    inattentive

  3. COption (c)

    engaged

  4. DOption (d)

    absent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

inattentive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'inattentive'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Engrossed' means so interested in something that you give it all your attention. (किसी चीज में इतनी दिलचस्पी कि आप उस पर अपना ��ूरा ध्यान दें)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Occupied' means busy doing something. (किसी काम में व्‍यस्‍त)
  • 'Inattentive' means not paying attention to something. (किसी चीज पर ध्यान नहीं देना)
  • 'Engaged' means busy doing something. (किसी कार्य में व्‍यस्‍त)
  • 'Absent' means showing that you are not really looking at or thinking about what is happening around you. (कहीं और ध्यान होना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Engrossed' are "inattentive, absent, distracted".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Engrossed' are "engaged, interested, involved".
  • Example of 'Inattentive' in a sentence:
  • An inattentive driver can do serious damage at very slow speeds.

Question 15

Directions

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.

  1. AOption (a)

    following

  2. BOption (b)

    previous

  3. COption (c)

    first

  4. DOption (d)

    last

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

following

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'following'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Preceding' means coming before something in order, position, or time. (क्रम, स्थिति या समय में किसी चीज से पहले आना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Following' means to come, go or happen after somebody or something. (किसी व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु के पीछे आना, जाना या होना)
  • 'Previous' means coming or happening before or earlier. (किसी से पहले या जल्‍दी आने या होने वाला; पूर्व)
  • 'First' means before any others. (सबसे पहले)
  • 'Last' means at the end; after all the others. (अंतिम; सबके बाद, अंत में)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Preceding' are "following, after, later".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Preceding' are "foregoing, previous, prior".
  • Example of 'Following' in a sentence:
  • The hunter is following up a wolf.

Question 16

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He made a shrewd guess.

  1. AOption (a)

    clever

  2. BOption (b)

    wild

  3. COption (c)

    incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    discriminating

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

wild

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Wild.

Explanation:

  • Shrewd means having or showing sharp powers of judgement; astute.
  • Clever means wise, astute.
  • Incorrect means not in accordance with fact; wrong.
  • Discriminating means showing good judgement.
  • Wild means casual (In the context of the question).
  • Since Shrewd and discriminating mean Astute or clever, its opposite will be wild, i.e. casual. 

Important point:

  • We often say it is my wild guess. we mean by this that our guess is not supported by any logic or fact but even though we are expressing it. It can be correct or incorrect. Therefore, Wild does not mean that this will always be incorrect, so option 3 is ruled out.

Question 17

Directions

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

He is suffering from a severe cough.

  1. AOption (a)

    violent

  2. BOption (b)

    mild

  3. COption (c)

    bad 

  4. DOption (d)

    continuous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

mild

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'mild'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Severe' means (of something bad or undesirable) very great; intense.  (गंभीर, तीव्र, सख़्त)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Violent' means very strong and impossible to control. (प्रचंड और बेक़ाबू)
  • 'Mild' means not strong; not very bad. (नरम; हलका)
  • 'Bad' means not good; unpleasant. (बुरा, ख़राब, अप्रिय)
  • 'Continuous' means happening or existing without stopping. (बिना रुके होने वाला; लगातार)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Severe' are "mild, gentle, tender".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Severe' are "rough, rugged, ungentle".
  • Example of 'Mild' in a sentence:
  • We had an exceptionally mild winter last year.

Question 18

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.

  1. AOption (a)

    Individually

  2. BOption (b)

    Obviously

  3. COption (c)

    Clearly

  4. DOption (d)

    Collectively

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Individually

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. individually.

Explanation  

  • Cumulatively means taken as a whole or taken in combination.
  • Obviously means in a way that is easily perceived or understood; clearly.
  • Clearly means easily understood.
  • Collectively means as a group or as a whole.
  • Individually means personally; in an individual capacity.
  • As per the above explanation, obviously and clearly can not be the antonyms of cumulatively. Also, collectively and cumulatively are synonyms to each other. Thus, we are left only with individually, which is opposite in meaning to the word Cumulatively, as per the above explanation.

Question 19

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.

  1. AOption (a)

    charming

  2. BOption (b)

    ugly

  3. COption (c)

    small

  4. DOption (d)

    unnoticeable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

unnoticeable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Unnoticeable.

Explanation:

  • Conspicuous means attracting notice or attention, clearly visible.
  • Charming means very pleasant or attractive.
  • Ugly means unpleasant.
  • Small means insignificant.
  • Unnoticeable means not easily observed or noticed.
  • As per the above explanation, conspicuous means something which is clearly visible. The only word opposite in meaning will be Unnoticeable.

 

Origin - mid 16th century: from Latin conspicuus (from conspicere ‘look at attentively’, from con- (expressing intensive force) + spicere ‘look at’) + -ous.

Question 20

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He hates these continual arguments with his friend.

  1. AOption (a)

    repeated

  2. BOption (b)

    irrational 

  3. COption (c)

    occasional

  4. DOption (d)

    regular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

occasional

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'occasional'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Continual' means something happening again and again. (बारंबार होने वाला, लगातार, निंरतर)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Repeated' means something done or happening many times. (अनेक बार किया जाने या होने वाला; पुनरावृत्त)
  • 'Irrational' means not based on reason or clear thought. (जो तर्क या स्‍पष्‍ट चिंतन पर आधारित न हो)
  • 'Occasional' means something done or happening from time to time but not very often. (कभी-कभार किया जाने या होने वाला)
  • 'Regular' means something done or happening often. (प्रायः किया जाने या घटित होते रहने वाला)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Continual' are "occasional, irregular, alternating".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Continual' are "repeated, regular, continuous".
  • Example of 'Occasional' in a sentence:
  • The weather was good except for an occasional shower.

The sentence given below is divided into three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response by selecting the right option. If you find no error, choose (d) as your answer.

Question 21

She said that, she was understanding(a)/his point of view(b)/very well(c)/No error(c)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Explanation:

  • It is incorrect to use '-ing' form of verb with 'understand'. The correct form is 'understood'.
  • 'Understand' is a non- continuous verb. So, it can not be used in the progressive form. Non-continuous verbs; verbs that cannot be used in continuous forms are usually verbs that you cannot see somebody doing. Other such verbs are want, need, etc.

Mistake point:

  • Never use these continuous verbs, i.e.  wanting, needing, understanding. As these form of the verbs do not exist.

Question 22

On account of all the houses, having been washed away(a)/ by the floods(b)/ the villagers sought shelter in the panchayat office (c). No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. D.

Explanation:

  • The given sentence is correct. 'On account of' means 'because of'.
  • The meaning of the sentence is after all the houses of the village were washed away by the floods, the villagers stayed in the panchayat office.
  • There is no error in the subject and verb. The villagers (plural subject) is followed by sought (plural verb). So, the sentence is errorless.

Question 23

It is necessary for us to familiarize with(a)/ and get used to(b)/ the way of the people among whom we live.(c)/ No error(d).

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Explanation

  • Let us break the sentence into two parts and examine. 'It is necessary for us to familiarize with the way of the people...' & 'It is necessary for us to get used to the way of the people...'. The first part of the sentence should use a reflexive pronoun (Here, ourselves) after familiarize. The correct form will be, 'It is necessary for us to familiarize ourselves with the way of the people...' Here, the second part of the sentence is correct.

  • Reflexive pronouns are words ending in -self or -selves that are used when the subject and the object of a sentence are the same (e.g., I believe in myself).

  • Also, the use of 'among' is grammatically correct because 'To live among (someone) means':  To spend a portion of one's life as an outsider within an established community.

Question 24

The mother asked the child(a)/ why did she cry out(b)/ in her sleep(c) /No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

Explanation:

  • In indirect speech, the formation of the sentence would not be interrogative, i.e. use helping verb or a main verb ( here, 'cried') after the subject (here, 'she') in reported speech. So, write 'why she cried out' in place of 'why did she cry out'.
  • The correct form is: The mother asked the child why she cried out in her sleep.

Question 25

I asked him that(a)/ why he was angry(b)/ but he did not answer.(c)/ No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Explanation 

  • Remove 'that' used before 'why'. Because in indirect sentences, we never use conjunction ( Here, 'that') before wh-word (Here, 'why')  when reported verb 'asked' is used in indirect sentences. Here, Wh-word ('Why') is already being used as a conjunction.
  • The correct form of the sentence is: I asked him why he was angry but he did not answer.

Question 26

Had I not taken ill;(a)/ I would have sent you(b)/ my research paper much earlier.(c)/ No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. D.

Explanation:

  • The sentence is correct. 'Taken ill' means 'to suddenly become ill'. Also, the third form of the verb, i.e. 'taken' is used with 'had'. It is absolutely correct.
  • Also, if the sentences use imaginary conditions phrases such as 'If I', 'Had I', then use, 'would + helping verb + Third form of the verb (V3)' in the secondary clause of the sentence, ( here used as 'would have sent you..'). Therefore, the given sentence is correct in all aspects.

Question 27

The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying(a)/ rats which could, if left unchecked(b)/ do a lot of damage to the crops.(c)/ No error.(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. D.

Explanation 

  • The given sentence is grammatically correct. 'Helps' is used here for the subject 'The barn owl', which is a singular subject and so is the verb 'helps'.

  • In later part if the sentence, verb 'do' is used for the 'rats' which is plural, and so is the verb 'do'. Therefore, the sentence is correct in all aspects of grammar.

  • Aspirants should not get confused that the verb 'do',i.e. plural verb, is used here for ' the barn owl'. It is not so. 'Do' is used here for 'rats', i.e. plural subject.

Question 28

He had gone(a)/ home three weeks ago and was expected(b)/ back yesterday, but he has not come yet(c)/ No error(d)  

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

Explanation:

  • The given sentence should be in the past perfect tense, as evident from the uses of 'three weeks ago'. But the later part of the sentence uses present perfect tense,i.e. 'has'. For a sentence to be grammatically correct, all parts of a sentence should be in one type of tense. So, replace with, 'he had not come yet'.

Mistake point:

  • Aspirants very often overlook this type of error, i.e. use of different type of tense in single sentence,(parallelism) as done in this question. Refer to explanation above for better understanding.

Question 29

We must sympathize(a)/ for others.(b)/ in their troubles.(c)/ No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

Explanation

  • The use of preposition 'for' with  the verb 'sympathize' is incorrect. The standard preposition with 'sympathize' is 'with'.

  • Sympathize with someone means 'to share someone else's sorrow or anger about someone or something; to comfort someone who is sad or angry.'

  • 'Sympathy for' means 'feelings of pity and sorrow for someone else's misfortune.'

  • For e.g.  'They had great sympathy for the flood victims'.

Question 30

The scientists in America(a)/ are trying for long(b)/ to discover the genes responsible for ageing.(c)/ No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

Explanation:

  • Here, we will use the present perfect continuous tense, i.e. 'have been trying'. When we want to show a period of time, by using 'for' or 'since', we always use 'present perfect continuous tense'.
  • For e.g. 1) I have been living here for 26 years. & 2) I have been living here since 1990.
  • The correct form is: The scientists in America have been trying for long to discover the genes responsible for ageing.

In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If (a), (b), or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (d).

Question 31

When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.

  1. AOption (a)

    carried aloft

  2. BOption (b)

    carried down

  3. COption (c)

    carried away

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

carried away

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. carried away.

Explanation

  • Carried down means moved something from a higher level to a lower one.
  • Carried Aloft means moved up in or into the air.
  • Carried away means aroused to a high and often excessive degree of emotion or enthusiasm.
  • It is evident from the sentence that a person has heard the speech of another person, which was highly energetic, as a result, he was aroused to a high degree of enthusiasm.

Question 32

After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.

  1. AOption (a)

    rose another two feet

  2. BOption (b)

    arisen another two feet

  3. COption (c)

    would raise another two feet

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

rose another two feet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. rose another two feet.

Explanation:

  • Raise means to lift or move something to a higher position or level.
  • Rose means something been moved from a lower position to a higher one.
  • Rose is second form verb of rise.
  • Clearly, the water in the lake was risen due to heavy rains, and not the water in the lake raised something else to another two feet.

Mistake Point:

  • Aspirants should clearly know the difference between raised and rose. Raised is used to show the level of something else has changed, whereas, rose is used to show, the level of the subject, being talked about, has changed. Refer to above explanation for better understanding.

Question 33

One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.

  1. AOption (a)

    seldom

  2. BOption (b)

    hardly

  3. COption (c)

    ever

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ever

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. ever.

Explanation  

  • Never is a negating word. Negations are words like no, not, and never. Writing without ( a negative word) before never ( a negating word), is redundant and grammatically incorrect expression. We can not write two negative words consecutively.
  • Seldom means rarely, not often. This also provides two negative words consecutively. So is the case with hardly, which means very rarely.
  • Ever means at any time. This is a positive meaning word, therefore can follow without. 'Without ever seeing the moon and stars' means that one will not see the moon and stars even once.

Question 34

Applications of those who are graduates will be considered.

  1. AOption (a)

    whom are graduates

  2. BOption (b)

    whose are graduates

  3. COption (c)

    whom are only graduates

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. No improvement.

Explanation:

  • The given sentence is grammatically correct. Here, those refer to who, which in turn, refers to the graduates. The rest of the expressions are absurd and meaningless to use in the above sentence.
  • The sentence means that The Applications of the graduates will be considered.

Question 35

It is raining heavily all through this week.

  1. AOption (a)

    has rained

  2. BOption (b)

    rains

  3. COption (c)

    rained

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

rained

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. rained.

Explanation

  • The expression through + this + (any period of time) means from the beginning to the end of a period of time.
  • Here, through this week means right from the beginning to the end of the week. So, the action of raining is a past event. Therefore, we will use simple past for the verb rain and not the continuous form of the verb, i.e. raining, as the action of raining has been already over, when the sentence given above is being said.

 

  • 'Has rained' is incorrect to use here. We use present perfect when an action that began in the past and continues into the present, or whose effects continue into the present. Here, the sentence is being told at the end of the week, so the action or its effects is not present at the time when the sentence is being said. So we can not write 'has rained' here.
  • 'Rained' is correct because it is in the simple past. We use simple past tense when an action occurred at some time in the past and it is now complete. At the time, when the sentence is being said, the action of raining is complete, so, write in the simple past, i.e. Rained.

Question 36

The sparrow took no notice about the bread.

  1. AOption (a)

    notice of

  2. BOption (b)

    notice from

  3. COption (c)

    notice to

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

notice of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. notice of.

Explanation

  • Notice of something means give attention to something, to observe something.

  • The sentence means that the sparrow did not pay attention to or observed the bread.

  • Notice from someone means to get any information from someone else

  • Notice to someone means to give any information to someone else.

Question 37

As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.

  1. AOption (a)

    big

  2. BOption (b)

    tall

  3. COption (c)

    long

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

tall

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. tall.

Explanation:

  • Tall claim means overstatement or the action of stating something too strongly, exaggeration.
  • The above sentence means that as he spoke about his achievements, his exaggeration of his achievements were amusing the listerners.
  • For e.g:  The world use to laugh at Wright brothers claiming them to be making tall claims of bringing the dream of man flying to life.

Question 38

We ought to stand for what is right.

  1. AOption (a)

    stand at

  2. BOption (b)

    stand on

  3. COption (c)

    stand up

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. No improvement.

Explanation

  • Stand for means to be in support of something.
  • The given sentence means that we should support the cause which is right.

 

  • Stand at means to reach a particular level.
  • Stand on means continue on the same course.
  • Stand up means to be or become vertical.

Question 39

He enjoys to tell stories to children

  1. AOption (a)

    how to tell stories

  2. BOption (b)

    telling stories

  3. COption (c)

    to narrate stories

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

telling stories

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. telling stories.

Explanation:

  • The verb 'enjoy' means ‘get pleasure from something’. It usually has an object. For e.g. We enjoyed the movie so much.
  • We use the -ing form of verb after 'enjoy' and we do not use a 'to-infinitive'. For e.g. I never enjoyed cycling.
  • So, as per this rule, the given sentence will be written as He enjoys telling stories to children.

Mistake point:

  • The sentence 'I never enjoyed to cycle' is incorrect as a 'to-infinitive' is used here, i.e. to cycle. The correct sentence will be 'I never enjoyed cycling.'

Question 40

In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.

  1. AOption (a)

    shall be waiting on

  2. BOption (b)

    shall have been waiting

  3. COption (c)

    shall wait

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

shall have been waiting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. shall have been waiting.

Explanation

  • We use the future perfect continuous form when we are looking back to the past from a point in the future and we want to emphasize the length or duration of an activity or event. For e.g. In September the headteacher will have been teaching at the school for 20 years.
  • Here, in the given sentence, a point in the future is when the clock strikes six, and a look into the past refers to the time duration of one hour.
  • Therefore, 'In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I shall have been waiting here for an hour.'  is the correct sentence.

Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Question 41

Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.

  1. AOption (a)

    dangerous

  2. BOption (b)

    terrifying

  3. COption (c)

    mild

  4. DOption (d)

    very loud

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

very loud

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. very loud.

Explanation:

  • Dangerous means harmful.
  • Terrifying means threatening.
  • Mild means not harsh or not dangerous.
  • Deafening means So loud as to make it impossible to hear anything else.
  • For e.g. The music reached a deafening crescendo.
  • In the given options, only 'very loud' carries a similar meaning. So, Option 4 is the correct answer.

Directions: Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Question 42

He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.

  1. AOption (a)

    usual

  2. BOption (b)

    durable

  3. COption (c)

    commendable

  4. DOption (d)

    some

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

commendable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'commendable.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'exemplary' means very good; that can be an example to other people. (श्रेष्‍ठ, बहुत अच्‍छा; औरों के लिए आदर्श)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Usual' means happening or used most often. (प्रयोग में आने वाला, हमेशा)
  • 'Durable' means likely to last for a long time without breaking or getting weaker. (टिकाऊ, स्‍थायी)
  • 'Commendable' means something that people think is good. (सराहनीय, प्रशंसनीय, प्रशंसा योग्‍य)
  • 'Some' is used to refer to someone or something that is unknown or unspecified. (किसी अज्ञात या अनिर्दिष्ट व्यक्ति या किसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'exemplary' are "commendable, excellent, fabulous".
  • The antonyms of the word 'exemplary' are "bad, poor, unsatisfactory".
  • Example of 'exemplary' in a sentence:
  • His citation says he showed outstanding and exemplary courage.

Question 43

when the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.

  1. AOption (a)

    at rest

  2. BOption (b)

    idle

  3. COption (c)

    quiet

  4. DOption (d)

    impatient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

impatient

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. Impatient.

Explanation

  • Restive means unable to remain still, silent.
  • At rest means relaxed, not agitated.
  • Idle and Quiet means calm, not troubled.
  • Impatient means restlessly eager, showing a tendency to be quickly irritated or provoked.
  • Only option 4, i.e. Impatient carries a similar meaning as that of restive, so, option 4 is the correct answer.. Other three are opposite in meaning, so, are antonyms of the word 'restive'.

Question 44

There is no dearth of talent in this country.

  1. AOption (a)

    scarcity

  2. BOption (b)

    availability

  3. COption (c)

    plenty

  4. DOption (d)

    absence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

scarcity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'scarcity.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'dearth' means a lack of something; not enough of something. (किसी वस्‍तु की कमी; अपर्याप्त)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Scarcity' means the state of being scarce or in short supply; shortage. (विरलता, दुर्लभता, अभाव)
  • 'Availability' means the quality of being able to be used or obtained. (उपलब्‍ध होने की स्थिति; सुलभता, प्राप्‍यता)
  • 'Plenty' means as much or as many of something as you need. (भरपूर, जितना चाहिए उतना भर)
  • 'Absence' means the fact of something or somebody not being there; lack. (किसी वस्‍तु या व्‍यक्ति के किसी स्‍थान पर न होने का तथ्‍य; अनुपस्थिति)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'dearth' are "scarcity, deficit, shortage".
  • The antonyms of the word 'dearth' are "excess, overabundance, surfeit".
  • Example of 'dearth' in a sentence:
  • There's a real dearth of knowledge about how to manage money.

Question 45

The servants retired to their quarters.

  1. AOption (a)

    entered

  2. BOption (b)

    went away

  3. COption (c)

    ran away

  4. DOption (d)

    mobilized

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

went away

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'went away.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'retired' means to leave a room or group of people and go somewhere quiet or private. (एक कमरा या लोगों के समूह को छोड़कर कहीं शांत या निजी स्थान पर जाना)
  • For Example - After dinner, our host said, "Shall we retire to the drawing-room?"
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Entered' means to become a member of or start working. (सदस्य बनना या काम करना शुरू करना)
  • 'Went away' means to leave a place or person. (किसी स्थान या व्यक्ति को छोड़कर दूर चले जाना)
  • 'Ran away' means to get free from a dangerous or confining situation. (खतरनाक या सीमित स्थिति से मुक्त होना)
  • 'Mobilized' means make something movable or capable of movement. (कुछ चलने योग्य बनाना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Mistake Points

  • One must be clear in making out the difference between ran away and went away. Read the above explanation for a better understanding.
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Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'retired' are "went away, released, separated".
  • The antonyms of the word 'retired' are "kept, engaged, retained".
  • Example of 'retired​​' in a sentence:
  • He took a book from the shelf and retired to his room.

Question 46

The navy gave tactical support to the marines.

  1. AOption (a)

    sensitive

  2. BOption (b)

    strategic

  3. COption (c)

    immediate

  4. DOption (d)

    expert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

strategic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'strategic.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'tactical' means connected with the particular method you use to achieve something. (कुछ प्राप्‍त करने के लिए अपनाई गई युक्ति से संबंधित)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Sensitive' means quick to detect or respond to slight changes, signals, or influences. (ज़रा से परिवर्तन को भी माप लेने वाला)
  • 'Strategic' means helping you to achieve a plan. (लक्ष्‍य की प्राप्ति में सहायक युक्तिपूर्ण)
  • 'Immediate' means happening or done without delay. (तुरंत होने या किया जाने वाला)
  • 'Expert' means having or involving a great deal of knowledge or skill in a particular area. (कुशल, प्रवीण, सुविज्ञ)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'tactical' are "strategic, plan, prudent".
  • The antonyms of the word 'tactical' are "impractical, unplanned, unfeasible".
  • Example of 'tactical' in a sentence:
  • He was given tactical command of the operation.

Question 47

A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.

  1. AOption (a)

    dispute

  2. BOption (b)

    disagree

  3. COption (c)

    distingush

  4. DOption (d)

    differ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

differ

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

  • Deviate means different from usual or accepted standards.
  • Dispute means an argument.
  • Disagree means to express a different opinion.
  • Distinguish means recognize or treat as different.
  • Differ means dissimilar or disagree.
  • Though the meanings Disagree, Distinguish and Differ are similar, the correct answer is differ. This is so because of the use of preposition 'from' in the sentence. 'Disagree' is followed by the preposition 'with', 'distinguish' generally by 'between', whereas 'differ' is followed by the preposition 'from'.
  • For e.g. He differed from his contemporaries in ethical matter.
  • The given sentence, i.e. question sentence means that A genius always thinks the way other the conventional way of thinking.

 

  • Aspirants must be aware with the use of the prepositions after these words, when put in a sentence. Refer the explanation given above.

Question 48

He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.

  1. AOption (a)

    depressed

  2. BOption (b)

    weakened

  3. COption (c)

    worried

  4. DOption (d)

    defeated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

weakened

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. weakened.

Explanation:

  • Debilitated means in a very weakened and infirm state.
  • Depressed means in a state of unhappiness.
  • Worried means anxious, disturbed.
  • Defeated means beaten up in a battle or other contest.
  • Weakened means became weaker in power, resolve, or physical strength.
  • From the given options, option 2, i.e. 'weakened', carries the same meaning as that of the word 'debilitated'.
  • The sentence means that the person was greatly weakened by the attack of influenza.

Important point:

  • Aspirants should be careful in using the words weakened and defeated. Defeated means beaten in a conflict, whereas, debilitated, means to become weak. It is not necessary that the weak have been defeated.

Question 49

His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.

  1. AOption (a)

    welcome

  2. BOption (b)

    sincere

  3. COption (c)

    good

  4. DOption (d)

    praiseworthy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

praiseworthy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. praiseworthy.

Key Points:- 

  • The sentence expresses the meaning that the efforts of the person in relation to helping the poor are deserving admiration. (वाक्य इस अर्थ को व्यक्त करता है कि गरीबों की मदद करने के संबंध में व्यक्ति के प्रयास प्रशंसा के पात्र हैं।)
  • Laudable means deserving praise and commendation. (प्रशंसा के योग्य )
  • Welcome means an instance or manner of greeting someone. (किसी का अभिवादन करने का उदाहरण या ढंग)
  • Sincere means genuine, honest. (सच्चा, ईमानदार)
  • Good means something of high standards. (उच्च मानकों का कुछ)
  • Praiseworthy means deserving approval and admiration.
  • From the given options, only option 4 carries a similar meaning as that of the word laudable.
  • Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 50

His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.

  1. AOption (a)

    rebuke

  2. BOption (b)

    sympathy

  3. COption (c)

    indifference

  4. DOption (d)

    remorse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

rebuke

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. rebuke.

Explanation:

  • Reproach means the expression of disapproval or disappointment.
  • Sympathy means feelings of pity and sorrow for someone else's misfortune.
  • Indifference means a lack of interest.
  • Remorse means a deep regret or guilt for a wrong committed.
  • Rebuke means to express sharp disapproval or criticism.
  • From the given options, only option 1, i.e. rebuke carries a similar meaning as that of the word reproach. The question sentence means that the behavior of the person resulted in his sharp criticism by the sections of his society or surroundings. So, rebuke is the correct answer.
  • For e.g. She had rebuked him for drinking too much.

Question 51

Directions

The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.

Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. Petroleum

  • Petroleum is referred to as “Black Gold.”
  • Crude oil is taken into account to be the “mother of all commodities” because it is employed to manufacture various products like pharmaceuticals, plastics, gasoline, synthetic fabrics, etc.
  • Petroleum or oil has also been the world’s leading source of energy since the 1950s.
  • When it's drilled from the bottom within the liquid form, it's called petroleum.
  • Petroleum is made from the remains of dead plants and animals.
  • Certain bacteria helped within the decomposition of this organic matter and caused some chemical changes.
  • Matter consisting of largely carbon and hydrogen (Hydrocarbon) was left behind. However, as there's not sufficient oxygen at the rock bottom of the ocean, the matter couldn't decompose completely.
  • This burying took many years, and eventually, thanks to heat and pressure, the organic matter decomposed completely and formed oil. Hence statement I is true.
  • Petroleum may be a mixture of the many substances like gas, petrol, diesel, kerosene, grease, paraffin, etc.
  • The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons, and other factors such as its specific gravity or API and its sulphur content—and its location—for example, its proximity to tidewater and/or refineries. Hence statement 2 is the true and correct explanation of statement 1.
  • ​India’s strategic crude oil storages are currently located at Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh), Mangaluru (Karnataka), and Padur (Karnataka).
  • The government has also given approval for setting up of two additional facilities at Chandikhol (Odisha) and Padur (Karnataka).

Question 52

Directions

The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.

Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Red sea

  • The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia.
  • The connection to the ocean is within the south through the Bab-el Mandeb strait and therefore the Gulf of Aden.
  • To the north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and thereafter the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal).
  • The sea is underlain by the Red Sea Rift which is a small portion of the Great Rift Valley.
  • The salinity of the Red Sea is greater than the world average, approximately 4 %. Hence statement 1 is true.
  • This is due to several factors:
  1. There is a lack of significant rivers or streams draining into the ocean.
  2. There is a limited connection with the Indian Ocean, which has lower water salinity.
  3. The high rate of evaporation and very little precipitation. Hence statement 2 is the true and correct explanation of statement 1.

Question 53

Directions

The following item consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.

Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Volcano

  • A volcano is an opening in the earth’s crust through which gases, molten rocks lava, ash, steam etc. are emitted outward in the course of an eruption.
  • Such vents or openings occur in those parts of the earth’s crust where the rock strata are relatively weak.
  • Volcanic activity is closely connected with crystal disturbances, particularly where there are zone weakness due to deep faulting or mountain folding.
  • Major earthquakes usually caused by movement along faults.
  • This is because the molten magma float over the asthenosphere that forces its way into the planes of weakness of the crust to escape.
  • Hence both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
  • There are three types of volcanoes i.e. active, dormant and extinct.
  • When volcanoes frequently errupted or errupted within recent time are said to be active.
  • Those shows the signs of possible erruption in the future are said to be dormant.
  • Volcanoes that have not errupted at all in historic times but retain the features of volcanoes are termed as extinct.

Question 54

Directions

The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practised in humid tropics.

Statement II: The soil of humid tropic is highly fertile

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Plantation Farming

  • Plantation farming is bush or tree farming. It was introduced by the British in the 19th century.
  • It is a single crop farming of rubber, tea, coffee, cocoa, spices, coconut and fruit crops like apples, grapes, oranges, etc.
  • It is capital intensive agriculture.
  • Plantation agriculture is export-oriented agriculture. Most of the crops grown in plantation agriculture have a life cycle of more than two years.
  • Natural rubber, coconuts, oil palm, tea, cocoa, and coffee are all tree crops and take years to mature, but afterwards, they are productive for long periods.
  • Plantations are mainly found in countries that have a tropical climate. Plantations exist on every continent possessing a tropical climate. Hence statement I is true.
  • Clay soil that is commonly found in tropical regions has very good drainage and high humid content.
  • The humid tropical soil has less fertile because the decomposition rate of organic matter is very slow due to all-weather filled with water and hence less organic matter present in the soil. Hence statement II is false.

Question 55

Directions

The following 05 (Five) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: India has a wide variation in population density.

Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and the history of the settlement have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Population density and population distribution

  • There are several factors that affect the population distribution in India like Geographical Factors, Social Factors, Cultural Factors and Economic Factors

​Geographical Factors

  • It includes topography because people prefer living on plains rather than plateaus and mountains since these areas are suitable for agriculture, manufacturing and also service activities.
  • The Ganga Plains are one of the most densely populated areas of the world whereas mountains like the Alps, Andes and the Himalayas are sparsely populated.
  • The other factor is climate, people generally stay away from an extreme climate like the Sahara desert and the polar regions.
  • Fertile soils like Brahmaputra and Ganga plain are highly populated.
  • People prefer to live in those places where freshwater is easily available. So, the river valleys are densely populated and the deserts have less population.
  • Places with deposits of the mineral are naturally more populated.

Social Factors

  • Areas with better housing, transport, health facilities and education are more populated. Example: Pune in India

Cultural Factors

  • Places with cultural, religious or historical importance attract people. Example: Varanasi in India

Economic Factors

  • It is also a reason behind population distribution because Industrial areas offer employment opportunities. A large number of people make their way into these areas. Examples: Mumbai in India

An area like agricultural productivity and history of settlement act like Growth centre and Growth pole is densely populated.

Question 56

A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 × 103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then

  1. AOption (a)

    X = Y

  2. BOption (b)

    X = 13.6 Y

  3. COption (c)

    Y = 13.6 X

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Y = 13.6 X

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Density (ρ):

  • The mass per unit volume is called as the density of the material.
  • Density is a scalar quantity.
  • The density of water is 1000 kg/m3
  • Mathematically density can be written as,

Density;(ρ)=Mass;(M)Volume;(V);;;;;…(1)Density;\left( \rho \right) = \frac{{Mass;\left( M \right)}}{{Volume;\left( V \right)}};;;;; \ldots \left( 1 \right)

⇒ M = ρ V

  • The weight,

W = Mg       ...(2)

Where M = Mass, V = The volume of the container

EXPLANATION:

Given:  ρm = 13600 kg/m3, ρW = 1000 kg/m3 (Known data)

  • Here we have a container in which we first take water and then we take mercury in the same container.
  • Volume for both water and mercury will be the same because the container is the same.
  • When the container is filled with water then using equations 1 and 2,

⇒ Mass of water (Mw) = ρw × V = 1000V kg

⇒ Weight of water (X) = MW g = 1000Vg       -----(3)

  • When the container is filled with mercury then using equations 1 and 2,

⇒ Mass of mercury (Mm ) = ρ × V = 13600V Kg

⇒ Weight of mercury (Y) = Mm g = 13600Vg      -----(4)

  • Divide the equation (2) by (1) we get,

⇒YX=13600;Vg1000;Vg=13.6⇒ \frac{Y}{X} = \frac{{13600;Vg}}{{1000;Vg}} = 13.6

⇒ Y = 13.6 X

Sp the correct answer is option 3.

Question 57

 Density of water is

  1. AOption (a)

    Maximum at 10°C

  2. BOption (b)

    Minimum at 0°C

  3. COption (c)

    Maximum at 4°C

  4. DOption (d)

    Minimum at -4°C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maximum at 4°C

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Density:

  • The mass per unit volume is called as density of material.
  • Density is a scalar quantity.

EXPLANATION:

  • When the water molecules are present in ice form then it has lot of empty space within molecules.

  • When water melts then after converting into water the molecules gets closer to each other and they will be most closed to each other at 4°C.

  • Hence the density of water at 4°C is maximum which is 1000 kg/m3. So option 3 is correct.

  • When immiscible liquids of different densities are poured in a container, the liquid of the highest density will be at the bottom while that of the lowest density at the top and interfaces will be plane.

Question 58

The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is

  1. AOption (a)

    Red Phosphorus

  2. BOption (b)

    Black Phosphorus

  3. COption (c)

    White Phosphorus

  4. DOption (d)

    Scarlet Phosphorus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Red Phosphorus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e Red Phosphorus.

Allotropes of Phosphorus

  • There are different allotropic sorts of Phosphorus in nature.
  • The important allotropic sorts of phosphorus are white phosphorus, black phosphorus and red phosphorous.

Red Phosphorus

  • Has iron-grey lustre.
  • Odourless.
  • Nonpoisonous.
  • It does not dissolve in water and carbon disulphide.
  • Does not glow in the dark.
  • Chemically, white phosphorus is more reactive than red phosphorus.
  • It is polymeric and consists of chains of P4 tetrahedra linked together.
  • It is used in the manufacturing of safety matches.

White Phosphorus

  • It appears like white waxy solid or translucent.
  • Poisonous in nature.
  • Less stable and more reactive.
  • Does not dissolve in water.
  • When mixed with carbon disulphide it dissolves and evaporates to sunlight to form Scarlet phosphorus.
  • Glows in the dark.

Black Phosphorus

  • α-black and β-black are two sorts of black phosphorus.
  • When red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at 803K, an α-black form is formed.
  • It can be sublimed in the air and has either rhombohedral crystals or opaque monoclinic.
  • It does not oxidise in the air.
  • When the white phosphorus is heated under high pressure at 473 K, β-Black is formed, It does not burn in the air up to 673K.

Question 59

Which one of the following is NOT a chemical change?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ripening of fruits

  2. BOption (b)

    Curdling of milk

  3. COption (c)

    Freezing of water

  4. DOption (d)

    Digestion of food

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Freezing of water

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Freezing of water.

Key Points

Chemical changes

  • If the chemical composition of a product is changing then it is a chemical change.
  • The changes are irreversible changes.
  • And the final product is different from the initial one.
  • Example of Chemical changes is the burning of a candle, the ripening of fruit, curdling of the milk, and the digestion of food, etc.

Physical changes

  • if the chemical composition is remaining the same but only the state changes, then it is a physical change.
  • The changes are reversible change.
  • The states changes but the final products are the same as the initial one.
  • Example of Chemical changes is Freezing of water and Evaporation of water etc. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 60

One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like

  1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

  2. Carbon monoxide (CO)

  3. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

  4. Benzene

Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e 1, 2 and 4 only.

Air pollution

  • Air pollution refers to any physical, chemical or biological change in the air.
  • It is the contamination of air by harmful gases, dust and smoke which affects plants, animals, and humans drastically.
  • This can be in the form of excessive gases like carbon dioxide and other vapours that cannot be effectively removed through natural gaseous cycles.
  • There are two types of Pollutants that cause air pollution i.e Primary pollutants and Secondary pollutants.
  • Primary pollutants are the pollutants that directly cause air pollution like Lead, Fly Ash, Metallic Oxides and Nano-particles etc.
  • Secondary pollutants formed by the reaction of primary pollutants like Carbon monoxide (CO), Carbon dioxide (CO2), Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), Ozone (O3), Nitrogen oxide (NOx), Volatile organic compounds (VOCs), Benzene, Biological pollutants, Asbestos and Radon etc.
  • Carbon monoxide (CO), Nitrogen oxide (NOx), Benzene, Ozone (O3) and Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), are pollutants that are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels. Hence option 4 is correct
  • There are some air pollutant and their health impact listed below.
PollutantsDescriptionImpacts
Lead- One of the most hazardous heavy metals - Additive to fuels and other products - Mixed with water and food- Nervous system damage - Digestive issues - Kidney damage - Impacts on intelligence etc
Fly Ash- Particles of oxides and other heavy metals - Aluminium silicate - Silicon dioxide (SiO2) - Calcium oxide (CaO)- Heavy metal contamination of crops and vegetables - Nervous system damage - Kidney damage etc
Nanoparticles- Diameters less than 100 Nanometers - Responsible for the formation of dust clouds, Ozone depletion.- Lung inflammation - Heart problems.
Carbon monoxide (CO)- Highly toxic Can not be tolerated even at a low level. - Produced from internal combustion engines due to incomplete combustion. - Other sources are volcanoes, forest fires, etc. - It is a greenhouse gas.- Carbon monoxide poisoning. - Produces carboxyhemoglobin reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
Carbon dioxide (CO2)- It is not very toxic as other greenhouse gases - Heavier than air. - Sources are volcanoes, fire, etc. - It is a greenhouse gas.- CO2 is an asphyxiant gas, causing unconsciousness or death. - If a high concentration of CO2 is inhaled like dizziness, headache, etc. - Carbonic rain in high polluted areas.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)- Used in refrigerators, air conditioners, aerosols, etc.- Highly destructive to the Ozone layer. - Cataracts. - Weakened immune system. - Skin cancer
Ozone (O3)- Very useful in the Stratosphere but harmful at the ground layer or in theTroposphere - It’s produced due to industries and vehicular emissions. - It is a greenhouse gas.- Has toxic effects. - Causes watery and itchy eyes.
Nitrogen oxide (NOx)- Forms due to the reaction between oxygen and nitrogen at high temps such as in combustion engines and industries.- Respiratory issues in humans. - Formation of SMOG, acid rain (nitric acid) and the greenhouse effect.
Sulphur dioxide (SO2)- Pungent smelling colourless gas produced from mostly volcanic activities, industrial processes and production of sulphuric acid.- Respiratory issues, premature deaths and death of certain nerves when inhaled.
Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)- Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are a large group of carbon-based chemicals that easily evaporate at room temperature.- Irritations in eyes, skin, nose and throat. - Long-term exposure can cause serious damage to the liver and other organs.
Benzene- Found in petrochemicals and used as a fuel additive- Increases cancer risk and a major cause of bone marrow failure.
Ethylene- Used in plastic and chemical industries in the production of Polyethylene and other polymers.- Excess exposure can cause headaches and dizziness. - Ethylene oxide is a carcinogen
Asbestos- Occurs naturally as a fibrous mineral.- Prolonged exposure and inhalation can be very harmful and can cause fatal illness.

Question 61

Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West:

  1. Rishikesh

  2. New Delhi

  3. Patna

  4. Bhubaneshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    4 – 3 – 1 – 2

  2. BOption (b)

    4 – 1 – 3 – 2

  3. COption (c)

    3 – 4 – 2 – 1

  4. DOption (d)

    3 – 2 – 1 – 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4 – 3 – 1 – 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e 4 – 3 – 1 – 2.

Bhubaneshwar

  • Bhubaneshwar is one of the largest capital of Indian state Odisha, which is the easternmost state of Peninsular India.
  • Bhubaneswar is also popularly known as the "Temple City of India".
  • Being the seat of Tribhubaneswar or 'Lord Lingaraj', Bhubaneswar is an important Hindu pilgrimage centre.

Patna

  • Patna is an ancient city that sprawls along the south bank of the Ganges River in Bihar, northeast India.
  • It the capital of Bihar, the northeastern state of India.
  • It is famous for the Buddhist, Hindu and Jain pilgrimage centres of Vaishali, Rajgir, Nalanda, Bodh Gaya and Pawapuri.
  • Patna City is also a sacred city for Sikhs as the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh was born here.
  • Bhubaneshwar is in the east of this city.

Rishikesh

  • Rishikesh is a city in India’s northern state of Uttarakhand, in the Himalayan foothills beside the Ganges River.
  • Rishikesh is primarily famous for its spiritual importance.
  • There are a number of Yoga Ashramas for practising meditation.
  • Rishikesh is the beginning of the famous Char Dham Yatra.
  • It is in the Northeast to Delhi which is the capital of India.

Delhi

  • It is the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT), a city and a union territory of India containing New Delhi, the capital of India.
  • It is famous for its tourist attractions, food, and it's marketplaces.

Question 62

Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    2F

  3. COption (c)

    4F

  4. DOption (d)

    F/4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4F

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Newton's law of Gravitation:

  • Newton's law of gravitation states that everybody in this universe attracts every other body with a force, which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • The direction of the force is along the line joining the particles.
  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F is,

F=GM1M2R2;;;;;…(1)F = G\frac{{{M_1}{M_2}}}{{{R^2}}};;;;; \ldots \left( 1 \right)

Where G = universal gravitational constant, M1 = mass of 1st body, M2 = mass of 2nd body, and R = distance between the two bodies.

EXPLANATION:

Given: The two masses are equal.

⇒ m1 = m2 = m

  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F using equation 1 in 1st case is

⇒F=;G;m1m2r2=;G;m2r2⇒ F = {\rm{;}}G;\frac{{{m_1}{m_2}}}{{{r^2}}} =;\frac{{G;{m^2}}}{{{r^2}}}

  • Now masses are doubled and distance is the same

⇒ m1 = m2 = 2m

  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F using equation 1 in 2nd case is

⇒F=;G;2m×2m;r2\Rightarrow F = ;G;\frac{{2m \times 2m;}}{{{r^2}}}

⇒F′=;4×G;m2r2=;4F;\Rightarrow F' = ;4 \times \frac{{G;{m^2}}}{{{r^2}}} = {\rm{;}}4{\rm{F;}}

So, the correct answer is option 3

Question 63

A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would

  1. AOption (a)

    Lose one-fourth of its total energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Lose one-fourth of its potential energy

  3. COption (c)

    Gain one-fourth of its potential energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Gain three-fourth of its total energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lose one-fourth of its potential energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The energy of anybody due to its position is called as potential energy of that body.
  • The energy of anybody due to the motion of that body is called kinetic energy.
  • The sum of potential energy and kinetic energy is equal to the total energy of the body.
  • According to the energy conservation principle, the total energy of the body always remains constant.
  • Potential energy,

PE = m g h

Where m is the mass of the body, g is the acceleration due to gravity and h is height of the body

  • Kinetic energy,

 KE=12mV2KE =\frac{1}{2}m{V^2}

Where m is the mass of the body and V is the velocity of the body

EXPLANATION:

Given: The initial height of the body (H) = 20 m, PEi = mgH = 20 mg

  • When body fall by 5 m then-new height (h) = 20-5 = 15
  • Final potential energy (PEf)= m g h = 15 mg
  • Loss in potential energy,

⇒ ΔPE = Initial Potential energy (PEi) - Final potential energy (PEf) 

⇒ ΔPE = 20 mg -15 mg = 5 mg

⇒Loss;in;potential;energyInitial;potential;energy;=;5mg20mg=14\Rightarrow \frac{{Loss;in;potential;energy}}{{Initial;potential;energy;}} = ;\frac{{5mg}}{{20mg}} = \frac{1}{4}

  • Potential energy will lose by one-fourth. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • As the total energy will remain constant always, options 1 and 4 are wrong.

Question 64

Soap is sodium or potassium salt of

  1. AOption (a)

    Stearic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Oleic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Palmitic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Saponification

  • Soap is sodium or potassium salt of fatty acid produced by saponification reaction using sodium or potassium hydroxide with vegetable or animal oil or fatty acid.
  • The fatty acids like stearic, palmitic, myristic, lauric and oleic acids, contribute to lathering and washing properties of the soaps. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Sodium salts of fatty acids are known as hard soaps and potassium salts of fatty acids are known as soft soaps.
  • Soap is prepared by heating vegetable oil or animal fat containing Glyceryl stearate with concentrated sodium hydroxide solution.
  • Hydrolysis of fat takes place and a mixture of sodium salts of fatty acids and glycerol is formed.
  • The salts of fatty acids thus formed are used as soap.

Question 65

Mass of a particular amount of substance

  1. is the amount of matter present in it.
  2. does not vary from place to place.
  3. Changes with the change in gravitational force.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Mass of a substance:

  • Mass is one of the fundamental quantities in Physics and the most basic property of matter.

EXPLANATION:

  • The mass of a particular amount of substance depends on the amount of matter present in it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
  • The mass of a body does not change at any time and it does not vary from place to place. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Mass can never be zero.
  • Mass is a scalar quantity, It has magnitude but not direction.

∵ W = mg

Where W =The weight of the body, m  = The mass of the body, and g = The gravitational force on the body. 

  • So, the mass does not change according to the gravitational force but it is the weight that changes with gravitational force.
  • Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.

The correct answer is option 2

Question 66

Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?

  1. Pesticide residues

  2. Lead

  3. Metanil yellow

  4. Mercury

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

This is the list of few adulterants added to the food products along with their harmful effects.

Food ProductsAdulterantHarmful Effects
Milk and CurdWater and starch powder and UreaStomach disorders.
Ghee, Cheese and ButterMashed potatoes, Vanaspati and starch powder.Gastro-intestinal disturbances and other stomach disorders.
GrainsDust, Pebbles, Stones, Straw, weed seeds, damaged grain, etc.Liver disorders, Toxicity in the body, etc.
PulsesDyes, chemical and Lead Chromate.Stomach disorders.
Coffee powderChicory, tamarind seeds powder.Diarrhoea.
TeaArtificial colouring agents.Liver disorders.
SugarChalk powder, Washing soda, Urea, etc.Stomach disorders and kidney failure.
Edible OilsMineral oil, Karanja oil, castor oil, and artificial colours.Gallbladder cancer, allergies, paralysis, cardiac arrest, and increased LDL cholesterol.
Turmeric PowderPesticide residues, sawdust, chalk dust, industrial dyes,metanil yellowdye arsenic, lead metal etc.Cancer and Stomach disorders.
Chilli and Coriander powderRedbrick powder, Rhodamine B dye, Red lead, dung powder, soluble salts, water-soluble synthetic colours and other common salts.Metal toxicity, Cancer, lead poisoning, tumour, variations in blood pressure and other stomach related disorders.
Cumin seedsColoured grass seeds, sawdust and charcoal dustStomach disorders.
Jam, Juice and CandiesNon-permitted dyes including metanilyellow and other artificial food dyes.These dyes are highly carcinogenic that have the potential to cause different types of cancer.
<br>

Mercury contamination occurs through seafood.

Question 67

In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in

  1. AOption (a)

    Sapt Kosi Valley

  2. BOption (b)

    Jhelum Valley

  3. COption (c)

    Alakananda Valley

  4. DOption (d)

    Teesta Valley

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jhelum Valley

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Jhelum Valley.

Karewas

  • The Jhelum valley is the part of Kashmir valley which is an oval-shaped basin, 140 km long and 40 km wide.
  • It is an intermountain valley fill, comprising of unconsolidated gravel and dirt.
  • A succession of plateaus or plateau-like terraces is present above the plains of Jhelum and its tributaries, called ‘Karewas’ or ‘Vudr’ within the local language.
  • Despite continuous erosion for many years, quite half the valley remains occupied by the Karewa.
  • Karewas are lacustrine deposits that mean deposits in the lake, in the Valley of Kashmir.
  • These are the flat-topped mounds that border the Kashmir Valley on all sides.
  • Karewas were formed during the Pleistocene Period when the entire Valley of Kashmir was underwater.
  • Thus they are characterized with fossils of mammals and at places by peat.

Question 68

Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of

  1. AOption (a)

    Shiwalik Range

  2. BOption (b)

    Deccan Plateau

  3. COption (c)

    Greater Himalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Aravalli Range

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Deccan Plateau

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e Deccan Plateau.

Meghalaya Plateau

  • The Deccan Plateau of peninsular India extends further east beyond the Rajmahal hills to Meghalaya or the Shillong plateau. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Garo-Rajmahal Gap separates this plateau from the most block.
  • This gap was formed by down-faulting. It was later filled by sediments deposited by the Ganga and Brahmaputra.
  • The plateau is made by Archaean quartzites, shales and schists.
  • The plateau slopes right down to Brahmaputra valley within the north and therefore the Surma and Meghna valleys within the south.
  • Its western boundary coincides with the Bangladesh border.
  • The western parts of the plateau are known as the Garo Hills, central parts of the plateau are known as the Khasi-Jaintia and the eastern parts of the plateau are known as the Mikir Hills.
  • Shillong is the highest point of the plateau.

Question 69

Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Momentum of B will be double that of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Momentum of A will be double that of B

  3. COption (c)

    Momentum of B will be four times that of A

  4. DOption (d)

    Momenta of both A and B will be equal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Momentum of B will be double that of A

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Momentum:

  • The product of mass and velocity is called as the momentum of any body.
  • It is denoted by P.
  • Momentum can be written mathematically as
  • P = m × V      ...(1)

Where m is mass and V is the velocity of the body

EXPLANATION:

Given: Mass of B (MB) = 2MA (Mass of A) and VA = VB

  • Using equation 1, the momentum of body A,

⇒ PA = MA × VA      --------- (2)

  • The momentum of body B,

⇒ PB = MB × VB = (2MA ) × VA      --------- (3)

Divide equations 2 and 3, we get

⇒PAPB=MAVB2MBVB=12\Rightarrow \frac{{{P_A}}}{{{P_B}}} = \frac{{{M_A}{V_B}}}{{2{M_B}{V_B}}} = \frac{1}{2}

  • ∴ The momentum of body B is twice that of body A.

So, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 70

During solar eclipse

  1. AOption (a)

    The earth comes in between the sun and the moon

  2. BOption (b)

    The moon comes in between the sun and the earth

  3. COption (c)

    The moon comes exactly halfway between the earth and the sun

  4. DOption (d)

    The sun comes in between the earth and the moon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The moon comes in between the sun and the earth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Solar eclipse

  • A Solar eclipse is a phenomenon that occurs when the moon comes in the way of the sun’s light. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The moon's shadow casts itself on Earth, blocking out the sun's light.
  • The moon's shadow has two parts: a central region called the umbra and an outer region called the penumbra.
  • From the umbra, we see a total eclipse while from the penumbra only a partial eclipse is visible.
  • Depending on the distance of the moon from the earth during the event three types of solar eclipses could be observed.
  1. Total Solar Eclipse- The entire central portion of the sun is blocked out by the moon.
  2. Partial Solar Eclipse- Only part of the sun's surface is blocked out.
  3. Annular Solar Eclipse- The sun is covered in such a way that only a small ring-like sliver of light is seen from the sun's disc. This ring is known as the ring of fire. An annular eclipse happens when the moon is farthest from Earth.

Question 71

The SI unit of acceleration is

  1. AOption (a)

    m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    m/s2

  3. COption (c)

    cm/s2

  4. DOption (d)

    km/s2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

m/s2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Acceleration (a): The rate of change of velocity is called the acceleration of the body.

a=Change;in;velocity;(ΔV)Time;taken;(t)a = \frac{{Change;in;velocity;\left( {{\rm{\Delta }}V} \right)}}{{Time;taken;\left( t \right)}}

EXPLANATION:

  • As we know that the SI unit of velocity = meter/sec
  • **The SI unit of time = **sec
  • ∴ SI unit of acceleration is,

⇒a=meter/secsec=metersec2=m/s2\Rightarrow a = \frac{{meter/sec}}{{sec}} = \frac{{meter}}{{se{c^2}}} = m/{s^2}

  • The correct answer is m/s2.

​

  • The CGS unit of acceleration is cm/s2.

Question 72

An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e.6.

Mass number

  • The mass number can be calculated as the total number of protons and the number of neutrons in an atom.
  • mass number = protons + neutrons
  • As per given in the above question we have - Mass number=12, proton=6 and neutrons=?
  • 12 = 6 + Number of neutrons
  • Number of neutrons = 12 - 6
  • Number of neutrons = 6

Question 73

Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)

  2. BOption (b)

    S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)

  3. COption (c)

    2HgO(s)→heat,2Hg(l)+O2(g)2HgO\left( s \right)\overset{heat}{\mathop{\to }},2Hg\left( l \right)+{{O}_{2}}\left( g \right)

  4. DOption (d)

    Mg(s) + S(s) → MgS(s)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2HgO(s)→heat,2Hg(l)+O2(g)2HgO\left( s \right)\overset{heat}{\mathop{\to }},2Hg\left( l \right)+{{O}_{2}}\left( g \right)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Explanation:

Reduction reaction

  • Reduction means losing oxygen in a chemical reaction.
  • In terms of electrons, the reduction occurs when an atom, molecule, or ion gaining one or more electrons in a chemical reaction.
  • When oxidation occurs, the oxidation state of the chemical species decreases.
  • An example of the reduction reaction is
  • 2HgO(s)→heat,2Hg(l)+O2(g)2HgO\left( s \right)\overset{heat}{\mathop{\to }},2Hg\left( l \right)+{{O}_{2}}\left( g \right), where the oxidation number of Hg is decreasing from +2 in LHS to 0 in RHS. Hence option 3 is correct.

Important Points

Oxidation reaction

  • Oxidation means gaining oxygen in a chemical reaction.
  • In terms of electrons, oxidation occurs when an atom, molecule, or ion loses one or more electrons in a chemical reaction.
  • When oxidation occurs, the oxidation state of the chemical species increases.
  • An example of the oxidation reaction is 
  • 2Mg (s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s), where oxidation number of Mg is increases from 0 in LHS to +2 in RHS.
  • S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g), where oxidation number of S is increases from 0 in LHS to +4 in RHS.
  • Mg(s) + S(s) → MgS(s) where oxidation number of Mg is increases from 0 in LHS to +2 in RHS.​

Question 74

Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?

  1. Steel utensils
  2. Plastic coffee mugs
  3. Aluminium utensils
  4. Plastic water storage bottles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3

Bisphenol A (BPA)

  • Bisphenol A (BPA) that is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins.
  • BPA applications including use in some food and drink packaging, e.g., water and infant bottles, coffee mugs, compact discs, impact-resistant safety equipment, and medical devices.
  • Steel utensils and Aluminium utensils donot release BPA.
  • BPA that seeps into food and drink is taken under consideration safe in low doses, but prolonged exposure is suspected of affecting the health of kids and contributing to high blood pressure.
  • The primary source of exposure to BPA for many people is through the diet.
  • BPA is an endocrine-disrupting chemical.
  • The toxic chemical is known to mimic a hormone that activates the progression of cancer and interferes with the development of the reproductive system.
  • Epidemiological studies of children indicate correlations between BPA exposure and heart diseases, liver toxicity, and metabolic syndrome.

Question 75

The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Godavari

  2. BOption (b)

    Krishana

  3. COption (c)

    Kavery

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahanadi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Krishana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Krishna.

Key Points 

Nagarjun Sagar project

  • Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a reservoir across the river Krishna in Nagarjuna Sagar Nalgonda district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Nagarjuna Sagar Reservoir is the world's largest man-made Lake with a concrete wall that measures 6 feet thick.
  • It provides irrigation water to the Nalgonda, Prakasam, Khammam and Guntur district.

There are list of some major dam of India are given below:

List Of Major Dams in IndiaStateRiver
Bhavani Sagar damTamil NaduBhavani
Tungabhadra DamKarnatakaTungabhadra
Rihand DamUttar PradeshRihand
Maithon DamJharkhandBarakar
Koyna DamMaharashtraKoyna
Bisalpur DamRajasthanBanas
Mettur DamTamil NaduKaveri
Krishnarajasagar DamKarnatakaKaveri
Indira Sagar DamMadhya PradeshNarmada
Cheruthoni DamKeralaCheruthoni
Sardar Sarovar DamGujaratNarmada
Nagarjuna Sagar DamAndhra PradeshKrishna
Hirakud damOdishaMahanadi
Bhakra Nangal DamPunjabSutlej
Tehri DamUttarakhandBhagirathi

Question 76

Consider the following statements:

  1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
  2. Bundelkhand gneiss belongs to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e Both 1 and 2.

Rajmahal Hills

  • Rajmahal hills lies to the east in the state of Jharkhand in India.
  • It is the part of peninsular plateau is the oldest and largest physiographic unit of India.
  • Rajmahal highlands consist of multiple layers of lava flow deposits which is predominantly tholeiitic basalt, quartz tholeiite, olivine tholeiite and alkali basalt. Hence the statement 1 is correct.
  • The River Ganga meanders around the hills changing the direction of flow from eastwards to southwards.
  • Volcanic activity in the Jurassic era caused the formation of these hills.
  • The upper regions of the Rajmahal Hills are inhabited by the Sauria Paharia tribe while the valleys are dominated by the Santhal tribe who cultivate the land.

 Bundelkhand

  • Bundelkhand is the part of peninsular Plateau which is one of the oldest landforms of earth.
  • It is a highly stable block composed mostly of the Archaean gneisses and schists. Hence the statement 2 is correct.
  • It extended from Yamuna river to the north, Madhya Bharat Pathar to the west, Vindhyan Scarplands to the east and south-east and Malwa Plateau to the south.
  • It is the old dissected or divided by a number of deep valleys, upland of the ‘Bundelkhand gneiss’ comprising of granite and gneiss rock
  • River Betwa, Dhasan and Ken flow through the plateau.

Question 77

An object is placed at the Centre of the curvature of a concave mirror of a focal length of 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be 

  1. AOption (a)

    Real and magnified

  2. BOption (b)

    Virtual and magnified

  3. COption (c)

    Real and reduced

  4. DOption (d)

    Virtual and reduced 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Real and magnified

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The mirror which has a spherical reflection surface is called as spherical mirror.
  • The spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is away from the center of curvature is called as convex mirror.
  • Convex mirror always from a virtual image of any object.
  • The mirror whose reflecting surface is inward is called as concave mirror.
  • The concave mirror can form both real as well as virtual image of any object.

EXPLANATION:

Given: Focal length (f)  of concave mirror = 16 cm

  • Since the object is shifted towards focus by 8 cm so object is between focus and center of curvature of the mirror.

  • When the object is between focus and Centre of curvature the image formed by the concave mirror is real and magnified. Hence option 1 is correct.

  • The real image is always inverted.

  • Virtual image is always erect.

Question 78

A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be 

  1. AOption (a)

    Real, inverted and magnified 

  2. BOption (b)

    Real, erect and magnified 

  3. COption (c)

    Virtual, erect and reduced 

  4. DOption (d)

    Virtual, erect and magnified

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Virtual, erect and magnified

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

  • The transparent curved surface which is used to refract the light and make an image of any object placed in front of it is called a lens.
  • The lens whose refracting surface is upside is called a convex lens.
  • The convex lens is also called a converging lens.
  • The lens having refracting surface inward is called a concave lens.
  • The concave lens is also called a diverging lens.

Explanation-

  • Here we have a pencil as an object for the lens.
  • Since the focal length is 15 cm and the object is at 10 cm from the lens. So the object is placed between the lens and the focus.

Here F is the focus of the lens and P is the optical center of the lens

  • When an object is kept between lens and focus of a convex lens then the image form on the same side of the lens.
  • The image formed is virtual and magnified.
  • The virtual image is erect. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 79

Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tidal energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Geothermal energy

  3. COption (c)

    Solar energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Biomass energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Biomass energy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e Biomass energy.

Conventional energy source

  • Conventional energy sources are the natural energy resources which are present in a limited quantity and are being used for a long time.
  • If once they are depleted, called non-renewable sources, being used up more quickly than it can replace itself.
  • They are formed from decaying matter over hundreds of millions of years.
  • These resources have been depleted to a great extent due to their continuous exploitation.
  • Examples of conventional sources of energy include coal, petroleum, biomass, natural gas and electricity. Hence option 4 is correct.

Non-Conventional energy source

  • Non-conventional sources of energy are the energy sources which are renewable by natural processes.
  • These cannot be exhausted easily, can be generated constantly so can be used again and again.
  • These sources do not pollute the environment and do not require heavy expenditure.
  • They are called renewable resources as they can be replaced through natural processes at a rate equal to or greater than the rate at which they are consumed.
  • Example of Non-Conventional energy source includes solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy, biogas and geothermal energy etc. Hence option 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Question 80

Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    N2O

  2. BOption (b)

    N2O3

  3. COption (c)

    NO2

  4. DOption (d)

    N2O5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

N2O5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e.N2O5

<sub>

Key Points</sub>

Acid anhydride

  • Anhydride means ‘without water’ It can be defined as the chemical compound formed by eliminating water from another compound.
  • Anhydrides react with water to produces either base or an acid.
  • Acid anhydrides are the molecules that are capable of forming acidic solutions in water.
  • Dinitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) is the anhydride of nitric acid.
  • It means Hydration of Dinitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) gives Nitric acid.
  • N2O5 + H2O → 2HNO3

Question 81

Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium carbonate

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)

  4. DOption (d)

    Potassium carbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Sodium bicarbonate.

  • Some common name of the chemical compound, their chemical name, and chemical formula are as follows:

Important Points

Common name
Chemical name
Chemical formula
Washing sodaSodium carbonateNa2CO3
Baking sodaSodium bicarbonateNaHCO3
Caustic sodaSodium hydroxideNaOH
Bleaching powderCalcium hypochloriteCa(ClO)2
Quick LimeCalcium oxideCaO
MarbleCalcium carbonateCaCO3
Plaster of ParisCalcium sulfateCaSO4..1/2H2O
AspirinAcetylsalicylic acidC9H8O4
Epsom saltsMagnesium sulfateMgSO4·7H2O
Heavy WaterDeuterium oxide2H2O or D2O
Pearl AshPotassium carbonateK2CO3
PlumbagoGraphiteC
Prussic acidHydrogen cyanideHCN
SaltpetrePotassium nitrateKNO3
VinegarAcetic acidCH3COOH

Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate), a white solid which is used in fire extinguishers. Its chemical formula is KHCO3.

Question 82

Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?

  1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.

  2. All segments of DNA code for the synthesis of proteins.

  3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains that run anti-parallel.

  4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 3 and 4 only.

The basic of DNA

  • Molecular genetics emerged from the realization that DNA and RNA both constitute the genetic material of all living organisms. Hence statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • DNA is called the blueprint of life because it contains the genetic code which are instructions needed for an organism to grow, develop, survive and reproduce.
  • DNA stores the genetic information of the cell in the sequence of its 4 bases that is adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.
  • The information in a small segment of DNA i.e.a gene is sent by mRNA to the ribosome to synthesize a protein. Hence statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • Deoxyribonucleic acid is made up of a polymer chain comprised of smaller monomers called nucleotides.
  • Each nucleotide has three-part i.e. a sugar group, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
  • There are four sorts of nitrogen bases i.e. adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C).
  • DNA has a double-helical structure with two nucleotide chains that run anti-parallel, the outer edges are formed by alternating deoxyribose sugar molecules and phosphate groups, which make up the sugar-phosphate backbone. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA is that the small circular chromosome found inside mitochondria. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Question 83

Which organisation prepares the topographical maps of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Geological Survey of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Archaeological Survey of India

  3. COption (c)

    Survey of India

  4. DOption (d)

    National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Survey of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Survey of India.

Survey of India

  • It is the National Survey and Mapping Organization under the Department of Science & Technology and is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India.
  • It was established in 1767*.*
  • It is headquartered at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
  • The Survey of India acts as an adviser to the Government of India on all survey matters like Geodesy, Photogrammetry, Mapping and Map Reproduction.
  • Geodesy is the branch of mathematics that deals with measuring and understanding of the Earth's geometric shape, orientation in space and gravity field.
  • Photogrammetry is the science of making maps, drawing and measurement from photographs.
  • The main function of the Survey of India is to
  1. Demarcation of the External Boundaries of India, and their depiction on maps published in the country.
  2. It is also advice on the demarcation of inter-state boundaries.
  3. All Topographical control, Surveys and Mapping within India. Hence option 3 is correct.
  4. It works in R&D for Digital Mapping and creation of Digital Topographical Data Base.

Question 84

Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dresden Line

  2. BOption (b)

    Durand Line

  3. COption (c)

    Maginot Line

  4. DOption (d)

    38th Parallel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dresden Line

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Dresden Line.

Dresden Line is the new railway line in Prague. Hence option 1 is incorrect.

List of some important International boundary lines are:

  • Radcliffe Line ‐ This boundary line is between India and Pakistan drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe in 1947.
  • Durand Line - It is between Pakistan and Afghanistan. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • McMahon Line ‐ The boundary line between India and China to which China does not approve. It was demarcated by Sir Henry McMahon
  • Hindenberg Line ‐ Boundary line between Germany and Poland to which German retreated in 1917 during the First World War.
  • Oder‐Neisse Line ‐ The boundary line between Poland and East Germany.
  • Mannerheim Line - It is between Russia and Finland.
  • Maginot Line - The boundary line is between France and Germany. It was a defensive line at the French border towards Germany before World War II. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Siegfried Line - The boundary line is between France and Germany. it was built as an extension of the Hindenburg defensive line on the western front of World War I by the Weimar Republic and later the Third Reich of Germany in the 1930s
  • 17th Parallel ‐ The line which defines the boundary between North Vietnam and South Vietnam before the two were united.
  • 20th Parallel - It is located 20th northern latitude is used as the border between Sudan and Libya.
  • 22nd Parallel - The 22nd latitude north of the equator marks a major portion of the Sudan-Egypt border.
  • 25th Parallel - The northernmost section of the Mali-Mauritania border is marked using this line.
  • 31st Parallel - The 31st northern latitude marks the border between Iraq and Iran. It also demarcates the border between the US states of Louisiana and Mississippi.
  • 38th Parallel ‐ The boundary line between North Korea and South Korea. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • 49th Parallel ‐ It is the boundary line between the United States of America and Canada.

Question 85

A lady is standing in front of the plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is

  1. AOption (a)

    40 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    60 cm

  3. COption (c)

    80 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    120 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80 cm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The object which reflects the light falling on it and makes images of anybody is called a mirror.
  • A mirror whose reflecting surface is flat is called a plane mirror.
  • The distance of the image formed by the plane mirror is equal to the distance of the object from the mirror.

EXPLANATION:

  • Initially lady (A) is at 1 m from the plane mirror and then she walks 60 cm towards the mirror.
  • Image form by the mirror is at B in the figure shown.
  • The initial distance was 1 m = 100 cm.
  • Now distance between the lady and the mirror = object distance

⇒ ​(OA) = 100 – 60 = 40 cm

  • Here OA is object distance and OB is the image distance
  • As in plane mirror, the object distance is equal to image distance.

⇒ OA = OB = 40 cm

⇒ Distance of image from lady = AB = OA + OB = 40 + 40 = 80 cm

Question 86

The brightness of a star depends on its

  1. AOption (a)

    size and temperature only

  2. BOption (b)

    size and distance from the earth

  3. COption (c)

    size, temperature and mass

  4. DOption (d)

    size, temperature and distance from the earth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

size, temperature and distance from the earth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. size, temperature, and distance from the earth.

Key Points

Brightness of star

  • The brightness of a star depends on its composition i.e. size and temperature and distance i.e. how far it is from the planet.​​
  • The Stefan- Boltzmann law states that the power radiated by a black body of surface area A and with a surface temperature T (K) is given by the equation:

          Power radiated by a star (P) = σAeT4 

  • where σ is a constant = 5.7x10-8 Wm-2K-4.
  • If we assume that a star is roughly spherical then A = 4πr2 for a star of radius r.
  • From the above equation, we can say that the more is the power radiated, the more is the brightness of the star. So, the more the area and temperature of the star, the more is the power radiated, and hence more is the brightness. Hence option 4 is correct

Question 87

When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Condensation

  2. BOption (b)

    Evaporation

  3. COption (c)

    Sublimation

  4. DOption (d)

    Diffusion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sublimation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sublimation.

  • Sublimation
  • The process in which solid water such as snow or ice directly changes into water vapour with no intermediate liquid stage is called Sublimation. Hence option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Hydrological Cycle
  • The process of circulation of water within the hydrosphere of Earth in different forms such as liquid, solid and gaseous states are called the Hydrological Cycle of water.
  • It starts with the Evaporation of water from the surface of the water bodies and further, it includes Transpiration, Sublimation, Condensation and Precipitation.
  • ​​Evaporation
  • When waters convert from liquid to gas stage as it moves from the groundwater into the atmosphere, this phenomenon is called Evaporation.
  • Mainly Solar radiation is the source of energy for evaporation. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
  • Transpiration
  • When plant uptake of water at the roots, transport of water through plant tissues, and release of vapour by leaves is known as transpiration.
  • Condensation
  • The Process of conversion of water vapour to liquid water droplets in the air is called Condensation. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
  • It is responsible for the formation of fog and clouds.
  • ​Precipitation
  • When the condensed water vapour falling to the surface of the Earth is known as Precipitation.
  • It occurs in the form of rain, snow, and hail.
  • It provides for the delivery of atmospheric water to the earth in the form of rain.
  • Diffusion is the process through which water is flowing from high pressure to low pressure area. It is not involved in the hydrological process. Hence option 4 is incorrect

Question 88

Which one of the following is water gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour

  4. DOption (d)

    Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Water-gas

  • Water gas is a fuel gas consisting mainly of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • It is produced from synthesis gas.
  • It is made by passing steam over red-hot coke using the endothermic reaction.
  • Water-gas is a blue gas used in the industrial synthesis of organic chemicals, and in welding, glassmaking, and other high-temperature industrial applications
  • H2O + C → CO + H2​
  • (CO+ H2) is water gas.

Question 89

Which of the following statements are correct?

In Honey bees

  1. Males are haploid.
  2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
  3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
  4. Honey is collected/made by males.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3

Apiculture or Beekeeping

  • Apiculture or Beekeeping is the production of honey and the wax by care and management of honey bees.
  • In apiculture, bees are bred commercially in apiaries, where a lot of beehives can be placed.
  • Apiaries can be set up in areas where there are sufficient flowering plants available.
  • Working at Beehive
  1. Sterile diploid females as workers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  2. Worker bees do all of the works from tending to, feeding young larvae, gathering water, pollen, and nectar, making wax comb, making honey, and guarding the hive. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
  3. Fertile haploid males as drones. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  4. The only purpose of the drone is to mate with a virgin queen even he can not feed himself.
  5. Haploid that is, they have only half the genes possessed by the queen, all of them derived from the mother.
  6. Diploid drones (biparental males) develop from fertilized eggs. Diploid drones do not survive until the end of larval development. The larvae of diploid drones are eaten by workers within a few hours after hatching from the egg.
  7. Both haploid and diploid individuals formed as a result of incomplete(cyclic) parthenogenesis i.e. reproduction from an ovum without fertilization.
  8. fertilized eggs (zygote) give rise to queen and workers (both are females) by the process of sexual reproduction and unfertilized eggs (ova) develop into drones (males) by the process of parthenogenesis.
  9. The difference between a worker and the queen bee is made three days after the egg transforms into larvae and six days after the egg is laid in the beehive.
  • The “royal jelly” is fed to all the larvae.
  • The larva sheds skin multiple times throughout this stage.
  • Later the royal jelly is fed only to the female larvae, which eventually becomes a queen bee. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Question 90

The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?

  1. Narmada
  2. Mahanadi
  3. Tapti
  4. Son

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e 1, 3 and 4 only.

Maikal Ranges

  • Maikal range is the Eastern part of the Satpura ranges.
  • Maikal ranges lying in the shahdol and Mandla district of Madhya Pradesh and Bilaspur district of Chhattisgarh.
  • Amarkantak is the highest peak of the Maikal ranges.
  • Amarkantak is lying in the district of Anuppur in Madhya Pradesh.
  • The river Narmada, Son and Johila originated from here.
  • Tapti originates from Multai in Betul district of Madhya Pradesh in the Satpura range. Amarkantak is in Satpura Ranges.
  • It is inhabited by two tribes the Baigas and the Gonds.

Question 91

Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?

  1. Vernal equinox occurs on March 21
  2. Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
  3. Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
  4. Winter solstice occurs on June 21.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 1 and 3 only.

  • Equinoxes
  • The sun is vertically overhead at the equator on the two days each year these are usually 21st March " the vernal equinox" and 21st September " the autumn equinox. (In northern hemisphere) Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.
  • These two days are termed Equinox meaning equal Nights because on these two days all parts of the world have equal days and nights.
  • Solstice
  • After the Vernal Equinox, the sun appears to move north and is vertically overhead at the Tropic of Cancer(2312 {1\over 2}0 N) on 21st June (In northern hemisphere) this is known as the summer solstice.
  • On this day in the Northern hemisphere experience the longest day and shortest night.
  • The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about 6 months.
  • **By about 22 December the sun will be **overhead at Tropic of Capricorn(2312 {1\over 2}0 S) this is Winter solstice in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 and 4 are incorrect.
  • This will have its longest day and shortest night in Southern Hemisphere and vice versa in the Northern hemisphere.
  • The tropics mark the limits of the overhead Sun, beyond these the sun is never overhead at any time of the year.
  • The Earth's revolution
  • The Earth revolving around the sun with its axis inclined at 6612{1 \over 2}0 to the plane of the ecliptic.
  • The revolution of the earth and its inclination to the plane of the ecliptic which causes the variation in the length of day and night at different times of the Year
  • A solstice happens twice a year, and twice a year happen the equinoxes altogether the four are considered to start 4 seasons.

Question 92

A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?

  1. AOption (a)

    The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down

  2. BOption (b)

    The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice

  3. COption (c)

    The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice

  4. DOption (d)

    The water does not freeze at all

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Density:

  • The mass per unit volume is called the density of the material.

EXPLANATION:

  • Since ice has less density than water because ice molecules have more spaces between the molecules.
  • Due to these molecular spaces the volume occupied by the ice is more than that of the water.
  • When water gets frozen and converted into ice then the density decreases and volume increases.
  • Due to the increase in volume, the ice needs more space and it expands inside the vessel.
  • Due expansion of ice inside the glass vessel, it breaks.

Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 93

A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24-ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected to the circuit would read

  1. AOption (a)

    0.5 A

  2. BOption (b)

    2A

  3. COption (c)

    4A

  4. DOption (d)

    5A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0.5 A

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Ohm’s law: At constant temperature, the potential difference across a resistor is directly proportional to the current flowing in the conductor

V ∝ I

V = R I      ...(1)

Where V = potential difference, R = resistance and I = electric current

The ammeter reads the current flowing in the circuit.

Calculation:

Given: Potential of the battery (V) = 12 V, Resistance of bulb (R) = 24 Ω

Using equation 1, we get:

Current (I) = Reading of ammeter = V/R = 12/24 = 0.5 A

Current (I)  = about 0.5 A

Question 94

Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4, and 8 ohms are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be

  1. AOption (a)

    Less than 2 ohm

  2. BOption (b)

    More than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm

  3. COption (c)

    4 ohm

  4. DOption (d)

    14 ohm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Less than 2 ohm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The measurement of the opposition of flow of electric current through a conductor is called as the resistance of that conductor. It is denoted by R.
  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called as resistances in parallel.

​

  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

1R=1R1+1R2;;;;;…(1)\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}};;;;; \ldots \left( 1 \right)

EXPLANATION:

Given; R1 = 2 Ω, R2 = 4 Ω, R3 = 8 Ω

  • We have three resistances in parallel.
  • Using equation 1,

⇒1R=12+14+18=7/8⇒ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8}= 7/8

⇒ R = 8/7 = 1.143

  • Hence the equivalent resistance is less than 2 Ω.

So, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 95

Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D', 'A' contains plain water, 'B' contains the solution of alkali, 'C' contains the solution of an acid, and 'D' contains the solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solution ‘A’

  2. BOption (b)

    Solution ‘B’

  3. COption (c)

    Solution ‘C’

  4. DOption (d)

    Solution ‘D’

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Solution ‘B’

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Solution 'B'.

Key Points

Phenolphthalein as a pH indicator.

  • Phenolphthalein is a chemical compound with the formula C20H14O4 and is often denoted as "HIn" or "phph".
  • Phenolphthalein is often used as an indicator in acid-base titrations.
  • It turns colourless in acidic solutions and pink in basic or alkali solutions. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It is dissolved with alcohol and it is slightly soluble in water.
  • It does not have taste and smell.
  • It is a weak acid, which can lose H+ ions in solution.

Question 96

Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?

  1. AOption (a)

    CuO

  2. BOption (b)

    Al2O3

  3. COption (c)

    Fe2O3

  4. DOption (d)

    Na2O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Na2O

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Na2O.

​Basic oxides

  • Basic oxides formed when electropositive metals react with oxygen. They dissolve in water to form hydroxide ions and hence act as bases. Basic oxides are the anhydrides of bases.
  • Basic oxides react with acidic substances to from salt.
  • Examples of basic oxides are Na2O, CaO. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • **Iron(III) oxide (**Fe2O3) is insoluble in water but dissolves readily in strong acid.
  • Aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is insoluble in water and does not react like Sodium oxide and Copper(II) oxide.

Question 97

To prevent heart problems, the blood of a normal healthy person should have

  1. Low HDL level.
  2. High HDL level
  3. High VLDL level.
  4. Low LDL level.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Cholesterol

  • It is produced in the body and to build membrane around the cell in order to protect it.
  • It is a chemical compound that is waxy in nature.
  • The liver produces cholesterol, it is found in red fat meat, cheese, butter, egg.
  • Lipoprotein help in the transport of these through the blood. Increased cholesterol levels are not good for health as it causes cardiovascular disease.
  • Cholesterol is insoluble in blood, it is transported in the circulatory system within lipoproteins.
  • There are several types of lipoproteins in the blood like very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL), intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL), and high-density lipoprotein (HDL).
  • LDL cholesterol is considered the bad cholesterol because it contributes to fatty buildups in arteries. This condition narrows the arteries and increases the risk for heart attack, Stroke and peripheral arteries disease or PAD.
  • HDL cholesterol can be thought of as the good cholesterol. So in the case of HDL cholesterol, higher levels are actually better.
  • HDL acts as a scavenger, carrying LDL (bad) cholesterol away from the arteries and back to the liver, where the LDL is broken down and passed from the body.
  • A healthy HDL cholesterol level may protect against heart attack and stroke. low levels of HDL cholesterol increase the risk of heart disease. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 98

Spruce and cedar are tree varieties of

  1. AOption (a)

    Equatorial forest

  2. BOption (b)

    Temperate coniferous forest

  3. COption (c)

    Monsoon forest

  4. DOption (d)

    Temperate deciduous forest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Temperate coniferous forest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Temperate coniferous forest.

Natural Vegetation in India

  • It refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time.
  • It is also called as virgin vegetation.

Additional Information

  • Types of Natural Vegetation​ are as follows:
  • Montane Forest
  • In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the corresponding change in natural vegetation.
  • The wet temperate type of forests is found between a height of 1000 and 2000 metres where evergreen broad­leaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts predominate.
  • Between 1500 and 3000 metres, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar, are found. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • More than 3,600 metres above sea­ level, temperate forests and grasslands give way to the Alpine vegetation.
  • Silver fir, junipers, pines and birches are the common trees of these forests.
  • Tropical Evergreen Forest
  • It usually occurs in areas receiving more than 200 cm of rainfall and having a temperature of 15 to 30 degrees Celsius.
  • They are found mostly near the equator region and the region is warm and wet throughout the year.
  • Trees reach great heights up to 60 metres or even above.
  • In India, evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats in States such as Kerala and Karnataka.
  • They are also found in hills of Jaintia and Khasi.
  • Some of the common trees found in Indian Tropical Forests are rosewood, mahogany and ebony. Bamboos and reeds are also common. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
  • Common animals found in these forests are elephants, monkey, lemur and deer.
  • Tropical Deciduous Forest
  • They are the most widespread forests of India, it is also called as the monsoon forests.
  • It spread over the region receiving rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm.
  • Trees of this forest ­type shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer.
  • These forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.
  • Moist deciduous forest found in areas receiving rainfall between 100 and 200 cm.
  • It is found mostly in the eastern part of the country – northeastern states, along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West Orissa and Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats. Teak is the most dominant species of this forest.
  • Dry deciduous forests are found in areas having rainfall between 70 cm and 100cm.
  • These forests are found in the rainier parts of the peninsular plateau and the plains of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Teak, Sal, Peepal, and Neem are the most dominant species of this forest. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
  • Tropical semi-Evergreen Forest
  • It is found in the Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Eastern Himalayas.
  • It is the mixture of the wet evergreen trees and the moist deciduous trees.
  • The forest is dense and is filled with a large variety of trees of both types.
  • Thorn Forest and Scrubs
  • In regions with less than 70 cm of rainfall, the natural vegetation consists of thorny trees and bushes.
  • It is found in the north­western part of the country including semi­arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
  • Acacias, palms, euphorbias and cacti are the main plant species have long roots penetrating deep into the soil in order to get moisture, the stems are succulent to conserve water and leaves are mostly thick and small to minimize evaporation​.
  • Mangrove Forest
  • Found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides, mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts.
  • Dense mangroves have roots of the plants submerged under the water.
  • The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
  • Sundari trees are found In the Ganga Brahmaputra delta which provides durable hard timber.

Question 99

‘Sal’ tree is a

  1. AOption (a)

    Tropical evergreen tree

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical semi-evergreen tree

  3. COption (c)

    Dry deciduous tree

  4. DOption (d)

    Moist deciduous tree

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Moist deciduous tree

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Moist deciduous tree'

Key Points

  • Moist deciduous tree:
  • The Sal tree (Shorea robusta) is predominantly found in regions that experience a distinct dry season, followed by a heavy monsoon season, thus categorizing it as a moist deciduous tree.
  • These trees shed their leaves in response to the dry season to reduce water loss but thrive and regenerate during the monsoon.
  • Sal forests are typically found in the Indian subcontinent, especially in regions like the Himalayas, central India, and the Eastern Ghats, where moist deciduous forests are prevalent.

Additional Information

  • Tropical evergreen tree:
  • Tropical evergreen trees retain their leaves throughout the year and do not shed them seasonally. They are typically found in regions with no significant dry season and consistent rainfall.
  • While they are lush and green year-round, Sal trees do not fit this category as they have a specific season for shedding leaves.
  • Tropical semi-evergreen tree:
  • Tropical semi-evergreen trees mix characteristics of evergreen and deciduous trees. They tend to shed leaves partially but not completely like deciduous trees.
  • Sal trees do not fit into this category as they shed leaves more consistently in response to seasonal changes.
  • Dry deciduous tree:
  • Dry deciduous trees are those that shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water, usually found in areas with more pronounced dry conditions.
  • Sal trees require a more moist environment for optimal growth and regeneration, making them distinct from dry deciduous trees.

Question 100

Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is

  1. AOption (a)

    Liquid < Gas < Solid

  2. BOption (b)

    Solid < Liquid < Gas

  3. COption (c)

    Gas < Liquid < Solid

  4. DOption (d)

    Solid < Gas < Liquid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Solid < Liquid < Gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Solid < Liquid < Gas

Compressibility of matter

  • Matter exists in nature in different forms, the three basic states of matter are Solid, Liquid and Gas.
  • Apart from these three, there are two more states of matter exist which we do not see in our everyday life. They are Plasma & Bose-einstein condensate.

​Compressibility of Solid

  • In solids, the particles are closely packed and the gaps between the particles are tiny and hence it is tough to compress them.
  • Solid has a fixed shape and volume.

Compressibility of Liquid

  • In a liquid, particles are less tightly packed as compared to solids and less difficult to compress as compare to solid because particles have less space between them to move but more than the that of solid.
  • Liquids take the shape of the container in which they are kept.

Compressibility of Gas

  • In gases, particles are far apart from each other, the force of attraction between the particles is negligible and they can move freely.
  • The gaseous state has the highest compressibility as compared to solids and liquids. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Gases have neither a fixed volume nor a fixed shape.

Question 101

The temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of

  1. AOption (a)

    Strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction

  2. BOption (b)

    strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion

  3. COption (c)

    molecular mass

  4. DOption (d)

    molecular size

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction.

Intermolecular forces

  • Intermolecular forces are the attractive and repulsive forces that arise between the molecules of a substance.
  • Intermolecular forces are mainly responsible for the physical characteristics of the substance.
  • The stronger the noncovalent interactions between molecules, the more energy that is required, in the form of heat, to break them apart.
  • The boiling point and melting point of a substance is proportional to the strength of its non-covalent intermolecular forces i.e. the stronger the intermolecular forces, the higher the boiling point and melting point. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The strongest intermolecular force is the hydrogen bond.
  • The weakest intermolecular forces are London dispersion forces.

Question 102

Consider the following circuit:

The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be

  1. AOption (a)

    12 Ω 

  2. BOption (b)

    91112Ω9\frac{{11}}{{12}}\Omega

  3. COption (c)

    9111Ω9\frac{1}{{11}}\Omega

  4. DOption (d)

    2425Ω\frac{{24}}{{25}}\Omega

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9111Ω9\frac{1}{{11}}\Omega

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Resistance:

  • The measurement of the opposition of flow of electric current through a conductor is called the resistance of that conductor.
  • It is denoted by R.
  • There are mainly two ways of the combination of resistances:

Series combination of the resistance:

  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them are called resistances in series.
  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance (R) of resistances in series is given by:

⇒​  R = R1 + R2      ...(1)

The parallel combination of the resistance:

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called resistances in parallel.
  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

⇒1R=1R1+1R2;;;;;…(2)⇒ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}};;;;; \ldots \left( 2 \right)

EXPLANATION:

Given: R1 = 2 Ω, R2 = 4 Ω, R3 = 6 Ω

  • The 2 Ω, 4 Ω, and 6 Ω are in parallel combination, the equivalent of these three will be;
  • Using equation 2,

⇒1R=12+14+16⇒ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{6}

⇒ R = 12/11 Ω 

 

  • Now 12/11 Ω and 8 Ω are in series
  • Using equation 1,

​⇒ Rnet = 12/11 + 8 

​⇒ Rnet = 100/11 Ω = 9111Ω9\frac{1}{{11}}\Omega

Question 103

Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H2?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hg

  2. BOption (b)

    Al

  3. COption (c)

    Mg

  4. DOption (d)

    Fe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hg

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Hg.

Reactivity Series

  • The reactivity series of metals also known as the activity series refers to the arrangement of metals in the descending order of their reactivity.
  • Reactivity series can be used to predict whether a metal can displace another in a single displacement reaction or not.
  • The metals at the top of the reactivity series are powerful reducing agent since they are easily oxidized, These metals corrode very easily.
  • The reducing ability of the metals grows weaker while traversing down the series.
  • The electropositivity of the elements also reduces while moving down the reactivity series of metals.
  • All metals that are found above hydrogen in the activity series liberate H2 gas upon reacting with dilute HCl or dilute H2SO4.
  • Copper (Cu) and Mercury (Hg) metal do not react with dilute HCl to produce H2 as it comes after hydrogen in the activity series so they can not replace hydrogen from hydrochloric acid. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Metals that are placed higher on the reactivity series have the ability to displace metals that are placed lower from their salt solutions.

​Tabular Form of the Reactivity Series are:

 

Reactivity Series of MetalsIons Formed
CaesiumCs+
FranciumFr+
RubidiumRb+
PotassiumK+
SodiumNa+
LithiumLi+
BariumBa2+
RadiumRa2+
StrontiumSr2+
CalciumCa2+
MagnesiumMg2+
BerylliumBe2+
AluminiumAl3+
TitaniumTi4+
ManganeseMn2+
ZincZn2+
ChromiumCr3+
IronFe3+
CadmiumCd2+
CobaltCo2+
NickelNi2+
TinSn2+
LeadPb2+
HydrogenH+ (Non-Metal, Reference for Comparison)
AntimonySb3+
BismuthBi3+
CopperCu2+
TungstenW3+
MercuryHg2+
SilverAg+
PlatinumPt4+
GoldAu3+

Question 104

Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?

VectorDisease
1.AnophelesMalaria
2.Aedes aegyptiChikungunya
3.Tsetse flyFilariasis
4.Bed bugsSleeping sickness

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Concept:

Vector-borne diseases

  • Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that are transmitted by vectors.
  • The burden of these diseases is highest in tropical and subtropical areas.
  • Vector-borne diseases like Dengue, Malaria, Chikungunya, Yellow fever and Zika have major outbreaks since 2014.
  • Pathogen transmission mostly takes place through global travel and trade, unplanned urbanization and climate change.
  • Bed bugs are not known to spread disease. Hence 4 is incorrectly matched.

Main vectors and diseases they transmitted are:

VectorDisease
Aedes mosquito- Chikungunya. Hence 1 is correctly matched - Dengue fever - Lymphatic filariasis - Rift Valley fever - Yellow fever - Zika
Anopheles mosquito- Malaria. Hence 1 is correctly matched - Lymphatic filariasis
Culex mosquito- Japanese encephalitis - Lymphatic filariasis - West Nile fever
Sandflies- Leishmaniasis( Kala-Azar) - Sandfly fever (phlebotomus fever)
Ticks- Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever - Lyme disease - Relapsing fever (borreliosis) - Tick-borne encephalitis - Tularaemia
Triatomine bugs- Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis)
Tsetse flies- Sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis). Hence 3 is incorrectly matched
Fleas- Plague (transmitted by fleas from rats to humans) - Rickettsiosis
Black flies- Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
Lice- Typhus and louse-borne relapsing fever

Question 105

Consider the following statements:

  1. All Echinoderms are not marine
  2. Sponges are exclusively marine
  3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats
  4. Many primates are arboreal

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 3 and 4 only.

Echinoderms

  • The organisms belonging to the phylum Echinodermata or Echinoderms are exclusively marine. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Members of phylum Echinodermata (Spiny bodied) have an endoskeleton of calcium carbonate.
  • These are multicellular organisms with well-developed organ systems.
  • They have a star-like appearance and are spherical or elongated.
  • They possess the power of regeneration.
  • Starfish, sea cucumbers, sea urchins and brittle stars are examples of echinoderms.

Sponges

  • The Phylum Porifera mainly refers to the pore bearers or pore bearing species.
  • Poriferans are pore-bearing first multicellular animals, the pores are known as Ostia.
  • The poriferans have a spongy appearance and are therefore called sponges.
  • They are mostly found in marine water, only a few are found in freshwater. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Their body is usually cylindrical.

Insects

  • Insects are animals with segmented bodies, six jointed legs, and exoskeletons.
  • Some insects have wings, but not all.
  • Insects live in every habitat on Earth, from the sands of hot deserts to cold snowy mountain streams. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Examples of insects include ants, butterflies, and beetles but not the scorpions, spiders, centipedes and millipedes

Primates

  • Primates belong to animal kingdom of class mammalian of phylum vertebrate.
  • Primate includes diversified group animals such as Lemurs, Lorises, Tarsiers, Monkeys, Apes and Humans.
  • Since all primates are descendent of tree-dwellers, they exhibit adaptive features which allow them to climb trees hence many of them are arboreal. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Primate brains are large relative to their body size, compared to other mammals.
  • Almost all primates are diurnal.

Question 106

Area which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Export Processing zones

  2. BOption (b)

    Duty Free Traffic Zones

  3. COption (c)

    Special Economic Zones

  4. DOption (d)

    Technology Parks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Special Economic Zones

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Special Economic Zones.

Key Points

Special Economic Zone(SEZ)

  • A Special Economic Zone or SEZ is a specially marked territory within the national borders of a country that has more liberal economic laws than the rest of the country.
  • It is the area which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package. Hence option 3 is correct.

Characteristics of SEZ are :

  1. To create additional economic activity.
  2. To boost the export of goods and services.
  3. To generate employment.
  4. To boost domestic and foreign investments.
  5. To develop infrastructure facilities.

Export Processing Zone (EPZ)

  • An Export Processing Zone (EPZ) is a Customs area where one is allowed to import plant, machinery, equipment and material for the manufacture of export goods under security, without payment of duty.

Duty-Free Traffic Zones

  • These Zones would be established in areas proximate to seaports, airports or dry ports so as to offer easy access by rail and road.
  • this zone allowed duty-free import of all goods (except prohibited items, arms and ammunition, hazardous wastes and SCOMET items) for warehousing.

Question 107

Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-Western border along Arabian Sea

  2. BOption (b)

    Coromandel Coast

  3. COption (c)

    North-Eastern Frontier

  4. DOption (d)

    North-Western India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

North-Western India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e North-Western India.

Characteristic features of North-Western India

  • India shares its border from Afghanistan and Pakistan to the north-west.
  • The Thar Desert is located to the north-west of the Aravali hills also known as the Great Indian Desert.
  • It is a land of undulating topography with longitudinal dunes and barchans.
  • The Luni rivers drain in the southern part of this region and hence some fertile plain also present here.
  • This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year hence it has an arid climate with the moderately forested mountain. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • It is because of these characteristic features this is also known as Marusthali.

Characteristic features of Coromandel Coast

  • The Tamil Nadu coast and parts of Andhra coast together are known as Coramandal Coast or Payan Ghat
  • It is bounded by the Utkal plain to the north, the Bay of Bengal to the east, the Kaveri delta to the south, and the Eastern Ghats to the west.
  • It receives less rainfall during the summer southwest monsoons.
  • The region averages rainfall is 800 mm per year between October and December.

Characteristic features of North-Eastern Frontier

  • North-Eastern Frontier extends from Arunachal Pradesh in the north and Mizoram in the south.
  • It receiving average annual precipitation of 2,000 mm.
  • The northeast region of India supports almost all types of vegetation from cultivated plains to grasslands, meadows, marshes, swamps, scrub-forests, tropical forests, temperate forests and alpine vegetation.

Characteristic features of the South-Western border along the Arabian Sea

  • It lies on the narrow coastal plain of Karnataka and Kerala states between the Western Ghats range and the Arabian Sea.
  • The coast runs from south of Goa to Kanyakumari on India's southern tip.
  • South Western Coastal Plain receive very heavy rainfall ranging between 250 cm and 400 cm.
  • At even higher elevations in the southern parts of the ecoregion are patches of stunted forests contained within extensive grasslands, known locally as shola forests.

Question 108

A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be

  1. AOption (a)

    625 m

  2. BOption (b)

    1250 m

  3. COption (c)

    2500 m

  4. DOption (d)

    50 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

625 m

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Equation of Kinematics: These are the various relations between u, v, a, t, and s for the particle moving with uniform acceleration where the notations are used as:
  • Equations of motion can be written as

v = u + at       ...(1)

s=ut+12at2;;;;;…(2)s =ut+\frac{1}{2}{at^{2}};;;;; \ldots \left( 2 \right)

v2 = u2+ 2as       ...(3)

Where, u = Initial velocity, v = Final velocity, g = Acceleration due to gravity, t = time, and h = Displacement

CALCULATION:

Given: u = 0 m/s, t = 25 s, v = 50 m/s

  • As the car starts from rest, so the initial velocity will be zero.
  • Therefore, by using the equation of kinematics we can find the acceleration
  • Using equation 1,

⇒ 50 = 0 + 25a

⇒ a = 50/25 = 2 m/s2

  • As we have to find the distance covered in this time, therefore use the equation of kinematics to find distance i.e
  • Using equation 2,

⇒s=0+;12×2×252⇒ s= 0 + ;\frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times {25^2}

⇒ s = 625 m

  • Distance covered (S) = 625 m

So, the correct answer is option 1

Question 109

A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become

  1. AOption (a)

    70kg

  2. BOption (b)

    35kg

  3. COption (c)

    140 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    Zero

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Zero

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The gravitational force applied by the earth on anybody is called as the weight of that body.

  • When we observe any object with respect to an accelerated body then there is a force acting on the object which we are observing. This force is called a pseudo force.

  • This force will be acting on the center of mass of the body placed on the accelerating body and in the opposite direction of the accelerating body.

  • This can be better understood by taking the example of a man in a lift.

  • If the man is inside the accelerating lift in the upward direction then for the stable equilibrium of the body of man, there will be pushed force ma acting on the body of the man in the downward direction.

  • So, this pseudo force will be supporting the actual weight of the man ie mg. As a result of which the lift will feel higher weight than the actual which means the normal reaction will be the summation of mg and ma.

  • This case can be understood by referring to the given diagram.

  • Pseudo force FP is an imaginary force.

FP = ma

Where m is the mass of the object (man) which we observe and a is the acceleration of the body with respect to which we are observing the object

  • The weight of the body is given by

W= mg

Where m is mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity

EXPLANATION:

  • When the cable of the lift breaks then the lift will fall down with an acceleration of g.

⇒ a = g

  • The man experiences a pseudo force in the opposite direction (upward) of acceleration of the lift which will be mg (As the lift is falling freely).
  • Pseudo force on man in the upward direction,

⇒ Fp = mg      ...(1)

  • The original weight of the man in the downward direction,

W = mg      ...(2)

  • If N is the normal force by the surface of the lift on man
  • Balance all the forces on man for a stable equilibrium,

⇒ N + FP = mg

⇒ N + mg = mg

⇒ N = 0

  • As the weight of the man in the lift is nothing but the normal force by the lift on the man which is equal to zero.
  • Hence the weight of the man in lift would be zero. So option 4 is correct.

Question 110

A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be

  1. AOption (a)

    2000 J

  2. BOption (b)

    4000 J

  3. COption (c)

    8000 J

  4. DOption (d)

    1000 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8000 J

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Whenever a current is flowing in the wire then heat is produced in it. The phenomenon of producing heat by the electric current is called as the heating effect of electric current.
  • The amount of heat produced,

H = I2 R t      ...(1)

Where I is current, R is resistance and t is the time taken

EXPLANATION:

Given: I = 1 A

  • Using equation 1,

⇒ H = I2 R t = 2000 J

  • Now new current (I’) = 2 × I = 2 A
  • Heat produced,

⇒ H’ = (2I)2 R t 

⇒ H’ = 4  × I2 R t 

 ∵  I2 R t = 2000 J

⇒ H’ = 4 × 2000 = 8000 J       

So, the correct answer will be option 3.

Question 111

Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?

  1. AOption (a)

    Benzene

  2. BOption (b)

    Hexane

  3. COption (c)

    Naphthalene

  4. DOption (d)

    Anthracene

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hexane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer Hexane.

Sooty flame

  • The unsaturated hydrocarbons like alkenes, alkynes are aromatic hydrocarbons that partially burned with a yellow sooty flame.
  • It is due to incomplete combustion of the hydrocarbon in air.
  • A large amount of carbon does not completely oxidize in the air and gives sooty flame.

Non-Sooty flame

  • The saturated hydrocarbons burn with a Blue colour **non-**sooty flame.
  • Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons and classified as a type of aliphatic hydrocarbon.
  • Hexane is a type of Alkanes that burns with a blue non-sooty flame. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The blue flame emerges when the complete combustion of carbon takes place.

Question 112

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Molecule)List II (Product of digestion)
A.Proteins1.Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
B.Carbohydrates2.Fatty acids and glycerol
C.Nucleic acids3.Monosaccharides
D.Lipids4.Amino acids
  1. AOption (a)

    A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i,e A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D - 2.

Proteins

  • The Proteins is a Polypeptide bond which is a sequence of amino acid.
  • The end product of protein digestion is amino acids.
  • Proteins are digested and broken down into amino acids with the help of enzymes.
  • Amino acids are very small, they are able to be absorbed through the small intestine lining and into your bloodstream.

Carbohydrates

  • Carbohydrates are the small repeating units of Monosaccharides.
  • The end product of the digestion of Carbohydrates is Monosaccharides.
  • A monosaccharide is a simple sugar such as fructose or glucose.
  • The monosaccharides are absorbed into the bloodstream and delivered to the liver.
  • It is used for energy for cell functioning.

Nucleic acids

  • A nucleic acid is an organic compound such as DNA or RNA that is built of small units called nucleotides.
  • Many nucleotides bind together to form a chain called a polynucleotide.
  • The nucleic acid DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) consists of two polynucleotide chains.
  • The nucleic acid RNA (ribonucleic acid) consists of just one polynucleotide chain.
  • The products of digestion of nucleic acid are pentose sugars, nitrogenous bases and phosphate ions.
  • These products are transported by carriers across the villus epithelium and then enters into bloodstreams.

Lipids

  • A lipid is an organic compound such as fat or oil.
  • Organisms use lipids to store energy.
  • Lipids consist of repeating units called fatty acids.
  • The products of digestion of Lipids are Fatty acid and glycerol.

Question 113

In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhrian

  2. BOption (b)

    Daurs

  3. COption (c)

    Dhoros

  4. DOption (d)

    Dhaya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dhrian

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Dhrian.

The Thar Desert

  • The Thar Desert is also known as the Great Indian Desert.
  • It is located to the north-west of the Aravali hills.
  • It lies in western Rajasthan and extends to the adjacent parts of Pakistan.
  • River Luni divided the Thar Desert into two-part i.e. Marusthali and Bagar.
  • The proper desert is called the Marusthali (dead land) and has an arid climate with low vegetation cover.
  • The Eastern part of the Marushthali is rocky, while its western part is covered by shifting sand dunes.
  • In the Thar Desert, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as Dhrian.  Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Bagar refers to the semi-desert area which is west of Aravallis.
  • In Bagar, River Luni drained in Southern region and Salt lakes are in the Northern region.
  • The Luni originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer and flows towards the southwest into the Rann of Kutch.

Question 114

The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its

  1. AOption (a)

    Force 

  2. BOption (b)

    Momentum

  3. COption (c)

    Work done

  4. DOption (d)

    Energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Momentum

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Impulse

  • When a large force works on a body for a very small time interval, it is called impulsive force.
  • An impulsive force does not remain constant, but changes first from zero to maximum and then from maximum to zero. In such a case, we measure the total effect of force.
  • The impulse caused by a force during a specific time interval is equal to the body's change of momentum during that time interval.
  • Impulse, effectively, is a measure of change in momentum.
  • The impulse of a force is a measure of the total effect of force.
  • Impulse is a vector quantity and its direction is the same as that of force.
  • SI unit of impulse is Newton-second or kg-m-s-1.

\(\vec I = \mathop \smallint \nolimits_{{t_1}}^{{t_2}} \overrightarrow {F;} \cdot dt\)

Where, I = impulse, F = force and dt = very small time interval

EXPLANATION:

  • Impulse,

​\(\Rightarrow I=~\int \frac{dp}{dt}.dt\Rightarrow I=\left( {{p}{2}}-{{p}{1}} \right)=\text{ }!!\Delta!!\text{ }p\)

  • As the change in momentum of any particle gives the impulse of the particle. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • The rate of change of momentum is called force.

  • When there is a change in the displacement of the body due to an applied force in the direction of force then the work is said to be done by that force.

  • The capacity of doing work is called as energy.

Question 115

Which one of the following statement with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4 °C

  2. BOption (b)

    Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating

  3. COption (c)

    Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating 

  4. DOption (d)

    The length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4 °C

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Thermal expansion:

  • The expansion in the size, area and volume of the material due to temperature change is called as Thermal expansion.

EXPLANATION:

  • When the water molecules are present in ice form then it has lot of empty space within molecules.
  • When water melts then after converting into water the molecules gets closer to each.
  • When ice comes to 4 °C then the density of the water will increase first and then decrease. It doesn’t increases uniformly. Hence statement 1 is wrong. So option 1 is correct.
  • In case of mercury thermometer, the heat from the body of man is given to the mercury which expands in the thermometer and shows the respective temperature readings.
  • Hence thermometer works on the principle of expansion due to heating. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The gap left between the rails is filled by the expanded rails in the days of summer which is due to temperature increment of the rails material. So statement 3 is correct.
  • Whenever there is an increment in the temperature of the metal wire then the length of the wire increases. So statement 4 is correct.

Question 116

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

National ParkFamous for
1.RanthambhoreTiger
2.PeriyarElephant
3.ManasLion
4.GirRhinoceros

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 1 and 2 only.

Ranthambhore National Park

  • Ranthambore National park lies near Sawai Madhopur districts, Rajasthan.
  • It is at the junction of the Aravali and Vindhya hill ranges.
  • The vegetation includes grasslands on plateaus.
  • The forest type is mainly tropical dry deciduous with ‘Dhak’ a species of tree capable of withstanding long periods of drought.
  • Dhak tree is also called as 'Flame of the forest".
  • The park is rich in wildlife with Tiger as a main species. Hence 1 is correctly matched.
  • This National Park is an outstanding example of Project Tigers to conserve the Tiger in the country.

Periyar National Park

  • Periyar National Park is a protected area near Thekkady in Kerala.
  • It comprises a range of tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, grasslands and eucalyptus plantations.
  • Periyar and Pamba rivers flow through this National Park.
  • it is the house of one of the most significant Asiatic Elephants in the country. Hence 2 is correctly matched.

Manas National Park

  • Manas National Park is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site in Assam.
  • The park is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan.
  • The Manas river, a major tributary of Brahmaputra river flows through the west of the park.
  • The Manas river also serves as an international border between India and Bhutan.
  • The vegetation of Manas National Park is monsoon forests.
  • The park is famous for its wild water buffaloes. Hence 3 is not correctly matched.

Gir National Park

  • The Gir National Park is located in the Junagadh, Gujarat.
  • The vegetation of Gir Forests is dry deciduous forests.
  • The Gir Forests is the only natural habitat of Asiatic lions. Hence 4 is not correctly matched.
  • Gir is often linked with "Maldharis" religious pastoral communities living in Gir who have a symbiotic relationship with the lion.

Question 117

Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nuclear energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Potential energy

  3. COption (c)

    Electrical energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Chemical energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Electrical energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Nuclear energy:

  • The energy released during the nuclear reaction is called nuclear energy.
  • Energy in the Uranium is stored in the form of nuclear energy

Potential energy:

  • The energy of anybody due to its position is called potential energy.
  • The energy of any stone placed at some height is stored in the form of potential energy.

Electrical energy:

  • The energy due to the flow of electric current is called electrical energy.
  • The glowing of the bulb is an example of electrical energy.

Chemical energy:

  • The energy due to a chemical reaction is called chemical energy.
  • The energy in the battery is stored in the form of chemical energy.

EXPLANATION:

  • The electrical energy is flowing energy which only comes when there is the flow of electric current.
  • Thus electrical energy is not a form of stored energy.

Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 118

The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:

The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are respectively

  1. AOption (a)

    25 km and 60 km

  2. BOption (b)

    95 km and 35 km

  3. COption (c)

    60 km and 25 km

  4. DOption (d)

    85 km and 35 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

85 km and 35 km

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Distance:

  • The measurement of how much any object moved is called distance.
  • It is a scalar quantity.

Displacement:

  • The minimum distance between two points is called displacement of the object.
  • It is a vector quantity.

EXPLANATION;

  • When the car goes from O to C and then C to B, then the total distance traveled by car will be the sum of the distance between OC and BC.
  • From the given figure

​

 ⇒ OC = 60 km and BC = 25 km

  • So total distance covered,

⇒ D = OC + BC = 60 + 25 = 85 km

  • As we know that displacement is the minimum distance between the initial position and final position.
  • The displacement between O to B is equal to OB.

⇒ OB = 35 m

  • Hence the /magnitude of displacement,

⇒ S = OB = 35m

So, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 119

Jelep La pass is located in

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab Himalaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikkim Himalaya

  3. COption (c)

    Kumaon Himalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Kashmir Himalaya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sikkim Himalaya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Sikkim Himalayas.

Sikkim Himalayas

  • Sikkim Himalayas is a part of Greater Himalayas (also knowns as Himadri).
  • The extent of this range is between the Nanga Parbat peak in the west and the Namcha Barwa peak in the east.
  • The highest peak of the world Mount Everest is situated in this range.
  • Kanchenjunga, Makalu, Dhaulagiri, Annapurna are some of the other peaks which are situated in this Range.
  • The Himadri range is snow-covered throughout the year.
  • That is why there is a large number of glaciers are found in this range.
  • Greater Himalayas has many passes like Zojila, Shipkila, Lipulekh, Nathula and Jelep-La etc
  • Jelep-La is a high mountain pass between India and Tibet in Sikkim Himalayas. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 120

What is the number of mole(s) of H2(g) required to saturate one mole benzene?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. number of mole of H2 is 3.

Hydrogenation of Benzene

  • Hydrogenation of Benzene is an addition reaction in which hydrogen atoms are added around the benzene ring.
  • Benzene is a very stable compound it does not react with 1-mole hydrogen.
  • It directly reacts with 3 moles hydrogen in presence of nickel or platinum just like unsaturated hydrocarbons. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Nickel or Platinum is used as a catalyst to increase the rate of reaction.
  • In hydrogenation reaction, Benzene gets converted to Cyclohexane with a saturated ring.
  • C6H6 + 3H2 + Ni/Pt (Catalyst) → C6H12 (Cyclohexane)

Question 121

Which one of the following pairs of schedules in the Constitution of India and their contents is NOT correctly matched?

ScheduleContent
1)Eighth ScheduleLanguages
2)Second scheduleThe forms of oaths and affirmations
3)Fourth ScheduleAllocation of seats in the Council of States
4)Tenth ScheduleProvisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection
  1. AOption (a)

    1, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points

  • The second schedule consists of the provision related to emoluments, allowances, privileges of:
  • The President of India, the governor of states. the speaker and deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, and Comptroller and auditor general.
  • The third schedule consists of the forms of oaths and affirmations. Hence 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Trick to remember:- {2 number ki Kamaai}
  • The Eighth schedule consists of languages. Hence 1 is correctly matched.
  • Sindhi was added by 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
  • Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali Where are added by the 71th Amendment Act of 1992.
  • Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
  • Trick to remember amendments:- {21+71=92}.
  • The fourth Schedule is for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament) per State or Union Territory. Hence 3 is correctly matched.
  • The tenth schedule consists of provisions related to the disqualification of members of parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection. It is also known as Anti-defection Law. Hence 4 is correctly matched.
  • It was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.

Additional Information

ScheduleContains
1st ScheduleLists the states and territories of India
2nd ScheduleLists the salaries of officials holding public office, Presidents, judges, etc
3rd ScheduleForms of oaths and Affirmations of offices for elected officials including judges
4th ScheduleAllocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
5th ScheduleProvisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
6th ScheduleProvisions made for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
7th ScheduleThe central government, state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities
8th ScheduleOfficial languages
9th ScheduleValidation of certain acts and regulations
10th ScheduleAnti-defection provisions for members of Parliament and state legislatures
11th SchedulePanchayat Raj (rural local government)
12th ScheduleMunicipalities (urban local government) or Nagarpalikas

Question 122

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in the simple majority
  2. Jammu and Kashmir had given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3, Both statements are correct.

  • The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament under Article 3, the right to form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by United two or more States.
  • It can be done by passing a resolution in the simple majority.
  • It can increase or diminish the area of any state or alter the boundaries and the name of any state.
  • The president then has to refer the bill concerned state.
  • Jammu and Kashmir had given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.
  • Article 370 and Article 35A was abrogated by the parliament in August 2019.
  • It created two new Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.

Question 123

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

  1. AOption (a)

    President of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Prime Minister of India

  3. COption (c)

    Vice President of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is  Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Key Points

  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • The speaker of Loksabha remains in office during the lifetime of Loksabha.
  • Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved the speaker does not vacate his office and continues to work till the new Lok Sabha is elected.
  • The speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether the bill is a money bill or not and his decision is final.
  • He also decides the question of disqualification of a member of Lok Sabha and the decision of the speaker is final but it is subject to Judicial review.
  • The Deputy speaker has a special privilege that when is appointed as a member of the parliamentary committee he automatically becomes its chairman.

Question 124

Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sheaths Sinha

  2. BOption (b)

    Kailash Satyarthi

  3. COption (c)

    Aruna Roy

  4. DOption (d)

    Anil Agarwal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kailash Satyarthi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kailash Satyarthi*.*

Key Points

  • Bachpan Bachao Andolan was started by Kailash Satyarthi in 1980.
  • ​​The focus of the NGO is to end bonded labour, child labour and human trafficking also it demands the right to education for all children.
  • Kailash Satyarthi received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014.

Important Points

  • The Union Minister of Commerce & Industry and Civil Aviation launched a mobile application “ReUnite” in the year 2018.
  • This app was developed by the NGO Bachpan Bachao Andolan.

Question 125

Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?

  1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
  2. Enhancing financial literacy
  3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
  4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4. i.e. All the options are correct.

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
  • The scheme was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 28th August 2014.
  • The scheme provides cover for both the urban and the rural areas and provides a RuPay Debit Card to each of its account holders.
  • No minimum balance is required for opening an account under the scheme.
  • The scheme provides its beneficiaries with basic banking accounts and a debit card with inbuilt accident insurance.
  • Financial literacy is an integral part of the mission.

Question 126

The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a national party if

  1. It secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
  2. If it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Both 1 and 2

  • Conditions for recognition as a National Party:
  • If it secures at least six per cent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats.
  • If it wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and this candidate selected from three states.
  • If the party is recognised as a state party in four states.
  • Election Commission comes under Article 324.
  • It is the function of the election commission to determine the territorial areas of electoral constituencies.
  • To determine the code of conduct the observed by the political parties and candidates at the time of election.

Question 127

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Development of capital goods industries

  2. BOption (b)

    Major involvement of the States in the economy

  3. COption (c)

    Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector

  4. DOption (d)

    Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector.

Key Points

  • Nehru-Mahalanobis model was focused more on heavy industries.
  • Types of industries are
  • Heavy
  • Capital goods
  • Consumer good
  • First five-year plan was known as Harrod Domar model.
  • The second five-year plan was based on P.C. Mahalanobis model.
  • In the Nehru-Mahalanobis model, industries and Minerals on top priority and 20.1 per cent of the total outlay was allocated.
  • Steel Plant of Durgapur, Bhilai and Rourkela were established during this plan.

Question 128

Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012 - 2017)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth

  2. BOption (b)

    Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure

  3. COption (c)

    Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes

  4. DOption (d)

    Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.

  • The Twelfth Five Year Plan focused on Growth.
  • Twelfth Five Year Plan​:
  • Growth which includes Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.
  • Its growth rate target was 8%.
  • Agriculture and Manufacturing growth at 4% and 10%.
  • Poverty rate to be reduced by 10% than the previous plan.
  • Raising agriculture output to 4 percent.
  • Manufacturing sector growth to 10 %.

Question 129

Nabhah Sparsham Diptam is the motto of

  1. AOption (a)

    Central Industrial Security Force

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Air Force

  3. COption (c)

    ISRO

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Navy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indian Air Force

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Indian Air Force.

Key Points

  • Nabhah Sparsham Diptam means Touch the Sky with Glory.
  • The motto has been taken from the eleventh chapter of the Bhagavad Gita.
  • Air Chief Marshal AP Singh PVSM AVSM  is the current Chief of Air staff.

Additional Information

  • Protection and Security is the motto of the Central Industrial Security Force.
  • Space technology in the Service of humankind is the motto of ISRO.
  • Sam no Varunah is the motto of Indian Navy.

Question 130

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
  2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1, i.e 1 only.

  • The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 Part XX of the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct
  • The consent of the States is not mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
  • Only those provisions of the constitution which are related to the federal structure of India can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislature by a simple majority. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • There is no provision of joint sitting between the two houses for money bill and Constitution Amendment Bill.
  • The Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced either by the Minister or by private members and does not require prior permission of the president.

Question 131

Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?

  1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.
  2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
  3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with the powers of the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 only.

  • The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • CAG audits all expenditure from the contingency fund of India and the public account of India.
  • The CAG is appointed by the President of India.
  • The Constitution of India provides an independent office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India in Article 148.
  • The following are the members who can attend the meetings of the Parliament -
  • The Solicitor General of India.
  • The Vice-President of India.
  • The Attorney General of India.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can not attend the sittings of Parliament. Hence, Statement 2 is Not correct.
  • The CAG can be removed by the President in the same manner as the judge of the Supreme court.
  • The power of the CAG is not co-extensive with the powers of the Union Government. This is because the power of the CAG is limited to holding the government accountable on finances while that of the Government is to monitor and implement all the legislative functionaries in the country. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.
Authority of auditingInstitution
Fully audited by CAGDamodar Valley Corporation oil and natural gas Commission Air India Indian Airlines Corporation and others
Auditors appointed by CAGCentral Warehousing Corporation industrial finance corporation and others
Private auditorsLife Insurance Corporation of India Reserve Bank of India State Bank of India Food Corporation of India and others

Question 132

Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?

  1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
  2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
  3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

Qualifications for election as President:

  • He should be a citizen of India
  • A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • He should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha.
  • He should not hold any office of profit under the union government and the state government. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The President addresses his resignation letter to the Vice President.

Question 133

Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhutan

  2. BOption (b)

    Myanmar

  3. COption (c)

    Nepal

  4. DOption (d)

    Singapore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nepal

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Nepal.

  • ​Nepal adopted the first democratic Constitution in September 2015.
  • The constitution established Nepal as a secular and federal democratic republic with a bicameral parliament.
  • The executive rights are vested in the Council of Ministers which is headed by Prime Minister.
  • The President is the de jure authority same as that of India.
  • The current president is Bidhya Devi Bhandari.
  • Pushpa Kamal Dahal is the current Prime Minister.

Question 134

Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men's Singles event (2015)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tommy Robredo

  2. BOption (b)

    Fabio Fognini

  3. COption (c)

    Roger Federer

  4. DOption (d)

    Pablo Cuevas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Roger Federer

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Roger Federer.

  • Roger Federer was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men's Singles event (2015).
  • Novak Djokovic is a Serbian tennis player.
  • He has won a total of 17 Grand slams won.
  • Roger Federer is Switzerland's tennis player.
TournamentCourt
Australian OpenHardcourt
French OpenClay court
WimbledonGrass court
US openHardcourt

Question 135

The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?

  1. AOption (a)

    Right to reside and settle in any part of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

  3. COption (c)

    Right to practice any profession

  4. DOption (d)

    Right to form co-operative societies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

Key Points

  • The Fundamental Rights are provided in part III of the constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
  • The Constitution provides the following FRs:
  • Right to equality (Articles 14-18)
  • Right to freedom (Articles 19-22)
  • Right against exploitation (Articles 23-24)
  • Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25-28)
  • Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30)
  • Right to property (Article 31)
  • Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
  • The right to acquire, hold and dispose of the property was deleted from the list by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
  • It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
  • Fundamental Rights are both justiciable and enforceable.

Question 136

Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?

  1. AOption (a)

    Charter Act, 1813

  2. BOption (b)

    Charter Act, 1833

  3. COption (c)

    Charles Wood's Education Despatch, 1854

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Councils Act, 1861

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indian Councils Act, 1861

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. the Indian Councils Act, 1861.

  • The Indian Councils Act, 1861 for the first time allowed Indians to get entry into higher posts in British Indian administration.
  • Provisions of the Indian Councils Act, 1861:
  • The portfolio system was introduced by Lord Canning which led to the foundation of cabinet government in India.
  • The Indian Councils Act of 1861 was a pioneering act of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process.
  • The Act restored the legislative powers of the Government of the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay.
  • Indians were nominated by the Viceroy but there was no statutory provision for the inclusion of Indians in it.
  • Hence, it may be considered as theoretically allowing entries to Indians.

Question 137

Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:

  1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion
  2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2, i.e. only the 2nd statement is correct.

  • The Rashtrakutas were patrons of Jainism and liberally patronized the Digambara sect of Jains. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Dantidurga overthrew Kirtivarman II and laid the foundation of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty.
  • Dantidurga is also known as Dantivarman or Dantidurga II.
  • The Rashtrakutas were also the great patrons of architecture.
  • The Rashtrakuta architecture consisted of a splendid form of Rock-cut architecture.
  • Most of the shrines built by Rashtrakuta are Buddhist caves such as Ellora and Elephanta at Maharashtra.

Question 138

After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Koriya, Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Angul, Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Bardhaman, West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya.

  • The ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal forced people to switch to turmeric farming.
  • The name of the hills is given after the Jaintia Tribe.
  • It forms a part of Meghalaya Plateau.
  • In 2018, Meghalaya was again in news for the illegal Rat-hole Mining.
  • Rat-hole Mining involves digging of small tunnels in which workers (often children) enter and extract coal.
  • Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills altogether form the Meghalaya plateau.
  • They are named after the tribal groups inhabiting this region.

Question 139

Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?

  1. It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer's rifle.
  2. It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
  3. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
  4. It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e only 4th statement is correct.

  • Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore and he was arrested and sentenced to death for this act.
  • Reasons of Revolt of 1857:
  • Nana Sahib was refused a pension.
  • Nagpur and Sambalpur were annexed owing to the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • Heavy taxation, forcibly evictions discriminatory tariff policy against Indian products.
  • Military Discrimination with Indian soldiers.
  • The uprising was triggered by the introduction of Enfield rifles, whose cartridges reportedly had a lubricated casing made using beef and pork.

Question 140

Which of the following statements about Gandhiji's Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?

  1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
  2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
  3. Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e 1 and 3 statements are correct.

  • Hind Swaraj which is also known as Indian Home Rule is a book written by Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909.
  • In the book, Gandhiji expressed his views on Swaraj, modern civilization, mechanisation etc.
  • Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
  • The book was banned by the British government in India in 1910 as a seditious text.
  • Gandhiji was against industrial capitalism.

Question 141

Division of labour often involves

  1. specialized economic activity.
  2. highly distinct productive roles.
  3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
  4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various needs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only

  • Division of labour is the splitting of a task in a system with each task performed by a specialized person.
  • Breaking down work into simple tasks avoids unnecessary things and limits the handling of different tools and parts.
  • Adam Smith, a Scottish economist, saw this splitting of tasks as a key to economic progress by giving a cheaper and more efficient means of producing goods.
  • The main idea behind it was to include all the parts of societies into work.
  • Division of labour is a social concept which explains the work and duty of every human being in a social structure.
  • This concept of Division of Labour popularised by Adam Smith in 'An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nation (1776)'.

Question 142

Who among the following is / was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandi Prasad Bhatt

  2. BOption (b)

    Narendra Dabholkar

  3. COption (c)

    G. D. Agrawal

  4. DOption (d)

    Kailash Satyarthi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Narendra Dabholkar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Narendra Dabholkar.

  • Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolam Samiti is an organization dedicated to fighting superstition in India, particularly in Maharashtra.
  • It was founded by Narendra Dabholkar in 1989.
  • Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolam Samiti is also termed as MANS.
  • They have protested against all the superstitious activities carried out in the region.
  • The organization is succeeded in passing two laws in 5 years time span.
  • Chandi Prasad Bhatt is an environmentalist and social activist.
  • Kailash Satyarthi was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014.
  • He is associated with Bachpan Bachao Andolan NGO.

Question 143

Consider the following statements:

  1. Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law-related subjects.
  2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e Both 1 and 2 statements are correct.

  • Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim related laws.
  • Warren Hastings became the first Governor-General of Bengal in 1774.
  • He abolished the Dual System that had been established by Robert Clive.
  • He abolished the Judicial power of Zamindars.
  • Jonathan Duncan in 1791 started the Sanskrit College at Benares for the study of Hindu law and Philosophy.
  • Later the name was changed to Sampurnanand Sanskrit University.
  • Jonathan Duncan was the Governor of Bombay in 1775 till 1811.

Question 144

Consider the following statements about Sufism in India:

  1. Pilgrimage called Ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
  2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is option 3. i.e. Both 1 and 2 statements are correct.

Key Points

  • The term Sufi derived from Arabic word Safa which has two meanings - One who wears woolen clothes and another one symbolises purity and sacredness.
  • Sufism was based on aligning with God which can be achieved by the love of God, prayers, fasts, and rituals.
  • The Sufi orders were divided into two: Ba-shara those who followed the Islamic law and Beshara those who were not bound by Islamic laws.
  • A pilgrimage called Ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
  • The saints organized themselves in 12 salsas.
  • The Chishti Silsila was begun by Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti who came to India around 1192.
  • Sufis were Muslim mystics who composed poems.

Question 145

Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s political ideas?

  1. Henry David Thoreau
  2. John Ruskin
  3. John Milton
  4. Jainism

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e, Henry David Thoreau, John Ruskin and Jainism.

Key Points

  • Gandhian ideology is the set of social and religious ideas adopted and developed by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • John Ruskin's book 'Unto his last' had a lasting impact on Gandhiji Psych.
  • Gandhiji was also influenced by the non-violence principle preached by Jainism.
  • His ideology emphasizes not on idealism, but on practical idealism.
  • Its objective is to transform the individual and society in accordance with the principles of truth and non-violence.
  • Truth, Sarvodaya, nonviolence, and Satyagraha and their significance constitute Gandhian philosophy. They are considered to be four pillars of Gandhian thought.
  • Gandhi was greatly moved by Thoreau's concept that prison is where a man belongs under an unjust government and referred to him as a Teacher.
  • Henry David Thoreau was an American essayist, poet, and practical philosopher.

Question 146

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
  2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 1 only.

Key Points

  • Arthashastra was written by Kautilya.
  • Kautilya was Prime Minister of the Mauryan empire and also an academician at Taxila University.
  • Arthashastra deals with the qualities and disciplines needed for a king to rule his empire.
  • According to Kautilya, a king is one who is always active in promoting the protection and welfare of the people.
  • Kautilya has for the first time defined the state in Arthashastra.
  • According to him, a State consists of people and the ruler who controlled the state.

Question 147

Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) alter 2010?

  1. Permission of 100 per cent FDI in the automotive sector
  2. Permitting foreign airlines to make FM up to 49 per cent
  3. Permission of up to 51 per cent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
  4. Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 1 only.

  • FDI stands for foreign direct investment.
  • Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment made by a company or an individual in one country with business interests located in another country.
  • Currently, 49% of FDI under the automatic route is permitted in Power Exchanges registered under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (Power Market) Regulations, 2010
  • The FDI in India grew by 13% to a record of $49.97 billion in the 2019-20 financial years, according to official data.
  • FDI includes “building new infrastructure, reinvesting profits earned from overseas operations, mergers and acquisitions, and Intracompany loans”.
  • There are two routes through which India gets FDI's i.e. Government Route and Automatic routes.

Question 148

Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?

  1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
  2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 1 only.

  • The “Integrated Power Development Scheme” (IPDS) was launched by the Ministry of Power, Government of India by Modi Government
  • The main objectives of this scheme are: 
  • Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas.
  • Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the urban areas. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • PFC is Power Finance Corporation.
  • PFC is the Nodal agency for the implementation of the “Integrated Power Development Scheme (IPDS)”.
  • The Restructured Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (R-APDRP) in July 2008  was launched by the Ministry of Power, Government of India.

Question 149

Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?

  1. The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
  2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
  3. Keshub Chandra Sen's followers broke away to form the Naha Brahmo Samaj.
  4. The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1. i.e 1 only

  • Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in the year 1828.
  • The Brahmo Samaj was the first important organization of religious reforms.
  • The greatest achievement in the field of social reform was the abolition of Sati in 1829.
  • The two most important leaders of the Brahmo Samaj were Debendranath Tagore and Keshub Chandra Sen.
  • Brahmo Samaj advocates the existence of an ‘Infinite Singularity.’
  • The Brahmo Samaj got divided into two categories – ‘Adi Brahmo Samaj’ and ‘Sadharan Brahmo Samaj.
  • As the Brahmo Sabha started to fall, Debendranath Tagore came up with Tattvaranjini Sabha, which later came to be known as ‘Tattvabodhini Sabha.’
  • After the controversy of the underage marriage of Keshub Chandra Sen's daughter, the Special Marriage Act of 1872 enacted to set the minimum age of 14 years for the marriage of girls. 
  • All the Bramho Marriages were thereafter solemnised under the law.

Question 150

Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?

  1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each other’s culture and literature among nations.
  2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
  3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
  4. To organize international conferences

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e 2 only.

  • The United Nations (UN) was ascertained on October 24, 1945.
  • The UN has 193 countries as its members and it is headquartered in New York, USA.
  • The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization that aims to maintain international security and peace.
  • Some objective of the United Nations are as follows :
  • To maintain international peace and security.
  • To encourage international cooperation in the spheres of social, economic and cultural developments.
  • To foster worldwide cooperation in solving economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.
  • To safeguard and foster human rights and freedom
  • To take all necessary measures for establishing international peace
  • To enhance international security by solving international disputes
  • To establish friendly relations among the nations.
  • The UN has six principal organs: the General Assembly; the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC); the Trusteeship Council; the Security Council; UN Secretariat and the International Court of Justice.
  • UNICEF, IMF, WHO, IDA, UNDP, UNEP, WTO are some of the important organizations of the UN.

150 questions in the full paper