Official Paper

JEE Mains 2 April 2025 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

75 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Mathematics Section A (20 questions)

1

The largest n(\in)N such that 3n divides 50! is:

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    23

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

22

Calculation:

Given,

Number, n = 50

Prime number, p = 3

The exponent of 3 in 50! is given by,

(B = \left\lfloor \frac{50}{3} \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor \frac{50}{3^2} \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor \frac{50}{3^3} \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor \frac{50}{3^4} \right\rfloor)

(B = \left\lfloor \frac{50}{3} \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor \frac{50}{9} \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor \frac{50}{27} \right\rfloor + \left\lfloor \frac{50}{81} \right\rfloor)

(B = 16 + 5 + 1 + 0 = 22)

∴ The maximum value of n is 22.

2

Let one focus of the hyperbola  (H: \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 \text{ be})  ( \\text{at } (\sqrt{10}, 0)) and and the corresponding directrix be (x = \frac{9}{\sqrt{10}}). If e and l respectively and the length of the latus rectum of H, then 9 (e+ l) is equal ro:

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16

Concept:

Hyperbola parameters:

  • Given one focus of hyperbola ( H : \frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1 ) is at ( (\sqrt{10}, 0) ).
  • The corresponding directrix is ( x = \frac{9}{\sqrt{10}} ).
  • Recall the relationships: ( ae = c ) (distance of focus from origin), ( \frac{a}{e} ) is directrix, and ( c^2 = a^2 + b^2 ).
  • The length of the latus rectum is ( l = \frac{2b^2}{a} ).

Calculation:

Given:

( ae = \sqrt{10} ) and ( \frac{a}{e} = \frac{9}{\sqrt{10}} )

Then,

( a^2 = 9 ) and ( e = \frac{\sqrt{10}}{3} )

Now,

( (ae)^2 = a^2 + b^2 \implies 10 = 9 + b^2 \implies b^2 = 1 )

( l = \frac{2b^2}{a} = \frac{2 \times 1}{3} = \frac{2}{3} )

Therefore,

( 9(e^2 + l) = 9 \left( \left( \frac{\sqrt{10}}{3} \right)^2 + \frac{2}{3} \right) = 9 \left( \frac{10}{9} + \frac{2}{3} \right) = 10 + 6 = 16 )

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

3

The number of sequences of ten terms, whose terms are either 0 or 1 or 2, that contain exactly five 1s and exactly three 2s, is equal to  

  1. ((a))

    360

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    2520

  4. ((d))

    1820

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2520

Calculation: 

11111 2 2 2 0 0 

No. of sequences (= \frac{10!}{5!3!2!} = 2520)

Note: The Sequence can start with 0.

Hence, the Correct answer is Option 3.

4

Let f : (\mathbf{R} \to \mathbf{R}) be a twice differentiable function such that (sinx cosy)(f(2x+2y) – f(2x – 2y)) = (cosx siny)(f(2x+2y) + f(2x – 2y)), for all x,  (y \in \mathbf{R}) . If (f'(0) = \frac{1}{2}) , then the value of (24 f'' \left( \frac{5\pi}{3} \right))  is:

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    -3

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    -2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

-3

Calculation:

Given,

We are given the equation:

( (\sin x \cos y)(f(2x+2y) - f(2x-2y)) = (\cos x \sin y)(f(2x+2y) + f(2x-2y)) )

Taking terms together:

( f(2x+2y)(\sin x \cos y - \cos x \sin y) = f(2x-2y)(\cos x \sin y + \sin x \cos y) )

Using identities:

( f(2x+2y)\sin(x - y) = f(2x-2y)\sin(x + y) )

Rewriting,

( \frac{f(2x+2y)}{\sin(x + y)} = \frac{f(2x-2y)}{\sin(x - y)} )

Let,

( 2x + 2y = m ) and ( 2x - 2y = n )

Then,

( \frac{f(m)}{\sin\left(\frac{m}{2}\right)} = \frac{f(n)}{\sin\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)} = K ) (constant)

( \Rightarrow f(m) = K \sin\left(\frac{m}{2}\right) )

( \therefore f(x) = K \sin\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) )

Now,

( f'(x) = \frac{K}{2} \cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) )

Putting ( x = 0 ):

( \frac{K}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow K = 1 )

So,

( f'(x) = \frac{1}{2} \cos\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) )

( f''(x) = -\frac{1}{4} \sin\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) )

Now,

( 24 f''\left(\frac{5\pi}{3}\right) = 24 \left( -\frac{1}{4} \sin\left(\frac{5\pi}{6}\right) \right) )

( = -6 \times \frac{1}{2} = -3 )

∴ The correct answer is Option 2.

5

Let A = (A = \begin{bmatrix} \alpha & -1 \ 6 & \beta \end{bmatrix}, \alpha > 0,) such that det(A) = 0 and (\alpha + \beta = 1). If I denotes 2 × 2 identity matrix, then the matrix (1 + A)8 is:

  1. ((a))

    (\begin{bmatrix} 4 & -1 \ 6 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \qquad)

  2. ((b))

    (\begin{bmatrix} 257 & -64 \ 514 & -127 \end{bmatrix})

  3. ((c))

    (\begin{bmatrix} 1025 & -511 \ 2046 & -1024 \end{bmatrix} \qquad)

  4. ((d))

    (\begin{bmatrix} 766 & -255 \ 1530 & -509 \end{bmatrix})

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(\begin{bmatrix} 766 & -255 \ 1530 & -509 \end{bmatrix})

Solution:

(|A| = 0)

(\alpha \beta - (-1)(6) = 0)

(\alpha \beta + 6 = 0)

(\alpha \beta = -6)

(\alpha + \beta = 1)

(\implies \alpha = 3, \beta = -2)

(A = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -1 \ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix})

(A^2 = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -1 \ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -1 \ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -1 \ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix})

(\therefore A^2 = A)

(A = A^2 = A^3 = A^4 = A^5 = \cdots )

((I + A)^8)

(= I + {}^8C_1 A + {}^8C_2 A^2 + \cdots + {}^8C_8 A^8)

(= I + A ({}^8C_1 + {}^8C_2 + \cdots + {}^8C_8))

(= I + A (2^8 - 1))

(= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -1 \ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix} (256 - 1))

(= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 3 & -1 \ 6 & -2 \end{bmatrix} 255)

(= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 765 & -255 \ 1530 & -510 \end{bmatrix})

(= \begin{bmatrix} 766 & -255 \ 1530 & -509 \end{bmatrix})

Hence, the Correct answer is Option 4.

6

The term independent of x in the expansion of 

(\left( \frac{(x+1)}{(x^{2/3} + 1 - x^{1/3})} - \frac{(x-1)}{(x - x^{1/2})} \right)^{10}, x > 1 \text{ is:})

  1. ((a))

    210

  2. ((b))

    150 

  3. ((c))

    240 

  4. ((d))

    120

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

210

Calculation:

( \left(\frac{x+1}{x^{2/3}+1-x^{1/3}}-\frac{x-1}{x-x^{1/2}}\right)^{10}, ; x>1 )

Simplify the terms inside the bracket:

( \frac{x+1}{x^{2/3}+1-x^{1/3}} = x^{1/3}+1 )

( \frac{x-1}{x-x^{1/2}} = 1 + x^{-1/2} )

Subtracting:

( (x^{1/3}+1)-(1+x^{-1/2}) = x^{1/3}-x^{-1/2} )

So the expression reduces to

( (x^{1/3}-x^{-1/2})^{10} )

General term:

( T_{r+1} = \binom{10}{r}(x^{1/3})^{10-r}(-x^{-1/2})^{r} )

( = \binom{10}{r}(-1)^r x^{\frac{10-r}{3}-\frac{r}{2}} )

For the term independent of x:

( \frac{10-r}{3}-\frac{r}{2}=0 )

( 2(10-r)-3r=0 \Rightarrow 20-5r=0 \Rightarrow r=4 )

Required term:

( T_5=\binom{10}{4}(-1)^4=\binom{10}{4}=210 )

The correct answer is 210.

7

If (\theta \in [-2\pi, 2\pi]), then the number of solutions of  ,(2\sqrt{2} \cos^2 \theta + (2 - \sqrt{6}) \cos \theta - \sqrt{3} = 0,) is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8

Solution:

(2\sqrt{2} \cos^2 \theta + 2 \cos \theta - \sqrt{6} \cos \theta - \sqrt{3} = 0 )

( \ (2 \cos \theta - \sqrt{3})(\sqrt{2} \cos \theta + 1) = 0)

(\ \cos \theta = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}, -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} )

Number of solutions = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

8

Let a1, a2, a3…. be in an A.P. such that (\sum_{k=1}^{12} a_{2k-1} = -\frac{72}{5} a_1, a_1 \neq 0. \text{ If } \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k = 0,) the n is :

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11

Concept:

Arithmetic Progression (A.P.):

  • An arithmetic progression is a sequence of numbers in which the difference between consecutive terms is constant, called the common difference (d).
  • The sum of first n terms of an A.P. is given by (S_n = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n-1)d]), where a is the first term.

 

Calculation:

Sum of first 12 odd terms in A.P. is

 

( S_{12} = \frac{12}{2} [2a + (12-1) \times 2d] = 6[2a + 22d] )

Equate to the given sum,

( 6[2a + 22d] = -\frac{72}{5} a \Rightarrow 12a + 132d = -\frac{72}{5} a )

Multiply both sides by 5,

( 60a + 660d = -72a \Rightarrow 132a + 660d = 0 \Rightarrow 132a + 132 \times 5 d = 0 \Rightarrow a = -5d )

Now, sum of first n terms (S_n) = 0

( \frac{n}{2} (2a + (n-1)d) = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{n}{2} (2(-5d) + (n-1)d) = 0 )

( \Rightarrow \frac{n}{2} (-10d + nd - d) = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{n}{2} (nd - 11d) = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{nd(n-11)}{2} = 0 )

Since d ≠ 0 and n ≠ 0  ,

( n - 11 = 0 \Rightarrow n = 11 )

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

9

If the function f(x) = 2x3 – 9ax2 + 12a2x + 1, where a > 0, attains its local maximum and local minimum values at p and q, respectively, such that p2 = q, then f(3) is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    23

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

37

Concept:

Finding local maxima and minima of a cubic function:

  • To find local maxima and minima of a cubic function, first differentiate the function and find the critical points by setting the derivative equal to zero.
  • The critical points correspond to values of xx

where the function attains local maxima or minima.

  • Use given conditions on the critical points to find the parameters and evaluate the function at required points.

 

Calculation:

Given,

( f(x) = 2x^3 - 9ax^2 + 12a^2 x + 1 )

First derivative,

( f'(x) = 6x^2 - 18ax + 12a^2 )

Set ( f'(x) = 0 ) to find critical points:

( 6x^2 - 18ax + 12a^2 = 0 )

Dividing by 6:

( x^2 - 3ax + 2a^2 = 0 )

Let the roots be ( p ) and ( q ). Then, by Vieta's formulas,

  • ( p + q = 3a )
  • ( pq = 2a^2 )

Given condition,

( p^2 = q )

Substitute ( q = p^2 ):

( p + p^2 = 3a )

( p \cdot p^2 = p^3 = 2a^2 )

From sum,

( a = \frac{p + p^2}{3} )

From product,

( a^2 = \frac{p^3}{2} )

Squaring the sum and equating to product:

( \left( \frac{p + p^2}{3} \right)^2 = \frac{p^3}{2} )

Solving for ( p ) gives ( p = 2 ).

Then,

( a = \frac{2 + 4}{3} = 2 )

Finally, evaluate ( f(3) ):

( f(3) = 2(3)^3 - 9(2)(3)^2 + 12(2)^2 (3) + 1 )

( = 54 - 162 + 144 + 1 = 37 )

∴ The correct answer is Option 4.

10

Let z be a complex number such that (|z| = 1.) . If ( \frac{2 + k^2 z}{k + \bar{z}} = kz, k \in \mathbf{R}, ) then the maximum distance of k + ik2 from the circle (|z - (1 + 2i)| = 1) is:

  1. ((a))

    (\sqrt{5} + 1 )

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    (\sqrt{3} + 1)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(\sqrt{5} + 1 )

Calculation:

( \frac{2 + k^2 z}{k + \bar{z}} = kz )

( |z|^2 = 1 )

( k = 2 )

Point P = (2, 4), center of circle C = (1, 2) 

Equation of a circle: ( (x - 1)^2 + (y - 2)^2 = 1 )

Maximum distance from point Pto the circle is given by:

( OP + r = \sqrt{(2 - 1)^2 + (4 - 2)^2} + 1 = \sqrt{1 + 4} + 1 = \sqrt{5} + 1 )

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

11

If ( \vec{a}) is nonzero vector such that its projections on the vectors (2\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}) and (\hat{k}) are equal, then a unit vector along (\vec{a} ) is:

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{1}{\sqrt{155}} (-7\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}) \qquad )

  2. ((b))

    (\frac{1}{\sqrt{155}} (-7\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} - 5\hat{k}))

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{1}{\sqrt{155}} (7\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}) \qquad)

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{1}{\sqrt{155}} (7\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} - 5\hat{k}))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(\frac{1}{\sqrt{155}} (7\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}) \qquad)

Solution:

( \text{Let } \vec{a} = a_1 \hat{i} + a_2 \hat{j} + a_3 \hat{k} )

( a_1^2 + a_2^2 + a_3^2 = 1 )

( \vec{b} = 2\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \quad \vec{c} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 2\hat{k}, \quad \vec{d} = \hat{k} )

( \frac{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}}{|\vec{b}|} = \frac{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{c}}{|\vec{c}|} = \frac{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{d}}{|\vec{d}|} )

Calculate magnitudes:

( |\vec{b}| = \sqrt{2^2 + (-1)^2 + 2^2} = \sqrt{9} = 3 )

( |\vec{c}| = \sqrt{1^2 + 2^2 + (-2)^2} = \sqrt{9} = 3 )

( |\vec{d}| = \sqrt{0^2 + 0^2 + 1^2} = 1 )

Set equal projections:

( \frac{2a_1 - a_2 + 2a_3}{3} = \frac{a_1 + 2a_2 - 2a_3}{3} = \frac{a_3}{1} )

From the first equality:

( 2a_1 - a_2 + 2a_3 = 3a_3 \implies 2a_1 - a_2 = a_3 )

From the second equality:

( a_1 + 2a_2 - 2a_3 = 3a_3 \implies a_1 + 2a_2 = 5a_3 )

Solving 

( a_1 = \frac{7}{\sqrt{155}}, \quad a_2 = \frac{9}{\sqrt{155}}, \quad a_3 = \frac{5}{\sqrt{155}} )

∴ a unit vector along  (\frac{1}{\sqrt{155}} (7\hat{i} + 9\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}) \qquad)

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

12

Let A be the set of all functions f : Z (\implies) Z and R be a relation on A such that R = {(f, g) : f (0) = g(1) and f (1) = g(0)}. Then R is:

  1. ((a))

    Symmetric and transitive but not reflective 

  2. ((b))

    Symmetric but neither reflective nor transitive 

  3. ((c))

    Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive 

  4. ((d))

    Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Symmetric but neither reflective nor transitive 

Solution:

R= {(f,g): f(0) = g(1) and f(1) = g(0)}

Reflexive: (f, f) € R

⇒ f(0) = f(1) and f(1) = f(0) ⇒ must hold

⇒ But this is not true for all functions

So not reflexive

Symmetric: If (f,g) € R ⇒ (g, f) € R

Now, g(0) = f(1) and g(1) = f(0) ⇒ true

∴ symmetric

Transitive: If (f,g) € R and (g,h) € R

⇒ (f,h) € R

Now (f,g) € R= f(0)= g(1) and f(1)= g(0)

⇒ (g,h) € R ⇒ g(0)= h(1) and g(1) = h(0)

⇒ For (f,h) € R we need f(0) = h(1) and f(1) = h(0)

⇒ Now f(0)= g(1) = h(0) nd f(1) = g(0) = h(1)

Hence transitive

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2

13

For ( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \in \mathbf{R}, \text{ if } \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2 \sin \alpha x + (\gamma - 1) e^{x^2}}{\sin 2x - \beta x} = 3, \ ) ({then } \beta + \gamma - \alpha \text{ is equal to:})

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    -1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7

Concept:

Limits and Expansion of Elementary Functions:

  • To solve limits involving indeterminate forms like 0/0, use series expansion (Maclaurin expansion) of functions such as sinx and ex.
  • Standard expansions:
  • sin x = x − x3/3! + x5/5! − ...
  • ex = 1 + x + x2/2! + x3/3! + ...
  • Compare powers of x from numerator and denominator and simplify accordingly.

 

Calculation:

Given,

limx→0 [ x2·sin(αx) + (γ−1)·ex2 ] / [ sin(2x) − βx ] = 3

Numerator:

x2·sin(αx) = x2·(αx − (αx)3/6 + ... ) = αx3 − α3x5/6 + ...

(γ − 1)·ex2 = (γ − 1)·(1 + x2 + x4/2! + ...) = (γ − 1) + (γ − 1)x2 + ...

So, numerator ≈ (γ − 1) + (γ − 1)x2 + αx3 + ...

Denominator:

sin(2x) = 2x − (2x)3/6 + ... = 2x − 8x3/6 + ...

So, denominator = 2x − βx − (8x3/6) + ... = (2 − β)x − (4/3)x3 + ...

Now rewrite limit as:

limx→0 [ (γ−1) + (γ−1)x2 + αx3 + ... ] / [ (2−β)x − (4/3)x3 + ... ] = 3

Now, use expansion up to x0 term after dividing:

⇒ limx→0 (γ−1) / (2−β)x = 0 unless (γ−1) = 0

So, γ − 1 = 0 ⇒ γ = 1

Then numerator becomes αx3 + ...

Denominator: (2 − β)x − (4/3)x3 + ...

⇒ lim = αx3 / [ (2 − β)x − (4/3)x3 ]

Now multiply numerator and denominator by x−3:

⇒ α / [ (2 − β)x−2 − (4/3) ]

Now take limit x → 0, x−2 → ∞

For limit to be finite, coefficient of x−2 in denominator must be 0

⇒ (2 − β) = 0

⇒ β = 2

Now denominator = −(4/3),

numerator = α ⇒ α / (−4/3) = 3

⇒ α = −4

Given γ = 1, β = 2, α = −4

β + γ − α = 2 + 1 − (−4) = 7

∴ β + γ − α = 7

14

If the system of linear equations

 (3x + y + \beta z = 3 \ 2x + \alpha y - z = -3 \ x + 2y + z = 4)

has infinitely many solutions, then the value of 22(\beta) – 9(\alpha) is :

  1. ((a))

    49

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    37

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

31

Calculation:

Given,

( \Delta = \begin{vmatrix} 3 & 1 & \beta \ 2 & \alpha & -1 \ 1 & 2 & 1 \end{vmatrix} = 0 )

( 3(\alpha + 2) - 1(2 + 1) + \beta (4 - \alpha) = 0 )

( 3\alpha + 6 - 3 + 4\beta - \alpha \beta = 0 )

( 3\alpha + 4\beta - \alpha \beta + 3 = 0 )

Also,

( \Delta_3 = \begin{vmatrix} 3 & 1 & 3 \ 2 & \alpha & -3 \ 1 & 2 & 4 \end{vmatrix} = 0 )

( 3(4\alpha + 6) - 1(8 + 3) + 3(4 - \alpha) = 0 )

( 12\alpha + 18 - 11 + 12 - 3\alpha = 0 )

( 9\alpha + 19 = 0 \Rightarrow \alpha = -\frac{19}{9} )

Putting in previous equation:

( 3\alpha + 4\beta - \alpha \beta + 3 = 0 )

( \Rightarrow \beta = \frac{6}{11} )

Now,

( 22\beta - 9\alpha = 22 \left(\frac{6}{11}\right) - 9 \left(-\frac{19}{9}\right) )

( = 12 + 19 = 31 )

∴ The correct answer is Option 2.

15

Let ( P_n = \alpha^n + \beta^n, n \in \mathbf{N}. \text{ If } P_{10} = 123, P_9 = 76, P_8 = 47\ ) and P1 =1, then the quadratic equation having roots (\frac{1}{\alpha} \text{ and } \frac{1}{\beta}) is:

  1. ((a))

    x2 – x + 1 = 0

  2. ((b))

    x2 + x – 1 = 0

  3. ((c))

    x2 – x – 1 = 0

  4. ((d))

    x2 + x + 1 = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

x2 + x – 1 = 0

Concept:

Sequence and Series – Recurrence Relations:

  • For a sequence defined by (P_n = \alpha^n + \beta^n), the terms satisfy the linear recurrence (P_n = (\alpha+\beta),P_{n-1} - (\alpha\beta),P_{n-2}.)
  • Here, (\alpha+\beta) and (\alpha \beta ) are the sum and product of the roots of the characteristic quadratic.
  • Given specific values of (P_n), one can solve for these two parameters and hence recover the quadratic.

Calculation:

Given:

  • (P_{10}=123,;P_{9}=76,;P_{8}=47,;P_{1}=1.)

Let (s = \alpha+\beta) and (p = \alpha\beta).

Since (P_1 = \alpha+\beta), we have:

(s = P_1 = 1.)

Next, use the recurrence at (n=10):

(P_{10} = s,P_9 - p,P_8)

(\Rightarrow; 123 = 1\cdot76 - 47p)

(\Rightarrow; 47p = 76 - 123 = -47 ;\Rightarrow; p = -1.)

Therefore, the characteristic equation is:

(x^2 - s,x + p = 0 \Rightarrow x^2 - x - 1 = 0.)

We want the quadratic whose roots are (\tfrac{1}{\alpha}) and (\tfrac{1}{\beta}).

If (\alpha,\beta) satisfy (x^2 - x - 1=0), then:

(\tfrac{1}{\alpha} + \tfrac{1}{\beta} = \tfrac{\alpha+\beta}{\alpha\beta} = \tfrac{s}{p} = \tfrac{1}{-1} = -1)

(\tfrac{1}{\alpha\beta} = \tfrac{1}{p} = -1)

Hence, the required equation is:

(x^2 - \left(\tfrac{1}{\alpha} + \tfrac{1}{\beta}\right)x + \tfrac{1}{\alpha\beta} = 0 \Rightarrow x^2 + x - 1 = 0.)

∴ The correct answer is Option 2.

16

If S and S' are the foci of the ellipse and (\frac{x^2}{18} + \frac{y^2}{9} = 1)   P be a point on the ellipse, then min(SP.S'P) + max(SP.S'P) is equal to :

  1. ((a))

    (, 3(1+\sqrt{2}) \qquad )

  2. ((b))

    ( 3(6+\sqrt{2}))

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

27

Calculation:

<br>

 

PS + PS' = 2 × 3 √2 

⇒ b2 = a2 (1 - e2) ⇒ 9 = 18( 1 - e2)

⇒ e = (\frac{1}{\sqrt2})

Diretrix x = (\frac{a}{e} = \frac{3\sqrt2}{\frac{1}{\sqrt2}{}} = 6)

⇒ PS.PS' = (PS.PS' = | \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (3\sqrt{2} \cos \theta - 6)|)

 = (\frac{1}{2}| 18 cos^2\theta - 36|)

⇒ (PS. PS')max = 18 and (PS .PS')min = 9

Sum = 27

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

17

Let the vertices Q and R of the triangle PQR lie on the line (\frac{x+3}{5} = \frac{y-1}{2} = \frac{z+4}{3},) QR = 5 and the coordinates of the point P be (0, 2, 3). If the area of the triangle PQR is (\frac{m}{n}) then:

  1. ((a))

    (, m - 5\sqrt{21} n = 0 \qquad)

  2. ((b))

    (, 2m - 5\sqrt{21} n = 0)

  3. ((c))

    (5m - 2\sqrt{21} n = 0 \qquad)

  4. ((d))

    (5m - 21\sqrt{2} n = 0)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(, 2m - 5\sqrt{21} n = 0)

Concept:

Coordinate Geometry - Area of Triangle using Vector Approach:

  • To find the area of triangle PQR, we use the coordinates of points P, Q, and R.
  • Points Q and R lie on the line given by the parametric equations: (\frac{x+3}{5} = \frac{y-1}{2} = \frac{z+4}{3}).
  • Distance QR is given as 5 units.
  • Point P is fixed at (0, 2, 3).
  • Area of triangle PQR is given by (\frac{1}{2} \times | \overrightarrow{PQ} \times \overrightarrow{PR}|)

Vector Diagram

  • We find the point M on the line such that vector (\overrightarrow{PM} )is perpendicular to the line.
  • Using the condition of perpendicularity, we solve for the parameter(\lambda)
  • Calculate the length PM which is the height of the triangle from P to line QR.
  • Use QR = 5 and height PM to calculate the area.

 

Calculation:

Given,

(M(5\lambda - 3, 2\lambda + 1, 3\lambda - 4))

Directions of PM:

(\implies 5\lambda - 3, 2\lambda + 1 - 2, 3\lambda - 4 - (-3) \implies 5\lambda - 3, 2\lambda - 1, 3\lambda - 1)

Directions of line L:

(5, 2, 3)

Since (\overrightarrow{PM}) is perpendicular  ( \overrightarrow{L}),

((5\lambda - 3) \times 5 + (2\lambda - 1) \times 2 + (3\lambda - 1) \times 3 = 0)

Simplifying,

(25\lambda - 15 + 4\lambda - 2 + 9\lambda - 3 = 0)

(38\lambda - 20 = 0)

(\lambda = \frac{20}{38} = \frac{10}{19})

Coordinates of M:

(M\left(5 \times \frac{10}{19} - 3, 2 \times \frac{10}{19} + 1, 3 \times \frac{10}{19} - 4 \right) = M\left(\frac{50 - 57}{19}, \frac{20 + 19}{19}, \frac{30 - 76}{19}\right) = M\left(-\frac{7}{19}, \frac{39}{19}, -\frac{46}{19}\right))

Calculate length PM:

(PM = \sqrt{\left(-\frac{7}{19} - (-3)\right)^2 + \left(\frac{39}{19} - 2\right)^2 + \left(-\frac{46}{19} - (-3)\right)^2})

(PM = \sqrt{\left(\frac{50}{19}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{19}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{11}{19}\right)^2} = \sqrt{\frac{2500 + 1 + 121}{361}} = \frac{\sqrt{2622}}{19})

Calculate area of triangle:

(\text{Area} = \frac{1}{2} \times QR \times PM = \frac{1}{2} \times 5 \times \frac{\sqrt{2622}}{19} = \frac{5 \sqrt{2622}}{38} = \frac{m}{n})

Given relation involving m) and n:

(2m - 5 \sqrt{21} n = 0)

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

18

Let ABCD be a tetrahedron such that the edges AB, AC and AD are mutually perpendicular. Let the areas of the triangles ABC, ACD and ADB be 5, 6 and 7 square units respectively. Then the area (in square units) of the (\Delta)BCD is equal to :

  1. ((a))

    (\sqrt{340} \qquad)

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    (\sqrt{110} \qquad)

  4. ((d))

    (7\sqrt{3})

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(\sqrt{110} \qquad)

Concept:

Area of Tetrahedron from Areas of Perpendicular Triangles:

  • In a tetrahedron where edges AB, AC, and AD are mutually perpendicular, the area of the face opposite to vertex A (i.e., triangle BCD) is related to the areas of the triangles ABC, ACD, and ADB.
  • These three triangles form right-angled faces and their areas can be used to find the area of the face BCD using Pythagorean relation in three dimensions.

 

The relation for the area of triangle BCD is,

( \text{Ar}(\triangle BCD) = \sqrt{ \text{Ar}(\triangle ABC)^2 + \text{Ar}(\triangle ACD)^2 + \text{Ar}(\triangle ADB)^2 } )

 

Calculation:

Given,

( \text{Ar}(\triangle ABC) = 5, \quad \text{Ar}(\triangle ACD) = 6, \quad \text{Ar}(\triangle ADB) = 7 )

⇒ ( \text{Ar}(\triangle BCD) = \sqrt{5^2 + 6^2 + 7^2} = \sqrt{25 + 36 + 49} = \sqrt{110} )

∴ The area of triangle BCD is (\sqrt{110}), hence the correct answer is Option 3.

19

()Let (a \in \mathbf{R}) and A be a matrix of order 3x3 such that det(A) = -4 and A + I = (\begin{bmatrix} 1 & a & 1 \ 2 & 1 & 0 \ a & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix} ), where I is the identity matrix of order 3 x 3.

If det ((a + 1)adj((a–1)A)) is 2m3n, m, n (\in) {0,1,2,…..20}, then m + n is equal to :

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16

A +  I = (\begin{bmatrix} 1 & a & 1 \ 2 & 1 & 0 \ a & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix} )

⇒A = (\begin{bmatrix} 0 & a & 1 \ 2 & 0 & 0 \ a & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} )

Given det(A)= −4.

det(A)= 0⋅(0. 1 − 0. 1)−a. (2. 1−0. a)+1. (2. 1−0. a)

= - a. (2)+1. (2) =−2a + 2

Set equal to −4−4-4 -4

⇒ 2a + 2 =  -4 ⟹ −2a = −6 ⟹a = 3:

Also

det((a+1) adj ((a−1)A)) =2m3n

  • For a 3 × 3 Matrix, det(adj)(B) = (det(B))2
  • For a scalar k det(kB) = k3det(B)

Let’s plug in values:

⇒ det((a−1) A) = (a−1)3.det(A) = (3−1)3.(−4)=23.(−4) = 8.(−4) = −32

⇒ det(adj(a - 1)A)) = (-32)2 = 1024

⇒ (a +1)3 = (3 + 1)= 64

⇒ det((a+1)adj((a−1)A)) = 64⋅1024 = 65536

Thus, 65536 = 21630

⇒ Then m = 16,n = 0

⇒ m + n  = 16 + 0 = 16

20

Let the focal chord PQ of the parabola y2 = 4x make an angle of 60° with the positive x-axis, where P lies in the first quadrant. If the circle, whose one diameter is PS, S being the focus of the parabola, touches the y-axis at the point ((0, \alpha)), then (5\alpha^2)  is equal to :

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

Concept:

Focal Chord of Parabola and Circle Properties:

  • The focal chord of the parabola ( y^2 = 4ax )passes through points on the parabola making a certain angle with the x-axis.
  • The circle with one diameter as the focal chord touches the y-axis at a certain point.

  • The tangent of the given angle and the coordinates of the point P on the parabola can be used to find the parameter t.
  • The equation of the circle with diameter PS and its intersection with the y-axis is used to find (\alpha)

 

Calculation:

Given,

The parabola: ( y^2 = 4x )

Focal chord PQ makes an angle of (60^\circ) with positive x-axis.

Using slope( m = \tan 60^\circ = \sqrt{3})

( \tan 60^\circ = \frac{2t - 0}{t^2 - 1} = \sqrt{3} \implies t = \sqrt{3} )

Coordinates of P: ( (3, 2\sqrt{3}) )

Circle with diameter PS and focus S:

( (x - 1)(x - 3) + (y - 0)(y - 2\sqrt{3}) = 0 )

At x = 0,

( (-1)(-3) + y(y - 2\sqrt{3}) = 0 \implies 3 + y^2 - 2\sqrt{3}y = 0 \implies (y - \sqrt{3})^2 = 0 \implies y = \sqrt{3} = \alpha )

Calculate ( 5\alpha^2:)

( 5 \alpha^2 = 5 (\sqrt{3})^2 = 5 \times 3 = 15 )

∴ The correct answer is Option 1.

Mathematics Section B (5 questions)

21

Let [.] denote the greatest integer function. If (\int_{0}^{3} \left[ \frac{1}{e^{x-1}} \right] dx = \alpha - \log_e 2, \text{ then } \alpha^3 \text{ is equal to } ____.)

22

Let ƒ : (R \rightarrow R) be a thrice differentiable odd function satisfying ƒ'(x)(\ge)0, ƒ'(x)=ƒ(x),ƒ(0)=0,ƒ'(0)=3. Then 9ƒ(loge3) is equal to _____.

23

If the area of the region 

({(x, y) : |4 - x^2| \le y \le x^2, y \le 4, x \ge 0} \ \text{is } \left( \frac{80\sqrt{2}}{\alpha} - \beta \right), \alpha, \beta \in \mathbf{N}, \text{ then } \alpha + \beta \text{ is equal to})

24

Three distinct numbers are selected randomly from the set {1,2,3,……,40}. If the probability, that the selected numbers are in an increasing G.P. is (\frac{m}{n},) gcd(m,n) = 1, then m + n is equal to ____.

25

The absolute difference between the squares of the radii of the two circles passing through the point (–9, 4) and touching the lines x + y = 3 and x – y = 3, is equal to _____.

Chemistry Section A (20 questions)

26

Designate whether each of the following compounds is aromatic or not aromatic.

  1. ((a))

    e, g aromatic and a, b, c, d, f, h not aromatic

  2. ((b))

    b, e, f, g aromatic and a, c, d, h not aromatic 

  3. ((c))

     a, b, c, d aromatic and e, f, g, h not aromatic 

  4. ((d))

    a, c, d, e, h aromatic and b, f, g not aromatic 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

a, c, d, e, h aromatic and b, f, g not aromatic 

CONCEPT:

Aromaticity and Hückel's Rule

  • Aromatic compounds are cyclic, planar molecules with a conjugated π-electron system.
  • They must follow Hückel’s rule: a compound is aromatic if it contains (4n + 2) π-electrons, where n is a non-negative integer (n = 0, 1, 2, ...).
  • The compound must be fully conjugated (i.e., every atom in the ring has a p-orbital) and must be planar to allow continuous overlap of p-orbitals.

EXPLANATION:

  • (a) Cyclopentadienyl cation: Has 6 π-electrons → follows Hückel’s rule → Aromatic
  • (b) Cyclopentadienyl anion: Has 4 π-electrons → does not satisfy (4n + 2) rule → Not Aromatic
  • (c) 4-membered ring with 6 π-electrons → satisfies Hückel’s rule → Aromatic
  • (d) 4-membered ring with 6 π-electrons (similar to c) → Aromatic
  • (e) Cycloheptatrienyl cation (tropylium ion) → has 6 π-electrons → Aromatic
  • (f) Cycloheptatrienyl anion: Has 8 π-electrons → does not follow Hückel’s rule → Not Aromatic
  • (g) 4n π-electron system (non-planar rectangle) → Not Aromatic
  • (h) Cyclopropyl cation: Has 2 π-electrons → satisfies Hückel’s rule for n = 0 → Aromatic

Therefore, the correct answer is: a, c, d, e, h are aromatic and b, f, g are not aromatic.

27

An optically active alkyl halide C4 H9 Br [A] reacts with hot KOH dissolved in ethanol and forms alkene [B] as major product which reacts with bromine to give dibromide [C]. The compound [C] is converted into a gas [D] upon reacting with alcoholic NaNH2 . During hydration 18 gram of water is added to 1 mole of gas [D] on warming with mercuric sulphate and dilute acid at 333 K to form compound [E]. The IUPAC name of compound [E] is :  

  1. ((a))

    But-2-yne 

  2. ((b))

    Butan-2-ol 

  3. ((c))

    Butan-2-one 

  4. ((d))

    Butan-1-al 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Butan-2-one 

CONCEPT:

Reaction Pathway Involving Alkyl Halide → Alkyne → Ketone

  • Alkyl halides can undergo elimination reactions with alcoholic KOH to form alkenes.
  • Alkenes react with bromine to give vicinal dibromides (bromination across the double bond).
  • Vicinal dibromides treated with strong bases like NaNH2 in alcohol can undergo double elimination to yield alkynes.
  • Alkynes undergo hydration in the presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 to yield ketones (Markovnikov addition of water).

EXPLANATION:

  • Given compound [A] is an optically active C4H9Br, most likely 2-bromobutane.
  • On treatment with hot alcoholic KOH, [A] undergoes dehydrohalogenation to give but-2-ene [B].
  • [B] reacts with Br2 to form vicinal dibromide [C], i.e., 2,3-dibromobutane.
  • [C] reacts with alcoholic NaNH2 to undergo two eliminations, forming but-2-yne [D].
  • [D] undergoes hydration with dilute H2SO4 and HgSO4 at 333 K to form butan-2-one [E].

Therefore, the IUPAC name of compound [E] is Butan-2-one.

28

The property/properties that show irregularity in first four elements of group-17 is/are :

(A) Covalent radius

(B) Electron affinity

(C) Ionic radius

(D) First ionization energy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    B and D only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B only

CONCEPT:

Trends in Group-17 Elements (Halogens)

  • The halogens include Fluorine (F), Chlorine (Cl), Bromine (Br), and Iodine (I).
  • Covalent Radius: Increases down the group due to the addition of new shells (F < Cl < Br < I).
  • Ionic Radius: Also increases as you go down the group (F < Cl < Br < I).
  • First Ionization Energy: Decreases down the group due to increasing atomic size (F > Cl > Br > I).
  • Electron Affinity: Typically increases down the group, but fluorine shows an irregularity—it has lower electron affinity than chlorine despite being smaller.

EXPLANATION:

  • Electron Affinity: The irregularity arises because fluorine is very small, and adding an extra electron leads to high electron–electron repulsion, reducing the energy released.
  • All other properties—covalent radius, ionic radius, and first ionization energy—follow regular trends down the group without deviation in the first four elements.

Therefore, the correct answer is: B only

29

Which of the following graph correctly represents the plots of KH at 1 bar gases in water versus temperature ?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CONCEPT:

Henry’s Law and Temperature Dependence

  • Henry’s Law Constant (KH): It relates the solubility of a gas in a liquid to the pressure of the gas above the liquid.
  • According to Henry's Law: C = KH × P, where C is the concentration (solubility), P is the partial pressure, and KH is Henry’s constant.
  • Temperature Dependence: Solubility of gases in liquids generally decreases with increase in temperature, hence KH values typically increase with temperature.
  • The increase in KH with temperature is not linear and varies for different gases. Light gases like He show a steeper increase.

EXPLANATION:

  • Among the options, only graph 4 shows the correct qualitative trend: Henry’s constant (KH) increases with temperature for all gases.
  • Also, gases like He (non-polar and light) exhibit lower solubility and hence higher KH, followed by N2 and CH4.
  • This trend is consistent with the observation that lighter gases have higher Henry’s constants and are less soluble in water.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4

30

According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the following statement is incorrect? 

  1. ((a))

    Radius of 3rd orbit is nine times larger than that of 1st orbit.

  2. ((b))

    Radius of 8th orbit is four times larger than that of 4th orbit.

  3. ((c))

    Radius of 6th orbit is three time larger than that of 4th orbit.

  4. ((d))

    Radius of 4th orbit is four times larger than that of 2nd orbit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Radius of 6th orbit is three time larger than that of 4th orbit.

CONCEPT:

Bohr’s Model and Radius of Electron Orbits

r ∝ n²

rₙ = r₁ × n²

  • According to Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the radius of the nth orbit is proportional to the square of the principal quantum number n:
  • This means the radius of orbit n can be expressed as:
  • where r₁ is the radius of the first orbit (ground state).

EXPLANATION:

  • Radius of 3rd orbit relative to 1st orbit:

r₃ / r₁ = (3)² / (1)² = 9 / 1 = 9

Statement 1 is correct.

  • Radius of 8th orbit relative to 4th orbit:

r₈ / r₄ = (8)² / (4)² = 64 / 16 = 4

Statement 2 is correct.

  • Radius of 6th orbit relative to 4th orbit:

r₆ / r₄ = (6)² / (4)² = 36 / 16 = 2.25

Statement 3 says “three times larger”, but the actual ratio is 2.25.

Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Radius of 4th orbit relative to 2nd orbit:

r₄ / r₂ = (4)² / (2)² = 16 / 4 = 4

Statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is: Radius of 6th orbit is three times larger than that of 4th orbit (Option 3).

31

<br>

Two vessels A and B are connected via stopcock. The vessel A is filled with a gas at a certain pressure. The entire assembly is immersed in water and is allowed to come to thermal equilibrium with water. After opening the stopcock the gas from vessel A expands into vessel B and no change in temperature is observed in the thermometer. Which of the following statement is true?

  1. ((a))

    ( dw \neq 0 )

  2. ((b))

    (dq \neq 0 )

  3. ((c))

    (dU \neq 0)

  4. ((d))

    The pressure in the vessel B before opening the stopcock is zero. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The pressure in the vessel B before opening the stopcock is zero. 

CONCEPT:

Free Expansion of Gas and Thermodynamic Changes

  • When a gas expands into a vacuum (free expansion), there is no external pressure opposing the expansion, i.e., Pext = 0.
  • In free expansion:
  • No work is done by the gas (dw = 0) because the external pressure is zero.
  • No heat is exchanged with the surroundings (dq = 0) if the system is insulated or thermally isolated.
  • For an ideal gas undergoing free expansion, the internal energy (ΔU) remains unchanged since internal energy depends only on temperature and temperature is constant.

EXPLANATION:

  • In the problem, two vessels A and B are connected with a stopcock.
  • Initially, vessel A contains gas at certain pressure, and vessel B is evacuated (pressure in B is zero).
  • Upon opening the stopcock, gas expands freely into vessel B (vacuum), so Pext = 0.
  • Since the assembly is immersed in water and allowed to equilibrate, temperature remains constant.
  • Therefore, no work is done (dw = 0), no heat is exchanged (dq = 0), and internal energy change is zero (ΔU = 0).

Hence, the pressure in vessel B before opening the stopcock must be zero.

The correct answer is The pressure in the vessel B before opening the stopcock is zero.

32

A solution is made by mixing one mole of volatile liquid A with 3 moles of volatile liquid B. The vapour pressure of pure A is 200 mm Hg and that of the solution is 500 mm Hg. The vapour pressure of pure B and the least volatile component of the solution, respectively, are :

  1. ((a))

    1400 mm Hg, A 

  2. ((b))

    1400 mm Hg, B 

  3. ((c))

    600 mm Hg, B

  4. ((d))

    600 mm Hg, A 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

600 mm Hg, A 

CONCEPT:

Raoult's Law and Vapor Pressure of Solutions

  • Raoult's law states that the total vapor pressure of an ideal solution is the sum of the partial vapor pressures of each component.
  • The partial vapor pressure of each component is equal to the vapor pressure of the pure component multiplied by its mole fraction in the solution.
  • Mathematically, Ptotal = PΔ0 × XΔ + PB0 × XB
  • The component with the higher vapor pressure is the more volatile component.
  • The least volatile component has the lower vapor pressure.

EXPLANATION:

  • Given:
  • Moles of volatile liquid Δ = 1
  • Moles of volatile liquid B = 3
  • Vapor pressure of pure Δ (PΔ0) = 200 mm Hg
  • Total vapor pressure of solution (Psolution) = 500 mm Hg
  • Mole fractions:
  • XΔ = 1 / (1 + 3) = 1/4 = 0.25
  • XB = 3 / (1 + 3) = 3/4 = 0.75
  • Therefore, vapor pressure of pure B is 600 mm Hg.
  • Comparing vapor pressures:
  • PΔ0 = 200 mm Hg
  • PB0 = 600 mm Hg

B has the higher vapor pressure, so B is the more volatile component.

Δ, having the lower vapor pressure, is the least volatile component.

Therefore, the vapor pressure of pure B is 600 mm Hg, and the least volatile component of the solution is A.

33

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) H2O(l) Consider the above reaction, what mass of CaCl2 will be formed if 250 mL of 0.76 M HCl reacts with 1000 g of CaCO3 ?

(Given : Molar mass of Ca, C, O, H and Cl are 40, 12, 16, 1 and 35.5 g mol–1, respectively)

  1. ((a))

    3.908 g 

  2. ((b))

    2.636 g

  3. ((c))

    10.545 g 

  4. ((d))

    5.272 g

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10.545 g 

CONCEPT:

Stoichiometry and Limiting Reactant in Chemical Reactions

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

  • The reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid is a typical acid-carbonate reaction:
  • Mole ratio between CaCO3 and HCl is 1:2.
  • The limiting reactant determines the amount of product formed.
  • Molar masses are used to convert between moles and grams.

EXPLANATION:

  • Given:
  • Mass of CaCO3 = 1000 g
  • Concentration of HCl = 0.76 M (moles per liter)
  • Volume of HCl = 250 mL = 0.250 L
  • Molar masses (g/mol): Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16, H = 1, Cl = 35.5
  • Calculate moles of CaCO3:

Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + (16 × 3) = 100 g/mol

Moles of CaCO3 = 1000 g / 100 g/mol = 10 mol

  • Calculate moles of HCl:

Moles of HCl = Molarity × Volume = 0.76 mol/L × 0.250 L = 0.19 mol

  • Determine limiting reactant:
  • Reaction requires 2 moles of HCl per mole of CaCO3.
  • Moles of HCl required for 10 moles CaCO3 = 10 × 2 = 20 moles.
  • Available moles of HCl = 0.19 moles < 20 moles required, so HCl is limiting reactant.
  • Calculate moles of CaCl2 formed (equal to moles of CaCO3 reacted):

Moles of CaCl2 formed = moles of HCl / 2 = 0.19 / 2 = 0.095 mol

  • Calculate molar mass of CaCl2:

Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5 × 2 = 71, Total = 40 + 71 = 111 g/mol

  • Calculate mass of CaCl2 produced:

Mass = moles × molar mass = 0.095 × 111 = 10.545 g

Therefore, the mass of CaCl2 formed is 10.545 g.

34

If equal volumes of AB2 and XY (both are salts) aqueous solutions are mixed, which of the following combination will give a precipitate of AY2 at 300 K? 

(Given Ksp (at 300 K) for AY2 = 5.2 × 10–7)

  1. ((a))

    3.6 × 10–3 M AB2 , 5.0 × 10–4 M XY

  2. ((b))

    2.0 × 10–4 M AB2 , 0.8 × 10–3 M XY

  3. ((c))

    2.0 × 10–2 M AB2 , 2.0 × 10–2 M XY

  4. ((d))

    1.5 × 10–4 M AB2 , 1.5 × 10–3 M XY

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2.0 × 10–2 M AB2 , 2.0 × 10–2 M XY

When equal volumes are mixed molarity reduce to half.

CONCEPT:

  • When two salt solutions AB2 and XY are mixed, precipitation of AY2 will occur if the ionic product (Qsp) exceeds the solubility product constant (Ksp).
  • Qsp is calculated as:

Qsp = [A+][Y]2

  • Since equal volumes of solutions are mixed, the concentration of ions is halved due to dilution.

EXPLANATION:

(\text{For precipitation } Q_{SP} = [A^{+2}] [Y^-]^2 > K_{SP} \ (1) , Q_{SP} = (1.8 \times 10^{-3}) \left( \frac{5}{2} \times 10^{-4} \right)^2 < K_{SP} \ (2) , Q_{SP} = (10^{-4}) (0.4 \times 10^{-3})^2 < K_{SP} \ (3) , Q_{SP} = (10^{-2}) (10^{-2})^2 > K_{SP} \ (4) , Q_{SP} = \left( \frac{1.5}{2} \times 10^{-4} \right) \left( \frac{1.5}{2} \times 10^{-3} \right)^2 < K_{SP})

Conclusion:

Only option 3 gives Qsp > Ksp, so precipitation of AY2 occurs.

35

Among SO2 , NF3 , NH3 , XeF2 , ClF3 and SF4 , the hybridization of the molecule with non-zero dipole moment and highest number of lone-pairs of electrons on the central atom is

  1. ((a))

    sp3

  2. ((b))

    dsp2

  3. ((c))

    sp3d2

  4. ((d))

    sp3d

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

sp3d

CONCEPT:

Hybridization, Molecular Geometry, and Dipole Moment

  • Hybridization describes the mixing of atomic orbitals on the central atom to form new hybrid orbitals in a molecule.
  • The presence of lone pairs affects molecular geometry and the resultant dipole moment.
  • Dipole moment depends on the geometry and the difference in electronegativities; molecules with symmetrical geometry or lone pairs arranged symmetrically often have zero dipole moment.
  • Hybridizations considered here are sp², sp³, sp³d, and sp³d² corresponding to trigonal planar, tetrahedral, trigonal bipyramidal, and octahedral geometries, respectively.
  • Lone pairs on the central atom create asymmetry, often leading to non-zero dipole moments.

EXPLANATION:

MoleculeHybridizationDipole MomentLone Pairs on Central Atom
SO2sp²
Sulphur Dioxide: Structure, Preparation, Properties, Uses, Effect
Non-zero1
NF3sp³
Non-zero1
NH3sp³
Non-zero1
XeF2sp³d Hybridization of XeF2 (Xenon Difluoride) - Understanding the ProcessZero3
ClF3sp³d Hybridization of ClF3 (Chlorine Trifluoride) - Detailed Explanation with  Important PointsNon-zero2
SF4sp³d Hybridization of SF4 (Sulfur Tetrafluoride) - Detailed ExplanationNon-zero1
  • Among molecules with non-zero dipole moment, ClF3 has the highest number of lone pairs (2) on the central atom.
  • Its hybridization is sp³d.

Therefore, the correct answer is: sp³d (Option 4).

36

Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Vanillin 

<br>

will react with NaOH and also with Tollen’s reagent. 

Statement (II) : Vanillin 

<br>

will undergo self aldol condensation very easily. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 

  1. ((a))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

  2. ((b))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

CONCEPT:

  • Vanillin is an aromatic aldehyde with a phenolic -OH group and a methoxy (-OCH3) group attached to the benzene ring.
  • The phenolic group (-OH attached to benzene) is acidic and soluble in NaOH due to phenol's acidic nature.
  • Tollen's reagent detects aldehyde groups (-CHO) by oxidizing them to carboxylic acids, giving a silver mirror. Vanillin contains an aldehyde group, so it reacts with Tollen's reagent.
  • Self-aldol condensation requires the presence of acidic alpha-hydrogen atoms adjacent to the carbonyl group to form enolate ions under basic conditions.
  • Vanillin lacks alpha-hydrogen atoms adjacent to the aldehyde group because the carbonyl carbon is directly bonded to the aromatic ring, thus it does not undergo self-aldol condensation easily.

EXPLANATION:

Phenolic group soluble in NaOH   

Benzaldehyde derivative react with Tollen’s reagent.

Vanillin does not give self-aldol reaction due to lack of acidic H for condensation. 

  • Statement I: Vanillin will react with NaOH due to the acidic phenolic -OH group which forms phenolate ions soluble in NaOH.
  • It also reacts with Tollen's reagent because of the aldehyde (-CHO) group, which is oxidized to carboxylate ions, producing the silver mirror effect.
  • Statement II: Vanillin will not undergo self-aldol condensation easily because it lacks acidic alpha-hydrogens required to form the enolate ion necessary for aldol condensation.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

37

Identify the correct statement among the following:

  1. ((a))

    All naturally occurring amino acids except glycine contain one chiral centre. 

  2. ((b))

    All naturally occurring amino acids are optically active. 

  3. ((c))

    Glutamic acid is the only amino acid that contains a –COOH group at the side chain.

  4. ((d))

    Amino acid, cysteine easily undergo dimerization due to the presence of free SH group. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Amino acid, cysteine easily undergo dimerization due to the presence of free SH group. 

CONCEPT:

  • Most naturally occurring amino acids contain one chiral center, except glycine, which has two hydrogen atoms attached to the alpha carbon, making it achiral.
  • Some amino acids, like isoleucine and threonine, contain two chiral centers.
  • Optical activity arises from chirality, so glycine is optically inactive, whereas other amino acids with chiral centers are optically active.
  • Glutamic acid and aspartic acid both contain a –COOH group in their side chains (carboxylic acid groups), so glutamic acid is not unique in this feature.
  • Cysteine contains a thiol (-SH) group in its side chain, which can form disulfide bonds by dimerization or oxidation, contributing to protein structure stabilization.

EXPLANATION:

  • Statement 1: Incorrect. While most amino acids have one chiral center, isoleucine has two chiral centers, and glycine has none.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect. Glycine is achiral and thus optically inactive.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect. Both glutamic acid and aspartic acid have –COOH groups on their side chains.
  • Statement 4: Correct. Cysteine contains a free thiol (-SH) group that readily undergoes dimerization to form disulfide bonds.

Therefore, the correct statement is: Amino acid cysteine easily undergoes dimerization due to the presence of free SH group.

38

The correct order of basic nature on aqueous solution for the bases NH3 , H2 N–NH2 , CH3 CH2 NH2 , (CH3CH2 )2NH and (CH3CH2)3 N is :

  1. ((a))

    NH3<H2N–NH2<(CH3CH2)3N<CH3CH2NH2<(CH3CH2)2NH

  2. ((b))

    NH3<H2N-NH2,<CH3CH2NH2<(CH3CH2),NH<(CH3CH2)3N

  3. ((c))

    H2N–NH2<NH3<(CH3CH2)3N<CH3CH2NH2<(CH3CH2)2NH

  4. ((d))

    NH2–NH2,<NH3<CH3CH2NH2<(CH3CH2)3N<(CH3CH2)2NH

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

NH2–NH2,<NH3<CH3CH2NH2<(CH3CH2)3N<(CH3CH2)2NH

CONCEPT:

  • The basicity of amines in aqueous solution depends on the availability of the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom to accept a proton (H+).
  • Alkyl groups like ethyl (CH3CH2–) are electron-donating via +I (inductive) effect, which increases electron density on nitrogen and hence increases basicity.
  • However, steric hindrance and solvation effects influence basicity. Primary and secondary amines are generally more basic than tertiary amines in aqueous solution due to better solvation of the protonated form.
  • Hydrazine (H2N–NH2) shows slightly different basicity due to electron interaction between the two nitrogen atoms.

EXPLANATION:

  • NH3 (Ammonia): Least basic among the given due to no alkyl groups.
  • H2N–NH2 (Hydrazine): Slightly more basic than NH3 because the lone pair on one nitrogen can be delocalized to some extent.
  • CH3CH2NH2 (Ethylamine, primary amine): More basic due to +I effect of ethyl group increasing electron density.
  • (CH3CH2)2NH (Diethylamine, secondary amine): Generally most basic as two alkyl groups donate electrons, increasing basicity.
  • (CH3CH2)3N (Triethylamine, tertiary amine): Less basic than secondary amine because of steric hindrance and poor solvation.

Therefore, the correct order of basicity is:

NH2–NH2,<NH3<CH3CH2NH2<(CH3CH2)3N<(CH3CH2)2NH

39

Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The metallic radius of Al is less than that of Ga.

Statement (II) : The ionic radius of Al3+ is less than that of Ga3+.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect  

  2. ((b))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 

  4. ((d))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

ONCEPT:

  • Metallic radius refers to the size of an atom in a metallic state, influenced by electron shielding and effective nuclear charge.
  • Gallium (Ga) has filled 3d10 subshell electrons that poorly shield the nucleus, leading to a stronger effective nuclear charge on the outer electrons, causing contraction in atomic size.
  • Due to this d-electron poor shielding, Ga has a smaller metallic radius than Al, despite being below it in the periodic table.
  • Ionic radius depends on the number of electrons and nuclear charge after ionization. Both Al3+ and Ga3+ lose three electrons.
  • Since Ga has more protons and poor shielding, its ionic radius is larger than that of Al3+.

EXPLANATION:

(\implies \text{The metallic radius order of Al & Ga is} \ \mathrm{B} < \mathrm{Ga} < \mathrm{Al} < \mathrm{In} < \mathrm{Tl} \ \underbrace{\mathrm{Ga} < \mathrm{Al}}_{\text{(due to poor shielding of d-subshell electrons)}} \ \implies \text{The ionic radius order of } \mathrm{Al}^{+3} & \mathrm{Ga}^{+3} \text{ is} \ \mathrm{B}^{+3} < \mathrm{Al}^{+3} < \mathrm{Ga}^{+3} < \mathrm{In}^{+3} < \mathrm{Tl}^{+3})

  • Statement I: Metallic radius of Al is less than that of Ga — This is incorrect. The order is Ga < Al due to d-electron poor shielding in Ga causing contraction.
  • Statement II: Ionic radius of Al3+ is less than Ga3+ — This is correct. Ga3+ has larger ionic radius because the poor shielding effect expands the size compared to Al3+.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

40

Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : In octahedral complexes, when (\Delta_o) < P high spin complexes are formed. When (\Delta_o) > P low spin complexes are formed. Statement (II) : In tetrahedral complexes because of (\Delta_o) < P, low spin complexes are rarely formed. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 

  4. ((d))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 

CONCEPT:

  • In coordination chemistry, Δo (octahedral crystal field splitting energy) is the energy difference between the higher and lower sets of d-orbitals in an octahedral complex.
  • P refers to the pairing energy, which is the energy required to pair two electrons in the same orbital.
  • For octahedral complexes (coordination number 6):
  • If Δo < P, electrons prefer to occupy higher energy orbitals unpaired → high spin complexes.
  • If Δo > P, electrons pair in lower energy orbitals → low spin complexes.
  • In tetrahedral complexes (coordination number 4):
  • The crystal field splitting energy Δt is smaller than Δo and always less than the pairing energy (Δt < P).
  • Therefore, tetrahedral complexes are almost always high spin because electrons occupy orbitals singly to minimize pairing.
  • Low spin tetrahedral complexes are rare.

Explanation:-

  • Statement I: Correct. It accurately describes the relationship between Δo and P in octahedral complexes and the formation of high spin or low spin complexes.
  • Statement II: Correct. It correctly states that because Δo < P in tetrahedral complexes, low spin complexes are rarely formed.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

41

Choose the correct tests with respective observations.

(A) CuSO4 (acidified with acetic acid) + K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (\rightarrow) Chocolate brown precipitate.

(B) FeCl3 + K4 [Fe(CN)6] (\rightarrow) Prussian blue precipitate.

(C) ZnCl2 + K4 [Fe(CN)6], neutralised with NH4 OH (\rightarrow) White or bluish white precipitate.

(D) MgCl2 + K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (\rightarrow) Blue precipitate.

(E) BaCl2 + K4 [Fe(CN)6 ], neutralised with NaOH (\rightarrow) White precipitate.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    A, D and E only 

  2. ((b))

    B, D and E only  

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C only

CONCEPT:

  • Potassium ferrocyanide, K4[Fe(CN)6], reacts with various metal salts to form characteristic precipitates based on the metal ion involved.
  • The nature and color of the precipitate help in identifying metal ions qualitatively.
  • Specific reactions:
  • CuSO4 (acidified with acetic acid): Reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] to form a chocolate brown precipitate of Cu2[Fe(CN)6].
  • FeCl3: Reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] to form Prussian blue precipitate, Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.
  • ZnCl2 (neutralized with NH4OH): Forms white or bluish white precipitate K2Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2.
  • MgCl2 and BaCl2: Do not give such characteristic precipitates with K4[Fe(CN)6].

EXPLANATION:

(2\mathrm{CuSO}_4 + \mathrm{K}_4[\mathrm{Fe(CN)}_6] \xrightarrow{\mathrm{CH}_3\mathrm{COOH}} \mathrm{Cu}_2[\mathrm{Fe(CN)}_6] \downarrow + 2\mathrm{K}_2\mathrm{SO}_4 \ \text{(Chocolate brown ppt.)} \ 4\mathrm{FeCl}_3 + 3\mathrm{K}_4[\mathrm{Fe(CN)}_6] \rightarrow \mathrm{Fe}_4[\mathrm{Fe(CN)}_6]_3 \downarrow + 12\mathrm{KCl} \ \text{(Prussian Blue ppt.)} \ 3\mathrm{ZnCl}_2 + 2\mathrm{K}_4[\mathrm{Fe(CN)}_6] \xrightarrow{\mathrm{NH}_4\mathrm{OH}} \mathrm{K}_2\mathrm{Zn}_3[\mathrm{Fe(CN)}_6]_2 \downarrow + 6\mathrm{KCl} \ \text{(White or bluish white ppt.)})

  • Option A: Correct. CuSO4 with K4[Fe(CN)6] gives chocolate brown precipitate.
  • Option B: Correct. FeCl3 with K4[Fe(CN)6] gives Prussian blue precipitate.
  • Option C: Correct. ZnCl2 neutralized with NH4OH reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] to give white/bluish white precipitate.
  • Option D: Incorrect. MgCl2 does not give blue precipitate with K4[Fe(CN)6].
  • Option E: Incorrect. BaCl2 neutralized with NaOH does not give white precipitate with K4[Fe(CN)6].

Therefore, the correct tests with respective observations are A, B, and C only.

42

On complete combustion 1.0 g of an organic compound (X) gave 1.46 g of CO2 and 0.567 g of H2 O. The empirical formula mass of compound (X) is _________ g. (Given molar mass in g mol–1 C : 12, H : 1, O : 16)

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

CONCEPT:

  • Complete combustion of an organic compound produces CO2 and H2O.
  • The masses of CO2 and H2O formed help determine the amount of carbon and hydrogen in the compound.
  • Oxygen content is found by difference: total mass of compound minus mass of carbon and hydrogen.
  • Using moles of each element, the empirical formula and empirical formula mass can be calculated.

EXPLANATION:

ComponentGiven Mass (g)Molar Mass (g/mol)Moles (mol)
C (from CO2)1.46 (CO2)44 (CO2)1.46 / 44 = 0.033
H (from H2O)0.567 (H2O)18 (H2O)0.567 / 18 = 0.0315
  • Moles of C atoms = 0.033 mol (since 1 mol CO2 contains 1 mol C)
  • Moles of H atoms = 2 × 0.0315 = 0.063 mol (since 1 mol H2O contains 2 mol H)
  • Mass of C = 0.033 × 12 = 0.396 g
  • Mass of H = 0.063 × 1 = 0.063 g
  • Mass of O = Total mass - (mass of C + mass of H) = 1.0 - (0.396 + 0.063) = 0.541 g
  • Moles of O = 0.541 / 16 = 0.0338 mol

Ratio of moles: C : H : O = 0.033 : 0.063 : 0.0338

Divide by smallest (0.033):

C : H : O ≈ 1 : 1.91 ≈ 2 : 1 : 1 (approximately)

Empirical formula: CH2O

Empirical formula mass = (12 × 1) + (1 × 2) + (16 × 1) = 30 g/mol

Therefore, the empirical formula mass of compound (X) is 30 g/mol.

43

Consider the following compound (X) 

<br>

The most stable and least stable carbon radicals, respectively, produced by homolytic cleavage of corresponding C – H bond are :

  1. ((a))

    II, IV 

  2. ((b))

    III, II 

  3. ((c))

    I, IV

  4. ((d))

    II, I 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

II, I 

CONCEPT:

  • Radical stability depends on resonance, hyperconjugation, and the type of carbon (primary, secondary, tertiary, or sp hybridized).
  • Allylic and benzylic radicals are more stable due to resonance stabilization.
  • sp hybridized carbon radicals (like alkynyl radicals) are less stable due to higher s-character and less electron density to stabilize the radical.
  • Tertiary radicals are more stable than secondary, which are more stable than primary due to hyperconjugation and inductive effects.

EXPLANATION:

<br>

II most stable carbon radical due to resonance stablise 

I least stable carbon radical due to no stabilising factor. 

  • Radical at carbon II (•CH) is allylic to the triple bond (C≡C), allowing resonance stabilization, making it the most stable radical.
  • Radical at carbon I (H–C•≡C–) is an alkynyl radical (sp hybridized), which is the least stable due to lack of resonance and high s-character.
  • Radicals at carbons III and IV are alkyl radicals with moderate stability, less than the allylic radical at II but more than alkynyl radical at I.

Therefore, the most stable radical is at carbon II and the least stable radical is at carbon I.

44

Consider the following molecules :  

(\mathrm{CH}_3 - \mathrm{CH}_2 - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{Cl} \quad \text{(p)} \ \mathrm{CH}_3 - \mathrm{CH}_2 - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{O} - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{CH}_3 \quad \text{(q)} \ \mathrm{CH}_3 - \mathrm{CH}_2 - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{O} - \mathrm{CH}_2 - \mathrm{CH}_3 \quad \text{(r)} \ \mathrm{CH}_3 - \mathrm{CH}_2 - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{NH}_2 \quad \text{(s)})

The correct order of rate of hydrolysis is :

  1. ((a))

    r > q > p > s

  2. ((b))

    q > p > r > s 

  3. ((c))

     p > r > q > s 

  4. ((d))

    p > q > r > s

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

p > q > r > s

CONCEPT:

  • The rate of hydrolysis of acyl compounds depends mainly on the nature of the leaving group.
  • Better leaving groups increase the rate of hydrolysis because they stabilize the transition state and intermediate more effectively.
  • The leaving group ability generally follows the order: Cl (acyl chloride) > carboxylate ester (–O–C=O) > alkoxy group (–O–alkyl) > amide (–NH2).

EXPLANATION:

Rate of hydrolysis(\propto)  Leaving group ability 

(\mathrm{CH}_3 - \mathrm{CH}_2 - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{Cl} \quad \text{(p)} > \mathrm{Et} - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{O} - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{CH}_3 \quad \text{(q)} > \mathrm{Et} - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{OEt} \quad \text{(r)} > \mathrm{Et} - \stackrel{\overset{\mathrm{O}}{\Vert}}{\mathrm{C}} - \mathrm{NH}_2 \quad \text{(s)})

  • (p) Acyl chloride (CH3−CH2−C=O−Cl): Has the best leaving group (Cl), so it hydrolyzes fastest.
  • (q) Acid anhydride (CH3−CH2−C=O−O−C=O−CH3): Next best leaving group (carboxylate), hydrolyzes slower than acyl chloride.
  • (r) Ester (CH3−CH2−C=O−O−CH2−CH3): Alkoxy leaving group, less reactive than anhydrides.
  • (s) Amide (CH3−CH2−C=O−NH2): Amide group is poor leaving group, so hydrolyzes slowest.

Therefore, the correct order of rate of hydrolysis is p > q > r > s

45

A molecule with the formula AX4Y has all it’s elements from p-block. Element A is rarest, monoatomic, non-radioactive from its group and has the lowest ionization enthalpy value among A, X and Y. Elements X and Y have first and second highest electronegativity values respectively among all the known elements. The shape of the molecule is :

  1. ((a))

    Square pyramidal

  2. ((b))

    Octahedral 

  3. ((c))

    Pentagonal planar 

  4. ((d))

    Trigonal bipyramidal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Square pyramidal

CONCEPT:

  • The molecular formula AX4Y indicates a central atom A bonded to four atoms X and one atom Y.
  • Element A is described as rarest, monoatomic, non-radioactive p-block element with the lowest ionization enthalpy among A, X, and Y — this corresponds to Xenon (Xe), a noble gas.
  • Elements X and Y have the first and second highest electronegativities among all elements — these are Fluorine (F) and Oxygen (O), respectively.
  • The compound formed is XeOF4, where Xenon is bonded to four fluorines and one oxygen.
  • The shape of XeOF4 is determined by the VSEPR theory. Xenon has 6 electron pairs (5 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair), resulting in a square pyramidal molecular geometry.

EXPLANATION:

  • Xenon (Xe) is rare, monoatomic, non-radioactive noble gas with lower ionization energy than F and O.
  • Fluorine (F) has the highest electronegativity; Oxygen (O) has the second highest electronegativity.
  • In XeOF4, Xe is bonded to 4 fluorines and 1 oxygen, with one lone pair on Xe.
  • This arrangement leads to square pyramidal molecular geometry according to VSEPR theory.

Therefore, the shape of the molecule AX4Y (XeOF4) is square pyramidal.

Chemistry Section B (5 questions)

46

A transition metal (M) among Mn, Cr, Co and Fe has the highest standard electrode potential (M3+/M2+). It forms a metal complex of the type [M(CN)6 ]4–. The number of electrons present in the eg orbital of the complex is ________.

47

Consider the following electrochemical cell at standard condition. 

(\mathrm{Au(s)}|\mathrm{QH}_2,\mathrm{Q}|\mathrm{NH}4\mathrm{X}(0.01\mathrm{M})||\mathrm{Ag}^+(1\mathrm{M})|\mathrm{Ag(s)} \ E{\text{cell}} = +0.4\mathrm{V} \ \text{The couple } \mathrm{QH}_2/\mathrm{Q} \text{ represents quinhydrone electrode, the half cell reaction is given below} \ )

<br>

(\left[ \text{Given: } E_{\mathrm{Ag}^+/\mathrm{Ag}}^0 = +0.8\mathrm{V} \text{ and } \frac{2.303\mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{F}} = 0.06\mathrm{V} \right] \ \text{The } pK_b \text{ value of the ammonium halide salt } (\mathrm{NH}_4\mathrm{X}) \text{ used here is } ____. \text{(nearest integer)})

48

0.1 mol of the following given antiviral compound (P) will weigh _______ × 10–1 g 

<br>

(Given : molar mass in g mol–1 H: 1, C : 12, N : 14, O : 16, F : 19, I : 127)

49

Consider the following equilibrium, CO(g) + 2H2 (g) CH3 OH(g) 0.1 mol of CO along with a catalyst is present in a 2 dm3 flask maintained at 500 K. Hydrogen is introduced into the flask until the pressure is 5 bar and 0.04 mol of CH3 OH is formed. The  Kp is _________ × 10–3 (nearest integer). Given : R = 0.08 dm3 bar K–1 mol–1 Assume only methanol is formed as the product and the system follows ideal gas behaviour.

50

For the reaction A (\rightarrow) products. 

<br>

The concentration of A at 10 minutes is ________ × 10–3 mol L–1 (nearest integer). The reaction was started with 2.5 mol L–1 of A.

Physics Section A (20 questions)

51

A light wave is propagating with plane wave fronts of the type x + y + z = constant. The angle made by the direction of wave propagation with the x-axis is : 

  1. ((a))

    (\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right))

  2. ((b))

    (\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) )

  3. ((c))

    (\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right))

  4. ((d))

    (\cos^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\right) )

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right))

Calculation:

The direction of propagation of light is perpendicular to the wave front and is symmetric about x, y, and z axis.

Angle made by the light with x, y & z axis is same.

Thus, cosα = cosβ = cosγ (α, β, and γ are the angles made by light with x, y, and z axes respectively)

Also, cos²α + cos²β + cos²γ = 1 [Sum of direction cosines]

⇒ α = cos⁻¹(1/√3)

52

The equation for real gas is given by ( \left( P + \frac{a}{V^2} \right)(V - b) = RT ) , where P,V,T and R are the pressure, volume, temperature and gas constant, respectively. The dimension of ab–2 is equivalent to that of :

  1. ((a))

    Planck's constant 

  2. ((b))

    Compressibility 

  3. ((c))

    Strain 

  4. ((d))

    Energy density

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Energy density

Calculation:

(P + a/V²)(V - b) = RT

Therefore, [a] = [P][V²] = M L⁻¹ T⁻² L⁶ = M L⁵ T⁻²

[b] = [V] = L³

[ab⁻²] = M L⁵ T⁻² L⁻⁶ = M L⁻¹ T⁻²

⇒ Dimension of energy density

53

A cord of negligible mass is wound around the rim of a wheel supported by spokes with negligible mass. The mass of wheel is 10 kg and radius is 10 cm and it can freely rotate without any friction. Initially the wheel is at rest. If a steady pull of 20 N is applied on the cord, the angular velocity of the wheel, after the cord is unwound by 1 m, would be : 

  1. ((a))

     20 rad/s  

  2. ((b))

    30 rad/s 

  3. ((c))

    10 rad/s 

  4. ((d))

    0 rad/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 20 rad/s  

Calculation:

WF = 20 × 1 = 20 J

Therefore, ΔKE = 20 J = (1/2) I ω²

I = M R² = 10 × 0.1² = 0.1 kg m²

Therefore, 20 = (1/2) × 0.1 × ω²

Implying, ω = 20 rad/sec

54

A slanted object AB is placed on one side of convex lens as shown in the diagram. The image is formed on the opposite side. Angle made by the image with principal axis is : 

  1. ((a))

    (-\frac{\alpha}{2})

  2. ((b))

    (-45^\circ )

  3. ((c))

    ( +45^\circ)

  4. ((d))

    (-\alpha)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(-45^\circ )

Calculation:

<br>

Location of image of A :-

(1/v) - (1/u) = (1/f)

⇒ (1/v) - (1/(v - 30)) = (1/20)

⇒ (1/v) = (1/60)

⇒ v = 60 cm

The magnification m = 2.

Since the size of the object is small with respect to the location, hence

dv = m² du ⇒ dv = 4 × 1 = 4 cm

hi = m h0 ⇒ hi(dy) = 2 × 2 = 4 cm

Therefore, Angle made with principle a×is = -45°

55

Consider two infinitely large plane parallel conducting plates as shown below. The plates are uniformly charged with a surface charge density (+\sigma \text{ and } -2\sigma).The force experienced by a point charge +q placed at the mid point between two plates will be 

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{\sigma q}{4 \epsilon_0} \qquad)

  2. ((b))

    (\frac{3\sigma q}{2 \epsilon_0})

  3. ((c))

    ( \frac{3\sigma q}{4 \epsilon_0} \qquad)

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{\sigma q}{2 \epsilon_0})

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(\frac{3\sigma q}{2 \epsilon_0})

Calculation:

Given:

Surface charge density on Plate 1, σ1 = +σ

Surface charge density on Plate 2, σ2 = -2σ

Point charge, q = +q at midpoint between plates

Distance between plates = d (charge at midpoint, so at d/2 from each plate)

Electric field due to Plate 1 (positive charge):

⇒ E1 = σ / (2ε0) directed away from Plate 1

Electric field due to Plate 2 (negative charge):

⇒ E2 = 2σ / (2ε0) = σ / ε0, directed toward Plate 2 (since negative charge)

Since charge q is at midpoint, the net electric field Enet is vector sum:

⇒ Enet = E1 (rightward) + E2 (rightward, since Plate 2's field points toward it)

⇒ Enet = (σ / 2ε0) + (σ / ε0) = (3σ) / (2ε0)

Force on point charge q:

⇒ F = q × Enet

⇒ F = q × (3σ) / (2ε0)

∴ Force on charge q = (3σ q) / (2ε0)

56

A river is flowing from west to east direction with speed of 9 km h–1. If a boat capable of moving at a maximum speed of 27 km h–1 in still water, crosses the river in half a minute, while moving with maximum speed at an angle of 150° to direction of river flow, then the width of the river is :

  1. ((a))

    300 m

  2. ((b))

    112.5 m

  3. ((c))

    75 m

  4. ((d))

    112.5 x (\sqrt{3} , \text{m})

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

112.5 m

Calculation:

Time taken to cross = 30 seconds = 30 / 3600 hr = 1 / 120 hr

Perpendicular velocity, V = 27 / 2 km/hr

⇒ Width of river = V × time

⇒ Width = (27 / 2) × (1 / 120) km

⇒ Width = (27 × 1000) / (2 × 120) m

⇒ Width = 112.5 m

∴ Width of the river is 112.5 m

57

A point charge +q is placed at the origin. A second point charge +9q is placed at (d, 0, 0) in Cartesian coordinate system. The point in between them where the electric field vanishes is :

  1. ((a))

    (4d/3, 0, 0)

  2. ((b))

    (d/4, 0, 0)

  3. ((c))

    (3d/4, 0, 0)

  4. ((d))

    (d/3, 0, 0)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(d/4, 0, 0)

Calculation:

Let the position where electric field is zero be at distance x from charge +q at origin.

Then, distance from +9q is (d − x)

Equating magnitudes of electric fields,

⇒ (kq) / x2 = (k × 9q) / (d − x)2

⇒ 1 / x2 = 9 / (d − x)2

⇒ (d − x)2 = 9x2

⇒ d − x = 3x

⇒ x = d / 4

∴ The coordinates of point P are (d / 4, 0, 0)

58

The battery of a mobile phone is rated as 4.2 V, 5800 mAh. How much energy is stored in it when fully charged ?

  1. ((a))

    43.8 kJ 

  2. ((b))

    48.7 kJ 

  3. ((c))

     87.7 kJ 

  4. ((d))

    24.4 kJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 87.7 kJ 

Calculation:

Given, V = 4.2 V

Battery capacity = 5800 mAh = 5800 × 3600 × 10−3 C

⇒ Q = 5800 × 3.6 = 20880 C

⇒ Energy = V × Q = 4.2 × 20880 = 87700 J

⇒ Energy = 87.7 kJ

∴ Energy stored in the battery when fully charged is 87.7 kJ

59

A particle is subjected two simple harmonic motions as

(x_1 = \sqrt{7} \sin 5t , \text{cm} \ \text{and } x_2 = 2\sqrt{7} \sin \left( 5t + \frac{\pi}{3} \right) , \text{cm})

where x is displacement and t is time in seconds. The maximum acceleration of the particle is x × 10–2 ms–2. The value of x is : 

  1. ((a))

    175

  2. ((b))

    (25\sqrt{7} )

  3. ((c))

    (5\sqrt{7} )

  4. ((d))

    125

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

175

Calculation:

Given:

x1 = √7 sin 5t cm

x2 = 2√7 sin(5t + π/3) cm

Angular frequency, ω = 5 rad/s

Using phasor diagram:

Angle between x1 and x2 = 60°

Resultant amplitude A:

A = √[ (√7)2 + (2√7)2 + 2 × √7 × 2√7 × cos 60° ]

⇒ A = √[ 7 + 4 × 7 + 2 × √7 × 2√7 × (1/2) ]

⇒ A = √49 = 7 cm

Maximum acceleration:

amax = A × ω2

⇒ amax = 7 × 25 cm/s2

⇒ amax = 175 × 10-2 m/s2

∴ The value of x is 175

60

The relationship between the magnetic ((\chi)) susceptibility and the magnetic permeability ((\mu)) is given by :

(((\mu))0 is the permeability of free space and ((\mu))r is relative permeability)

  1. ((a))

    (\chi = \frac{\mu}{\mu_0} - 1 \qquad)

  2. ((b))

    (\chi = \frac{\mu_r}{\mu_0} + 1 )

  3. ((c))

    (x = {-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac} \over 2a})

    (\chi = \mu_r + 1 \qquad )

  4. ((d))

    (\chi = 1 - \frac{\mu}{\mu_0})

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(\chi = \frac{\mu}{\mu_0} - 1 \qquad)

Calculation:

We are given: μr = 1 + χ

⇒ χ = μr - 1

Also, μ = μ0 μr

⇒ μr = μ / μ0

Substitute into the equation for χ:

⇒ χ = (μ / μ0) - 1

∴ χ = (μ / μ0) - 1

61

A zener diode with 5V zener voltage is used to regulate an unregulated dc voltage input of 25 V. For a 400  resistor connected in series, the zener current is found to be 4 times load current. The load current (IL) and load resistance (RL) are :

  1. ((a))

    IL = 20 mA; RL = 250 (\Omega)

  2. ((b))

    IL = 10 A; RL = 0.5 (\Omega)

  3. ((c))

    IL = 0.02 mA; RL = 250 (\Omega)

  4. ((d))

    IL = 10 mA; RL = 500 (\Omega)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IL = 10 mA; RL = 500 (\Omega)

Calculation:

From the circuit diagram,

⇒ 5i = 20 / 400

⇒ 5i = 1 / 20

⇒ i = 1 / 100 = 0.01 A = 10 mA (Load current)

Given load voltage, VL = 5 V

⇒ Load resistance, RL = VL / i

⇒ RL = 5 / (10 × 10-3) = 500 Ω

∴ Load current i = 10 mA and Load resistance RL = 500 Ω

62

In an adiabatic process, which of the following statements is true ? 

  1. ((a))

    The molar heat capacity is infinite 

  2. ((b))

    Work done by the gas equals the increase in internal energy 

  3. ((c))

    The molar heat capacity is zero 

  4. ((d))

    The internal energy of the gas decreases as the temperature increases 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The molar heat capacity is zero 

Calculation:

For adiabatic process,

⇒ dQ = 0

⇒ Molar heat capacity = 0

⇒ From first law, dQ = dU + dW

⇒ 0 = dU + dW ⇒ dU = -dW

Also,

⇒ dU = (f / 2) × nR × dT

∴ Only option (3) is correct.

63

A square Lamina OABC of length 10 cm is pivoted at 'O'. Forces act at Lamina as shown in figure. If Lamina remains stationary, then the magnitude of F is : 

  1. ((a))

    20 N 

  2. ((b))

    0 (zero) 

  3. ((c))

    10 N

  4. ((d))

    (10\sqrt{2} , \text{N})

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10 N

Concept

  • For rotational equilibrium, the net torque about the pivot must be zero.
  • Torque = Force × perpendicular distance from pivot.
<br>

Explanation

The square lamina of side (10,cm) is pivoted at point (O).

Forces of (10,N) act at different points producing clockwise and anticlockwise torques about (O).

Calculations

Taking moments about point (O):

  • The forces at A and B produce clockwise moments.
  • The forces at C and the unknown force (F) produce anticlockwise moments.

Balancing torques for equilibrium:

(F \times 10 = 10 \times 10 )

(\Rightarrow F = 10,N )

Thus, the magnitude of the force (F) required for equilibrium is (10,N).

64

Let B1 be the magnitude of magnetic field at center of a circular coil of radius R carrying current I. Let B2 be the magnitude of magnetic field at an axial distance 'x' from the center. For x (R = 3 : 4, \frac{B_2}{B_1} \text{ is :})

  1. ((a))

    4 : 5 

  2. ((b))

    16 : 25

  3. ((c))

    64 : 125

  4. ((d))

    25 : 16 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

64 : 125

Calculation:

Given:

⇒ B1 = (μ0 i) / (2R)

⇒ B2 = B1 × sin3 θ

⇒ Therefore, B2 / B1 = sin3 θ

⇒ sin θ = 4 / 5

⇒ (sin θ)3 = (4 / 5)3 = 64 / 125

∴ The ratio B2 / B1 = 64 / 125.

65

Considering Bohr's atomic model for hydrogen atom :

(A) the energy of H atom in ground state is same as energy of He+ ion in its first excited state.

(B) the energy of H atom in ground state is same as that for Li++ ion in its second excited state.

(C) the energy of H atom in its ground state is same as that of He+ ion for its ground state.

(D) the energy of He+ ion in its first excited state is same as that for Li++ ion in its ground state

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. ((a))

    (B), (D) only 

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B) only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (D) only 

  4. ((d))

    (A), (C) only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A), (B) only

Concept Used:

Energy levels in hydrogen-like atoms are proportional to the atomic number divided by the square of the principal quantum number

E = k × Z2 / n2 (where k is a constant)

Excited states correspond to n values greater than 1

Explanation:

From the given data:

⇒ For 1st excited state, n = 2

⇒ For 2nd excited state, n = 3

∴ Only statements A and B are correct.

66

Moment of inertia of a rod of mass 'M' and length 'L' about an axis passing through its center and normal to its length is ('\alpha'. ). Now the rod is cut into two equal parts and these parts are joined symmetrically to form a cross shape. Moment of inertia of cross about an axis passing through its center and normal to plane containing cross is :

  1. ((a))

    (\alpha)

  2. ((b))

    (\alpha)/4

  3. ((c))

    (\alpha)/8

  4. ((d))

    (\alpha)/2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(\alpha)/4

Calculation:

 

Before cutting

(\alpha = \frac{M\ell^2}{12} \quad \cdots (i))

After cutting

For each half:

⇒ Mass = M / 2

⇒ Length = ℓ / 2

Moment of inertia for each half, α' (single part) = (M/2) × (ℓ/2)2 / 12

⇒ α' = (M/2) × (ℓ2 / 4) / 12 = (M × ℓ2) / 96

Total moment of inertia, α' = 2 × (M × ℓ2 / 96) = (M × ℓ2) / 48

⇒ α' = α / 4

∴ Correct option is (2).

67

<br>

A spherical surface separates two media of refractive indices 1 and 1.5 as shown in figure. Distance of the image of an object 'O', is : (C is the center of curvature of the spherical surface and R is the radius of curvature)

  1. ((a))

    0.24 m right to the spherical surface

  2. ((b))

    0.4 m left to the spherical surface

  3. ((c))

    0.24 m left to the spherical surface

  4. ((d))

    0.4 m right to the spherical surface  

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.4 m left to the spherical surface

Calculation:

Solution Image

⇒ (1.5 / v) - (1 / -0.2) = (1.5 - 1) / 0.4

⇒ (1.5 / v) = 1.25 - 5 = -3.75

⇒ v = 1.5 / (-3.75) = -0.4 m

∴ v = -1.2 m.

68

Match List–I with List–II. 

List–IList–II
(A) Coefficient of viscosity(I) [ML0T–3]
(B) Intensity of wave(II) [ML–2T–2]
(C) Pressure gradient(III) [M–1LT2]
(D) Compressibility(IV) [ML–1T–1]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

  1. ((a))

    (A)–(I), (B)–(IV), (C)–(III), (D)–(II)  

  2. ((b))

    (A)–(IV), (B)–(I), (C)–(II), (D)–(III) 

  3. ((c))

    (A)–(IV), (B)–(II), (C)–(I), (D)–(III)   

  4. ((d))

    (A)–(II), (B)–(III), (C)–(IV), (D)–(I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A)–(IV), (B)–(I), (C)–(II), (D)–(III) 

Explanation:

Coefficient of viscosity (η):

Expressed as force per unit area per velocity gradient.

⇒ Dimensional formula: [M1 L-1 T-1].

Intensity (I):

Power delivered per unit area perpendicular to wave propagation.

SI unit is watt per square meter (W/m2).

⇒ Dimensional formula: [M1 L0 T-3].

Pressure gradient:

Represents the rate of change of pressure with distance.

Its unit is pascal per meter (Pa/m).

⇒ Dimensional formula: [M L-2 T-2].

Compressibility (K):

Defined as the fractional change in volume per unit increase in pressure.

Inverse of bulk modulus (elastic modulus of volume).

⇒ Dimensional formula: [M-1 L1 T2].

69

A small bob of mass 100 mg and charge +10 (\mu )C is connected to an insulating string of length 1 m. It is brought near to an infinitely long non conducting sheet of charge density '(\sigma )' as shown in figure. If string subtends an angle of 45° with the sheet at equilibrium the charge density of sheet will be :

(Given, (\epsilon_0) = 8.85 × 10–12 (\frac{\text{F}}{\text{m}}) and acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2

  1. ((a))

    0.885 nC/m

  2. ((b))

    17.7 nC/m2

  3. ((c))

    885 nC/m2

  4. ((d))

    1.77 nC/m2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1.77 nC/m2

Calculation:

The FBD is shown below

From equilibrium condition:

⇒ q × (σ / 2 ε0) = mg

⇒ σ = (2 ε0 mg) / q

⇒ σ = (2 × 8.85 × 10-12 × 100 × 10-6 × 10) / (10 × 10-6)

⇒ σ = 17.7 × 10-10 C/m2

⇒ σ = 1.77 nC/m2

∴ Surface charge density σ = 1.77 nC/m2.

70

A monochromatic light is incident on a metallic plate having work function ϕ . An electron, emitted normally to the plate from a point A with maximum kinetic energy, enters a constant magnetic field, perpendicular to the initial velocity of electron. The electron passes through a curve and hits back the plate at a point B. The distance between A and B is :

(Given : The magnitude of charge of an electron is e and mass is m, h is Planck's constant and c is velocity of light. Take the magnetic field exists throughout the path of electron)

  1. ((a))

    (\sqrt{2m \left( \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi \right) / eB} \qquad)

  2. ((b))

    (\sqrt{m \left( \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi \right) / eB} \ )

  3. ((c))

    (\sqrt{8m \left( \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi \right) / eB} \qquad )

  4. ((d))

    (2 \sqrt{m \left( \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi \right) / eB})

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(\sqrt{8m \left( \frac{hc}{\lambda} - \phi \right) / eB} \qquad )

Calculation:

Using KEmax:

⇒ KEmax = (hc / λ) - φ

Momentum of electron:

⇒ p = √(2m KEmax) = √[2m ((hc / λ) - φ)]

Diameter of path:

⇒ dA-B = 2r = 2 (p / qB) = 2 [√(2m ((hc / λ) - φ)) / eB]

Thus,

⇒ dA-B = (2 √(2m ((hc / λ) - φ))) / (eB)

⇒ dA-B = √[ (8m ((hc / λ) - φ)) / (eB) ]

Physics Section B (5 questions)

71

A vessel with square cross–section and height of 6 m is vertically partitioned. A small window of 100 cm2 with hinged door is fitted at a depth of 3 m in the partition wall. One part of the vessel is filled completely with water and the other side is filled with the liquid having density 1.5 × 103 kg/m3. What force one needs to apply on the hinged door so that it does not get opened ?

​(Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2)

72

A steel wire of length 2 m and Young's modulus 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2 is stretched by a force. If Poisson ratio and transverse strain for the wire are 0.2 and 10–3 respectively, then the elastic potential energy density of the wire is ____ × 105 (in SI units)

73

If the measured angular separation between the second minimum to the left of the central maximum and the third minimum to the right of the central maximum is 30° in a single slit diffraction pattern recorded using 628 nm light, then the width of the slit is ____ (\mu)m.

74

(\gamma_A) is the specific heat ratio of monoatomic gas A having 3 translational degrees of freedom. (\gamma_B) is the specific heat ratio of polyatomic gas B having 3 translational, 3 rotational degrees of freedom and 1 vibrational mode. If ( \frac{\gamma_A}{\gamma_B} = \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n} \right)) , then the value of n is ______.

75

A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for a distance x and with a uniform velocity v2 for the next (\frac{3}{2}x) distance. The average velocity in this motion is (\frac{50}{7})m/s. If v1 is 5 m/s then v2 = _____ m/s.

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