Previous Year Paper

JEE Main 22 January 2025 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

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Mathematics Section A (20 questions)

Question 1

The number of non-empty equivalence relations on the set {1,2,3} is : 

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

The number of equivalence relations on a set is equivalent to the number of ways the set can be partitioned. For a set containing n elements, this number is represented by the Bell number Bn.

Calculation:

⇒ Partitions of A = {1, 2, 3} are:

⇒ 1. {{1}, {2}, {3}}

⇒ 2. {{1, 2}, {3}}

⇒ 3. {{1, 3}, {2}}

⇒ 4. {{2, 3}, {1}}

⇒ 5. {{1, 2, 3}}

⇒ Number of partitions = 5

⇒ Bell number B3 = 5

⇒ Number of equivalence relations = 5

The empty relation is not included

∴ The maximum number of equivalence relations on A = {1, 2, 3} is 5

Hence option 3 is correct

Question 2

Let ƒ : R → R be a twice differentiable function such that ƒ(x + y) = ƒ(x) ƒ(y) for all x, y ∈ R. If ƒ'(0) = 4a and ƒ staisfies ƒ''(x) – 3a ƒ'(x) – ƒ(x) = 0, a > 0, then the area of the region

R = {(x,y) | 0 ≤ y ≤ ƒ(ax), 0 ≤ x ≤ 2} is :

  1. AOption (a)

    e2 – 1

  2. BOption (b)

    e4 + 1

  3. COption (c)

    e4 – 1

  4. DOption (d)

    e2 + 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

e2 – 1

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

f(x + y) = f(x).f(y) 

⇒ f(x) = eλx f′(0) = 4a 

⇒ f′(x) = λeλx ⇒ λ = 4a

So, f(x) = e4ax

f′′(x) – 3af′(x) – f (x) = 0 

⇒ λ2 – 3aλ – 1 = 0 

⇒ 16a2 – 12a2 – 1 = 0 ⇒ 4a2 = 1 ⇒ a=12\mathrm{a}=\frac{1}{2}

F(x) = e2x

Area = ∫02exdx=e2−1\int_{0}^{2} \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{x}} \mathrm{dx}=\mathrm{e}^{2}-1

Hence option 1 is correct

Question 3

Let the triangle PQR be the image of the triangle with vertices (1,3), (3,1) and (2, 4) in the line x + 2y = 2. If the centroid of ΔPQR is the point (α, β), then 15(α - β) is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    19 

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

Let ‘G’ be the centroid of Δ formed by (1, 3) (3, 1) & (2, 4)

G≅(2,83)\mathrm{G} \cong\left(2, \frac{8}{3}\right)

Image of G w.r.t. x + 2y – 2 = 0

α−21=β−832=−2(2+163−2)1+4\frac{α-2}{1}=\frac{β-\frac{8}{3}}{2}=-2 \frac{\left(2+\frac{16}{3}-2\right)}{1+4}

= −25(163)\frac{-2}{5}\left(\frac{16}{3}\right)

⇒ α=−3215+2=−215,β=−32×215+83=−2415α=\frac{-32}{15}+2=\frac{-2}{15}, β=\frac{-32 \times 2}{15}+\frac{8}{3}=\frac{-24}{15}

15(α – β) = – 2 + 24 = 22

Hence option 4 is correct

Question 4

Let z1, z2 and z3 be three complex numbers on the circle |z| = 1 with arg(z1) = −π4\frac{-\pi}{4}, arg(z2) = 0, arg(z3) = π4\frac{\pi}{4}. If \(\left|Z_{1} \bar{Z}{2}+Z{2} \bar{Z}{3}+Z{3} \bar{Z}_{1}\right|^{2}\) = α+β2,α,β∈Zα+β \sqrt{2}, α, β \in Z, then the value of α2 + β2 is :

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    41

  3. COption (c)

    31

  4. DOption (d)

    29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

29

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

Given:

Z1=e−iπ/4,Z2=1,Z3=eiπ/4 Z_{1}=e^{-i\pi/4}, Z_{2}=1, Z_{3}=e^{i\pi/4}

\( |z_{1}\overline{z}{2}+z{2}\overline{z}{3}+z{3}\overline{z}_{1}|^{2} = |e^{-i\frac{\pi}{4}}\times1+1\times e^{-i\frac{\pi}{4}}+e^{i\frac{\pi}{4}}\times e^{i\frac{\pi}{4}}|^{2} \)

=∣e−iπ4+e−iπ4+eiπ4∣2 = |e^{-i\frac{\pi}{4}}+e^{-i\frac{\pi}{4}}+e^{i\frac{\pi}{4}}|^{2}

=∣2e−iπ4+1∣2 = |2e^{-i\frac{\pi}{4}}+1|^{2}

=∣2−2i+i∣2 = |\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{2}i+i|^{2}

=(2)2+(1−2)2=2+1+2−22=5−22 = (\sqrt{2})^{2}+(1-\sqrt{2})^{2} = 2+1+2-2\sqrt{2} = 5-2\sqrt{2}

α=5,β=−2 \alpha=5, \beta=-2

⇒α2+β2=29 \Rightarrow \alpha^{2}+\beta^{2}=29

Hence option (4) 29 is correct

Question 5

Using the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions the sum of the maximum and the minimum values of 16((sec–1x)2 + (cosec–1x)2) is :

  1. AOption (a)

    24π2

  2. BOption (b)

    18π2

  3. COption (c)

    31π2

  4. DOption (d)

    22π2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22π2

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

16(sec–1 x)2 + (cosec–1 x)2

\operatorname{Sec}^{-1} \mathrm{x}=\mathrm{a} \in[0, π]-\left{\frac{π}{2}\right}

cosec⁡−1x=π2−a\operatorname{cosec}^{-1} \mathrm{x}=\frac{π}{2}-\mathrm{a}

= 16[a2+(π2−a)2]=16[2a2−πa+π24]16\left[\mathrm{a}^{2}+\left(\frac{π}{2}-\mathrm{a}\right)^{2}\right]=16\left[2 \mathrm{a}^{2}-π \mathrm{a}+\frac{π^{2}}{4}\right]

max⁡]a=π=16[2π2−π2+π24]=20π2\max ]_{a=π}=16\left[2 π^{2}-π^{2}+π \frac{2}{4}\right]=20 π^{2}

min⁡]a=π4=16[2×π216−π24+π24]=2π2\min ]_{a=\frac{π}{4}}=16\left[\frac{2 \times π^{2}}{16}-\frac{π^{2}}{4}+\frac{π^{2}}{4}\right]=2 π^{2}

Sum = 22π2 

Hence option 4 is correct

Question 6

A coin is tossed three times. Let X denote the number of times a tail follows a head. If μ and σ2 denote the mean and variance of X, then the value of 64(μ + σ2) is :

  1. AOption (a)

    51 

  2. BOption (b)

    48 

  3. COption (c)

    32

  4. DOption (d)

    64 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

48 

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

HHH → 0

HHT → 0

HTH → 1

HTT → 0

THH → 1

THT → 1

TTH → 1

TTT → 0

Probability distribution

\(\begin{array}{c|c|c} \mathrm{x}{\mathrm{i}} & 0 & 1 \ \hline \mathrm{P}\left(\mathrm{x}{\mathrm{i}}\right) & 1 / 2 & 1 / 2 \end{array}\)

\(\mu=\sum \mathrm{x}{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{p}{\mathrm{i}}=\frac{1}{2}\)

σ2=∑xi2pi−μ2\sigma^{2}=\sum x_{i}^{2} p_{i}-\mu^{2}

= 12−14=14\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}=\frac{1}{4}

64(μ+σ2)=64(12+14)=4864\left(\mu+\sigma^{2}\right)=64\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}\right)=48

Hence option 2 is correct

Question 7

Let a1, a2, a3 ..... be a G.P. of increasing positive terms. If a1a5 = 28 and a2 + a4 = 29, the a6 is equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    628 

  2. BOption (b)

    526 

  3. COption (c)

    784 

  4. DOption (d)

    812

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

784 

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

a1 .a5 = 28 ⇒ a.ar4 = 28 ⇒ a2 r4 = 28 …(1)

a2 + a4 = 29 ⇒ ar + ar3 = 29 

⇒ ar(1 + r2) = 29 

a2 r2 (1 + r2)2 = (29)2 …(2) 

By Eq. (1) & (2)

r2(1+r2)2=2829×29\frac{\mathrm{r}^{2}}{\left(1+\mathrm{r}^{2}\right)^{2}}=\frac{28}{29 \times 29}

⇒ r1+r2=2829⇒r=28\frac{\mathrm{r}}{1+\mathrm{r}^{2}}=\frac{\sqrt{28}}{29} \Rightarrow \mathrm{r}=\sqrt{28}

∵ a2 r4 = 28 ⇒ a2 × (28)2 = 28 

⇒ a=128a=\frac{1}{\sqrt{28}}

∴ a6=ar5=128×(28)228=784a_{6}=a r^{5}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{28}} \times(28)^{2} \sqrt{28}=784

Hence option 3 is correct

Question 8

Let L1 : x−12=y−23=z−34\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{4} and L2 : x−23=y−44=z−55\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-4}{4}=\frac{z-5}{5} be two lines. Then which of the following points lies on the line of the shortest distance between L1 and L2 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    (−53,−7,1)\left(-\frac{5}{3},-7,1\right)

  2. BOption (b)

    (2,3,13)\left(2,3, \frac{1}{3}\right)

  3. COption (c)

    (83,−1,13)\left(\frac{8}{3},-1, \frac{1}{3}\right)

  4. DOption (d)

    (143,−3,223)\left(\frac{14}{3},-3, \frac{22}{3}\right)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(143,−3,223)\left(\frac{14}{3},-3, \frac{22}{3}\right)

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

P(2λ + 1, 3λ + 2, 4λ + 3) on L1

Q(3µ + 2, 4µ + 4, 5µ + 5) on L2

Dr’s of PQ = 3µ – 2λ + 1, 4µ – 3λ + 2, 5µ – 4λ + 2

PQ ⊥ L1 

⇒ (3µ – 2λ + 1)2 + (4µ – 3λ + 2)3 + (5µ – 4λ + 2)4 = 0

38µ – 29λ + 16 = 0 …(1)

PQ ⊥ L2 

⇒ (3µ – 2λ + 1)3 + (4µ – 3λ + 2)4 + (5µ – 4λ + 2)5 = 0

50µ – 38λ + 21 = 0 …(2)

By (1) & (2) 

λ=13;μ=−16λ=\frac{1}{3} ; \mu=\frac{-1}{6}

∴ \mathrm{P}\left(\frac{5}{3}, 3, \frac{13}{3}\right) & \ \mathrm{Q}\left(\frac{3}{2}, \frac{10}{3}, \frac{25}{6}\right)

Line PQ 

x−5316y−3−13z−13316\begin{array}{ccc} \frac{x-\frac{5}{3}}{\frac{1}{6}} & \frac{y-3}{\frac{-1}{3}} & \frac{z-\frac{13}{3}}{\frac{1}{6}} \end{array}

x−531=y−3−2=z−1331\frac{x-\frac{5}{3}}{1}=\frac{y-3}{-2}=\frac{z-\frac{13}{3}}{1}

 Point (143,−3,223)\text { Point }\left(\frac{14}{3},-3, \frac{22}{3}\right)

lies on the line PQ 

Hence option 4 is correct

Question 9

The product of all solutions of the equation e5(log⁡ex)2+3=x8,x>0\mathrm{e}^{5\left(\log _{\mathrm{e}} \mathrm{x}\right)^{2}+3}=\mathrm{x}^{8}, \mathrm{x}>0, is

  1. AOption (a)

    e8/5

  2. BOption (b)

    e6/5 

  3. COption (c)

    e2 

  4. DOption (d)

    e

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

e8/5

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

e5(ℓnx)2+3=x8\rm \mathrm{e}^{5(ℓ n x)^{2}+3}=\mathrm{x}^{8}

⇒ ln⁡e5(ℓnx)2+3=ln⁡x8\ln \mathrm{e}^{5(ℓ \mathrm{n} x)^{2}+3}=\ln \mathrm{x}^{8}

⇒ 5(ℓnx)2 + 3 = 8ℓnx

(ℓnx = t)

⇒ 5t2 – 8t + 3 = 0

\(\mathrm{t}{1}+\mathrm{t}{2}=\frac{8}{5}\)

\(\ell \operatorname{nx}{1} x{2}=\frac{8}{5}\)

x1 x2 = e8/5

Hence option 1 is correct

Question 10

If \(\sum_{\mathrm{r}=1}^{\mathrm{n}} \mathrm{~T}{\mathrm{r}}=\frac{(2 \mathrm{n}-1)(2 \mathrm{n}+1)(2 \mathrm{n}+3)(2 \mathrm{n}+5)}{64}\), then \(\lim {\mathrm{n} \rightarrow \infty} \sum{\mathrm{r}=1}^{\mathrm{n}}\left(\frac{1}{T{\mathrm{r}}}\right)\) is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    23\frac{2}{3}

  4. DOption (d)

    13\frac{1}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

23\frac{2}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

Tn = Sn – Sn–1

⇒ Tn=18(2n−1)(2n+1)(2n+3)\mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{n}}=\frac{1}{8}(2 \mathrm{n}-1)(2 \mathrm{n}+1)(2 \mathrm{n}+3)

⇒ 1Tn=8(2n−1)(2n+1)(2n+3)\frac{1}{T_{n}}=\frac{8}{(2 n-1)(2 n+1)(2 n+3)}

\(\lim {n \rightarrow \infty} \sum{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{T_{r}}=\lim {n \rightarrow \infty} 8 \sum{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{(2 n-1)(2 n+1)(2 n+3)}\)

= lim⁡n→∞84∑(1(2n−1)(2n+1)−1(2n+1)(2n+3))\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{8}{4} \sum\left(\frac{1}{(2 n-1)(2 n+1)}-\frac{1}{(2 n+1)(2 n+3)}\right)

= lim⁡n→∞2[(11.3−13.5)+(13.5−15.7)+…]\lim _{\mathrm{n} \rightarrow \infty} 2\left[\left(\frac{1}{1.3}-\frac{1}{3.5}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{3.5}-\frac{1}{5.7}\right)+\ldots\right]

= 23\frac{2}{3}

Hence option 3 is correct

Question 11

From all the English alphabets, five letters are chosen and are arranged in alphabetical order. The total number of ways, in which the middle letter is ‘M’, is : 

  1. AOption (a)

    14950 

  2. BOption (b)

    6084 

  3. COption (c)

    4356 

  4. DOption (d)

    5148 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5148 

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

= \(\underbrace{12 \mathrm{C}{2}}{\substack{\text { Sclection of two } \ \text { letters before } \mathrm{M}}} \times \underbrace{{ }^{13} \mathrm{C}{2}}{\substack{\text { Selection of two } \ \text { letters after } \mathrm{M}}}=5148\)

Hence option 4 is correct

Question 12

Let x = x(y) be the solution of the differential equation y2dx + (x−1y)\left(x-\frac{1}{y}\right)dy = 0. If x(1) = 1, then x(12)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12\frac{1}{2} + e

  2. BOption (b)

    32\frac{3}{2} + e

  3. COption (c)

    3 - e

  4. DOption (d)

    3 + e

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 - e

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

dxdy+(1y2)x=1y3\frac{\mathrm{dx}}{\mathrm{dy}}+\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{y}^{2}}\right) \mathrm{x}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{y}^{3}}

 I.F. =e∫1y2dy=e−1y\text { I.F. }=\mathrm{e}^{\int \frac{1}{{y}^{2}} \mathrm{dy}}=\mathrm{e}^{-\frac{1}{y}}

⇒ x⋅e−1y=∫(e−1y)⋅1y3dyx \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{y}}=\int\left(e^{-\frac{1}{y}}\right) \cdot \frac{1}{y^{3}} d y

Put −1y=t-\frac{1}{y}=t

+1y2dy=dt+\frac{1}{\mathrm{y}^{2}} \mathrm{dy}=\mathrm{dt}

x⋅e−1y=−∫t⋅etdtx \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{y}}=-\int t \cdot e^{t} d t

x⋅e−1y=−tet+et+Cx \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{y}}=-t e^{t}+e^{t}+C

x⋅e−1y=+1ye−1y+e−1y+Cx \cdot e^{-\frac{1}{y}}=\frac{+1}{y} e^{-\frac{1}{y}}+e^{-\frac{1}{y}}+C

x = 1, y = 1 

1e=1e+1e+C\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}+\mathrm{C}

⇒ C=−1e\mathrm{C}=-\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}

Put y = 12\frac{1}{2}

xe2=2e2+1e2−1e\frac{\mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{e}^{2}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{e}^{2}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}^{2}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}}

x = 3 – e

Hence option 3 is correct

Question 13

Let the parabola y = x2 + px – 3, meet the coordinate axes at the points P, Q and R. If the circle C with centre at (–1, –1) passes through the points P, Q and R, then the area of ΔPQR is :

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

y = x2 + px – 3

Let P(α, 0), Q(β, 0), R(0, –3)

Circle with centre (–1, –1) is (x + 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = r2

Passes through (0, –3)

12 + (–2)2 = r2]

r2 = 5

(x + 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = 5

Put y = 0

(x + 1)2 = 5 – 1

(x + 1)2 = 4

x + 1 = ±2

x = 1 or x = –3 

P(1, 0) and Q(–3, 0)

Area of ΔPQR = 12∣101 −301 0−31∣=6\frac{1}{2}\left|\begin{array}{ccc} 1 & 0 & 1 \ -3 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & -3 & 1 \end{array}\right|=6

Hence option 2 is correct

Question 14

A circle C of radius 2 lies in the second quadrant and touches both the coordinate axes. Let r be the radius of a circle that has centre at the point (2, 5) and intersects the circle C at exactly two points. If the set of all possible values of r is the interval (α, β), then 3β – 2α is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    15 

  2. BOption (b)

    14 

  3. COption (c)

    12 

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15 

Why this answer is correct

Calculation. 

S1 : (x + 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 22

S2 : (x – 2)2 + (y – 5)2 = r2

Both circle intersect at two points 

∴ |r1 – r2| < c1 c2 < r1 + r2

|r – 2| < 5 < 2 + r 

⇒ 3 < r < 7

r ∈ (3, 7)

α = 3, β = 7

3β – 2α = 15

Hence option 1 is correct

Question 15

Let for ƒ(x) = 7tan8 x + 7tan6 x – 3tan4 x – 3tan2 x, \(\mathrm{I}{1}=\int{0}^{\pi / 4} f(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}\) and \(\mathrm{I}{2}=\int{0}^{\pi / 4} \mathrm{x} f(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{d} \mathrm{x}\). Then 7I1 + 12I2 is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    2π

  2. BOption (b)

    π

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

f(x) = (7tan6 x – 3tan2 x)(sec2 x)

I1=∫0π/4(7tan⁡6x−3tan⁡2x)(sec⁡2x)dxI_{1}=\int_{0}^{\pi / 4}\left(7 \tan ^{6} x-3 \tan ^{2} x\right)\left(\sec ^{2} x\right) d x

Put tanx = t

I1=∫01(7t6−3t2)dt=[t7−t3]01=0I_{1}=\int_{0}^{1}\left(7 t^{6}-3 t^{2}\right) d t=\left[t^{7}-t^{3}\right]_{0}^{1}=0

I2=∫0π/4x(7tan⁡6x−3tan⁡2x)(sec⁡2x)⏟IIdxI_{2}=\int_{0}^{\pi / 4} x \underbrace{\left(7 \tan ^{6} x-3 \tan ^{2} x\right)\left(\sec ^{2} x\right)}_{\mathrm{II}} d x

= \(\left[x\left(\tan ^{7} x-\tan ^{3} x\right)\right]{0}^{\pi / 4}-\int{0}^{\pi / 4}\left(\tan ^{7} x-\tan ^{3} x\right) d x\)

= 0−∫0π/4tan⁡3x(tan⁡2x−1)(1+tan⁡2x)dx0-\int_{0}^{\pi / 4} \tan ^{3} x\left(\tan ^{2} x-1\right)\left(1+\tan ^{2} x\right) d x

Put tanx = t

= −∫01(t5−t3)dt=−[t66−t44]=112-\int_{0}^{1}\left(t^{5}-t^{3}\right) d t=-\left[\frac{t^{6}}{6}-\frac{t^{4}}{4}\right]=\frac{1}{12}

7I1 + 12I2 = 1 

Hence option 3 is correct

Question 16

Let f(x) be a real differentiable function such that f(0) = 1 and f(x + y) = f(x)f'(y) + f'(x) f(y) for all x, y ∈ R. Then ∑n=1100\sum_{n=1}^{100} loge f(n) is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    2384 

  2. BOption (b)

    2525

  3. COption (c)

    5220 

  4. DOption (d)

    2406

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2525

Why this answer is correct

Calculation 

f(x + y) = f(x) f′(y) + f′(x) f(x)

Put = x = y = 0

f(0) = f(0)f′(0) + f′(0)f(0) 

f′(0) = 12\frac{1}{2}

Put y = 0

f(x) = f(x) f′(0) + f′(x)f(0)

f(x)=12f(x)+f′(x)f(x)=\frac{1}{2} f(x)+f^{\prime}(x)

f′(x)=f(x)2\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{x})=\frac{\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})}{2}

dydx=y2⇒∫dyy=∫dx2\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{y}{2} \Rightarrow \int \frac{d y}{y}=\int \frac{d x}{2}

⇒ ℓny=x2+c\ell n y=\frac{x}{2}+c

∵ f (0) = 1 ⇒ C = 0 

ℓny=π2⇒f(x)=ex/2\ell \mathrm{ny}=\frac{\pi}{2} \Rightarrow \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x})=\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{x} / 2}

ℓn f(n)=n2\ell n \ \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{n})=\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}

∑n=1100ℓf(n)=12∑n=1100n=50502\sum_{\mathrm{n}=1}^{100} \ell \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{n})=\frac{1}{2} \sum_{\mathrm{n}=1}^{100} \mathrm{n}=\frac{5050}{2}

= 2525

Hence option 2 is correct

Question 17

Let A = {1, 2, 3,.......,10} and

\mathrm{B}=\left{\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{n}}: \mathrm{m}, \mathrm{n} \in \mathrm{~A}, \mathrm{~m}<\mathrm{n} \text { and } \operatorname{gcd}(\mathrm{m}, \mathrm{n})=1\right}.

Then n(B) is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    31 

  2. BOption (b)

    36 

  3. COption (c)

    37 

  4. DOption (d)

    29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

31 

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Counting reduced proper fractions:

  • Set A: A = {1, 2, 3, …, 10}.
  • Set B: B = {m/n : m,n ∈ A, m < n, gcd(m,n)=1}.
  • Key idea: For a fixed denominator n, the number of integers
  • 1 ≤ m < n with gcd(m,n)=1 equals φ(n).
  • Important terms: Euler's totient function φ(n),
  • reduced fraction, distinct fractions.
  • Therefore: n(B) = Σn=210 φ(n).

 

Calculation:

A = {1, 2, ….10}

\mathrm{B}\left{\frac{\mathrm{~m}}{\mathrm{n}}=\mathrm{m}, \mathrm{n} \in \mathrm{~A}, \mathrm{~m}<\mathrm{n}, \operatorname{gcd}(\mathrm{~m}, \mathrm{n})=1\right}

n(B)

\mathrm{n}=2 \quad\left{\frac{1}{2}\right}

⇒ φ(2) = 1

\mathrm{n}=3 \quad\left{\frac{1}{3}, \frac{2}{3}\right}

⇒ φ(3) = 2

\mathrm{n}=4 \quad\left{\frac{1}{4}, \frac{3}{4}\right}

⇒ φ(4) = 2

\mathrm{n}=5 \quad\left{\frac{1}{5}, \frac{2}{5}, \frac{3}{5}, \frac{4}{5}\right}

⇒ φ(5) = 4

\mathrm{n}=6 \quad\left{\frac{1}{6}, \frac{5}{6}\right}

⇒ φ(6) = 2

\mathrm{n}=7 \quad\left{\frac{1}{7}, \frac{2}{7}, \frac{3}{7}, \frac{4}{7}, \frac{5}{7}, \frac{6}{7}\right}

⇒ φ(7) = 6

\mathrm{n}=8 \quad\left{\frac{1}{8}, \frac{3}{8}, \frac{5}{8}, \frac{7}{8}\right}

⇒ φ(8) = 4

\mathrm{n}=9 \quad\left{\frac{1}{9}, \frac{2}{9}, \frac{4}{9}, \frac{5}{9}, \frac{7}{9}, \frac{8}{9}\right}  

⇒ φ(9) = 6 

\mathrm{n}=10 \quad\left{\frac{1}{10}, \frac{3}{10}, \frac{7}{10}, \frac{9}{10}\right}

⇒ φ(10) = 4

Hence n(B) = 31

∴ n(B) = 31.

Question 18

The area of the region, inside the circle (x−23)2+y2(x-2 \sqrt{3})^{2}+y^{2} = 12 and outside the parabola y2=23xy^{2}=2 \sqrt{3} x is

  1. AOption (a)

    6π – 8

  2. BOption (b)

    3π – 8

  3. COption (c)

    6π – 16

  4. DOption (d)

    3π + 8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6π – 16

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

y2=23xy^{2}=2 \sqrt{3} x

(x−23)2+y2=(23)2(x-2 \sqrt{3})^{2}+y^{2}=(2 \sqrt{3})^{2}

A=πr22−2∫02323xdxA=\frac{π r^{2}}{2}-2 \int_{0}^{2 \sqrt{3}} \sqrt{2 \sqrt{3} x} d x

π(12)2−223(x3/2)02/33/2\frac{π(12)}{2}-2 \sqrt{2 \sqrt{3}} \frac{\left(\mathrm{x}^{3 / 2}\right)_{0}^{2 / 3}}{3 / 2}

= 6π – 16

Hence option 3 is correct

Question 19

Two balls are selected at random one by one without replacement from a bag containing 4 white and 6 black balls. If the probability that the first selected ball is black, given that the second selected ball is also black, is mn\rm \frac{m}{n}, where gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    14 

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14 

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

P=610×59410×69+610×59=59P=\frac{\frac{6}{10} \times \frac{5}{9}}{\frac{4}{10} \times \frac{6}{9}+\frac{6}{10} \times \frac{5}{9}}=\frac{5}{9}

m = 5, n = 9

m + n = 14

Question 20

Let the foci of a hyperbola be (1, 14) and (1, –12). If it passes through the point (1, 6), then the length of its latus-rectum is :

  1. AOption (a)

    256\frac{25}{6}

  2. BOption (b)

    245\frac{24}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    2885\frac{288}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    1445\frac{144}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2885\frac{288}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

 

be = 13, b = 5

a2 = b2 (e2 – 1)

= b2 e2 – b2

= 169 – 25 = 144

ℓ(LR)=2a2 b=2×1445=2885\ell(\mathrm{LR})=\frac{2 \mathrm{a}^{2}}{\mathrm{~b}}=\frac{2 \times 144}{5}=\frac{288}{5}

Hence option 3 is correct

Mathematics Section B (5 questions)

Question 21

Let the function, 

f(x)=\left{\begin{array}{ll} -3 a x^{2}-2, & x<1 \ a^{2}+b x, & x \geq 1 \end{array}\right.

Be differentiable for all x ∈ R, where a > 1, b ∈ R. If the area of the region enclosed by y = f(x) and the line y = – 20 is α + β√3 , α, β, ∈ Z, then the value of α + β is ________.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 34Answer: 34

Why this answer is correct

Ans. (34)

Sol.

f(x) is continuous and differentiable

at x = 1; LHL = RHL, LHD = RHD

–3a – 2 = a2 + b, –6a = b

a = 2, 1; b = –12 

f(x)=\left{\begin{array}{ccc} -6 x^{2}-2 & ; & x<1 \ 4-12 x & ; & x \geq 1 \end{array}\right.

Area = ∫−31(−6x2−2+20)dx+∫12(4−12x+20)dx\int_{-\sqrt{3}}^{1}\left(-6 x^{2}-2+20\right) d x+\int_{1}^{2}(4-12 x+20) d x

16+123+6=22+12316+12 \sqrt{3}+6=22+12 \sqrt{3}

Question 22

If ∑r=0511C2r+12r+2=mn\sum_{r=0}^{5} \frac{{ }^{11} C_{2 r+1}}{2 r+2}=\frac{m}{n}, ​gcd(m, n) = 1, then m – n is equal to ________.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 2035Answer: 2035

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

∫01(1+x)11dx=[C0x+C1x22+C2x33+…]01\int_{0}^{1}(1+x)^{11} d x=\left[C_{0} x+\frac{C_{1} x^{2}}{2}+\frac{C_{2} x^{3}}{3}+\ldots\right]_{0}^{1}

212−112=C0+C12+C23+C34+…\frac{2^{12}-1}{12}=C_{0}+\frac{C_{1}}{2}+\frac{C_{2}}{3}+\frac{C_{3}}{4}+\ldots

∫−10(1+x)11dx=[C0x+C1x22+C2x33+…]−10\int_{-1}^{0}(1+x)^{11} d x=\left[C_{0} x+\frac{C_{1} x^{2}}{2}+\frac{C_{2} x^{3}}{3}+\ldots\right]_{-1}^{0}

112=C0−C12+C23−C34+…\frac{1}{12}=C_{0}-\frac{C_{1}}{2}+\frac{C_{2}}{3}-\frac{C_{3}}{4}+\ldots

212−212=2(C12+C34+C56+…)\frac{2^{12}-2}{12}=2\left(\frac{C_{1}}{2}+\frac{C_{3}}{4}+\frac{C_{5}}{6}+\ldots\right)

\(\frac{\mathrm{C}{1}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{C}{3}}{4}-\frac{\mathrm{C}_{5}}{6}+\ldots=\frac{2^{11}-1}{12}=\frac{2047}{12}\)

m - n = 2047 - 12 = 2035

Question 23

Let A be a square matrix of order 3 such that det(A) = –2 and det (3adj(–6adj(3A))) = 2m+n. 3mn, m > n. Then 4m + 2n is equal to _____.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 34Answer: 34

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

|A| = –2

det(3adj(–6adj(3A)))

= 33 det(adj(–adj(3A)))

= 33 (–6)6 (det(3A))4

= 321 × 210

m + n = 10

mn = 21

m = 7 ; n = 3

4m + 2n = 28 + 6 = 34

Question 24

Let L1 : x−13=y−1−1=z+10\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y-1}{-1}=\frac{z+1}{0} and L2 x−22=y0=z+4α\frac{x-2}{2}=\frac{y}{0}=\frac{z+4}{α}, α ∈ R, be two lines, which intersect at the point B. If P is the foot of perpendicular from the point A(1, 1, –1) on L2 , then the value of 26 α(PB)2 is ________.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 216Answer: 216

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

Point B

(3λ + 1, –λ + 1, –1) ≡ (2µ + 2, 0, αµ – 4)

3λ + 1 = 2µ + 2

–λ + 1 = 0

–1 = αµ – 4

λ = 1, µ = 1, α = 3

B(4, 0, –1)

Let Point ‘P’ is (2δ + 2, 0, 3δ – 4)

Dr’s of AP < 2δ + 1, –1, 3δ – 3 >

AP⊥ L2⇒δ=713\mathrm{AP} \perp \mathrm{~L}_{2} \Rightarrow δ=\frac{7}{13}

P(4013,0,−3113)\mathrm{P}\left(\frac{40}{13}, 0, \frac{-31}{13}\right)

2σδ( PB)2=26×3×(144169+324169)2 \sigma δ(\mathrm{~PB})^{2}=26 \times 3 \times\left(\frac{144}{169}+\frac{324}{169}\right)

= 216

Question 25

Let c→\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}} be the projection vector of b→=λi^+4k^,λ>0\overrightarrow{\mathrm{b}}=\lambda \hat{\mathrm{i}}+4 \hat{\mathrm{k}}, \lambda>0, on the vector a⃗=i^+2j^+2k^. If ∣a⃗+c⃗∣=7\vec{a}=\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+2 \hat{k} . \text { If }|\vec{a}+\vec{c}|=7, then the area of the parallelogram formed by the vectors b→\overrightarrow{\mathrm{b}} and c→\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}} ________.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 16Answer: 16

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

c→=(b→⋅a→∣a→∣)a→∣a→∣\overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}}=\left(\frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{b}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}}{|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}|}\right) \frac{\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}}{|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{a}}|}

⇒ (λ+89)(i^+2j^+2k^)\left(\frac{\lambda+8}{9}\right)(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+2 \hat{\mathrm{k}})

∣a⃗+c⃗∣−=7⇒λ=4|\vec{a}+\vec{c}|-=7 \Rightarrow \lambda=4

Area of parallelogram

= ∣b→×c→∣=∣i^j^k^ 438383 404∣|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{b}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{c}}|=\left|\begin{array}{ccc} \hat{\mathrm{i}} & \hat{\mathrm{j}} & \hat{\mathrm{k}} \ \frac{4}{3} & \frac{8}{3} & \frac{8}{3} \ 4 & 0 & 4 \end{array}\right|

= 16

Chemistry Section A (20 questions)

Question 26

A solution of aluminium chloride is electrolysed for 30 minutes using a current of 2A. The amount of the aluminium deposited at the cathode is ___ .

[Given : molar mass of aluminium and chlorine are 27 g mol–1 and 35.5 g mol–1 respectively, Faraday constant = 96500 C mol–1].

  1. AOption (a)

    1.660 g

  2. BOption (b)

    1.007 g

  3. COption (c)

    0.336 g 

  4. DOption (d)

    0.441 g

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.336 g 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Faraday's Laws of Electrolysis

  • Faraday's first law of electrolysis states that the amount of substance deposited at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
  • The relationship can be expressed as:

m = (ItM)/(nF)

where m is the mass of the substance deposited, I is the current, t is the time, M is the molar mass of the substance, n is the number of electrons transferred per ion, and F is the Faraday constant.

EXPLANATION:

  • For the electrolysis of aluminium chloride (AlCl3), the reaction at the cathode is:

Al3+ + 3e- → Al

  • Given data:
  • Current (I) = 2A
  • Time (t) = 30 minutes = 30 × 60 = 1800 seconds
  • Molar mass of Aluminium (M) = 27 g mol-1
  • Faraday constant (F) = 96500 C mol-1
  • In the reaction, the number of electrons (n) transferred per ion is 3.
  • Using the formula:

m = (ItM)/(nF)

m = (2 × 1800 × 27)/(3 × 96500)

m = (97200)/(289500)

m = 0.336 g

Therefore, the amount of aluminium deposited at the cathode is 0.336 g.

Question 27

Which of the following statement is not true for radioactive decay ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Amount of radioactive substance remained after three half lives is 18\frac{1}{8}th of original amount.

  2. BOption (b)

    Decay constant does not depend upon temperature.

  3. COption (c)

    Decay constant increases with increase in temperature. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Half life is ln 2 times of 1 rate constant \frac{1}{\text { rate constant }}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Decay constant increases with increase in temperature. 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Radioactive Decay

  • Radioactive decay is a process by which the nucleus of an unstable atom loses energy by emitting radiation. The decay constant (λ) is a probability rate constant that quantifies the likelihood of decay of an atom per unit time.
  • Key characteristics of radioactive decay:
  • The decay constant (λ) is independent of temperature.
  • The half-life (t1/2) of a radioactive substance is the time required for half of the radioactive atoms to decay. The relationship between half-life and decay constant is given by:

t1/2 = ln(2) / λ

EXPLANATION:

  • Statement 1: Amount of radioactive substance remained after three half-lives is 1/8 of the original amount.
  • This is true. After one half-life, half of the original amount remains. After three half-lives, (1/2)3 = 1/8 of the original amount remains.
  • Statement 2: Decay constant does not depend upon temperature.
  • This is true. The decay constant is a fundamental property of the radioactive substance and is not affected by temperature.
  • Statement 3: Decay constant increases with increase in temperature.
  • This is not true. The decay constant is independent of temperature.
  • Statement 4: Half life is ln(2) times of 1/rate constant.
  • This is true. The half-life (t1/2) is given by t1/2 = ln(2) / λ, where λ is the decay constant.

Therefore, the statement that is not true for radioactive decay is: Decay constant increases with increase in temperature.

Question 28

How many different stereoisomers are possible for the given molecule ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Stereoisomers and Geometrical Isomerism

  • Stereoisomers are compounds that have the same molecular formula and connectivity of atoms but differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms.
  • Geometrical isomerism occurs in compounds with restricted rotation around a double bond or ring, resulting in cis-trans isomers.
  • Each chiral center or double bond contributes to possible isomerism.

EXPLANATION:

It has 4 stereoisomers [R cis R trans  ScisStrans]\left[\begin{array}{ll} \mathrm{R} \text { cis } & \mathrm{R} \text { trans } \ \mathrm{Scis} & \mathrm{Strans} \end{array}\right]

  • Two factors contribute to stereoisomerism here:
  • The double bond between the third and fourth carbon introduces cis and trans isomers.
  • The chiral carbon (second carbon with -CH3, -CH=CH-CH3, -OH, and -H as substituents) introduces R and S configurations.
  • Combining these, the molecule can exhibit the following configurations:
  • Cis with R configuration
  • Cis with S configuration
  • Trans with R configuration
  • Trans with S configuration
  • Hence, the molecule has 4 possible stereoisomers.

Therefore, the total number of stereoisomers for the given molecule is 4.

Question 29

Which of the following electronegativity order is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Al < Mg < B < N 

  2. BOption (b)

    Al < Si < C < N

  3. COption (c)

    Mg < Be < B < N

  4. DOption (d)

    S < Cl < O < F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Al < Mg < B < N 

Why this answer is correct

EXPLANATION:​.

Electronegativity

  • Electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. The Pauling scale is the most commonly used scale for electronegativity.
  • The electronegativity values (on the Pauling scale) for some elements are as follows:
  • | | Li | Be | B | C | N | O | F | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | (E.N.) = On pauling scale | 1 | 1.5 | 2 | 2.5 | 3 | 3.5 | 4.0 |

For elements in the second period and third period:

  • | | Na | Mg | Al | Si | P | S | Cl | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | (E.N.) = | 0.9 | 1.2 | 1.5 | 1.8 | 2.1 | 2.5 | 3.0
    |

 

Therefore, the electronegativity order that is incorrect is: Al < Mg < B < N

Question 30

Lanthanoid ions with 4f7 configuration are :

(A) Eu2+

(B) Gd3+

(C) Eu3+

(D) Tb3+

(E) Sm2+

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (C) only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (B) only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Electronic Configuration of Lanthanoids

  • Lanthanoids are a series of 15 elements from lanthanum (La) to lutetium (Lu) in the periodic table, characterized by the filling of the 4f orbitals.
  • The general electron configuration of lanthanoids is [Xe] 4fn 5dx 6s2.
  • The common oxidation states of lanthanoids include +2, +3, and sometimes +4.
  • Key electron configurations:
  • Europium (Eu): [Xe] 4f7 6s2
  • Gadolinium (Gd): [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
  • Terbium (Tb): [Xe] 4f9 6s2
  • Samarium (Sm): [Xe] 4f6 6s2

EXPLANATION:

  • To determine which ions have a 4f7 configuration, we must consider the electron loss when forming the given ions:
  • Europium (Eu):
  • Eu2+: [Xe] 4f7 (Loses 2 electrons from 6s2)
  • Eu3+: [Xe] 4f6 (Loses 2 electrons from 6s2 and 1 electron from 4f7)
  • Gadolinium (Gd):
  • Gd3+: [Xe] 4f7 (Loses 2 electrons from 6s2 and 1 electron from 5d1)
  • Terbium (Tb):
  • Tb3+: [Xe] 4f8 (Loses 2 electrons from 6s2 and 1 electron from 4f9)
  • Samarium (Sm):
  • Sm2+: [Xe] 4f6 (Loses 2 electrons from 6s2)

Therefore, the lanthanoid ions with a 4f7 configuration are Eu2+ and Gd3+.

Question 31

Match List-I with List-II 

List-IList-II
(A)Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F–(I)Ionisation Enthalpy
(B)B < C < O < N(II)Metallic character
(C)B < Al < Mg < K(III)Electronegativity
(D)Si < P < S < Cl(IV)Ionic radii
  1. AOption (a)

    A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 

  2. BOption (b)

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  3. COption (c)

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

  4. DOption (d)

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Why this answer is correct

EXPLANATION:

Trends in the Periodic Table

  • Ionic Radii: The size of the ionic radii decreases as the positive charge of the ion increases.
  • Order: Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F-
  • Ionisation Enthalpy: The energy required to remove an electron from an atom in its gaseous state. It generally increases across a period from left to right.
  • Order: B < C < O < N
  • Metallic Character: The degree to which an element exhibits metallic properties, which decreases across a period and increases down a group.
  • Order: B < Al < Mg < K
  • Electronegativity: The tendency of an atom to attract electrons in a chemical bond. It generally increases across a period from left to right.
  • Order: Si < P < S < Cl
List-IList-II
(A) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F-(IV) Ionic Radii
(B) B < C < O < N(I) Ionisation Enthalpy
(C) B < Al < Mg < K(II) Metallic Character
(D) Si < P < S < Cl(III) Electronegativity

The correct matching is  A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 32

Which of the following acids is a vitamin ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Adipic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Aspartic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Ascorbic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Saccharic acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ascorbic acid

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Vitamins and their Chemical Names

  • Vitamins are essential nutrients required by the body to function properly. Each vitamin has a specific chemical name.
  • Ascorbic acid is the chemical name for Vitamin C.

EXPLANATION:

  • Adipic acid: This is not a vitamin, but a dicarboxylic acid commonly used in the production of nylon.
  • Aspartic acid: This is not a vitamin, but an amino acid involved in the synthesis of proteins.
  • Ascorbic acid: This is Vitamin C, an essential nutrient for the repair of tissues and the enzymatic production of certain neurotransmitters.
  • Saccharic acid: This is not a vitamin, but an oxidized derivative of glucose.

Therefore, the acid that is a vitamin is ascorbic acid (Vitamin C).

The correct answer is: (3) Ascorbic acid

Question 33

A liquid when kept inside a thermally insulated closed vessel at 25°C was mechanically stirred from outside. What will be the correct option for the following thermodynamic parameters ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ΔU > 0, q = 0, w > 0

  2. BOption (b)

    ΔU = 0, q = 0, w = 0

  3. COption (c)

    ΔU < 0, q = 0, w > 0

  4. DOption (d)

    ΔU = 0, q < 0, w > 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ΔU > 0, q = 0, w > 0

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

First Law of Thermodynamics

  • The first law of thermodynamics states that the change in internal energy (ΔU) of a system is equal to the heat added to the system (q) plus the work done on the system (w):
  • ΔU = q + w
  • In a thermally insulated (adiabatic) system, there is no heat exchange with the surroundings, so:
  • q = 0
  • When work is done on the system (for example, by mechanically stirring the liquid), the work done (w) is positive, which increases the internal energy (ΔU) of the system.

EXPLANATION:

  • Since the vessel is thermally insulated, there is no heat exchange with the surroundings:
  • q = 0
  • The work is done on the liquid by mechanically stirring it, so:
  • w > 0
  • According to the first law of thermodynamics:
  • ΔU = q + w
  • Since q = 0, we have ΔU = w
  • When w > 0, ΔU > 0

Therefore, the correct option for the thermodynamic parameters is  ΔU > 0, q = 0, w > 0​

Question 34

Radius of the first excited state of Helium ion is given as :

a0 → radius of first stationary state of hydrogen atom.

  1. AOption (a)

    r=a02r=\frac{a_{0}}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    r=a04r=\frac{a_{0}}{4}

  3. COption (c)

    r = 4a0

  4. DOption (d)

    r = 2a0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

r = 2a0

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Bohr's Model of the Atom

  • In Bohr's model, the radius of the ( n )th orbit of an atom is given by:
  • rn=n2a0Zr_n = \frac{n^2 a_0}{Z}
  • where:
  • ( rn ) = radius of the ( n )th orbit
  • ( a0 ) = Bohr radius (radius of the first stationary state of the hydrogen atom)
  • ( n ) = principal quantum number
  • ( Z ) = atomic number of the element
  • For the first excited state, ( n = 2 ).

APPLICATION TO HELIUM ION (He+):

  • For the Helium ion (He+), the atomic number ( Z ) is 2.
  • For the first excited state, ( n = 2 ).
  • Substituting these values into the formula for the radius:
  • r=n2a0Z =(2)2a02 =4a02 =2a0r = \frac{n^2 a_0}{Z} \ = \frac{(2)^2 a_0}{2} \ = \frac{4 a_0}{2} \ = 2 a_0

Therefore, the radius of the first excited state of the Helium ion is r = 2a0

Question 35

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : CH3 – O – CH2 – Cl will undergo SN1 reaction though it is a primary halide. 

Statement II : 

 will not undergo SN2 reaction very easily though it is a primary halide.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

SN1 and SN2 Reactions

  • SN1 Mechanism: This is a two-step mechanism where the rate-determining step involves the formation of a carbocation intermediate. It is favored by:
  • Stable carbocations (tertiary > secondary > primary).
  • Polar protic solvents.
  • SN2 Mechanism: This is a single-step mechanism involving a backside attack by the nucleophile. It is favored by:
  • Less steric hindrance (methyl > primary > secondary; tertiary is unfavorable).
  • Polar aprotic solvents.

EXPLANATION:

CH3 – O – CH2 – Cl will undergo SN1 mechanism because \(\mathrm{CH}{3}-\mathrm{O}-\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}{2}\)  is highly stable. 

  • Statement I: CH3–O–CH2–Cl undergoes the SN1 mechanism even though it is a primary halide because the intermediate carbocation (CH3–O–CH2+) formed is stabilized by resonance with the oxygen atom.
  • Statement II: CH3–C(CH3)2–CH2–Cl (neopentyl chloride) does not undergo the SN2 mechanism easily due to significant steric hindrance around the reactive center, which obstructs the nucleophilic backside attack.
  • Both statements are correct based on the mechanisms and the structural properties of the molecules.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 36

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : One mole of propyne reacts with excess of sodium to liberate half a mole of H2 gas.

Statement II : Four g of propyne reacts with NaNH2 to liberate NH3 gas which occupies 224 mL at STP.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Reactions of Propyne with Sodium and Sodium Amide

  • When alkynes react with metallic sodium in the presence of liquid ammonia, they release hydrogen gas. The number of moles of H2 gas liberated depends on the available acidic hydrogen atoms in the molecule.
  • Reaction with sodium amide (NaNH2) leads to the formation of a sodium salt of the alkyne and releases ammonia (NH3) gas. This reaction is used to identify terminal alkynes.

EXPLANATION:

  • Statement I: One mole of propyne (CH3–C≡CH) reacts with an excess of sodium (Na) to liberate 0.5 moles of hydrogen gas (H2), as each terminal hydrogen in the alkyne contributes to the reaction. This statement is correct.
  • Statement II: Four grams of propyne contain 0.1 moles of propyne (molecular weight = 40 g/mol). When reacted with NaNH2, this amount of propyne will release 0.1 moles of NH3 gas, which occupies 2240 mL at STP (not 224 mL as stated). Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • 440=0.1 mole 0.1 mole2240 mole\frac{4}{40}=0.1 \text { mole } \quad \frac{0.1 \mathrm{~mole}}{2240 \mathrm{~mole}}
  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Therefore, Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Question 37

A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of CO2 is converted into CO on addition of graphite. If total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, then KP is :

  1. AOption (a)

    0.18 atm

  2. BOption (b)

    1.8 atm

  3. COption (c)

    0.3 atm

  4. DOption (d)

    3 atm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.8 atm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Equilibrium Constant (KP) for Gas Reactions

  • The equilibrium constant, KP, is calculated using the partial pressures of the gases involved in the reaction at equilibrium.
  • For a reaction:

aA(g) + bB(g) ⇌ cC(g) + dD(g)

KP = (PC)c (PD)d / (PA)a (PB)b

where P represents the partial pressure of the gases at equilibrium.

  • Pure solids and liquids do not appear in the expression for KP.

EXPLANATION:

  • The given reaction is:

CO2(g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g)

  • CO2 is the reactant gas.
  • Graphite (C) is a solid and does not appear in KP expression.
  • CO is the product gas.
  • Initial pressure of CO2 is 0.5 atm.
  • Let 'x' be the pressure change due to the conversion of CO2 to CO at equilibrium:
  • Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium: (0.5 - x) atm
  • Pressure of CO at equilibrium: 2x atm
  • CO2( g)+C( s)⇌2CO( g) 0.5− 0.5−x2x\begin{array}{lc} \mathrm{CO}_{2}(\mathrm{~g})+\mathrm{C}(\mathrm{~s}) & \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{CO}(\mathrm{~g}) \ 0.5 & - \ 0.5-\mathrm{x} & 2 \mathrm{x} \end{array}
  • Given: Total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm:
  • (0.5 - x) + 2x = 0.8
  • Solving for x: 0.5 + x = 0.8
  • x = 0.3
  • Equilibrium pressures:
  • PCO2 = 0.5 - 0.3 = 0.2 atm
  • PCO = 2(0.3) = 0.6 atm
  • Plugging these values into the KP expression:
  • KP = (PCO)2 / (PCO2)
  • KP = (0.6)]2 / 0.2
  • KP = 0.36 / 0.2
  • KP = 1.8 atm

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.8 atm

Question 38

The IUPAC name of the following compound is :​

  1. AOption (a)

    2-Carboxy-5-methoxycarbonylhexane.

  2. BOption (b)

    Methyl-6-carboxy-2,5-dimethylhexanoate.

  3. COption (c)

    Methyl-5-carboxy-2-methylhexanoate.

  4. DOption (d)

    6-Methoxycarbonyl-2,5-dimethylhexanoic acid.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6-Methoxycarbonyl-2,5-dimethylhexanoic acid.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

IUPAC Nomenclature of Organic Compounds

  • The IUPAC name of a compound is determined based on the longest carbon chain containing the principal functional group.
  • Priority is given to functional groups in the following order: carboxylic acid (-COOH) > ester (-COOR) > ketone (-C=O) > alcohol (-OH) > amine (-NH2) > alkene > alkyne > alkane.
  • Substituents are named and numbered to give the lowest possible position numbers to the functional groups and substituents.

EXPLANATION:

  • The given compound contains two functional groups:
  • A carboxylic acid (-COOH) group, which has the highest priority.
  • An ester group (-COOCH3) as a substituent.
  • The longest carbon chain containing the carboxylic acid group has six carbons (hexane). The main chain is numbered from the carboxylic acid carbon to give substituents the lowest possible numbers.
  • The substituents on the chain are:
  • A methoxycarbonyl (-COOCH3) group at position 6.
  • Methyl groups at positions 2 and 5.
  • The compound's name is written as: 6-Methoxycarbonyl-2,5-dimethylhexanoic acid.

Therefore, the IUPAC name of the compound is: 6-Methoxycarbonyl-2,5-dimethylhexanoic acid.

Question 39

Which of the following electrolyte can be sued to obtain H2S2O8 by the process of electrolysis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dilute solution of sodium sulphate

  2. BOption (b)

    Dilute solution of sulphuric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Concentrated solution of sulphuric acid 

  4. DOption (d)

    Acidified dilute solution of sodium sulphate.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Concentrated solution of sulphuric acid 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Electrolysis of Sulfuric Acid

  • During electrolysis, an electrolyte is decomposed into its constituent ions through the application of an electrical current.
  • H2S2O8 (peroxodisulfuric acid) can be produced by the electrolysis of concentrated sulfuric acid solutions.
  • At the anode, the half-reaction is:

2 HSO4- → H2S2O8 + 2e-

EXPLANATION:

  • To efficiently produce H2S2O8, a concentrated solution of sulfuric acid is required because:
  • In a concentrated solution, the concentration of HSO4- ions is high enough to facilitate the formation of peroxodisulfuric acid at the anode.
  • Dilute solutions of sulfuric acid or sodium sulfate do not provide the necessary ion concentrations for this reaction.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (3) Concentrated solution of sulfuric acid.

Question 40

The compounds which give positive Fehling’s test are : 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) HOCH2–CO–(CHOH)3–CH2–OH

(D) 

(E) 

Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D) and (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D) and (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C), (D) and (E) Only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Fehling's Test

  • Fehling's test is used to detect the presence of reducing sugars and aldehydes.
  • Compounds with an aldehyde group (-CHO) or α-hydroxy ketones give a positive Fehling's test, resulting in the formation of a red precipitate of cuprous oxide (Cu2O).
  • Ketones and aromatic aldehydes (like benzaldehyde) generally do not give a positive Fehling's test.

EXPLANATION:

  • Compound (A): Benzaldehyde (C6H5CHO) is an aromatic aldehyde and does not give a positive Fehling's test.
  • Compound (B): Acetophenone (C6H5COCH3) is a ketone and does not give a positive Fehling's test.
  • Compound (C): Glucose derivative (HOCH2–CO–(CHOH)3–CH2OH) contains an α-hydroxy aldehyde functional group and gives a positive Fehling's test.
  • Compound (D): Propionaldehyde (CH3CH2CHO) is an aliphatic aldehyde and gives a positive Fehling's test.
  • Compound (E): Phenylacetaldehyde (C6H5CH2CHO) is an aliphatic aldehyde and gives a positive Fehling's test.

Therefore, the compounds (C), (D), and (E) give a positive Fehling's test.

Question 41

In which of the following complexes the CFSE, Δ0 will be equal to zero?

  1. AOption (a)

    [Fe(NH3)6]Br2

  2. BOption (b)

    [Fe(en)3]Cl3

  3. COption (c)

    K4[Fe(CN)6]

  4. DOption (d)

    K3[Fe(SCN)6]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

K3[Fe(SCN)6]

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE)

  • CFSE is the energy difference between the energy of an electron configuration in the ligand field and in an isotropic field.
  • It depends on:
  • The splitting of d-orbitals (t2g and eg) in the crystal field.
  • The number of electrons in these orbitals.
  • CFSE is calculated as:

CFSE = [(number of electrons in t2g) × (-0.4Δ0)] + [(number of electrons in eg) × (+0.6Δ0)]

EXPLANATION:

For complex K3 [Fe(SCN)6] 

Calculation of CFSE

= (–0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 2) Δ0

= 0 Δ0

  • [Fe(NH3)6]Br2:
  • Fe2+ (d6) forms a high-spin complex due to NH3 being a weak field ligand. This results in CFSE ≠ 0.
  • [Fe(en)3]Cl3:
  • Fe3+ (d5) forms a low-spin complex due to en (ethylenediamine) being a strong field ligand. CFSE ≠ 0.
  • K4[Fe(CN)6]:
  • Fe2+ (d6) forms a low-spin complex due to CN- being a strong field ligand. CFSE ≠ 0.
  • K3[Fe(SCN)6]:
  • SCN- is a weak field ligand, and Fe3+ (d5) forms a high-spin complex. The electron configuration is t2g3 eg2, resulting in:
  • CFSE = [-0.4(3) + 0.6(2)]Δ0
  • CFSE = 0

Therefore, in K3[Fe(SCN)6], the CFSE (Δ0) is equal to zero.

Question 42

Arrange the following solutions in order of their increasing boiling points.

(i) 10–4 M NaCl

(ii) 10–4 M Urea

(iii) 10–3 M NaCl

(iv) 10–2 M NaCl

  1. AOption (a)

    (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (ii) < (i) ≅ (iii) < (iv) 

  3. COption (c)

    (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

  4. DOption (d)

    (iv) < (iii) < (i) < (ii) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Boiling Point Elevation

  • The boiling point elevation (ΔTb) of a solution is directly proportional to the molal concentration (m) of the solute and the van't Hoff factor (i).
  • The formula is given by:

ΔTb = i × Kb × m

where Kb is the ebullioscopic constant of the solvent.

  • For ionic compounds, the van't Hoff factor (i) represents the number of particles the compound dissociates into in solution.
  • For non-electrolytes like urea, i = 1.

EXPLANATION:

ΔTb = i Kb . m . ∝ i.C.

where C = concentration 

Optionsi.C.
(i)2 × 10–4
(ii)1 × 10–4
(iii)2 × 10–3
(iv)2 × 10–2

 

B.P. order (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)

Therefore, the correct answer is (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv).

Question 43

The products formed in the following reaction sequence are : 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Aromatic Substitution and Diazotization

  • Bromination in AcOH: Bromine in acetic acid selectively introduces a bromine atom at the para position relative to the nitro group (-NO2) due to its electron-withdrawing nature.
  • Reduction: The nitro group (-NO2) is reduced to an amino group (-NH2) using Sn and HCl.
  • Diazotization: Amino groups react with NaNO2 and HCl at low temperatures (273 K) to form diazonium salts (-N2+).
  • Reaction with Ethanol: Diazonium salts react with ethanol (EtOH) to form aldehydes, specifically acetaldehyde (CH3CHO), as a product of the Etard reaction mechanism.

EXPLANATION:

  • Step 1: Bromination
  • The nitrobenzene reacts with Br2 in acetic acid (AcOH) to produce para-bromo nitrobenzene.
  • Step 2: Reduction
  • Para-bromo nitrobenzene is reduced with Sn and HCl to form para-bromo aniline (p-bromoaniline).
  • Step 3: Diazotization
  • p-Bromoaniline reacts with NaNO2 and HCl at 273 K to form para-bromo benzene diazonium chloride.
  • Step 4: Reaction with Ethanol
  • The diazonium salt reacts with ethanol (EtOH), forming para-bromo benzene and acetaldehyde (CH3CHO).

Therefore, the products formed are para-bromo benzene and acetaldehyde (CH3CHO).

Question 44

From the magnetic behaviour of [NiCl4]2– (paramagnetic) and [Ni(CO)4] (diamagnetic), choose the correct geometry and oxidation state.

  1. AOption (a)

    [NiCl4]2– : NiII, square planar

    [Ni(CO)4] : Ni(0), square planar

  2. BOption (b)

    [NiCl4]2–  : NiII, tetrahedral

    [Ni(CO)4] : Ni(0), tetrahedral

  3. COption (c)

    [NiCl4]2–  : NiII, tetrahedral

    [Ni(CO)4]  : NiII, square planar

  4. DOption (d)

    [NiCl4]2–  : Ni(0), tetrahedral

    [Ni(CO)4]  : Ni(0), square planar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

[NiCl4]2–  : NiII, tetrahedral

[Ni(CO)4] : Ni(0), tetrahedral

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Magnetic Behaviour and Geometries

  • The magnetic behaviour of a complex can often be used to infer its geometry and the oxidation state of the central metal ion.
  • [NiCl4]2−:
  • Ni2+ has the electronic configuration [Ar] 3d8.
  • In a tetrahedral field, the 3d orbitals do not experience significant splitting, retaining unpaired electrons and leading to a paramagnetic nature.
  • This suggests a tetrahedral geometry.
  • [Ni(CO)4]:
  • Ni in zero oxidation state (Ni(0)) has the electronic configuration [Ar] 3d10.
  • In a tetrahedral field, the d orbitals become fully paired in the presence of strong field ligands (like CO), leading to a diamagnetic nature.
  • This suggests a tetrahedral geometry.

EXPLANATION:

  • [NiCl4]2−:
  • Oxidation state of Ni is +2.
  • Ni2+ electronic configuration: [Ar] 3d8.
  • If the geometry is tetrahedral, the hybridization is sp3.
  • With 2 unpaired electrons, it exhibits paramagnetism.
  • [Ni(CO)4]:
  • Oxidation state of Ni is 0.
  • Ni(0) electronic configuration: [Ar] 3d10.
  • If the geometry is tetrahedral, the hybridization is sp3.
  • With no unpaired electrons, it exhibits diamagnetism.

Therefore, the correct answer is [NiCl4]2−: Ni2+, tetrahedral, [Ni(CO)4]: Ni(0), tetrahedral

Question 45

The incorrect statements regarding geometrical isomerism are :

(A) Propene shows geometrical isomerism.

(B) Trans isomer has identical atoms/groups on the opposite sides of the double bond.

(C) Cis-but-2-ene has higher dipole moment than trans-but-2-ene.

(D) 2-methylbut-2-ene shows two geometrical isomers.

(E) Trans-isomer has lower melting point that cis isomer.

Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (D) and (E) only 

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (D) and (E) only 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Geometrical Isomerism

  • Geometrical isomerism (cis-trans isomerism) occurs in compounds with restricted rotation around a double bond or in cyclic structures.
  • Cis-isomer: Identical groups are on the same side of the double bond.
  • Trans-isomer: Identical groups are on opposite sides of the double bond.
  • Properties such as dipole moment and melting point differ for cis and trans isomers:
  • Cis-isomers usually have higher dipole moments due to group orientation.
  • Trans-isomers generally have higher melting points due to better packing in the solid state.

EXPLANATION:

  • (A) Propene does not show geometrical isomerism:
  • Geometrical isomerism requires two different groups on each carbon of the double bond, which propene (CH3–CH=CH2) lacks.

Incorrect

  • (B) Trans-isomer has identical groups on opposite sides:
  • This is true; geometrical isomers differ based on the position of groups around the double bond.

Correct

  • (C) Cis-but-2-ene has a higher dipole moment than trans-but-2-ene:

(dipole moment only)

  • In cis-isomer, the dipoles of substituent groups add up, while in trans-isomer, the dipoles cancel out.

Correct

  • (D) 2-Methylbut-2-ene shows two geometrical isomers:

 (does not show GI) 

  • This is incorrect as 2-methylbut-2-ene does not have two different groups on each carbon of the double bond.

Incorrect

  • (E) Trans-isomer has a lower melting point than cis-isomer:

 (Melting point) 

  • Trans-isomers generally have a higher melting point due to better packing in the solid state.

Incorrect

Therefore, the incorrect statements are: (A), (D), and (E).

Chemistry Section B (5 questions)

Question 46

Some CO2 gas was kept in a sealed container at a pressure of 1 atm and at 273 K. This entire amount of CO2 gas was later passed through an aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2. The excess unreacted Ca(OH)2 was later neutralized with 0.1 M of 40 mL HCl. If the volume of the sealed container of CO2 was x, then x is _____ cm3 (nearest integer).

[Given : The entire amount of CO2 (g) reacted with exactly half the initial amount of Ca(OH)2 present in the aqueous solution.]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 45Answer: 45

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The volume of CO2 gas can be determined using the moles of CO2 gas in the sealed container.
  • The number of moles of CO2 is derived from the neutralization of the unreacted excess Ca(OH)2 with HCl.

EXPLANATION:

  • Let moles of CO2 be n .
  • Since the entire amount of CO2 reacts with exactly half the initial amount of Ca(OH)2, the initial moles of Ca(OH)2 must be 2n .
  • The excess Ca(OH)2 remaining would then be n moles.
  • The gram equivalents of Ca(OH)2 remaining must equal the gram equivalents of HCl used to neutralize it.
  • n x 2 = 0.1 x 40/1000 ×1\times 1

2n = 0.004

n = 0.002

  • Setting up the equation:
  • This simplifies to:

The moles of CO2 gas is 0.002 moles.

Using the molar volume of an ideal gas (22,400 cm3 at STP):

0.002×22,400=44.8 cm30.002 \times 22,400 = 44.8 \text{ cm}^3

  • Volume of CO2:
  • Nearest integer: 45 cm3

Therefore, the volume of CO2 is 45 cm3

Question 47

In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 180 mg of an organic compound produced 143.5 mg of AgCl. The percentage composition of chlorine in the compound is _______ %.

[Given : molar mass in g mol–1 of Ag : 108, Cl = 35.5]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 20Answer: 20

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Carius Method for Estimation of Halogens

  • In this method, an organic compound containing halogens is treated with silver nitrate to form silver halide precipitate.
  • The mass of silver halide is used to determine the amount of halogen present in the organic compound.

EXPLANATION:

  • Mass of organic compound = 180 mg = 0.18 g
  • Mass of AgCl produced = 143.5 mg = 0.1435 g
  • Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol
  • Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g/mol
  • Molar mass of AgCl = 108 + 35.5 = 143.5 g/mol

To find the moles of AgCl produced:

  • n(AgCl) = mass / molar mass
  • n(AgCl) = 0.1435 g / 143.5 g/mol
  • n(AgCl) = 0.001 mol

Since 1 mol of AgCl contains 1 mole of Cl:

  • n(Cl) = n(AgCl) = 0.001 mol

Mass of Cl in the compound:

  • mass(Cl) = n(Cl) × molar mass of Cl
  • mass(Cl) = 0.001 mol × 35.5 g/mol
  • mass(Cl) = 0.0355 g = 35.5 mg

Percentage of Cl in the compound:

  • %Cl = (mass(Cl) / mass of organic compound) × 100
  • %Cl = (35.5 mg / 180 mg) × 100
  • %Cl ≈ 19.72%

Rounding to the nearest specified range:

  • The percentage composition of chlorine in the compound is 20%

Question 48

The number of molecules/ions that show linear geometry among the following is _______ . 

\(\mathrm{SO}{2}, \mathrm{BeCl}{2}, \mathrm{CO}{2}, \mathrm{~N}{3}^{-}, \mathrm{NO}{2}, \mathrm{~F}{2} \mathrm{O}, \mathrm{XeF}{2}, \mathrm{NO}{2}^{+}, \mathrm{I}{3}^{-}, \mathrm{O}{3}\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 6Answer: 6

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Linear Geometry

  • Linear geometry occurs when the bond angle between atoms is 180°.
  • Linear molecules or ions are typically formed when:
  • The central atom has no lone pairs and is surrounded by two bonding domains (sp hybridization).
  • The central atom has lone pairs but achieves a linear shape due to symmetric electron distribution (e.g., sp3d hybridization).

EXPLANATION:

  • BeCl2: Linear geometry due to sp hybridization (Cl–Be–Cl).

  • CO2: Linear geometry due to sp hybridization (O=C=O).

  • N3−: Linear geometry due to sp hybridization (N=N=N).

  • XeF2: Linear geometry due to sp3d hybridization (F–Xe–F, with three lone pairs in equatorial positions).

  • NO2+: Linear geometry due to sp hybridization (O=N=O).

  • I3−: Linear geometry due to sp3d hybridization (I–I–I, with three lone pairs in equatorial positions).

  • Other species such as SO2, NO2, and O3 have bent geometries.

Therefore, the number of species with linear geometry is 6: BeCl2, CO2, N3−, XeF2, NO2+, and I3−.

Question 49

A → B

The molecule A changes into its isomeric form B by following a first order kinetics at a temperature of 1000 K. If the energy barrier with respect to reactant energy for such isomeric transformation is 191.48 kJ mol–1 and the frequency factor is 1020, the time required for 50%, molecules of A to become B is ______ picoseconds (nearest integer).

[R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 69Answer: 69

Why this answer is correct

Ans. (69)  

Sol.

t1/2=0.693Kt_{1 / 2}=\frac{0.693}{K}​

K = Ae–Ea/RT

= 1020×e−191.48×1038.314×100010^{20} \times \mathrm{e}^{-\frac{191.48 \times 10^{3}}{8.314 \times 1000}}

= 1020 × e–23.031 = 1020 × – eln 10 × 10

= 10201010=1010sec.\frac{10^{20}}{10^{10}}=10^{10} \mathrm{sec} .

t1/2=0.6931010=6.93×10−11\mathrm{t}_{1 / 2}=\frac{0.693}{10^{10}}=6.93 \times 10^{-11}

= 69.3 × 10–12 sec

CONCEPT:

First Order Kinetics

  • The time required for half of the reactant to convert to product (half-life, t1/2) can be determined using the rate constant (k).
  • The Arrhenius equation relates the rate constant to the temperature and activation energy: k=Ae−EaRTk = A e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}}

EXPLANATION:

  • Given:
  • Activation energy, Ea = 191.48 kJ/mol = 191,480 J/mol
  • Frequency factor, A = 1020 s−1
  • Temperature, T = 1000 K
  • Universal gas constant, R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1

We first solve for the rate constant (k) using the Arrhenius equation:

  • k=Ae−EaRT k=1020e−191,4808.314⋅1000 k=1020e−191.488.314 k=1020e−23.031 e−23.031≈10−10(sinceln(10)≈2.303,resultcloselymatches10−10) k=1020⋅10−10 k=1010 s−1k = A e^{-\frac{E_a}{RT}} \ k = 10^{20} e^{-\frac{191,480}{8.314 \cdot 1000}} \ k = 10^{20} e^{-\frac{191.48}{8.314}} \ k = 10^{20} e^{-23.031} \ e^{-23.031} \approx 10^{-10} (since ln(10) \approx 2.303 , result closely matches 10^{-10} ) \ k = 10^{20} \cdot 10^{-10} \ k = 10^{10} \text{ s}^{-1}

Using the rate constant to find the half-life (t1/2) for first-order kinetics:

  • t1/2=0.693k t1/2=0.6931010 s−1 t1/2=6.93×10−11 st_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{k} \ t_{1/2} = \frac{0.693}{10^{10} \text{ s}^{-1}} \ t_{1/2} = 6.93 \times 10^{-11} \text{ s}
  • Converting to picoseconds (1 s = 1012 ps): t1/2=6.93×10−11 s×1012psst_{1/2} = 6.93 \times 10^{-11} \text{ s} \times 10^{12} \frac{\text{ps}}{\text{s}}
  • t1/2=69.3 pst_{1/2} = 69.3 \text{ ps}

Rounding to the nearest specified range:

  • The time required for 50% of molecules of A to become B is 69 picoseconds

Question 50

Consider the following sequence of reactions : 

Molar mass of the product formed (A) is ________g mol–1.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 154Answer: 154

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Reaction Mechanism Involving Reduction, Diazotization, and Sandmeyer Reaction

  • The given sequence of reactions involves multiple steps:
  • Reduction: The nitro group (-NO2) is reduced to an amino group (-NH2) using Sn and HCl.
  • Diazotization: The amino group is converted into a diazonium salt (-N2+) using NaNO2 and HCl at 0-5°C.
  • Sandmeyer Reaction: The diazonium salt reacts with Cu2Cl2, replacing the diazonium group with a chlorine atom.
  • Wurtz Coupling: Chlorobenzene undergoes a reaction with sodium in ether to form biphenyl.

EXPLANATION:

  • Step 1: Reduction
  • Benzene with a nitro group (C6H5NO2) reacts with Sn and HCl to form aniline (C6H5NH2).
  • Step 2: Diazotization
  • Aniline reacts with NaNO2 and HCl at 0-5°C to form benzene diazonium chloride (C6H5N2Cl).
  • Step 3: Sandmeyer Reaction
  • Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with Cu2Cl2 to form chlorobenzene (C6H5Cl).
  • Step 4: Wurtz Coupling
  • Chlorobenzene reacts with sodium in ether to form biphenyl (C6H5–C6H5).

Molar mass of biphenyl (C12H10)

  • Carbon (C): 12 atoms × 12 g/mol = 144 g/mol
  • Hydrogen (H): 10 atoms × 1 g/mol = 10 g/mol
  • Total molar mass = 144 + 10 = 154 g/mol

Therefore, the molar mass of the product (A) is 154 g/mol.

Physics Section A (20 questions)

Question 51

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In a vernier callipers, one vernier scale division is always smaller than one main scale division.

Statement II : The vernier constant is given by one main scale division multiplied by the number of vernier scale division.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Vernier Caliper

  • Vernier Caliper is a precision instrument that can be used to measure internal and external distances accurately.
  • A vernier caliper consists of two main parts:
  • the main scale engraved on a solid L-shaped frame and the vernier scale that can slide along the main scale.
  • It works on the principle of vernier and can measure the dimensions to an accuracy of 0.02 mm.

Parts of a Vernier caliper:

  • Outside jaws: Used to measure the external diameter or width of an object
  • Inside jaws: Used to measure the internal diameter of an object
  • Locking screw: to lock the jaws
  • Adjusting screw: to take an accurate measurement of the workpiece.

 

Explanation:

In general one vernier scale division is smaller than one main scale division but in some modified cases it may be not correct.

Also least count is given by one main scale division / number of vernier scale division for normal vernier calliper.

Question 52

A line charge of length ′a′2\frac{\mathrm{'a'}}{2} is kept at the center of an edge BC of a cube ABCDEFGH having edge length ‘a’ as shown in the figure. If the density of line is λC per unit length, then the total electric flux through all the faces of the cube will be ____. (Take, ∈0 as the free space permittivity) 

  1. AOption (a)

    λa8∈0\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{8 \in_{0}}

  2. BOption (b)

    λa16ϵ0\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{16 \epsilon_{0}}

  3. COption (c)

    λa2ϵ0\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{2 \epsilon_{0}}

  4. DOption (d)

    λa4∈0\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{4 \in_{0}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

λa8∈0\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{8 \in_{0}}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total charge inside the cube

= λa24=λa8\frac{\lambda \frac{\mathrm{a}}{2}}{4}=\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{8}

∴ \(\phi=\frac{\mathrm{q}{\mathrm{in}}}{\varepsilon{0}}=\frac{\lambda \mathrm{a}}{8 \varepsilon_{0}}\)

Question 53

Sliding contact of a potentiometer is in the middle of the potentiometer wire having resistance RP = 1Ω as shown in the figure. An external resistance of Re = 2Ω is connected via the sliding contact. The curent through the circuit is

  1. AOption (a)

    0.3 A

  2. BOption (b)

    1.35 A

  3. COption (c)

    1.0 A

  4. DOption (d)

    0.9 A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.0 A

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

The circuit can be considered as 

∴ Req = 0.5 + 0.5×22+0.5=(510+1025)Ω\frac{0.5 \times 2}{2+0.5}=\left(\frac{5}{10}+\frac{10}{25}\right) \Omega

= 4550=910=0.9\frac{45}{50}=\frac{9}{10}=0.9

∴ i = 0.90.9=1 A\frac{0.9}{0.9}=1 \mathrm{~A}

Question 54

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in an optically denser medium than air, then the consecutive fringes come closer.

Reason (R) : The speed of light reduces in an optically denser medium than air while its frequency does not change.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is false but (R) is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is true but (R) is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Young's double-slit experiment

  • Young’s double-slit experiment helped in understanding the wave nature of light.
  • The original Young’s double-slit experiment used diffracted light from a single monochromatic source of light.
  • The light that comes from the monochromatic source is passed into two slits to be used as two coherent sources.
  • At any point on the screen at a distance ‘y’ from the center, the waves travel distances l1 and l2 to create a path difference of Δl at that point.
  • If there is a constructive interference on the point then the bright fringe occurs.
  • If there is a destructive interference on the point then the dark fringe occurs.
  • The distance of the nth bright fringe from the central fringe is given as,

⇒y=nλDd⇒ y=\frac{nλ D}{d}

Where d = distance between slits, D = distance between slits and screen, and λ = wavelength

​

Explanation:

β (fringe width) = λD d\frac{λ \mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{~d}}

In denser medium, λ ↓ ⇒ β ↓

⇒ fringe come closer 

Also, µ = cV\frac{c}{V}  ⇒ V = cμ\frac{c}{μ}

Frequency remains same, 

⇒ μ = λvac. fλmed f\frac{\lambda_{\text {vac. }} \mathrm{f}}{\lambda_{\text {med }} \mathrm{f}} ⇒ λmed \lambda_{\text {med }} = λvac.μ\frac{\lambda_{\mathrm{vac} .}}{\mu}

Question 55

Two spherical bodies of same materials having radii 0.2 m and 0.8 m are placed in same atmosphere. The temperature of the smaller body is 800 K and temperature of bigger body is 400 K. If the energy radiate from the smaller body is E, the energy radiated from the bigger body is (assume, effect of the surrounding to be negligible)

  1. AOption (a)

    256 E

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    64 E

  4. DOption (d)

    16 E 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

E

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

We know that

dθdt=σeAT4⇒P∝AT4\frac{\mathrm{d} \theta}{\mathrm{dt}}=\sigma \mathrm{eAT}^{4} \Rightarrow \mathrm{P} \propto \mathrm{AT}^{4}

\(\frac{\mathrm{P}{\text {smaller }}}{\mathrm{P}{\text {larger }}}=\frac{(0.2)^{2} \times 800^{4}}{(0.8)^{2} \times 400^{4}}\)

116×16=1\frac{1}{16} \times 16=1

∴ Plarger = Psmaller 

Question 56

An amount of ice of mass 10–3 kg and temperature –10°C is transformed to vapour of temperature 110° by applying heat. The total amount of work required for this conversion is,

(Take, specific heat of ice = 2100 Jkg–1K–1, specific heat of water = 4180 Jkg–1K–1, specific heat of steam = 1920 Jkg–1K–1, Latent heat of ice = 3.35 × 105 Jkg–1 and Latent heat of steam = 2.25 × 106 Jkg–1)

  1. AOption (a)

    3022 J

  2. BOption (b)

    3043 J

  3. COption (c)

    3003 J

  4. DOption (d)

    3024 J 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3043 J

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

ΔQ1=m×S1×ΔT=10−3×2100×10=21 J\rm\Delta Q_{1}=m \times S_{1} \times \Delta T=10^{-3} \times 2100 \times 10=21 \mathrm{~J}

\(\rm\Delta \mathrm{Q}{2}=\mathrm{m} \times \mathrm{L}{\mathrm{f}}=10^{-3} \times 3.35 \times 10^{5}=335 \mathrm{~J}\)

ΔQ3=m×Sw×ΔT=10−3×4180×100=418 J\rm\Delta Q_{3}=m \times S_{w} \times \Delta T=10^{-3} \times 4180 \times 100=418 \mathrm{~J}

\(\rm \Delta \mathrm{Q}{4}=\mathrm{m} \times \mathrm{L}{\mathrm{v}}=10^{-3} \times 2.25 \times 10^{6}=2250 \mathrm{~J}\)

ΔQ5=m×Sv×ΔT=10−3×1920×10=19.2 J\rm\Delta Q_{5}=\mathrm{m} \times \mathrm{S}_{\mathrm{v}} \times \Delta \mathrm{T}=10^{-3} \times 1920 \times 10=19.2 \mathrm{~J}

ΔQnet=3043.2 J\rm \Delta Q_{\mathrm{net}}=3043.2 \mathrm{~J}

Question 57

An electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom has the orbital radius of 5.3 × 10–11 m while that for the electron in third excited state is 8.48 × 10–10 m. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of electron in the ground state to that in excited state is

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

de Broglie wavelength:

  • Louis de Broglie theorized that not only light possesses both wave and particle properties, but rather particles with mass - such as electrons - do as well.
  • The wavelength of material waves is also known as the de Broglie wavelength.
  • de Broglie wavelength can be calculated from Planks constant h divided by the momentum of the particle.

λ=hmv\lambda = \frac {h}{mv}

where λ is de Broglie wavelength, h is Plank's constant, and mv is the momentum.

  • If different particles have the same velocity, then the wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of that particle.

Calculation:

λ=hmv\lambda=\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{mv}}

mvr=nh2π\mathrm{mvr}=\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}

mv=nh2πr\mathrm{mv}=\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi \mathrm{r}}

λ=2πrhnh\lambda=\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{rh}}{\mathrm{nh}}

λ∝rn\lambda \propto \frac{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{n}}

λ1λ4=r1n4n1r4=5.3×10−11×41×84.8×10−11\frac{\lambda_{1}}{\lambda_{4}}=\frac{r_{1} n_{4}}{n_{1} r_{4}}=\frac{5.3 \times 10^{-11} \times 4}{1 \times 84.8 \times 10^{-11}}

λ1λ4=14\frac{\lambda_{1}}{\lambda_{4}}=\frac{1}{4}

Question 58

In the diagram given below, there are three lenses formed. Considering negligible thickness of each of them as compared to [R1] and [R2], i.e., the radii of curvature for upper and lower surfaces of the glass lens, the power of the combination is 

  1. AOption (a)

    \(-\frac{1}{6}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}+\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)\)

  2. BOption (b)

    \(-\frac{1}{6}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)\)

  3. COption (c)

    \(\frac{1}{6}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}+\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)\)

  4. DOption (d)

    16(1∣R1∣−1∣R2∣)\frac{1}{6}\left(\frac{1}{\left|R_{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|R_{2}\right|}\right)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

\(-\frac{1}{6}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)\)

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

⇒ peq = p1 + p2 + p3  

⇒ p1 = (13∣R1∣)\left(\frac{1}{3\left|\mathrm{R}_{1}\right|}\right)

⇒ p2 = (12)(1−∣R1∣−1−∣R2∣)\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(\frac{1}{-\left|R_{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{-\left|R_{2}\right|}\right)

⇒ p2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}\right)\)

⇒ p3 = \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\left(\frac{1}{-\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}-\frac{1}{\infty}\right)=-\frac{1}{3\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\)

⇒ peq = \(\frac{1}{3}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)\)

=  \(-\frac{1}{6}\left(\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{1}\right|}-\frac{1}{\left|\mathrm{R}{2}\right|}\right)\)

Question 59

An electron is made to enters symmetrically between two parallel and equally but oppositely charged metal plates, each of 10 cm length. The electron emerges out of the field region with a horizontal component of velocity 106 m/s. If the magnitude of the electric between the plates is 9.1 V/cm, then the vertical component of velocity of electron is

(mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and charge of electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C)

  1. AOption (a)

    1 × 106 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    16 × 106 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    16 × 104 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16 × 104 m/s

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

⇒ t = ℓVx=10×10−2106=10−7\frac{\ell}{V_{x}}=\frac{10 × 10^{-2}}{10^{6}}=10^{-7}

⇒ Vy = uy + ayt

⇒ Vy = 0 + eE m×10−7\frac{\mathrm{eE}}{\mathrm{~m}} × 10^{-7}

⇒ Vy = 1.6×10−199.1×10−31×9.1×10−2×10−7\frac{1.6 × 10^{-19}}{9.1 × 10^{-31}} × 9.1 × 10^{-2} × 10^{-7}

⇒ Vy =  16 × 104

Question 60

Which of the following resistivity (ρ) v/s temperature (T) curves is most suitable to be used in wire bound standard resistors? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Resistivity is independent of temperature for wire-bound resistors

Question 61

A closed organ and an open organ tube filled by two different gases having same bulk modulus but different densities ρ1 and ρ2 respectively. The frequency of 9th harmonic of closed tube is identical with 4th harmonic of open tube. If the length of the closed tube is 10 cm and the density ratio of the gases is ρ1 : ρ2 = 1 : 16, then the length of the open tube is :

  1. AOption (a)

    207 cm\frac{20}{7} \mathrm{~cm}

  2. BOption (b)

    157 cm\frac{15}{7} \mathrm{~cm}

  3. COption (c)

    209 cm\frac{20}{9} \mathrm{~cm}

  4. DOption (d)

    159 cm\frac{15}{9} \mathrm{~cm}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

209 cm\frac{20}{9} \mathrm{~cm}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

9th harmonic of closed pipe = 9V14ℓ1\frac{9 V_{1}}{4 \ell_{1}}

4th harmonic of open pipe = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~V}{2}}{\ell{2}}\)

∴ \(\frac{9 \mathrm{~V}{1}}{4 \ell{1}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{~V}{2}}{\ell{2}}\)

∴ 94ℓ1 Bρ1=2ℓ2 Bρ2⇒ℓ2ℓ1=89ρ1ρ2\frac{9}{4 \ell_{1}} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{~B}}{\rho_{1}}}=\frac{2}{\ell_{2}} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{~B}}{\rho_{2}}} \Rightarrow \frac{\ell_{2}}{\ell_{1}}=\frac{8}{9} \sqrt{\frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho_{2}}}

ℓ2=ℓ1×89×14=209 cm\ell_{2}=\ell_{1} \times \frac{8}{9} \times \frac{1}{4}=\frac{20}{9} \mathrm{~cm}

Question 62

A uniform circular disc of radius ‘R’ and mass ‘M’ is rotating about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre. A small circular part of radius R/2 is removed from the original disc as shown in the figure. Find the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the original disc about the axis as given above. 

  1. AOption (a)

    732MR2\frac{7}{32} \mathrm{MR}^{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    932MR2\frac{9}{32} \mathrm{MR}^{2}

  3. COption (c)

    1732MR2\frac{17}{32} \mathrm{MR}^{2}

  4. DOption (d)

    1332MR2\frac{13}{32} \mathrm{MR}^{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1332MR2\frac{13}{32} \mathrm{MR}^{2}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

I=MR22−[M4(R2)22+M4(R2)2]\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{MR}^{2}}{2}-\left[\frac{\frac{\mathrm{M}}{4}\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}\right)^{2}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{M}}{4}\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}\right)^{2}\right]

I=1332MR2\mathrm{I}=\frac{13}{32} \mathrm{MR}^{2}

Question 63

A small point of mass m is placed at a distance 2R from the centre ‘O’ of a big uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R. The gravitational force on ‘m’ due to M is F1 . A spherical part of radius R/3 is removed from the big sphere as shown in the figure and the gravitational force on m due to remaining part of M is found to be F2. The value of ratio F1 : F2 is  

  1. AOption (a)

    16 : 9

  2. BOption (b)

    11 : 10

  3. COption (c)

    12 : 11

  4. DOption (d)

    12 : 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12 : 11

Why this answer is correct

Calculation: 

F1=GMm(2R)2...(1)\mathrm{F}_{1}=\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(2 \mathrm{R})^{2}}\quad\quad...(1)

F2=GMm(2R)2−(G(M27)m(4R3)2)\mathrm{F}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{(2 \mathrm{R})^{2}}-\left(\frac{\mathrm{G}\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{27}\right) \mathrm{m}}{\left(\frac{4 \mathrm{R}}{3}\right)^{2}}\right)

F2=1148GMmR2...(2)\mathrm{F}_{2}=\frac{11}{48} \frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\quad\quad...(2)

F1 : F2 = 12 : 11

Question 64

The work functions of cesium (Cs) and lithium (Li) metals are 1.9 eV and 2.5 eV, respectively. If we incident a light of wavelength 550 nm on these two metal surface, then photo-electric effect is possible for the case of

  1. AOption (a)

    Li only

  2. BOption (b)

    Cs only

  3. COption (c)

    Neither Cs nor Li

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Cs and Li

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cs only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Photoelectric effect: When the light of a sufficiently small wavelength is incident on the metal surface, electrons are ejected from the metal instantly. This phenomenon is called the photoelectric effect.

Photo-electric cell

  • The photo-electric cell works on the principle of the photoelectric effect.
  • The photo-electric cell consists of an evacuated glass tube containing two electrodes emitter (C) and Collector (A).
  • The emitter is always kept at a negative potential.
  • The collector is made of a metal rod and is always kept at a positive potential.
  • When the light of frequency more than the threshold frequency of material of emitter is made incident on the emitter, photo-emission takes place.
  • Then the photo­electrons are attracted to the collector which is positive with respect to the emitter. Thus current flows in the circuit. If the intensity of incident radiation is increased the photoelectric current increases.

Calculation:

The energy of incident light is E = 1240λ=1240550≃2.25\frac{1240}{\lambda}=\frac{1240}{550} \simeq 2.25 eV

Thus it is less than 2.5 eV (Li) and greater than 1.9 eV (Cs).

Photoelectric effect only can be possible for Cs.

Question 65

If B is magnetic field and μ0 is permeability of free space, then the dimensions of (B/μ0) is

  1. AOption (a)

    MT–2A–1

  2. BOption (b)

    L–1 A

  3. COption (c)

    LT–2A–1

  4. DOption (d)

    ML2T–2A–1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

L–1 A

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

We know that 

B = μ0ni

[Bμ0]=[ni]=L−1 A1\left[\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mu_{0}}\right]=[\mathrm{ni}]=\mathrm{L}^{-1} \mathrm{~A}^{1}

Question 66

A bob of mass m is suspended at a point O by a light string of length l and left to perform vertical motion (circular) as shown in figure. Initially, by applying horizontal velocity v0 at the point ‘A’. the string becomes slack when, the bob reaches at the point ‘D’. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the bob at the points B and C is ______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2

Why this answer is correct

Cakculation:

\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}{\mathrm{A}}^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}{\mathrm{B}}^{2}+\mathrm{mgh}\)

⇒ 12m(5gℓ)=12mvB2+mgℓ2\frac{1}{2} m(5 g \ell)=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}_{\mathrm{B}}^{2}+\mathrm{mg} \frac{\ell}{2}

⇒ 5mgℓ2−mgℓ2=KEB\frac{5 \mathrm{mg} \ell}{2}-\frac{\mathrm{mg} \ell}{2}=\mathrm{KE}_{\mathrm{B}}

⇒ KEB=2mgℓ\mathrm{KE}_{\mathrm{B}}=2 \mathrm{mg} \ell

\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}{\mathrm{C}}^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mv}{\mathrm{D}}^{2}+\mathrm{mg} \frac{\ell}{2}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{KE}{\mathrm{C}}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{mg} \ell+\mathrm{mg} \frac{\ell}{2}=\mathrm{mg} \ell \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{KE}{\mathrm{B}}}{\mathrm{KE}_{\mathrm{C}}}=2\)

Question 67

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The equivalent emf of two nonideal batteries connected in parallel is smaller than either of the two emfs.

Statement-II : The equivalent internal resistance of two nonideal batteries connected in parallel is smaller than the internal resistance of either of the two batteries.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Cell:

  • The cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
  • Cells are of two types:
  1. Primary cell: This type of cell cannot be recharged.
  2. Secondary cell: This type of cell can be recharged.
  • For a cell of emf E and internal resistance r,

⇒ E - V = Ir

Where I = current, and V = potential difference across external resistance

Cells in series:

  • If the number of cells are connected end to end that the positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the succeeding cell then it is called a series arrangement of cells.
  • The equivalent emf of cells in series arrangement is given as,

⇒ Eeq = E1 + E2 +...+ En

  • The equivalent internal resistance of cells in a series arrangement is given as,

⇒ req = r1 + r2 +...+ rn

Cells in parallel:

  • If the number of cells is connected such that the positive terminals are connected together at one point and the negative terminals of these cells are connected together at another point then it is called a parallel arrangement of cells.
  • The equivalent emf of cells in a parallel arrangement is given as,

⇒Eeq=E1/r1+E2/r2+E3/r3+...+En/rn1/r1+1/r2+1/r3+...+1/rn⇒ E_{eq}=\frac{E_1/r_1+E_2/r_2+E_3/r_3+...+E_n/r_n}{1/r_1+1/r_2+1/r_3+...+1/r_n}

  • The equivalent internal resistance of cells in a parallel arrangement is given as,

⇒1req=1r1+1r2+1r3+...+1rn⇒ \frac{1}{r_{eq}}=\frac{1}{r_1}+\frac{1}{r_2}+\frac{1}{r_3}+...+\frac{1}{r_n}

Calculation:

= ε1r1+ε2r21r1+1r2=ε\rm \frac{\frac{\varepsilon_{1}}{r_{1}}+\frac{\varepsilon_{2}}{r_{2}}}{\frac{1}{r_{1}}+\frac{1}{r_{2}}}=\varepsilon

Question 68

Which of the following circuits represents a forward biased diode ? 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E) 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (D) and (E) only 

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Forward Biased:

  • The diode is said to be forward-biased when the P region is connected to a more positive terminal and N region is connected to the negative terminal of the battery.
  • A forward-biased diode offers very little resistance to the flow of current and hence a large current flow through the diode.
  • When forward biased, the diode acts as an ON switch.

Reversed Biased:

  • A diode is said to be reversed biased when the P terminal is connected to lower potential than the N terminal
  • A reverse-biased diode offers very large resistance to the flow of current and hence a small minority of current flows through the diode

How to identify forward and reversed biased diode:

  1. If the input voltage is greater than the other end voltage, then it is forward-biased and vice-versa.
  2. If the voltage at the p-section is greater than the n-section, then is forward biased and vice-versa.

Question 69

A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance 40μF is connected to a 100 V power supply. Now the intermediate space between the plates is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 2. Due to the introduction of dielectric material, the extra charge and the change in the electrostatic energy in the capacitor, respectively, are - 

  1. AOption (a)

    2 mC and 0.2 J

  2. BOption (b)

    8 mC and 2.0 J

  3. COption (c)

    4 mC and 0.2 J 

  4. DOption (d)

    2 mC and 0.4 J 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 mC and 0.2 J 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Capacitor:

  • The capacitor is a device in which electrical energy can be stored.
  • In a capacitor two conducting plates are connected parallel to each other and carrying charges of equal magnitudes and opposite sign and separated by an insulating medium.
  • The space between the two plates can either be a vacuum or an electric insulator such as glass, paper, air, or semi-conductor called a dielectric.​

​Parallel plate capacitor:

  • A parallel plate capacitor consists of two large plane parallel conducting plates separated by a small distance.
  • The space between the two plates can either be a vacuum or an electric insulator such as glass, paper, air, or semi-conductor called a dielectric.​
  • The electric field intensity at the outer region of the parallel plate capacitor is always zero whatever be the charge on the plate.
  • The electric field intensity in the inner region between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor remains the same at every point.
  • The electric field intensity in the inner region between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is given as,

⇒E=σϵo=QAϵo\Rightarrow E=\frac{σ}{\epsilon_o}=\frac{Q}{A\epsilon_o}

  • The potential difference between the plates is given as,

⇒V=QdAϵo\Rightarrow V=\frac{Qd}{A\epsilon_o}

  • The capacitance C of the parallel plate capacitor is given as,

⇒C=QV=Aϵod\Rightarrow C=\frac{Q}{V}=\frac{A\epsilon_o}{d}

Where A = area of the plates, d = distance between the plates, Q = charge on the plates, and σ = surface charge density

Calculation:

Δq = (KC - C)V

= 40 × 10-6 × 100

= 4000 × 10-3 = 4mC

ΔU=12C′V2−12CV2=12( K−1)CV2\Delta \mathrm{U}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{C}^{\prime} \mathrm{V}^{2}-\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{CV}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}(\mathrm{~K}-1) \mathrm{CV}^{2}

= 12CV2(2−1)\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{CV}^{2}(2-1)

= 12CV2=12×40×10−6×10000\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{CV}^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \times 40 \times 10^{-6} \times 10000

= 0.2 J

Question 70

Given is a thin convex lens of glass (refractive index μ) and each side having radius of curvature R. One side is polished for complete reflection. At what distance from the lens, an object be placed on the optic axis so that the image gets formed on the object itself.

  1. AOption (a)

    R/μ

  2. BOption (b)

    R/(2μ–3)

  3. COption (c)

    μR

  4. DOption (d)

    R/(2μ–1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

R/(2μ–1)

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Peq = 2Pℓ + Pm

\(-\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}{\mathrm{Q}}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{f}{\ell}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{m}}}\)

= 4(μ−1)R−2−R=1R(4μ−4+2)\frac{4(\mu-1)}{R}-\frac{2}{-R}=\frac{1}{R}(4 \mu-4+2)

−1feq=1R(4μ−2)-\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{eq}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}(4 \mu-2)

⇒ 1feq=−1R(4μ−2)\frac{1}{f_{e q}}=\frac{-1}{R}(4 \mu-2)

feq=R2\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{eq}}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}

R = 2feq=−2(R4μ−2)=−R(2μ−1)2 f_{\mathrm{eq}}=-2\left(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{4 \mu-2}\right)=\frac{-\mathrm{R}}{(2 \mu-1)}

Physics Section B (5 questions)

Question 71

Two soap bubbles of radius 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively, are in contact with each other. The radius of curvature of the common surface, in cm, is ______ . 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 4Answer: 4

Why this answer is correct

Concept

  • Due to surface tension, pressure on the concave side of the soap bubble, liquid drop, etc is greater than the pressure on the convex side of them.
  • This is why pressure inside the liquid drops, the air bubbles are greater than the pressure outside.

The excess pressure inside a liquid drop is given by:

P=2TRP= {2T \over R}

where T is the surface tension and R is the radius of drop.

Calculation:

r = r1⋅r2r1−r2=2⋅44−2\frac{r_{1} \cdot r_{2}}{r_{1}-r_{2}}=\frac{2 \cdot 4}{4-2} = 4cm

Question 72

The driver sitting inside a parked car is watching vehicles approaching from behind with the help of his side view mirror, which is a convex mirror with radius of curvature R = 2 m. Another car approaches him from behind with a uniform speed of 90 km/hr. When the car is at a distance of 24 m from him, the magnitude of the acceleration of the image of the side view mirror is ‘a’. The value of 100a is ______ m/s2.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 8Answer: 8

Why this answer is correct

Calculation: 

v = ufu−f=−24⋅1−24−1=2425\frac{\mathrm{uf}}{\mathrm{u}-\mathrm{f}}=\frac{-24 \cdot 1}{-24-1}=\frac{24}{25}

m = −vu=−2425(−24)=125\frac{-\mathrm{v}}{\mathrm{u}}=-\frac{24}{25(-24)}=\frac{1}{25}

1v−1u=1f\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{u}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}

\(\mathrm{v}{\mathrm{I}}=-\mathrm{m}^{2} \cdot \mathrm{v}{0}=\frac{-1}{(25)^{2}} \cdot 25=\frac{-1}{25}\)

Diff. 

\(\frac{-1}{\mathrm{v}^{2}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)+\frac{1}{\mathrm{u}^{2}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{du}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)=0 \quad\left[\frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{v}{\mathrm{I}} ; \frac{\mathrm{du}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{v}{0}\right]\)

\(\frac{+2}{\mathrm{v}^{3}} \cdot\left(\mathrm{v}{\mathrm{I}}\right)^{2}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}^{2}} \cdot \mathrm{a}{\mathrm{I}}-\frac{2}{\mathrm{u}^{3}} \cdot\left(\mathrm{v}{0}\right)^{2}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{u}^{2}} \cdot \mathrm{a}{0}=0\)

\(\frac{\mathrm{a}{\mathrm{I}}}{\mathrm{v}^{2}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{v}^{3}} \cdot \mathrm{v}{\mathrm{I}}^{2}-\frac{2}{\mathrm{u}^{3}} \cdot \mathrm{v}_{0}^{2}\)

\(\mathrm{a}{\mathrm{I}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{v}} \cdot \mathrm{v}{\mathrm{I}}^{2}-\frac{2 \mathrm{v}^{2}}{\mathrm{u}^{3}} \cdot \mathrm{v}_{0}^{2}\)

= 2⋅2524⋅125⋅125−2(24)3⋅2425⋅2425⋅25⋅25\frac{2 \cdot 25}{24} \cdot \frac{1}{25} \cdot \frac{1}{25}-\frac{2}{(24)^{3}} \cdot \frac{24}{25} \cdot \frac{24}{25} \cdot 25 \cdot 25

aI=224.25−224\mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{I}}=\frac{2}{24.25}-\frac{2}{24}

aI=224⋅−2425=−225\mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{I}}=\frac{2}{24} \cdot \frac{-24}{25}=\frac{-2}{25}

100aI=225×100=8100 \mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{I}}=\frac{2}{25} \times 100=8

Question 73

Three conductions of same length having thermal conductivity k1 , k2 and k3 are connected as shown in figure. 

Area of cross sections of 1st and 2nd conductor are same and for 3rd conductor it is double of the 1st conductor. The temperatures are given in the figure. In steady state condition, the value of θ is __________ °C.

(Given : k1 = 60 Js–1m–1K–1, k2 = 120 Js–1m–1K–1, k3 = 135 Js–1m–1K–1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 40Answer: 40

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

\(\mathrm{R}{1}=\frac{2 \mathrm{~L}}{\mathrm{~K}{1} \mathrm{~A}}\)

\(\mathrm{R}{2}=\frac{2 \mathrm{~L}}{\mathrm{~K}{2} \mathrm{~A}}\)

\(\mathrm{R}{3}=\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{~K}{3} \mathrm{~A}}\)

\(\frac{θ-100}{\frac{\mathrm{R}{1} \mathrm{R}{2}}{\mathrm{R}{1}+\mathrm{R}{2}}}+\frac{θ-0}{\mathrm{R}_{3}}=0\)

∴ θ = 40

Question 74

The position vectors of two 1 kg particles, (A) and (B), are given by 

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{A}}=\left(α{1} \mathrm{t}^{2} \hat{\mathbf{i}}+α_{2} \hat{\mathrm{j}}+α_{3} \mathrm{t} \hat{\mathrm{k}}\right) \mathrm{m}\)

and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{B}}=\left(β{1} \mathrm{t} \hat{\mathrm{i}}+β_{2} \mathrm{t}^{2} \hat{\mathbf{j}}+β_{3} \hat{\mathrm{k}}\right) \mathrm{m}\), respectively ; 

(α1 = 1 m/s2, α2 = 3n m/s, α3 = 2 m/s, β1 = 2 m/s, β2 = –1 m/s2, β3 = 4p m/s), where t is time, n and p are constants, At t = 1s, \(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{A}}\right|=\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{B}}\right|\) and velocities \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{B}}\) of the particles are orthogonal to each other. At t = 1 s, the magnitude of angular momentum of particle (A) with respect to the position of particle (B) is √L kgm2s–1. The value of L is _____.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 90Answer: 90

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

VA=(2ti^+3nj^+2k^)V_{A}=(2 t \hat{i}+3 n \hat{j}+2 \hat{k})

V⃗B=(2i^−2t^j^+4p^k^)\vec{V}_{B}=(2 \hat{i}-2 \hat{t} \hat{j}+4 \hat{p} \hat{k})

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{~V}}{\mathrm{B}}=0\)

4 – 6n + 8p = 0

2 – 3n + 4p = 0

3n = 2 + 4p

 \(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{A}}\right|=\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{B}}\right|\)

4 + 9n2 + 4 = 4 + 4 + 16p2

p = −14\frac{-1}{4} ⇒ n = 13\frac{1}{3}

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{L}}=\mathrm{m}{\mathrm{A}}\left(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{A} / \mathrm{B}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\right)\)

\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{A} / \mathrm{B}}=\left(\alpha{1}-\beta_{1}\right) \hat{\mathrm{i}}+\left(\alpha_{2}-\beta_{2}\right) \hat{\mathrm{j}}+\left(\alpha_{3}-\beta_{3}\right)\)

= (1−2)i^+(1+1)j^+3k^(1-2) \hat{i}+(1+1) \hat{j}+3 \hat{k}

= ∣i^j^k^ −123 212∣=i^+8j^−5k^\left|\begin{array}{ccc} \hat{\mathbf{i}} & \hat{\mathbf{j}} & \hat{\bf{k}} \ -1 & 2 & 3 \ 2 & 1 & 2 \end{array}\right|=\hat{\bf{i}}+8 \hat{\mathbf{j}}-5 \hat{\mathbf{k}}

= 1+64+25=90\sqrt{1+64+25}=\sqrt{90}

Question 75

A particle is projected at an angle of 30° from horizontal at a speed of 60 m/s. The height traversed by the particle in the first second is h0 and height traversed in the last second, before it reaches the maximum height, is h1. The ratio h0 : h1 is ______.

[Take, g = 10 m/s2]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: 5Answer: 5

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

S1 = 30 × 1 - 12\frac{1}{2} × 10 × 1 = 25

S3 = 30 + (−102)\left(\frac{-10}{2}\right) × (2 × 3 - 1) = 5

\(\frac{\mathrm{S}{1}}{\mathrm{~S}{3}}=\frac{25}{5}\) = 5

75 questions in the full paper