IB (SA & Exe-2025): (Held on: 29 Sep 2025 Shift 1) Memory-Based Test (Previous Year Paper)

• Famous festivals of Tamil Nadu are Pongal and Puthandu.
• Ugadi is celebrated as New Year in Andhra Pradesh
• Other famous festivals celebrated in Andhra Pradesh are Sankranthi and Rottela Panduga.
• Famous festivals of Karnataka are Kanakadasa Jayanti and Karaga.
• Famous festivals of Kerala are Onam and Pooram.

The Correct answer is Vithya Ramraj.

Key Points

• Vithya Ramraj is an Indian 400m hurdler who came into the spotlight after equalling PT Usha’s 41-year-old national record of 55.42 seconds in the women’s 400m hurdles.
• She matched this record during the Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, later winning a bronze medal in the final.
• At the Federation Cup 2025 in Kochi, she clocked 56.04 seconds to comfortably win, though it was slower than her best mark.
• Vithya has also qualified for the Asian Athletics Championships in both the 400m flat and 400m hurdles, underlining her versatility.
• Her long-term aim is to compete at the global level against champions like Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone, who holds the Olympic gold record at 50.65 seconds.
• Despite the national record chase, Vithya emphasizes that her focus is not on breaking Usha’s record but on achieving international standards at events like the World Championships and Diamond League.
• Hailing from Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, and the daughter of a tempo driver, she has risen through determination and hard work despite limited financial support.
• She also represented India at the Paris Olympics 2024 in the 4x400m relay, showing her prominence in Indian athletics.

 Additional Information

• PT Usha
• Known as the “Payyoli Express”, she is one of India’s most legendary athletes.
• She set the national record of 55.42 seconds in the 400m hurdles during the 1984 Los Angeles Olympics.
• She missed an Olympic medal narrowly, finishing fourth in that race.
• The record stood for over four decades, making it one of the longest-standing national records in Indian athletics.

The correct answer is Sai Sudharsan.

In News

• Gujarat Titans’ Sai Sudharsan was the leading run-scorer in IPL 2025, securing the Orange Cap with 759 runs in 15 matches.

Key Points

• Runs Scored: Sai Sudharsan scored 759 runs in 15 matches with an average of 54.21 and a strike rate of 156.17.
• Orange Cap Leaderboard: He is followed by Suryakumar Yadav and Virat Kohli.
• Consistency: Sudharsan hit 1 century and 6 half-centuries, showcasing consistent performance throughout the season.
• Team Representation: Sai Sudharsan represents Gujarat Titans in IPL 2025.

Additional Information

• Orange Cap: Awarded to the highest run-scorer in an IPL season.
• IPL 2025: The 18th edition of IPL featured 10 teams and multiple top-performing players.
• Impact: Sudharsan’s performance played a crucial role in Gujarat Titans’ campaign during IPL 2025.

Important Points of IPL 2025

• Winner: Royal Challengers Bengaluru
• Runner Up: Punjab Kings
• Most Valuable Player: Suryakumar Yadav (MI) – 717 runs, avg 65, SR 168
• Purple Cap: Prasidh Krishna (GT) – 25 wickets
• Emerging Player: Sai Sudharsan (GT) – 759 runs
• Super Striker: Vaibhav Suryavanshi (RR) – 206.6 SR
• Most Sixes: Nicholas Pooran (LSG) – 40 sixes
• Most Fours: Sai Sudharsan (GT) – 88 fours
• Most Dot Balls: Mohammed Siraj (GT) – 151 dot balls
• Catch of the Season: Kamindu Mendis (SRH) vs Dewald Brevis
• Fairplay Award: Chennai Super Kings
• Fantasy King: Sai Sudharsan (GT) – 1495 points

The correct answer is Sonu Sood.

Key Points

• Sonu Sood's autobiography 'I am no Messiah' is out now; Rajkumar and Aparshakti congratulate the actor.
• Sonu Sood, who has worked towards helping the needy during the ongoing Covid-19 pandemic has inspired and won the hearts of many.
• The book will be co-authored by Meena Iyer.

Additional Information

• Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar is an Indian former international cricketer who captained the Indian national team.
• He is regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in the history of cricket.
• Paramahansa Yogananda was an Indian Hindu monk, yogi and guru who introduced millions to the teachings of meditation and Kriya Yoga through his organization.
• Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam was an Indian aerospace scientist and statesman who served as the 11th President of India from 2002 to 2007.
• He was born and raised in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu and studied physics and aerospace engineering.

The correct answer is option 2.

In News

• The India-Bangladesh Naval Exercise Bongo Sagar 2025 was conducted in the Bay of Bengal to enhance maritime security cooperation.

Key Points

• What is Exercise Bongo Sagar?
• It is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Bangladesh.
• Designed to enhance interoperability and operational expertise through complex maritime operations.
• It was first held in 2019, and 2025 marks its fifth edition.
• Part of India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) initiative.
• Exercise Highlights:
• Surface firing, tactical maneuvers, and underway replenishment.
• Visit-Board-Search-Seizure (VBSS) operations and cross-boarding exercises.
• Communication drills and professional quizzes for officers.
• Strategic Importance:
• Strengthens maritime coordination and information sharing.
• Improves both navies’ ability to conduct coordinated responses to emerging threats at sea.
• Enhances regional security and supports India’s maritime diplomacy with neighboring countries.
• Hence, option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• India and Bangladesh Naval Cooperation:
• The two navies also conduct the Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) to enhance maritime domain awareness.
• Both nations collaborate on counter-piracy, humanitarian assistance, and disaster relief operations in the Indian Ocean Region.
• SAGAR Initiative:
• India’s vision for regional maritime security.
• Aims to ensure safe, secure, and stable seas through cooperative engagements with maritime neighbors.

The correct answer is Paris, France

Key Points

• The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation, commonly known as UNESCO, is located in Paris, France.
• It has been based in Paris since its establishment in 1945.
• While the other cities given as options - New York, USA; Rome, Italy; and Geneva, Switzerland - do host important UN offices or organizations, the UNESCO's main headquarters are not located in these cities but in Paris.
• This is in line with UNESCO's direct tie to France's long-standing tradition of international diplomacy.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Paika:
• Paika is a Sadani Nagpuri martial folk dance from the Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh (Chhota Nagpur plateaus region).
• It also known as Painki and Paiki.
• Participants in the dance wear dhotis, which are turbans adorned with peacock feathers.
• They dance to the sounds of Nagara, Dhak, Shehnai, and Narsingh musical instruments while holding a sword in their right hand and a shield in their left.
• Paik served as foot soilders throughout the medieval period. It displays bravery and is carried out by guys.
• It is done at events like weddings.
• The main performers are Rautia, who were soldiers in Chotanagpur during the Nagvanshi dynasty. In the districts of Khunti and Mayurbhanj, some Munda tribe members also perform it.
• Other Dances of Jharkhand:
• Chhau
• Khadia
• Kadsa
• Nagpuri
• Birhor
• Mundari
• Santhali
• Hunta
• Karam
• Barao
• Jhenna Jhumur
• Domkach
• Ghoda Naach

Additional Information

• The folk dances of Maharastra, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are listed below:

• 8 important Classical Dance forms of India:

The Correct answer is Sachin Tendulkar.

Key Points

• Sachin Tendulkar, also known as the “Master Blaster”, received the prestigious Col. C. K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award in 2024.
• This award is the highest honour conferred by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) to recognize a player’s exceptional contribution to Indian cricket.
• Tendulkar had an illustrious career spanning over two decades (1989–2013), making him one of the greatest batsmen in the history of cricket.
• He is the only cricketer to have scored 100 international centuries and the first to score a double century in ODIs.
• Tendulkar played a key role in India’s 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup victory, fulfilling his long-cherished dream.
• He holds records for the most runs in Tests and ODIs, cementing his place as an icon in world cricket.
• The award named after Col. C. K. Nayudu, India’s first Test cricket captain, is a mark of respect for Tendulkar’s immense achievements, discipline, and impact on the sport.

 Additional Information

• Kapil Dev
• Former Indian all-rounder and captain who led India to its first ICC Cricket World Cup victory in 1983.
• Known for his fast bowling and aggressive batting style, he is considered one of the greatest all-rounders in cricket history.
• He has written his autobiography titled “Straight from the Heart.”

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Lavani is a famous folk dance form of Maharashtra State.
• Lavani is a combination of traditional song and dance, which is particularly performed to the beats of the Dholki, a percussion instrument.
• Lavani is noted for its powerful rhythm.
• Lavani has contributed substantially to the development of Marathi folk theatre.
• In Maharashtra and southern Madhya Pradesh, it is performed by female performers wearing nine-yard-long sarees.
• The songs are sung in a quick tempo.
• The lavani dance originated in Maharashtra in the 18th and 19th centuries.
• Lavani dancers were patronized by Maratha Lords and Kings.
• Lavani dance was generally performed by Dhangars or Shepherd living in Solapur, Maharashtra
• Traditionally, this genre of folk dance deals with different and varied subject matters such as society, religion, and politics.
• The songs in 'Lavani' are mostly erotic in sentiment and the dialogues tend to be pungent in socio-political satire.
• Originally, it was used as a form of entertainment and morale booster to the tired soldiers.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched the second phase of Ladli Laxmi Scheme 2.0 in November 2022.
• The Ladli Laxmi Scheme is a welfare scheme for the girl child.
• It aims to provide financial assistance to families for the education and marriage of their daughters.
• The scheme was first launched in Madhya Pradesh in 2007 and has since been expanded and improved over the years.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Bihar are also states in India that have implemented similar schemes for the welfare of the girl child.
• Uttar Pradesh has the Kanya Sumangala Yojana, Andhra Pradesh has the Amma Vodi scheme, and Bihar has the Mukhyamantri Kanya Utthan Yojana.
• The Ladli Laxmi Scheme in Madhya Pradesh provides financial assistance to families in the form of a fixed deposit that matures when the girl turns 18.
• The amount of the deposit varies depending on the income of the family and the age of the girl.

Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai was the first chairman of ISRO. He is widely regarded as the father of India's space programme. The Indian Space Research Organization's lead facility for launch vehicle development is named after him.

The correct answer is Mohenjo Daro

Key Points

• The Priest-King, also known as the King-Priest, is a remarkable small male sculpture crafted from steatite.
• It was discovered during the excavation of the ancient Bronze Age city of Mohenjo-daro in Sindh, Pakistan, back in 1925–26.
• This exquisite piece of art dates back to approximately 2000–1900 BCE during Mohenjo-Daro's Period
• It  is considered “the most famous stone sculpture” of the Indus Valley civilization
• The sculpture depicts a neatly bearded man wearing an armband and a cloak adorned with drilled trefoil, single-circle, and double-circle motifs.

Additional Information

• Things found during the Indus Valley Civilization

The correct answer is Oxalic acid.

Key Points

• Oxalic acid is a chemical compound that occurs naturally in almost every plant to some degree, including fruit, vegetable and grain plants.
• Tomato contains more than 10 types of acids such as citric acid, malic acid, ascorbic acid, and oxalic acid etc.
• Oxalic acid content of tomatoes is about 50 mg per 100 g serving.
• Very ripe tomatoes generally contain higher oxalate amounts than less mature fruit.

Additional Information

• Some natural sources of acid:

The correct answer is Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.

Key Points

• The full form of PSLV is the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.

Important Points

• About PSLV:
• The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.
• It is an expendable medium-lift launch vehicle.
• It is designed and operated by the ISRO.
• First Flight: September 20, 1993.
• Number of Stages in PSLV is 4.
• Variants : 3 (PSLV-G, PSLV - CA, PSLV - XL).

Additional Information

• PSLV earned its title 'the Workhorse of ISRO'.
• Famous ISRO mission such as Mangalyan, Chandrayan-1 was successfully launched by PSLV.
• It can launch in Low earth orbit, Sun Synchronous orbit, and Geostationary orbit.
• Through consistently delivering various satellites to Low Earth Orbits, particularly the IRS series of satellites.

The correct answer is President of Indonesia Mr. Prabowo Subianto.

Key Points

• Mr. Prabowo Subianto is an influential Indonesian politician and currently serves as the Minister of Defence of Indonesia.
• He has been a key figure in shaping Indonesia's defence policies and international relations.
• His presence as the Chief Guest at India's Republic Day celebrations highlights the growing strategic partnership between India and Indonesia.
• India and Indonesia share strong historical, cultural, and economic ties, and this event further strengthens their bilateral relationship.

Important Points

• The Chief Guest at India's Republic Day celebrations is typically a foreign dignitary, signifying India's diplomatic ties and goodwill.
• India's Republic Day commemorates the adoption of its Constitution on January 26, 1950.

Additional Information

• President of Brazil Mr. Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva: Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva is a prominent Brazilian leader who has served multiple terms as the President of Brazil. He is known for his progressive policies and contributions to Brazil's economic development.
• President of Egypt Mr. Abdel Fattah al-Sisi: Abdel Fattah al-Sisi is the current President of Egypt and has played a significant role in stabilizing Egypt's political landscape. He was the Chief Guest at India's Republic Day celebrations in 2023.
• President of France Mr. Emmanuel Macron: Emmanuel Macron is the President of France and a key figure in global politics. France and India share strong ties, especially in defense and technology sectors.
• Republic Day Celebrations: The Republic Day parade in New Delhi is a grand event showcasing India's military prowess, cultural diversity, and achievements. It features a fly-past by the Indian Air Force, floats representing states, and performances by artists.

• ‘Khanjar’ is joint military exercise between India and Kyrgyztan.
• Khanjar exercise includes insertion of troops by going stealthily from helicopters and destroying hiding places of terrorists.
• Till date there have been 5 joint military exercises between India and Kyrgyzstan.
• These Bilateral Military Exercises are conducted to uphold the values of Peace, Prosperity and Trust in the region.

The Correct answer is Shane Watson.

Key Points

• Shane Watson, former Australian cricketer, is the author of the book “The Winner’s Mindset.”
• The book was released in 2024 and focuses on the mental aspects of sports and life, emphasizing resilience, positivity, and focus.
• Watson shares his personal experiences as a professional cricketer, especially how he overcame setbacks, injuries, and performance pressures.
• The book provides insights into the importance of mental health, discipline, and mindset in achieving success, not just in cricket but also in life and leadership.
• He retired from international cricket in 2016 and later from franchise cricket in 2020, making him one of the last active players from Australia’s golden era of cricket.
• Watson was known as one of the world’s best all-rounders, excelling in both batting and bowling, and played key roles in ICC tournaments for Australia.
• Through this book, he highlights how a strong mindset can transform challenges into opportunities and separate winners from others.

 Additional Information

• Ricky Ponting
• Former Australian cricket captain and one of the most successful captains in cricket history.
• He has authored books like “At the Close of Play” and “Ponting: At the Close of Play.”
• Ponting is known for leading Australia to victories in two ICC World Cups (2003, 2007).

The correct answer is 96th.

Key Points

• Transparency International's Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is a global measure of corruption in the public sector.
• In the 2024 CPI, India was ranked 96th out of 180 countries.
• This ranking reflects India's ongoing struggle with corruption issues within its public sector.
• The CPI score ranges from 0 (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean), and India's score has been relatively stable in recent years.
• India's CPI score in 2024 was 38, highlighting the need for continued efforts to combat corruption.

Additional Information

• Transparency International:
• Founded in 1993, it is an international non-governmental organization working to combat global corruption.
• It is headquartered in Berlin, Germany, and operates through more than 100 national chapters worldwide.
• Transparency International publishes the Corruption Perceptions Index annually.
• Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI):
• The CPI is a composite index that ranks countries by their perceived levels of public sector corruption.
• It is based on expert assessments and opinion surveys.
• The CPI is widely used as a key indicator of corruption globally.
• Impact of Corruption:
• Corruption undermines democracy and the rule of law.
• It leads to the misallocation of resources and hampers economic development.
• Corruption adversely affects public services and the overall quality of life.
• Efforts to Combat Corruption in India:
• The Indian government has implemented various measures such as the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act.
• Strengthening of anti-corruption agencies like the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) and the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
• Introduction of technology-based initiatives like e-governance to reduce corruption.

The Correct answer is Kalkaji.

Key Points

• Atishi Marlena, a senior leader of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP), won from the Kalkaji Assembly constituency in the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly election.
• She defeated BJP’s Ramesh Bidhuri in a tough contest, securing her position as the elected representative from Kalkaji.
• The constituency of Kalkaji is located in South Delhi district and comes under the South Delhi Lok Sabha constituency.
• Atishi’s victory was significant as she continued her stronghold in Kalkaji, where she had earlier been active in education reforms and governance.
• Following the election results, she was chosen as the Leader of Opposition in the Delhi Assembly, highlighting her rising importance in state politics.
• The victory also strengthened AAP’s presence in South Delhi, where constituencies often witness close contests between AAP, BJP, and Congress.

 Additional Information

• New Delhi
• This is a key constituency in Delhi, historically represented by chief ministers and prominent leaders.
• It was not the seat from where Atishi contested in 2025; she stood from Kalkaji.

The Correct Answer is 28.

Key Points

• At the Hangzhou Asian Games in China, the Indian contingent finished its campaign by living up to the commitment of “Iss baar 100 paar" with a record haul of 107 medals comprised of 28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze.
• India ranked at fourth place on scoreboard in Asian Games.
• This outstanding feat surpassed India's previous best of 70 medals at the Jakarta Asian Games in 2018.
• This is the second time India has won more than 100 medals in any of the three major Games - the Olympics, the Commonwealth Games, and the Asian Games.
• They had won 101 medals in the 2010 Commonwealth Games in New Delhi.

Given:

Numan does half the work as Gagan in 4/5 of the time.

Together they take 16 days to complete a piece of work

Calculation:

According to the question,

Numan × 4/5 = Gagan × 1/2

⇒ Numan = Gagan × 5/8

⇒ Numan/Gagan = 5/8 

So, Numan’s efficiency = 5 unit/day. & Gagan’s efficiency = 8 unit/day.

Now,

Total work = 16 × (5 + 8)

⇒ 16 × 13

Time taken by Gagan = (16 × 13)/8

⇒ 26 Days

∴ Gagan will take 26 days to complete the work.

Shortcut Trick

Let B = 100 units, then A = 128 units.

Sum of A and B = 100 + 128 = 228 units.

C = 75% of 228 = 171 units (since C is 25% less than the sum).

Difference (C − A) = 171 − 128 = 43 units.

Required % = (43 ÷ 128) × 100 ≈ 33.6%.

∴ The correct answer is 33.6%.

Alternate Method

Given: A = B + 28% of B; C = (A + B) − 25% of (A + B).

Formula: Percentage Increase = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100.

⇒ Let B = 100

⇒ A = 100 × (128 ÷ 100) = 128

⇒ Sum (A + B) = 128 + 100 = 228

⇒ C = 228 × (75 ÷ 100) = 171

⇒ Difference between C and A = 171 − 128 = 43

⇒ Required Percentage = (43 ÷ 128) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = 33.59375% ≈ 33.6%

∴ The correct answer is 33.6%.

Additional Information

Percentage Comparison Base

Always identify the 'than' part in the question to determine the denominator (base). In 'C is more than A', A is the base.

Fractional Equivalents

Using fractions can speed up calculations: 25% less means 3/4 of the value, and 20% more means 6/5 of the value.

Successive Percentage Change

For two successive changes a% and b%, the net change is given by [a + b + (ab ÷ 100)]%.

According to the question

⇒ 960 × [75/100] × [(100 – x)/100] = 612

⇒ 720 × [(100 – x)/100] = 612

⇒ (100 – x)/100 = 612/720

⇒ 100 – x = (17/20) × 100

⇒ 100 – x = 85%

⇒ x = 100 – 85 = 15%

Let its cost price be Rs. x

From the problem’s statement

⇒ 540 - x = x – 370

⇒ 2x = 910

⇒ x = 455

If it was sold for Rs. 910

⇒ Profit = 910 - 455 = 455

⇒ Profit % = Profit × 100/CP = 455 × 100/455

⇒ Profit % = 100

∴ The profit percentage will be 100%

Formula used:

If the mean proportional to a and b is x, then,

a / x = x / b or x2 = ab

Calculation:

Let x be the required mean proportional. Then,

x2 = ab

⇒ x2 = 27 × 300

⇒ x2 = 8100

⇒ x = 90

∴ Mean proportional = 90

Given:

Actual speed = 45 km/h

Reduced speed = 30 km/h

Formula used:

Total distance = (\frac{(S_1 × S_2)}{S_1-S_2} \times (T_1+T_2))

Here,

S1 = Actual speed

S2 = Reduced speed

T1 = Time1

T2 = Time 2

Calculation:

According to the concept,

Total distance = (\frac{(45 × 30)}{45-30} \times (0+\frac{1}{4}))

⇒ (\frac{(1350)}{15} \times \frac{1}{4})

⇒ 22.5 km

∴ The distance between A and B is 22.5 km.

Shortcut Trick

Income = Expenditure + Savings (Ratio 80 : 20 → 4 : 1)

Apply Alligation or Weighted Average: % Change in Income = (E% × E_ratio + S% × S_ratio) ÷ (Total Ratio)

12 = (17.5 × 4 + x × 1) ÷ 5

60 = 70 + x ⇒ x = −10%

Negative sign indicates a decrease.

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Income = 100, Expenditure = 80, Savings = 20.

Formula Used: Income = Expenditure + Savings

⇒ New Income = 100 + (12% of 100) = 112

⇒ New Expenditure = 80 + (17.5% of 80) = 80 + 14 = 94

⇒ New Savings = New Income − New Expenditure = 112 − 94 = 18

⇒ Decrease in Savings = Old Savings − New Savings = 20 − 18 = 2

⇒ Percentage Decrease = (Decrease ÷ Old Savings) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease = (2 ÷ 20) × 100 = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Income-Expenditure Relationship

Total Income is always the sum of Expenditure and Savings. Any change in one must be balanced by the others.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage change = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100.

Weighted Average in Income

% Change in Income = (% Change in Exp × Exp Ratio + % Change in Sav × Sav Ratio) ÷ (Total Ratio).

The distance between two stations, A and B = 575 km,

Speed of first train = 50 km/hr

Speed of second train = 60 km/hr

Distance covered by first train in 30 min (1/2 hr) = 50 × 1/2 = 25 km

Remaining distance = 575 - 25 = 550 km

Relative speed, if opposite direction = 50 + 60 = 110 km/hr

As we know,

Time = Distance/speed

Both train meet each other in = 550/110 = 5 hrs

Distance covered in 5 hrs by first train = 5 × 50 = 250 km

Total distance covered by first train = 25 + 250 = 275 km

Both trains meet each other 275 km far from station A.

Shortcut Trick

Old ratio Ravi : Sumit = 2 : 3 (Difference = 1)

New ratio Ravi : Sumit = 40 : 57 (Difference = 17)

Balance the differences: Old ratio × 17 → 34 : 51

Change in parts = 40 − 34 = 6 units = Rs. 4000

Sumit’s new salary = 57 units = (4000 ÷ 6) × 57 = Rs. 38000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 38000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Ratio = 2 : 3

Increase in each salary = Rs. 4000

New Ratio = 40 : 57

Formula Used:

If a : b is the ratio, then values are ax and bx. New ratio = (ax + k) / (bx + k)

Sumit Old: 51 units (34000)

Sumit New: 57 units (38000)

+6 units = 4000

Calculations:

Let the initial salaries of Ravi and Sumit be 2x and 3x respectively.

⇒ (2x + 4000) / (3x + 4000) = 40 / 57

⇒ 57 × (2x + 4000) = 40 × (3x + 4000)

⇒ 114x + 228000 = 120x + 160000

⇒ 120x − 114x = 228000 − 160000

⇒ 6x = 68000

⇒ 3x = 34000

Sumit’s new salary = 3x + 4000

⇒ New salary = 34000 + 4000 = 38000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 38000.

Additional Information

Balancing Ratios

When a constant value is added to both terms of a ratio, the difference between the terms of the ratio should be made equal by multiplying with the cross-difference.

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a² : b², and the sub-duplicate ratio is √a : √b.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is given by √(a × b).

Shortcut Trick

For consecutive integers, the Average lies exactly at the mid-point of the series.

Largest Integer = Average + (n − 1) ÷ 2

Largest Integer = 22.5 + (18 − 1) ÷ 2 = 22.5 + 8.5 = 31

∴ The correct answer is 31.

Alternate Method

Given: Number of terms (n) = 18, Average = 22.5

Formula: Average of AP = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

⇒ Let the 18 consecutive integers be x, x+1, ..., x+17.

⇒ 22.5 = (x + x + 17) ÷ 2

⇒ 22.5 × 2 = 2x + 17

⇒ 45 = 2x + 17

⇒ 2x = 45 − 17 = 28

⇒ x = 14 (Smallest integer)

⇒ Largest integer = x + 17 = 14 + 17 = 31

∴ The correct answer is 31.

Additional Information

Consecutive Integers Average

For any Arithmetic Progression (AP), the average is always the middle term (if n is odd) or the mean of the two middle terms (if n is even).

Smallest and Largest Relation

The difference between the largest and smallest of n consecutive integers is always (n − 1).

Sum of Consecutive Integers

Sum = Average × Number of terms = [n ÷ 2] × [2a + (n − 1)d].

Given:

sin θ + cos θ = (\sqrt5) sin(90 - θ)

Concept used:

1. cot θ = cos θ ÷ sin θ
2. a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

sin θ + cos θ = (\sqrt5) sin(90 - θ)

⇒ sin θ + cos θ = (\sqrt5) cosθ

⇒ cos θ((\sqrt5) - 1) = sinθ

⇒ cot θ = (\frac {1}{\sqrt5 - 1})

⇒ cot θ = (\frac {\sqrt5 + 1}{(\sqrt5 - 1)(\sqrt5 + 1)})

⇒ cot θ = (\frac {\sqrt5 + 1}{5 - 1})

⇒ cot θ = (\frac {\sqrt5 + 1}{4})

∴ The value of cot θ is (\frac {\sqrt5 + 1}{4}).

Concept used:

B = Bar/Bracket

O = Of

D = Division

M = Multiplication

A = Addition

S = Subtraction

Calculation:

(\frac{{9 \div \frac{3}{7}\ \text{of} \ \left( {9 + 6 \times \overline {4 - 2} } \right) + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - \left{ {\frac{5}{8} + \frac{6}{{16}}} \right}} \right]}}{{24 \div \overline {16 - 10} + 36 \div \left( {5 + 20 \div 4 - 1} \right)}})

⇒ (\frac{{9 \div \frac{3}{7}\ \text{of} \ \left( {9 + 6 \times 2 } \right) + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - \left{ {\frac{5}{8} + \frac{6}{{16}}} \right}} \right]}}{{24 \div 6 + 36 \div \left( {5 + 20 \div 4 - 1} \right)}})

⇒ (\frac{{9 \div 9 + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - 1 }} \right]}}{{24 \div 6 + 36 \div \left( {5 + 5 - 1} \right)}})

⇒ (\frac{{1+ \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{25}{{7}} - 1 }} \right]}}{{4 + 36 \div 9 }})

⇒ (1 -{2\over 7}\over 8)

⇒ (5\over56)

The answer is (5\over56).

Shortcut Trick

Net difference in percentage = Gain % − Loss % = 14% − (−16%) = 30%.

Given that 30% of CP = Rs. 33.

Target SP to gain 25% = 125% of CP.

Value of 125% = (33 ÷ 30) × 125 = 1.1 × 125 = 137.5.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 137.5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Loss = 16%

Potential Gain = 14%

Difference in Selling Price = Rs. 33

Target Gain = 25%

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (100 ± Profit/Loss %)/100

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100 units.

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP₁) = 100 − 16 = 84 units

⇒ Second Selling Price (SP₂) = 100 + 14 = 114 units

⇒ Difference in SP = 114 − 84 = 30 units

⇒ According to question, 30 units = Rs. 33

⇒ 1 unit = 33 ÷ 30 = Rs. 1.1

⇒ Required Selling Price (to gain 25%) = 100 + 25 = 125 units

⇒ New Selling Price = 125 × 1.1 = Rs. 137.5

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 137.5.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit or Loss is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise. Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always allowed on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Relation between CP and MP

CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Profit%). This ratio is useful for solving complex markup and discount problems directly.

Shortcut Trick

Total spend on pens and erasers = (10 × 8) + (10 × 5) = ₹130.

Remaining budget for sharpeners = 150 − 130 = ₹20.

Quantity of sharpeners = 20 ÷ 4 = 5 items.

Total items = 10 (pens) + 10 (erasers) + 5 (sharpeners) = 25 items.

Average price = Total Budget ÷ Total Quantity = 150 ÷ 25 = ₹6.

∴ The correct answer is ₹6.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total spending = ₹150

Pens = 10 @ ₹8 each | Erasers = 10 @ ₹5 each | Sharpeners = n @ ₹4 each

Formula: Average Price = Total Cost ÷ Total Quantity

Calculations:

⇒ Cost of pens = 10 × 8 = ₹80

⇒ Cost of erasers = 10 × 5 = ₹50

⇒ Remaining amount for sharpeners = 150 − (80 + 50)

⇒ Remaining amount = 150 − 130 = ₹20

⇒ Number of sharpeners = 20 ÷ 4 = 5

⇒ Total quantity of items = 10 + 10 + 5 = 25

⇒ Average price per item = 150 ÷ 25

⇒ Average price = ₹6

∴ The correct answer is ₹6.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

When different quantities (n₁, n₂...) have different prices (p₁, p₂...), the weighted average = (n₁p₁ + n₂p₂ + ...) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ...).

Average Price Concept

The average price represents the uniform cost if all items were bought at the same price while maintaining the same total expenditure.

Unit Price Formula

Unit Price = Total Cost of specific items ÷ Number of units of those items.

Given:

10 men can do work = 25 days

Formula used:

Total work = efficiency × time

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of a man = M

According to the question:

⇒ 10 M × 25 = 10 M × 12 + 13 M × D

⇒ 250 M - 120 M = 13 M × D

⇒ 13 M × D = 130 M

⇒ D = 130/13 = 10 days

∴ The correct answer is 10 days.

Shortcut Trick

For 3 years, the ratio of (Amount / Principal)^1/3 gives (1 + r/100).

⇒ √³(3515.20 / 3125) = √³(35152 / 31250) = √³(17576 / 15625) = 26/25.

Rate x = (1 / 25) × 100 = 4%.

New rate = 4% + 2% = 6%.

Simple Interest = 3125 × 6% × 3 = 3125 × 0.18 = ₹562.50.

∴ The correct answer is ₹562.50.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹3125, Amount (A) = ₹3515.20, Time (T) = 3 years.

Formula Used: A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ and SI = (P × R × T) / 100.

Step 1: Calculate the value of x

⇒ 3515.20 = 3125(1 + x/100)³

⇒ 3515.20 / 3125 = (1 + x/100)³

⇒ 351520 / 312500 = (1 + x/100)³

⇒ 17576 / 15625 = (1 + x/100)³

⇒ (26/25)³ = (1 + x/100)³

⇒ 1 + x/100 = 26/25

⇒ x/100 = 26/25 − 1 = 1/25

⇒ x = 100 / 25 = 4%

Step 2: Calculate Simple Interest

⇒ New Rate = (x + 2)% = 4 + 2 = 6% p.a.

⇒ SI = (3125 × 6 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = (3125 × 18) / 100

⇒ SI = 56250 / 100 = 562.50

∴ The correct answer is ₹562.50.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Formula

The total amount A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ, where P is Principal, r is Rate, and n is Time in years.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest Difference

For 2 years, the difference is D = P(r/100)². For 3 years, D = P(r/100)² × (3 + r/100).

Effective Rate of Interest

In CI, the effective rate for 2 years is x + y + (xy/100). For SI, the effective rate is simply Rate × Time.

Shortcut Trick

For expressions of the form a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc, use the direct formula:

Value = (a + b + c) ÷ 2 × [3(a² + b² + c²) − (a + b + c)²]

⇒ Value = (2 ÷ 2) × [3(26) − (2)²]

⇒ Value = 1 × [78 − 4] = 74

∴ The correct answer is 74.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of terms: a + b + c = 2

Sum of squares: a² + b² + c² = 26

Formula Used:

1. (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca)
2. a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² − (ab + bc + ca))

Calculations:

First, find the value of (ab + bc + ca):

⇒ (2)² = 26 + 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 4 = 26 + 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 2(ab + bc + ca) = 4 − 26

⇒ 2(ab + bc + ca) = −22

⇒ ab + bc + ca = −11

Now, substitute the values into the cubic identity:

⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = 2 × [26 − (−11)]

⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = 2 × [26 + 11]

⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = 2 × 37

⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = 74

∴ The correct answer is 74.

Additional Information

Special Case (a + b + c = 0)

If the sum of the three variables is zero, then a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc.

Alternative Form of Cubic Identity

a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = 1/2 × (a + b + c) × [(a − b)² + (b − c)² + (c − a)²].

Condition for Zero Result

The expression a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc equals zero if either a + b + c = 0 or a = b = c.

Given:

The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.

Formula used:

Volume of cuboid = Length(L) × Breadth(B) × Height(H)

Calculation:

Let the Length, breadth and height of the cuboid be 100, 200, and 300 respectively.

Volume of cuboid = 100 × 200 × 300 = 6000000

Length increased by 200%, Breadth increase by 300% and height by 300%

Now, new length = 300, breadth = 800 and height = 1200 respectively

⇒ new volume of cuboid = 300 × 800 × 1200

= 288000000

Increase in volume = (new volume of the cuboid – the volume of the cuboid)/volume of the cuboid

= (288000000 – 6000000)/6000000

= 282000000/6000000

= 47 times

∴ The increase in the volume of the cuboid will be 47 times.

Shortcut Trick

Given: b = 2% of a ⇒ b = 0.02a

Required: b% of 10 = (b ÷ 100) × 10 = b ÷ 10

Substitute b: (0.02a) ÷ 10 = 0.002a

Check Option (2): 20% of a/100 = (20 ÷ 100) × (a ÷ 100) = 0.2 × 0.01a = 0.002a

∴ The correct answer is 20% of a/100.

Alternate Method

Given: 2% of a = b

Formula Used: x% of y = (x × y) ÷ 100

⇒ b = (2 ÷ 100) × a

⇒ b = 2a ÷ 100

⇒ Required value = b% of 10 = (b ÷ 100) × 10

⇒ Required value = (b × 10) ÷ 100 = b ÷ 10

⇒ Substituting the value of b: (2a ÷ 100) ÷ 10 = 2a ÷ 1000

⇒ Checking Option (2): 20% of a/100 = (20 ÷ 100) × (a ÷ 100) = 20a ÷ 10000 = 2a ÷ 1000

⇒ Since both expressions result in 2a/1000, Option (2) is correct.

∴ The correct answer is 20% of a/100.

Additional Information

Commutative Property of Percentages

x% of y is always equal to y% of x. Formula: (x × y) ÷ 100 = (y × x) ÷ 100.

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert a percentage into a fraction, divide by 100. Example: 2% = 2/100 = 1/50.

Successive Percentages

a% of b% of c = (a × b × c) ÷ 10000. This is useful for multi-step percentage problems.

Shortcut Trick

According to the Angle Bisector Theorem, the ratio of the two segments BD and DC is equal to the ratio of the corresponding sides AB and AC.

Ratio BD : DC = AB : AC

⇒ Ratio = 10 : 14

⇒ Ratio = 5 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side AB = 10 cm

Side AC = 14 cm

AD is the internal angle bisector of ∠BAC.

Formula Used:

Internal Angle Bisector Theorem: BD/DC = AB/AC

Calculations:

⇒ BD/DC = 10/14

⇒ BD/DC = (2 × 5) / (2 × 7)

⇒ BD/DC = 5/7

⇒ BD : DC = 5 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 7.

Additional Information

Internal Angle Bisector Theorem

In a triangle, the angle bisector of an angle divides the opposite side into two segments that are proportional to the other two sides of the triangle.

External Angle Bisector Theorem

For an external angle bisector at A meeting BC produced at D, the ratio is still BD/CD = AB/AC.

Length of Angle Bisector

The length of the bisector AD can be calculated using the formula: AD² = AB × AC − BD × DC.

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern for the code is as follows,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘MIGHTY’ is coded as ‘MILCCP’.

Representation:

The coded logic is given in the table below:

According to the given expression,

A $ B means A is the father of B

A @ B means B is the mother of A

A * B means A is the wife of B

A & B means A is the sister of B

A # B means B is the daughter of A

1) Y & A

2. Y & A @ X 

3) Y & A @ X * Z

4) Y & A @ X * Z $ B

According to the above expression following family tree is formed.

Therefore, the gender of A and B are not determined.

Hence, Cannot be determined is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram of the given statements is given below:

I. Some herbs are plants. : False (No tree is herb, and all plants are trees hence, no herb can be plants. 

II. All herbs being animals is a possibility. : True (As 'Some' is subset of 'All', it is possible that All herbs are animals.)

Hence, only conclusion II follows.

Seven students: Aman, Bhanu, Charu, Divya, Viplav, Madan, and Govind.

1) Madan is sitting to the right of Aman.

2) Viplav sits as the immediate neighbor of Aman and Divya.

3) Govind is not sitting between Madan and Charu.

Means, one person sitting between Charu and Madan.

Hence, the neighbours of Bhanu are Madan and Charu.

The pattern followed is,

All follow the same pattern, except ‘TUGD’.

Hence, “TUGD” is the odd letter cluster.

The pattern followed in the given series is:

The difference of difference between the terms is 9.

Hence the correct answer is option 4).

1. M is heavier than only Q. So, Q must be the lightest.

_ > _ > _ > M > Q

2. P is lighter than N, who is not the heaviest. 

_ > N > P > M > Q

3. O is heavier than P. So, O must be the heaviest.

Thus, the final arrangement will be :

O > N > P > M > Q

Hence, four persons are lighter than O.

Additional Information

"And" is used for the first person in a sentence.

For example,

A is taller than B and shorter than C →  It means A is taller than B and A is shorter than C.

"Who" is used for the second person in a sentence.

For example,

A is taller than B who is shorter than C →  It means A is taller than B and B is shorter than C.

The pattern followed here is:

0² × 1 = 0,

1² × 2 = 2,

2² × 3 = 12,

3² × 4 = 36,

4² × 5 = 80,

5² × 6 = 150

Hence, 36 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Logic:- ( { \sqrt{Second number}}) × 9 = First number.

1. 18 : 4

⇒ ({\sqrt{4}}) × 9

⇒ 2 × 9 = 18

And,

2. 36 : 16

⇒ ( { \sqrt{16} }) × 9

⇒ 4 × 9 = 36

Similarly,

3. 27 : ?

⇒ ({ \sqrt{x} }) × 9 = 27

⇒ ({ \sqrt{x}}) = 27 ÷ 9

⇒ ({\sqrt{x} }) = 3

⇒ 9 

Hence, the correct answer is "9"

The minimum possible Venn diagram of the given statements,

Conclusions:

1. All four-wheelers are cars → False (Because all jeeps are four-wheelers so some four-wheelers can be jeeps but all four-wheelers is definitely false)
2. Some four-wheelers are Jeeps → True (Because all jeeps are four-wheelers so some four-wheelers can be jeeps, it is definitely true)

Hence, Only conclusion 2 follows.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, C is the wife of P.

Hence, ‘Wife’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

As we know that the year 2000 is divisible by 400, and so the number of odd days = 0.

Next, the number of leap years till 2010 = 2 i.e. 2004 and 2008.

And, the number of ordinary years till 2010 = 8

So, the total number of odd days will be till 2011 is

= 8 + 2(2) = 12 odd days

Again, the total number of odd days till 19th Feb 2011 

= 12 + 31 (Jan) + 19 (Feb)

= 62 odd days = 8 weeks and 6 odd days

Thus, the day on 19th Feb 2011 is Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is 'option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, "option 2" is the correct answer.

According to given information-

• Number of persons = 6
• Name of persons -  Raj, Shruti, Priya, Mohan, Ajit and Geet

​• Mohan is second from Priya's right and Priya is third from Raj's left.

• Ajit is second from Mohan's right and Geet is not Mohan's neighbour. Thus, final arrangement will be-

Clearly, Raj is sitting fourth to the right of Geet.

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

BODMAS RULE:

Given equation is  18 × 7 ÷ 36 + 78 - 14 = 86

Option 1):

By interchanging (6 and 4) and (- and +) in the given equation

Interchanged equation is : 18 × 7 ÷ 34 - 78 +16 = 86

⇒  18 × 0.206 - 78 +16 = 86

⇒   3.708 – 78 + 16 = 86

⇒   3.708 + 16 – 78 = 86

⇒   19.708  - 78 = 86

⇒   - 58.292 ≠ 86

⇒   LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2):

By interchanging (1 and 4) and (×  and ÷) in the given equation

Interchanged equation is : 48 ÷ 7 ×  36 + 78  - 41 = 86

⇒ 6.86 × 36 + 78 – 41 = 86

⇒ 246.96 + 78 – 41 = 86

⇒ 324.96 – 41 = 86

⇒ 283.96 ≠ 86

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3):

By interchanging (3 and 4) and (×  and +) in the given equation

Interchanged equation is : 18 + 7 ÷  46 × 78  - 13 = 86

⇒ 18 + 0.152 × 78 – 13 = 86

⇒ 18 + 11.856 – 13 = 86

⇒ 29.856 – 13 = 86

⇒  16.856 ≠ 86

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4):                                                   

By interchanging (4 and 3) and (÷ and -) in the given equation

Interchanged equation is : 18 × 7 – 46 + 78 ÷ 13 = 86

⇒  18 × 7 – 46 + 6 = 86

⇒  126 – 46 + 6 = 86

⇒ 126 + 6 – 46 = 86

⇒  132 – 46 = 86

⇒  LHS = RHS                                                                       

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

As per the given information,

• A stands in the 13th position from the front of the queue and there are 2 persons between A and B. B stands after A:

• If the first 8 persons are removed from the queue:

Here, when the first 8 persons are removed from the queue, A becomes 5th from the front. Thus, the position of B will be '8th'.

Thus, the position of B from the front of the queue is '8th'.

Hence, the correct answer is "8".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'XMCV' is the correct answer.

According to the given information,

1) Peter departs from his home and walks 10 m towards north.

2. She then turns right and walks 36 m.

3) He turns left and walks 5 m. 

4) Now he turns left again and walks 25 m and stops.

5) A pole is placed exactly 15 m south from where he is standing.

Hence, the correct answer is "11 m, west".

BODMAS:

By decoding given information:

By interchanging the signs and using BODMAS rule, we get:

117 × 6 ÷ 9 × 2 + 25 - 52 = ?

117 × (2\over 3) × 2  + 25  - 52 = ?

39 × 2 × 2 + 25 - 52 = ?

156 + 25 - 52 = ?

156 - 27 = 129

Hence, the correct answer is "129".

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

‘MISERY’ is written as ‘LJHPBO’

Similarly,

‘PRAISE’ be written '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "UMLXHP".

The correct answer is "exclamation mark (!)."

Key Points

• In this sentence, "Oh" is an interjection, a word or phrase that expresses strong emotion or surprise.
• Interjections are often followed by an exclamation mark (!) in English grammar to indicate the emphasis or strong emotion.
• So, the most fitting punctuation mark to express surprise or strong emotions after an interjection like "Oh" is the exclamation mark.
• Therefore, the sentence should read "Oh! I didn’t realise that."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1."

Additional Information

• Full stop (.) is typically used to indicate the end of a sentence, not after interjections for emphasis.
• Semicolons (;) are used to link closely related ideas or separate items in a complex list. They are not generally used with interjections.
• Colons (:) are typically used to introduce a list, a quote, or a further explanation, so it would not fit after an interjection.

The correct answer is 'Ambiguous'.

Key Points

• The given word 'Obvious' means something which is easily perceived or understood; clear, self-evident, or apparent. ('स्पष्ट' or 'प्रत्यक्ष').
• Example: The benefits of the decision were obvious to everyone.
• 'Ambiguous' means something which is open to more than one interpretation. ('अस्पष्ट' or 'संदिग्ध').
• Example: The language in the contract was ambiguous and led to different interpretations.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 2'.

Additional Information

• 'Evident' means clearly seen or understood; obvious. ('स्पष्ट' or 'प्रत्यक्ष').
• 'Inherent' refers to something that is a basic or essential part of something; it's unremovable. ('सहज' or 'निहित').
• 'Apparent' refers to things that are clearly visible or understood; obvious. ('प्रत्यक्ष' or 'स्पष्ट').

The correct answer is "balloon."

 Key Points

• Amon the given options:
• The words given in options 1, 3 and 4 do not exist in English vocabulary or we can say that their is some spelling mistake in them.
• The correct words would be: 
• "Committee" means a group of people who have been chosen to discuss something or decide something.
• "Successive" means something/ someone following immediately one after the other.
• "Fulfill" means to make something that you wish for happen; to achieve a goal.
• While, the word in option 2 i.e. "balloon" is correctly spelled.
• Balloon is a small colored object that you blow air into and use as a toy or for decoration.
• Example: He pricked the balloon and burst it.

Hence, it can be concluded that the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (was not verified).

Key Points

• The word "verified" means to confirm the accuracy, truth, or validity of something. (सत्यापित करना)
• Example: The documents were verified by the government authorities.
• The phrase "was not verified" is used in past tense to indicate that the verification did not happen in the past. (पिछले समय में सत्यापित नहीं किया गया)
• Example: The report was not verified by the auditor before submission.
• In the given sentence, the phrase "is not verified" is incorrect because the sentence discusses a past event, and hence, the past tense "was not verified" should be used.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (was not verified).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: has not been verified (अब तक सत्यापित नहीं हुआ है): This phrase is in the present perfect tense, which refers to an action that started in the past but is relevant to the present. However, it does not fit here because the sentence refers to a past event.
• Example: The data has not been verified by the experts yet.
• Option 2: is not being verified yet (अभी तक सत्यापित नहीं किया जा रहा है): This phrase is in the present continuous tense and indicates an ongoing process, which is not suitable for the given sentence describing a past event.
• Example: The experiment is not being verified yet by the researchers.
• Option 3: No substitution required (कोई प्रतिस्थापन आवश्यक नहीं): This option implies that the original sentence is correct. However, the original sentence is incorrect because it uses "is not verified" instead of "was not verified."

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. ​My friend said, “Stay with me over the weekend, otherwise I will not talk to you.”

Explanation:

• There are a few basic notes to keep in mind while structuring sentences in direct speech.

1. The words that are actually spoken should be enclosed in inverted commas and begins with a capital letter.

"Stay with me over the weekend, otherwise I will not talk to you."

• Here, there is no need for commas in after 'will not talk.'
  

2. If direct speech comes after the main subject, you should use a comma before the speech. This is placed before the first inverted comma, after the reporting verb.
   

My friend said*,​** "...."*
3. As a key punctuation rule, a full stop is necessary at the end of the sentence.

Option 4 follows these major points and therefore, is the correct answer. ​

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by addressing the common sentiment that there is not enough time in the day (Sentence D).
• Sentence D is the first sentence as it introduces the problem of limited time:
• "It seems that there is never enough time in the day."
• Sentence A follows as it questions why some people achieve more despite having the same 24 hours:
• "But since we all get the same 24 hours, why is it that some people achieve so much more in their time than others?"
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it provides an answer to the question raised in Sentence A:
• "The answer lies in time management."
• Sentence B is the fourth as it elaborates on time management by specifying its focus:
• "That means how much time you plan to spend on specific activities."
• The correct sequence is DACB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"It seems that there is never enough time in the day. But since we all get the same 24 hours, why is it that some people achieve so much more in their time than others? The answer lies in time management. That means how much time you plan to spend on specific activities."

The correct answer is: Chauffeur.

Key Points

• The term "Operator" generally refers to someone who operates equipment or machinery. (संचालक)
• Example: The crane operator carefully moved the heavy load across the construction site.
• "Chauffeur" specifically means a person whose job is to drive people around in a car, often implying a professional, personal driver for luxury vehicles. (चालक)
• Example: After winning the lottery, she hired a private chauffeur to drive her around the city.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitute for "A person whose job is to drive people around in a car" is 'Chauffeur'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Chauffeur.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Operator (संचालक): Someone who operates or controls machinery or equipment.
• Example: The machine operator ensured all safety protocols were followed during operation.
• Hacker (हैकर ): A person who uses computers to gain unauthorized access to data.
• Example: Companies hire ethical hackers to strengthen their cybersecurity systems.
• Motorist (मोटर चालक): Someone who drives a car, especially as their main form of transport.
• Example: The motorist stopped at the red light, patiently waiting for it to turn green.

The correct answer is 'Anecdote.'

Key Points 

• Anecdote means "a short interesting story about a real person or event (किसी व्‍यक्ति या घटना के विषय में रोचक लघुकथा; कि़स्‍सा चुटकला, लतीफा)".
• ​Example: All the anecdotes are not equally compelling and this should not be a surprise.
• From the above explanation, it can be concluded that 'Anecdote' is the correct word to substitute for the given description.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

• Poesy means the art or composition of poetry (कला या कविता की रचना).
• Legend means an old story that may or may not be true (प्राचीन कथा जिसका सत्‍य या असत्‍य होना प्रासंगिक नहीं; आख्‍यान, किंवदंती, दंतकथा, लोककथा).
• Ballsy means determined and courageous (दृढ़ निश्चयी और साहसी).

The correct answer is 'Ordinary '

Key Points

• The word provided here is 'Sublime', which generally refers to the state or quality of being high, grand, or excellent.
• The English meaning of 'Sublime' is grandeur or beauty (उत्कृष्ट).
• Example : The sublime beauty of the mountains was breathtaking.
• The word that is opposite in meaning to 'Sublime' in this context is 'Ordinary' ('सामान्य'), which refers to the normal or usual.
• Example: She is no ordinary girl, she has won many accolades.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'

Additional Information

• 'Singular', 'Apparent', and 'Equal': These words do not reflect the antonym concept of 'Sublime'. They refer to distinct or single, clear or visible, and identical respectively.

The correct answer is “Admire" 

Key Points

• 'Cherish' means to hold something or someone dear or to appreciate considerably. (स्नेह रखना)
• Example- She cherished her children above all else.
• 'Admire' means respect and warm approval, and this respect could be for something or someone that one cherishes.(सम्मान और हार्दिक अनुमोदन)
• Example- He admires her for her dedication to the cause.
• Hence, the option that is Similar in meaning to 'Cherish' is 'Admire’.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 4’.

Additional Information 

• Let’s have a look at the meaning of the remaining options.
• 'Condemn' means express complete disapproval of, typically in public. (निंदा करना)
• 'Abandon' means to give up completely or to desert. (त्यागना)
• 'Neglect' means to fail to care for properly. (उपेक्षा करना)

The correct answer is "Subsistence".

Key Points 

• Out of the four given words, "Entitlemant, Discrimnation and Acknouledge" are incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "Entitlement, Discrimination and Acknowledgement".
• Hence, the correctly spelled word is "Subsistence".
• "Subsistence": the state of having what you need in order to stay alive but no more
• Example: Primitive subsistence agriculture is practiced in rural areas.

Additional Information The meanings of the other words are:

• "Entitlement": the official right to have or do something
• "Discrimination": treating one person or group worse than others
• "Acknowledgement": the act of showing that you have seen or noticed somebody/something

The correct answer is: "To work fast."

Key Points

• "To work against the clocks" means to work quickly or urgently, especially when there is a deadline or time constraint.
• For example: We need to finish this project by tomorrow, so we'll have to work against the clock.
• The phrase implies that time is running out, and the person must work as efficiently as possible to complete the task.
• The word "clocks" is used metaphorically to represent the passage of time and the pressure it exerts on the worker.
• This phrase can be used in various contexts, such as work, sports, or academic assignments.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'the'.

Key Points

• The article "the" is used when referring to a specific noun that is known to the speaker and the listener.
• In this sentence, "the best player" refers to a specific player in the team, making "the" the correct choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "He is the best player in our team."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "a" is incorrect because "a" is used with non-specific singular nouns starting with consonant sounds, which does not fit here.
• Option 2: "an" is incorrect because "an" is used with non-specific singular nouns starting with vowel sounds, which does not fit here.
• Option 4: "no article" is incorrect because an article is required to specify the noun "best player" in this context.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the consequences of poor time management and arranges the sentences in a logical sequence.
• Sentence C is the first sentence because it introduces the central theme of the paragraph, i.e., the negative outcomes of failing to manage time:
• "Failing to manage your time effectively can have very undesirable consequences."
• Sentence A follows as it elaborates on the initial thought by providing specific examples of poor time management outcomes:
• "Deadlines are missed and the work flow is inefficient and of poor quality."
• Sentence D is the third sentence as it discusses how these consequences affect a professional's reputation and career:
• "It dents your reputation as a professional and your career is in danger of being stalled."
• Sentence B is the last sentence as it concludes the paragraph by emphasizing how these issues lead to personal stress:
• "As a result, your stress level shoots up."
• The correct sequence is CADB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Failing to manage your time effectively can have very undesirable consequences. Deadlines are missed and the work flow is inefficient and of poor quality. It dents your reputation as a professional and your career is in danger of being stalled. As a result, your stress level shoots up."

The correct answer is 'Option 1'

 Key Points

The underlined word in this sentence is 'acquired' which means to obtain or to gain knowledge or skills.

The English meaning of 'Acquired' is gained or obtained (हिंदी में - प्राप्त).

An example of 'Acquired' in a sentence could be: He has acquired proficiency in French language.

The synonym to 'Acquired' in this context is 'Obtained', which also means to get or gain through some effort.

The Hindi meaning of 'Obtained' is 'प्राप्त हुई'. An example of 'Obtained' in a sentence could be: She obtained the highest marks in her exams.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 1'

 Additional Information

'Forfeited': It means to lose or give up something, does not fit this context.

'Admired': Means to regard with respect or warm approval, not applicable here.

'Awarded': Means to give something as a result of a decision, not related to the word 'acquired'.

The correct option is: over

Key Points

• The context tells us that currently, a rich, deep soprano voice reverberated over the fading foliage as it drifted from the parlor's open windows.
• The word "over" (ऊपर) fits the blank because it indicates that the soprano voice is resonating throughout or across the darkening greenery, implying that the sound is spreading across the area.
• "Over" can suggest the voice moving through or enveloping the scene, which aligns with the imagery of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is: over.

Additional Information

• Aside (बाहर): This means to move something away from a particular place or position. In this context, it does not make sense because the voice is not moving aside from the greenery; it's resonating through it.
• But (लेकिन): This is a conjunction used to contrast ideas or statements. It doesn't fit here because the sentence is describing how the voice resonates with the greenery, not contrasting the elements.
• Besides (के अलावा): This is used to mean "in addition to" or "apart from." It doesn't fit in this context, as it would suggest something additional rather than the voice resonating through the scene.

The cloze test is given below:

Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating over the darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was (2) ..... by that voice, infused with unexpected life; the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky; the (3) ..... of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4) ..... everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally hidden, a world that (5) ..... into eternity.

The correct option is: awakened

Key Points

• The context tells us that it seemed as though that voice suddenly brought unexpected life to the whole scene in front of them
• The word "awakened" (जागा) fits the blank because it conveys the idea of bringing the scene to life or reviving it.
• The voice is described as infusing the scene with unexpected life, and "awakened" captures the sense of vitality being introduced into the surroundings.

Hence, the correct answer is: awakened.

Additional Information

• Belated (देरी से आना): This means something that is delayed or happening later than expected. It does not fit the context, as it does not imply bringing the scene to life.
• Lapsed (समाप्त होना): This means something that has fallen into disuse or has passed beyond its original point. It does not fit the context of bringing life to the scene.
• Untried (अपरिक्षित): This means something that has not been tested or experimented with. It does not convey the sense of bringing life to the scene.

The cloze test is given below:

Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating over the darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was awakened by that voice, infused with unexpected life; the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky; the (3) ..... of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4) ..... everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally hidden, a world that (5) ..... into eternity.

The correct option is: Branches

Key Points

• The context tells us about the tree branches that occasionally cast deep black shadows on the ground.
• The word "branches" fits the blank as it refers to the parts of the trees, specifically their limbs or extensions, which would cast shadows across the ground.
• This choice aligns with the context of the passage, where the scene describes trees and shadows.

Hence, the correct answer is: Branches.

Additional Information

• Pack (झुंड): This refers to a collection or group of things, often used for animals or objects. It does not fit here, as it does not relate to the image of trees casting shadows.
• Material(सामग्री): This refers to the substance or components of something. It doesn't make sense in this context because it doesn't relate to trees or shadows.
• Transition (परिवर्तन): This refers to a process of change or movement from one state to another. It doesn't fit in this context because the passage is describing trees and their physical attributes, not a shift in state.

The cloze test is given below:

Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating over the darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was awakened by that voice, infused with unexpected life; the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky; the branches of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that (4) ..... everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally hidden, a world that (5) ..... into eternity.

The correct option is: brought.

Key Points

• The context tells us that the same voice that made everything come to life at once also pulled them into a deeper, otherwise hidden world that seemed to go on forever.
• The word "brought" fits the blank because it conveys the idea of causing something to come into a new state, aligning with the passage's description of the voice causing everything to come to life.
• The voice is described as stirring and enlivening the scene, and "brought" appropriately indicates this effect.

Hence, the correct answer is: brought.

Additional Information

• Transacted (व्यवाहारिक): This means to carry out or conduct a business deal or exchange. It doesn't fit here, as the context is not about business transactions but about the impact of the voice on the scene.
• Chiselled (कुंदल): This means carved or shaped, often used for stone or wood. It doesn't fit the context of a voice impacting the scene, as it suggests physical alteration rather than emotional or atmospheric change.
• Lightened (हल्का होना): This means to make something less dark or heavy. While it might fit in some contexts, it doesn't capture the full effect described in the passage, which is more about awakening or bringing to life the scene.

The cloze test is given below:

Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating over the darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was awakened by that voice, infused with unexpected life; the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky; the branches of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that brought everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally hidden, a world that (5) ..... into eternity.

The correct option is: stretched out.

Key Points

• The context tells us that the same voice that made everything come to life at once also pulled them into a deeper, otherwise hidden world that seemed to go on forever.
• The phrase "stretched out" (कार्यग्रस्त) fits the blank because it conveys the idea of extending into a vast or boundless space, which is appropriate for describing something "into eternity."
• It suggests the infinite reach or the limitless nature of the world that the voice is unveiling.
• "Stretched out" aligns with the context of something extending beyond the present moment, into eternity, as the passage describes the voice drawing the listeners into a deeper world.

Hence, the correct answer is: stretched out.

Additional Information

• Handed over (सोपना देना): This means to give or transfer something to someone else. It doesn't fit here because it doesn't convey the idea of something extending or reaching into eternity.
• Pleaded for (बिनती करना): This means to request or ask for something earnestly. It doesn't align with the concept of eternity or an infinite world.
• Asked for (मांगना): This means to make a request or demand. It doesn't fit the context of extending into an infinite or boundless realm.

The cloze test is given below:

Presently, a soprano voice of richness and depth floated from the open windows of the parlour, resonating over the darkening greenery. All at once it was as if the entire scene before them was awakened by that voice, infused with unexpected life; the western sky, streaked with bands of pale gold and purple; the two houses, standing grey and disconsolate against that sky; the branches of trees casting deep black shadows here and there across the ground. The same voice that brought everything suddenly to life also drew them into another, much deeper world: a world that was normally hidden, a world that stretched out into eternity.

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

• Canada has the longest coastline (202, 080 km) in the world.
• The currency of Canada is Canadian dollar and it's Prime Minister is Mark Carney ​.
• Canada is the second largest country in the world after Russia.
• the capital of Canada is Ottawa.
• Indonesia is the largest archipelago in the world.

Additional Information

• Gujarat has the longest coastline in India.
• Its length is 1,600 kilometres.
• Almost 24% of the Indian sea coast.
• It has 41 ports: one major, 11 intermediate, and 29 minor.
• Andhra Pradesh has the second-longest coastline in India.
• The length of the coastline is 974 km along with the Coromandel Coast between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
• This coastline has a rich agricultural land due to the delta of the Godavari Krishna river and Penna.
• Tamil Nadu is the third largest coastline in India and is known as the Coromandel Coast.
• Major seaports are Tuticorin and Chennai, fishing harbours, Marina Beach (largest natural urban beach in India), and Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park.

The correct answer is Goods and Services Tax

Key Points

• 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016  introduced the Goods and Services Tax.
• GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill.
• Goods and Services Tax is a widespread indirect tax on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services throughout India.
• GST replaced respective taxes levied by the central and state governments.
• It is an indirect tax for the whole country on the lines of “One Nation One Tax” to make India a combined market.
• GST Council will decide upon any matter related to GST whose chairman is the finance minister of India.
• GST has provisions of:
• Central GST to cover Excise duty, Service tax.
• State GST to cover VAT, luxury tax and Integrated GST to cover inter-state trade.
• IGST is not a tax but a system to coordinate state and union taxes.
• Article 246A states that States have the power to tax goods and services.

Additional Information

• The Ninety-second Amendment of the Constitution of India is known as The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003.
• It amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.
• It includes Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali languages and increases the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22.
• The Constitutional (103rd Amendment) Act got the assent of the President of India on 13th January 2018.
• It provides reservation of jobs in central government jobs as well as government educational institutions.
• It applies to citizens belonging to the economically weaker sections from the upper castes.
• This reservation is "in addition to the existing reservations and subject to a maximum of ten percent of the total seats in each category".
• The Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act of 1992 came into force in India to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya

Key Points:

• The Mauryan Empire was the first pan-India empire formed around 322 BCE and ended in 185 BCE.
• It spanned central and northern India as well as over parts of modern-day Iran.
• The chronological order of the rulers of the Mauryan empire is:
• The empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 322 BCE.
• The second ruler was Bindusara who ruled from 297 Bc to 273 BC.
• Ashoka was the most popular ruler of the dynasty who ruled from 268 to 232 BCE.
• Brihadratha was the last ruler of the Mauryan dynasty ruled from 187–185 BCE

**Additional Information:**Mauryan Empire

• The Maurya dynasty (321–185 BC) was a powerful dynasty in ancient India.
• The Maurya dynasty ruled India for 137 years.
• The credit for its establishment is given to Chandragupta Maurya and his minister Chanakya (Kautilya).
• This empire started from the plains of the Ganges river (today's Bihar and Bengal) in the state of Magadha in the east.
• Its capital was Pataliputra (near present-day Patna city).
• Chandragupta Maurya established this empire in 321 BC and rapidly expanded his empire towards the west.
• The Mauryan Empire grew and thrived during the Iron Age.
• He took advantage of the differences between several small regional kingdoms that had arisen after Alexander's invasion.
• By 316 BC, the Maurya dynasty had occupied the whole of North Western India.
• The Maurya dynasty expanded on a large scale in the reign of the Chakravarti emperor Ashoka.
• Due to Emperor Ashoka, the Maurya Empire became the greatest and most powerful and became famous all over the world.

The correct answer is Article 280.

Key Points

• The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years.
• The finance commission is a constitutional body mandated by article 280 of the constitution.
• The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are of an advisory nature only and therefore, not binding upon the government.
• It submits its report to the President of India.
• The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951.
• The eligibility of members of the Finance Commission is determined by the Parliament of India.
• Composition: Chairman and 4 members.
• ​They make recommendations on
• net proceeds distribution between the union and the state.
• grant-in-aid from CFI (Consolidated Fund of India).
• Principles and measures needed for augmentation of CFS (Consolidated Fund of State).
• Resources to panchayats and municipalities.
• Any other matter referred to the commission by President in the interest of sound finance.
• Procedure and powers are defined by parliament law.

​The correct answer is Nagaland.

In News

• La. Ganesan was sworn in as the 21st Governor of Nagaland on 20 February 2023.
• Shri. Ajay Kumar Bhalla is the 22nd Governor of Nagaland.

Key Points

• He succeeded Prof Jagdish Mukhi, the Governor of Assam, who was holding additional charge of Nagaland.
• Before this appointment, he was Governor of Manipur since August 2017.
• He also served as Governor of West Bengal from July to November 2022.
• Prior to all this, he was a senior leader of Tamil Nadu BJP.

The correct answer is Ten.

Key Points

• Each Veda is a compilation of hymns written by several priest families.
• Rig-Veda is also divided into ten volumes known as Mandalas.
• The first and tenth Mandalas are the youngest and longest books, respectively.
• The second through seventh Mandalas are the oldest but also the shortest portions of the Rig-Veda.

Additional Information

• The Rig Veda is the oldest of the four Vedas and one of the most important Hindu writings.
• It is a massive collection of hymns to the gods that are performed at various rites.
• They were written in an old language known as Vedic, which developed into classical Sanskrit through time.
• The X mandala contains the well-known Purushsukta, which explains how the four varnas (Brahmans, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas, and Shudras) evolved from the mouth, arms, and thighs.

The correct answer is three.

Key Points

• Dholavira was divided into three parts, and each part was surrounded by massive stone walls, with entrances through gateways.
• It was located on Khadir Beyt (also spelt as Bet) in the Rann of Kutch, where there was fresh water and fertile soil.
• It is one of the five largest Harappan sites and the most prominent of archaeological sites
• It is connected by an umbilical cord of a road that streaks across to the mainland.
• Dholavira was divided into three principal divisions-
• the Citadel,
• the Middle Town and
• the Lower town.
• It is also considered as having been the grandest of cities of its time.

Additional Information

• Harappan civilization
• Harappan civilization is also called as Indus Valley Civilization (IVC).
• John Marshall was the first researcher to use the term, ‘Indus Valley Civilization’.
• Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) is one of the four great civilizations of the world.
• It flourished along the flood plains of Indus and Ghaggar-Hakra.
• It was spread across the western part of South Asia that now lies in India, Pakistan and Afghanistan.
• Indus Valley Civilization spread from the year 2500 – 1750 BC according to radio-carbon dating.
• The capital cities were Mohenjodaro and Harappa.

The Correct Answer is "Mundaka Upanishad".

Important Points

• The words Satyameva Jayate from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning 'Truth Alone Triumphs', are inscribed below the abacus in Devanagari script.
• In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view.
• The wheel appears in relief in the center of the abacus with a bull on right and a horse on the left and the outlines of other wheels on the extreme right and left.
• The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted.
• The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.

Additional Information

• Mundaka Upanishad:
• Mundaka Upanishad is one of the types of Upanishad.
• The word Upanishad means sitting down near someone and denotes a student sitting near his guru to learn.
• These are one of four genres of texts that together constitute each of the Vedas, the sacred scriptures of most Hindu traditions.
• Mundaka Upanishad is embedded in the Atharva Veda.
• The Mundaka Upanishad contains three Mundakams (parts), each with two sections.
• The first Mundakam defines the science of "Higher Knowledge" and "Lower Knowledge".
• The second Mundakam describes the nature of the Brahman, the Self, the relation between the empirical world and the Brahman.
• Satyamev Jayte is taken from this Upanishad.

The Correct Answer is "Kerala".

Key Points

• National Statistical Office (NSO) published a report on 'Household Social Consumption: Education', surveying 1.13 lakh households spread over 8,000 villages and 6,000 urban blocks.
• The report is based on the data collected between 2017-18 and is for the age group 7 or above.
• As per the report, Kerala is the most literate state in the country while Andhra Pradesh has emerged as the least literate state in the country.

Important Points

Findings of the Report :

• Kerala has the highest literacy rate among the Indian states-- 96.2%.
• National Capital Delhi stands on number two with an 89% literacy rate.
• Andhra Pradesh has ranked the worst amongst all the Indian states with a 66.4% literacy rate.
• The average literacy rate of the country is 77.7%.  Karnataka and Telangana have a literacy rate lower than the national average-- 72.8% and 77.2% respectively.
• Uttarakhand stands at number three with a literacy rate of 87.6% and  Assam stands at number four with an 85.9% literacy rate.
• The gap between the male and female literacy rate is thinnest in Kerala with a 2.2% difference.
• The gap between the male and female literacy rate at all Indian levels is 14.4%. The male literacy rate is 84.7% while the female literacy rate is 70.3%.
• The state of Kerala has the lowest gap between the urban and rural literacy rates**-- 1.9%.**
• Telangana has the worst literacy gap between the rural and urban areas. The urban literacy rate of Telangana is 23.4% higher than the rural literacy rates. The state of Andhra Pradesh has this difference by 19.2%.

Additional Information

• The literacy rate is defined as the percentage of literate persons among persons of 7 years and above.
• A person who can read and write a simple message in any language with understanding is considered literate in NSS surveys.

The correct answer is River Betwa

Key Points:

The Betwa river is a tributary of the Yamuna.

• The ancient name of the river Betwa is Vetravati.
• It rises in the Vindhya Range in kumragaon Village, Raisen, Madhya Pradesh.
• It is called the "Ganga of Madhya Pradesh".
• It flows generally through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh states.
• It confluences with the river Yamuna near Hamirpur in Uttar Pradesh.
• The Bina, Dhasaan, and Jamni rivers are the main tributaries of the river Betwa.
• The Rajghat Dam is constructed on the Betwa River
• Orchha, Guna, Sanchi, and Vidisha are located on the bank of the Betwa River.
• Rajghat Dam, Matatila Dam, Parichha Dam, and Dhurwara Dam are important projects on the Betwa River.
• Bina and Dhasaan art the important tributary of the Betwa River.

​Yamuna River System

• ​The Yamuna River is the largest tributary of the Ganga River.
• It originates from the Yamunotri glacier, at the Bandarpoonch peak in Uttarakhand.
• The main tributaries joining the river include the Sin, Hindon, Betwa Ken, and Chambal.
• The Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Bringing the small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana:

 The scheme was launched on 8th April 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

• It is a flagship scheme that is aimed to extend affordable credit to micro and small enterprises i.e to bring the small entrepreneurs into the formal financial systems.
• It provides loans up to 10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises.
• There are three products under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA loan:
• Covering loan of up to Rs. 50,000 under Shishu.
• Covering loan from above Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 500,000 under Kishore.
• Covering loan from above 500,000 to Rs.10,00,000 under Tarun.
• Sectors Covered under MUDRA yojana:-

1. Land Transport Sector
2. Community, Social & Personal Service Activity
3. Food Products Sector
4. Textile Products Sector

The correct answer is Razia Sultana.

Key Points

• Razia Sultana was the first female Muslim ruler of the Indian subcontinent.
• She ruled in Delhi from 1236 to 1240 as the Sultan herself – it was a title never before bestowed on a woman, a position of power never before attained by a woman.
• Before ascending to the throne of Delhi after her father’s death, the reign was briefly handed over to her half-brother Rukn ud-din Firuz.
• But after Firuz’s assassination within 6 months of his ascendency, the nobles agreed to place Razia on the throne.

Additional Information

Slave Dynasty 

• Established by Qutb ud-Din Aibak.
• Dynasty lasted from 1206 to 1290.
• It was the first of the dynasties to rule as the Delhi Sultanate.
• Dynasty ended when Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji overthrew the last Mamluk ruler Muiz ud din Qaiqabad in 1290.
• Dynasty was succeeded by the Khilji (or Khalji) dynasty, the second dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.

The correct answer is 1954.

Key Points

• National Flood Control Programme was launched in 1954.
• Its main objective was to control floods by constructing flood embankments, drainage channels, raising villages and town protection works.

Additional Information

• After the limited success of the National Flood Control Programme, National Flood Commission was established in 1976.
• The aim of NFC was to study India's flood control measures after the limited success of measures taken under NFCP of 1954.
• It was formed under the Ministry of Agriculture and Irrigation.
• It submitted 207 recommendations in 1980.

• The correct answer is option 2  i.e., 1985.
• The 52^nd Constitutional Amendment Act related to Anti-Defection was enacted in the year 1985.
• It laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection.
• The amendment added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution which contains provisions as to the disqualification on the ground of defection.
• The 46th Amendment extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years.
• In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
• The 54th Amendment enhances the salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India.

Other important amendments are:-

The correct answer is 6.3% - 6.8%.

In News

• The Economic Survey 2024-25 forecasts that India’s GDP growth for FY26 will be between 6.3% and 6.8%.
• This projection is based on domestic economic stability, government investments, and easing of food inflation.

Key Points

• India’s GDP growth forecast for FY26 is in the range of 6.3% - 6.8%.
• Growth will be supported by strategic policy management, deregulation, and structural reforms at the grassroots level.
• Government capital expenditure and improved business expectations are expected to boost domestic investment.
• Volatile food prices remain a key concern, but a good Rabi crop is expected to ease inflationary pressures.

Additional Information

• Key Challenges
• Geopolitical tensions and trade policy risks pose uncertainties for global and Indian markets.
• Potential commodity price shocks could impact inflation and overall economic stability.
• Future Outlook
• Policy recommendations focus on prudent fiscal management and deregulation to enhance competitiveness.
• Domestic investment is expected to increase, driven by government spending and favorable business expectations.
• Inflation & Food Prices
• Food price volatility remains a concern, but the upcoming Rabi crop is expected to ease pressure on inflation.
• Strategic management of supply chain disruptions will be critical for stabilizing food prices.

The correct answer is option 2. The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act added Part IX to the Indian Constitution.

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act Was enacted passed in 1992 during the Narasimha Rao Government.
• It added Part IX to our Constitution which is entitled as 'The Panchayats' and deals with the provisions of Articles 243 to 243 O.
• A new schedule, the Eleventh Schedule was also added to the Constitution.
• This act leads to the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati raj system for local self-government.
• The three-tier system consists of:
• Zila Parishad (at the district level).
• Block Samiti (at block level).
• Gram Panchayat (at village level).

The correct answer is Horticulture and Honey.

Key Points

• The Golden Revolution is related to Horticulture and Honey.
• It started in 1991 and lasted till 2003.
• Father of Golden Revolution: Nirpakh Tutaj.
• The Golden Fibre Revolution is related to Jute Production.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1793 A.D.

Key Points

• Lord Charles Cornwallis was the Governor-General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793.
• By the terms of the settlement, the rajas and taluqdars were recognised as zamindars and were asked to collect rent from the peasants and pay revenue to the Company.
• The amount to be paid was fixed permanently, that is, it was not to be increased ever in future.
• It was felt that this would ensure a regular flow of revenue into the Company’s coffers and at the same time encourage the zamindars to invest in improving the land.
• Since the revenue demand of the state would not be increased, the zamindar would benefit from increased production from the land.

The correct answer is 'Tropical rainforests'

Key Points

• Tropical rainforests:
• Tropical rainforests, also known as tropical evergreen forests, are characterized by high annual rainfall, with the minimum being no less than 1750-2000 mm.
• These forests are found near the equator, where the climate is warm and wet year-round.
• The vegetation is dense and multi-layered, including tall trees, shrubs, and a variety of other plant species. This creates a rich habitat for a diverse range of wildlife.
• Tropical rainforests are crucial for maintaining global biodiversity and play a significant role in regulating the Earth's climate by storing large amounts of carbon.

Additional Information

• Monsoon forests:
• Monsoon forests, also known as tropical deciduous forests, are found in regions with seasonal rainfall. They experience a distinct wet and dry season.
• During the dry season, many trees shed their leaves to conserve water.
• These forests are less dense compared to tropical rainforests and have a lower diversity of plant and animal species.
• Coniferous forests:
• Coniferous forests, also known as taiga or boreal forests, are found in the northern hemisphere's high latitudes.
• They are characterized by cold climates and are dominated by cone-bearing trees like pines, spruces, and firs.
• These forests have a simpler structure and lower biodiversity compared to tropical forests.
• Mediterranean vegetation:
• Mediterranean vegetation is found in regions with a Mediterranean climate, characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters.
• This type of vegetation includes drought-resistant shrubs, small trees, and herbs adapted to the dry conditions.
• Common plants include olive trees, cork oak, and various types of shrubs and grasses.

Important Points

• Tropical rainforests are often referred to as the "lungs of the Earth" due to their role in producing a significant portion of the world's oxygen.
• They are home to more than half of the world's plant and animal species, many of which are not found anywhere else.
• Deforestation and habitat destruction pose significant threats to tropical rainforests, leading to loss of biodiversity and disruption of global climate patterns.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points 

• Madhya Pradesh state has the maximum forest cover in India.
• The Indian state of forest report 2019 shows that the total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.73 million hectares which is 24.56 percent of the geographical area of the country.
• The total forest and tree cover is 24.56% of the total geographical area of the country.
• The total forest cover of the country is 712,249 sq km.
• The total forest cover of India is 21.67% of the total geographical area of the country.
• The forest cover in Madhya Pradesh is 77482.49 sq km.

Additional Information

• Arunachal Pradesh possesses the second largest forest area in India.
• Chhattisgarh possesses the third largest forest area in India.
• Mizoram (85.4%) possesses the largest forest cover percentage in India.
• Jharkhand is the mineral state of India.
• Uttar Pradesh is called the sugar bowl of India.