DSSSB TGT Maths (Female) 22 Sep 2018 (Previous Year Paper)

All conditions are as follows;

 

Rakul doesn't fulfill the necessary conditions for any post.

Thus he is not eligible for any post.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed is:

The minimum number of straight lines required to draw the figure A, Z, N is 3.

whereas,

Figure P required 1 straight line and 1 curved line.

So, this is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".  

Mistake Points

In the question, it is said the odd figure in the options. So, we will use the logic for the figure to draw not for the Alphabet.

If that would not have been mentioned there then the correct answer would have been figure A because A is a letter that is vowel rest all are consonants.

Given: 

The ratio between the ages of Suma and Vanaja is 5 ∶ 7.

After 8 years, Suma's age will be 28 years

Calculation: 

Let the present age of Suma is 5x years and Vanaja is 7x years

According to the question, 

The age of Suma after 8 years is 

⇒ 5x + 8 = 28

⇒ 5x = 28 - 8

⇒ 5x = 20

⇒ x = 20/5

⇒ x = 4

So, 

The present of Vanaja is 

⇒ 7 × 4

⇒ 28 years 

∴ The present age of Bala is 28 years.  

Hence, the correct answer is "28 years".

The logic followed is:

As P.V. Sindhu is related to the sports "badminton".

Similarly,

Virat Kohli is related to the sport "cricket".

Hence, the correct answer is "Cricket". 

Additional Information

P.V. Sindhu​  

• She received Arjuna Award for badminton on 24 September 2013.
• She was awarded India's fourth highest civilians award Padma Shri Award in 2015.
• Sindhu honoured with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, the highest sporting honour of India, on 29 August 2016.
• Silver medal at 2016 Rio de Janeiro Olympic Games.

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Virat Kohli 

• Fastest Indian to reach 1000, 5000, 6000, 7000, 8000, 9000, and 10,000 runs in ODIs
• Fastest Indian and second fastest in the world to reach 10, 15, 20, and 25 centuries in ODIs
• The only batsman in history to average more than 50 in Tests, ODIs, and T20Is simultaneously
• Fastest in the world to reach 30 and 35 centuries in ODIs
• Second fastest in the world to reach 1,000 runs in T20Is
• First Indian cricketer to score three successive centuries in ODIs
• Fastest in the world to reach 15,000 international runs
• Fastest batsman to score 17,000 runs in international cricket (363 innings)
• First batsman to reach 6000 runs in IPL tournament

Given:

Four train tickets from city A to B.

Two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 80 but two tickets from city A to B and four tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 70.

Calculation:

let fare of the ticket from city A to B be Rs. X and from city A to C be Rs. Y.

From the given data,

4X + 2Y = 80      ----(1)

2X + 4Y = 70      ----(2)

Multiplying the equation 1 by 2 we get:-

(4X + 2Y) × 2 = 80 × 2

8X + 4Y = 160

Subtracting equation 2 from equation 1 we get:

6X = 90

⇒ X = 15

Putting the value of X in equation 2 we get:-

30 + 4Y = 70

⇒ 4Y = 40

Y = 10

Thus, the fare of the ticket from city A to B is Rs 15 and from city A to C is Rs 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The family chart is:

Drawing the family tree,

Thus Manohar's father's father related to Sudarshan as the father.

Hence, the correct answer is "Father".

From the given diagram:

The shaded region denotes Actors, who are Singers but not Directors.

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

The logic followed is:

A bus is a road vehicle designed to carry many passengers. Buses can have a capacity as high as 300 passengers. The most common type is the single-deck rigid bus, with larger loads carried by double-decker and articulated buses, and smaller loads carried by midibus and minibus while coaches are used for longer-distance services.

As per the basic definition of bus, some compulsory vehicle parts are:

1. Engine. 2. Air filter
2. Skirt panel rear of the front O/S wheel arch.
3. Wheels etc.

Option 1: Not compulsory (Hostess Brands is an American-based bakery company formed in June 2013).

Option 2: Not compulsory (TV unit is also not a compulsory item to be present in the bus. Many small buses don't have TV unit still they are used for transport).

Option 3: Compulsory (Engine this is a compulsory item to be always present in the bus. Without the engine, there is no meaning of the bus).

Option 4. Not compulsory (An air conditioner is not always a compulsory thing for a bus. There are many local buses which don't have an Air conditioner). 

Hence, the correct answer is "Engine".

The logic followed is:

Second number = (First number × 3) + 2

Option 1 → 6 : 20

20 = 6 × 3 + 2

20 = 18 + 2

20 = 20

Option 2 → 11 : 35

35 = 11 × 3 + 2

35 = 33 + 2

35 = 35

Option 3 → 18 : 56

56 = 18 × 3 + 2

56 = 54 + 2

56 = 56

Option 4 → 8 : 24

24 = 8 × 3 + 2

24 = 24 + 2

24 ≠ 26 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The Logic followed is: 

• The correct answer is Option 4: Bring the matter to the notice of in-charge of the mess.​

 

 

• Qualities Projected in this situation:  (Sense of responsibility,

Effective intelligence, and speed of decision).

Key Points

• Checklist for attempting Course of Action questions:​

1. Read the question and options carefully.
2. Look for options that are realistic, optimistic, and reflect officer-like qualities.
3. Do not skip any situation.
4. Relegate the negative sentences and choose the most logical option among the remaining ones. As time is an important factor, hence your thinking ability should be swift.
5. React quickly and be logical.​

The logic followed is:

The outer shape exchanges its position with the most inner shape and vice-versa.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed is:

The third figure is the water image of the first figure.

Similarly,

The fourth figure would be the water image of the second figure.

Thus, the correct image that will fill the question mark will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2". 

Additional Information

• In the water image, the top and bottom parts of the; image changed where the left and right sides of the image remain the same.
• The reflection of an object into the water is its water image.
• It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.
• The water image of the figure looks like the mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Given series:

The logic followed is:

The figure is rotating in a 90º clockwise direction in each step.

Thus the completed pattern will be:

There is only one image that is option 1, which satisfies the rotation in the correct manner. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Decoding the giving information,

Given expression,

8 × 7 + 25 - 5 ÷ 3

After changing the sign,

8 + 7 × 25 ÷ 5 - 3

Using the BODMAS rule,

8 + 7 × 5 - 3

8 + 35 - 3

43 - 3

40

Hence, the correct answer is "40".

Folding the transparent sheet along the dotted line:

Thus, the image that is formed after folding the paper is an image shown below,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "IU".

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed is:

The second is the dwelling place of the first. 

Option 1 → Owl : Barn → True 

Option 2 → Bird : Nest → True 

Option 3 → Mouse : Sty → False (A sty or pigsty is a small-scale outdoor enclosure for raising domestic pigs as livestock).

Option 4 → Lion : Den → True 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

Some important Dwelling places important for exams. 

• A place where government records are kept  → Archives.
• A place where ammunition is hidden → Cache.
• A place where birds are kept → Aviary.
• A place where animals are slaughtered for the market → Abattoir.
• A squirrel’s home → Drey.

The pattern followed is:

Hence the correct answer is "102".

GIVEN:

Number of students that passed in the year 2012 = 80

Number of students that passed in the year 2013 = 60

Number of students that passed in the year 2014 = 40

Number of students that passed in the year 2015 = 20

Calculation:

Number of NTSE pass-outs during 2012-2015 = 80 + 60 + 40 + 20

 ∴ Number of NTSE pass-outs during 2012-2015 = 200

The correct answer is Cycling cum Trekking Expedition.

Key Points

• A joint Cycling cum Trekking Expedition of the Indian Army and Royal Bhutan Army was conducted to commemorate “Fifty years of Establishment of Diplomatic Relations between India and Bhutan”.
• The expedition began on 31 July from Haa Dzong in Bhutan and was flagged in at Thimpu on 07 August 2018.
• A total of seventeen personnel of both armies participated in the expedition which covered a total of 384 kms of the distance across challenging mountainous terrain in both India and Bhutan.

Additional Information

• Bhutan:
• ​Capital - Thimphu.
• Currency - Bhutanese ngultrum, Indian Rupee.
• National Sport - Archery.
• Prime minister - Lotay Tshering.
• Bhutan received 150,000 doses of the Covishield vaccine from India, making Bhutan the first country to receive the gift.
• The Indian Ambassador to Bhutan, Ruchira Kamboj handed over the consignment to the government.

The correct answer is Article 21A.

Key Points

• Article 21-A: 

• The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.

• It is a fundamental right.

• This provision was not included in the Constitution of India, 1950.

• The 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 added Article 21A to the Constitution which requires the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children from the age of six to 14 years.

• India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.

• Important features of the Right to Education Act

• The Act makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14 and specifies minimum norms in elementary schools.

• It requires all private schools to reserve 25% of seats for children (to be reimbursed by the state as part of the public-private partnership plan).

• Kids are admitted in to private schools based on economic status or caste-based reservations.

• It also prohibits all unrecognized schools from practice and makes provisions for no donation or capitation fees and no interview of the child or parent for admission.

• The Act also provides that no child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination until the completion of elementary education.

• There is also a provision for special training of school drop-outs to bring them up to par with students of the same age.

 

Additional Information

The correct answer is Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

Key Points

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1325-1351):
• Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the most learned Sultan of Delhi, but he lacked practical judgment.
• He created the department of agriculture which was called Diwan-i-Kohi.
• He is known for his experiments which failed miserably. They are:
• Transfer of capital from Delhi to Devagiri (in 1326-27) which was renamed as Daulatabad.
• Introduction of token currency in 1329-30.
• Enhancement of land revenue in the doab region up to 50% of the produce.
• Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued the maximum number of coins among the Delhi Sultans. Hence, he has been called a prince of moneyers.
• After he moved his capital to Daulatabad, in 1329, Tughlaq introduced representative or token money.
• These were coins of copper and brass that could be exchanged for fixed amounts of gold and silver from the Delhi Sultanate.

Additional Information

• Akbar:
• ​Dahsala system or Zabti System was introduced by Akbar as a system of revenue assessment, in which the revenue collected from the peasants would be the average of last 10 years.
• He abolished the Jizya and pilgrimage tax and forceful conversions of prisoners of wars.
• To curb the dominance of the Muslim Ulemas, he introduced the new Khutba, written by Faizi.
• He declared himself as the Mujtahid Imam-i-Adil (the Final interpreter of Islamic laws).
• The new Khutba made him Amir-ul-Momin (Leader of the faithful) and Amir-i-Adil (Only a ruler).
• He built Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri to discuss religious matters.
• Nadir Shah:​
• He was born on 22 October 1688, Dargaz, Iran.
• He was one of the most powerful Iranian rulers in the history of the Nation.
• In 1738-39, Nadir Shah descended upon the plains of Northern India.
• He was attracted to India by the fabulous wealth for which it was always famous.
• He marched on to Delhi and Emperor Muhammad Shah was taken as prisoner.
• Nadir Shah also carried away the famous Koh-i-nur diamond and the Jewelstudded Peacock Throne of Shahjahan.
• The greedy invader Nadir Shah took possession of the royal treasury and other royal property and plundered Delhi.
• He compelled Muhammad Shah to cede to him all the provinces of the Empire falling west of the river Indus.
• Shahjahan:​
• Shah Jahan - Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram, better known by his regnal name Shah Jahan.
• He was the fifth Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1628 to 1658.
• Before becoming king, as a prince, he had been the governor of the Deccan, Bihar, Bengal, Gujarat, and Delhi.
• His reign ushered in the golden age of Mughal architecture.
• Shah Jahan commissioned many monuments, the best known of which is the Taj Mahal in Agra, which entombs his favourite wife, Mumtaz Mahal.
• Important Monuments Built By Shah Jahan Other than Taj Mahal are Red Fort or Lal Quila, Jama Masjid (Delhi), Jama Masjid in Agra, the Rang Mahal or Palace of Colour, and Moti Masjid.

The correct answer is Khadar.

Key Points

• Alluvial soil
• These soils are mainly derived from the debris brought down from the Himalayas or from the silt left out by the retreating sea.
• Alluvial soils are divided into
• Khadar soil:
• The khadar soils are low-lying, frequently inundated by floods during the rainy season.
• It is the new alluvium and deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.
• Thus, the khadar occupies the flood plains of the rivers and is enriched by fresh silt deposits every year.
• The khadar tracts are generally rich in concretions, and nodules of impure calcium carbonate or Kankar.
• Bhangar soil :
• It is generally well-drained but contains concretion (kankars) of impure calcium carbonate.
• It represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains.
• The soil texture varies from loamy soil to clay-loam.

Additional Information

• Regur soil:
• Black soils are also known as Regur soil or Black cotton soil.
• These cover most parts of the Deccan plateau.
• The soil is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh.
• These soils cover 16% of the total area of the country.
• The black soil is generally deep and impermeable.
• These soils swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried.
• So, during the dry season, the soil develops wide cracks.
• Thus, there occurs a kind of self-ploughing.

The correct answer is Rigveda.

Key Points

• Indra was one of the most important gods in the religion of the Vedic era.
• He is the king of the gods, as well as the god of storms and war.
• Indra is particularly celebrated in the Rig Veda, in which there are more than 250 hymns devoted specifically to him, more than any other deity.
• He is sometimes paralleled to Zeus in Greek mythology, Odin in Norse mythology, or Wotan in German mythology.

Important Points

• RigVeda:
• The oldest religious text in the world.
• It is a collection of hymns, composed around 1700 BC, contains 1,028 hymns, and is divided into 10 mandalas.
• The third mandala contains the Gayatri Mantra.
• Saraswati is the deity river in Rigveda.
• Rigveda consists of 10 Mandalas.
• 8th Mandala is ascribed to Kanvas and Angiras.
• 9th Mandala is the compilation of soma hymns.
• The 10th Mandala of Rigveda contains the Purushasukta hymn which tells about the origin of the social categories.
• The Rigvedic society comprised four varnas, namely Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra.
• Slavery was mentioned in Rigveda.
• It was mentioned in the term Dasa.
• Three to four verses of Rigveda mentions Dasas.
• Sabha the assembly was mentioned in Rigveda.
• The term Sabha means both the assembly and the assembly hall.
• Rajan word was used for Kings (Raja).
• It occurs many times in Rigveda.

The correct answer is People of India.

• The Preamble indicates that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.

Key Points

• Keywords in the Preamble:
• We, the people of India: It indicates the ultimate sovereignty of the people of India. Sovereignty means the independent authority of the State, not being subject to the control of any other State or external power.
• Sovereign: The term means that India has its own independent authority and it is not a dominion of any other external power. In the country, the legislature has the power to make laws that are subject to certain limitations.
• Socialist: The term means the achievement of socialist ends through democratic means. It holds faith in a mixed economy where both private and public sectors co-exist side by side.
• It was added in the Preamble by 42nd Amendment, 1976.
• Secular: The term means that all the religions in India get equal respect, protection and support from the state.
• It was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.
• Democratic: The term implies that the Constitution of India has an established form of Constitution that gets its authority from the will of the people expressed in an election.
• Republic: The term indicates that the head of the state is elected by the people. In India, the President of India is the elected head of the state.

Important Points

The Preamble of the Constitution:

• The Preamble is called the introduction letter of the Indian Constitution.
• The preamble can be referred to as the preface which highlights the entire Constitution.
• It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26 January 1950, celebrated as the Republic day in India.
• The preamble was made in 1947 but adopted in 1949.
• The preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, in which three new words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were added.
• The Preamble has four components:
• Source of the authority of the constitution.
• Nature of the Indian states.
• Objectives of the constitution.
• Date of adoption of the constitution.

The correct answer is Part II.

Key Points

• Part II of the Indian Constitution gives provision for Citizenship.
• Part II includes Articles 5 to 11.
• Article 5 includes Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 6 includes the Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan.
• Article 8 includes the Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is O negative blood group.

Key Points

• Except for O, cells of groups A, B, AB contain antigens.
• Therefore O can give his blood to any group and is called a universal donor.
• The AB group is called Universal Recipient because it can take blood from all blood groups A, B, AB, and O.

Confusion Points

• O+ red blood cells are not universally compatible to all types, they are only compatible to red blood cells that are positive (A+, B+, O+, AB+).
• Those with O+ blood can only receive transfusions from O+ or O- blood types.
• As red blood cells of blood group O- carry no antigen, it can be given to any other group and is thus called universal donor.
• Blood group O-positive cells cannot be given to any Rh-negative individual.

Additional Information

• In the years 1900–1902, K. Landsteiner divided human blood into four groups — A, B, AB, and O.
• Rh factor is a type of blood antigen discovered in 1940 by Landsteiner and A.K. s. was done by Veneer.
• Each person has a blood type (O, A, B, or AB). Everyone also has an Rh factor (positive or negative).
• The Rh factor is a protein on the covering of the red blood cells.
• If the Rh factor protein is on the cells, the person is Rh-positive.
• If there’s no Rh factor protein, the person is Rh-negative.

The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points

Home Rule Movement (1916 AD):

• The Home Rule League was pioneered on the lines of a similar movement in Ireland.
• The Muslim League also supported the movement.

Tilak’s Home Rule Movement:

• On the eve of the Bombay Congress Session (December, 1915) a Conference of Nationalists was held in Poona to discuss the desirability of establishing a Home Rule League.
• Tilak had written a series of articles in the “Kesari" expounding the utility of an organization of this nature.
• Following the favourable recommendations of the Poona conference, the Home Rule League was formally established on April 28, 1916, at Belgaum with the object of, “attaining self-govt. within the British Empire by all constitutional means and to educate and organize, public opinion in the country towards the attainment of the same”.
• Tilak’s league was to work in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Central Province and Berar, excluding Bombay.
• Josef Baptista became the President and N.C. Kelkar secretary.
• He gave the slogan Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.
• Tilak’s newspapers Maratha and Kesari were the organs for home rule.

Mistake Points

• Annie Basant’s Home Rule Movement
• Started with Subramaniya Iyer in Adyar, Madras in September, worked in the rest of India.
• Annie Besant’s newspapers New India and Commonweal became important for this movement.
• She coined the term ‘commonwealth’.

The correct answer is September.

Key Points

• The sun is vertically overhead at the equator on two days each year, these are:
• 21st March The Vernal Equinox and
• 21st September The Autumn Equinox in the northern hemisphere.

Additional Information

• After the Vernal Equinox, the sun appears to move north and is vertically overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23${1\over 2}$0 N) on 21st June (in the northern hemisphere) this is known as the summer solstice.
• On this day in the Northern hemisphere experience the longest day and shortest night.
• By about 22 December the sun will be overhead at Tropic of Capricorn (23${1\over 2}$0 S) this is the Winter solstice in the southern hemisphere.
• This will have its longest day and shortest night in Southern Hemisphere and vice versa in the Northern hemisphere.

The correct answer is 

Key Points

• A blue-chip is a nationally recognized, well-established, and financially sound company.
• Blue chips generally sell high-quality, widely accepted products and services.
• Blue-chip companies are known to weather downturns and operate profitably in the face of adverse economic conditions, which helps to contribute to their long record of stable and reliable growth.
• A blue-chip stock is generally a component of the most reputable market indexes or averages.
• Companies like Coca-Cola, Disney, PepsiCo, Wal-Mart, General Electric, IBM, and McDonald’s are dominant leaders in their respective industries
• Blue-chip companies have built a reputable brand over the years and the fact that they have survived multiple downturns in the economy makes them stable companies to have in a portfolio.
• Blue-chip companies are also characterized as having little to no debt, large market capitalization, stable debt-to-equity ratio, and high return on equity (ROE) and return on assets (ROA).

 

• Presently (as of 2021), there are 7 Maharatna, 16 Navratna, and 71 Miniratna CPSEs in India.

The correct answer is Madurai.

Key Points

• Meenakshi Amman Temple is located on the Southern Bank of the Vaigai River in the temple city of Madurai, in Tamil Nadu. 
• This temple dedicated to Thirukamakottam Udaya Aaludaiya Meenakshi, a form of Parvati, and her consort, Sundareshwar, a form of Shiva.
• In this temple, both God and Goddess are worshipped together in separate chambers.
• The temple is at the centre of the ancient temple city Madurai.
• It was built by King Kulasekara Pandya.
• It is a complex made in accordance with the Shilpa Shastra and has 5 main entrances with 14 gateway towers or 'gopurams', golden 'Vimanas', holy sanctums and shrines dedicated to the revered Goddess Meenakshi and many others.

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

• Kokborok, the native language of Tripura, is formed by two words
• Kok which means language and
• Borok means people
• It is one of the branches of Tibeto-Burman languages.

Important Points

• People of Tripura celebrated the 43rd Kokborok Day by organizing a colourful procession at Agartala in Tripura, on 19 Jan 2021.
• It is spoken by various Tripura tribes, such as Tripuri, Jamatia, Noatia, Kalai, Riang, etc.

Additional Information

• About Tripura (as of August 2022)
• The official language of Tripura is Bengali, English and Kokborok.
• Capital: Agartala.
• State animal: Phayre's langur.
• State bird: Green imperial pigeon.
• State tree: Agar.
• State flower: Nageshwar.
• Governor: Shri Satyadeo Narain Arya
• CM: Manik Saha
• National Park/Sanctuary/Biosphere: Clouded leopard NP, Sipahijala WS, Rajbari National Park, Gumti WS, Rowa WS, Sepahijala WS, Trishna WS.

The correct answer is Chams.

Key Points

• Chaams are performed on ceremonial and festive occasions.
• It is Sikkim's famous mask dances are simply spectacular.
• Though these dances differ from one another in style and theme, they all deal with the triumph of good over evil.
• Their origin lies in a dancing cult for exorcising malignant demons and human enemies.
• The Chaams performed during the new year ceremony expel evil from the land while closing the old year and ushering in benevolence and good luck for the new.
• The dancers wear fearful dragon, animal and bird masks, dress in richly brocaded costumes and tread the measure to the sound of cymbals and trumpets.

Additional Information

• It is one of the Nort-Eastern states of India. On 16 May 1975, Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on16th May 1975, with adding its name to the First Schedule of the Constitution by the 36th Amendment.
• It borders Nepal in the west, West Bengal in the south, Tibet in the north and northeast, Bhutan in the east.
• Sikkim is the Second Smallest and Least Populous among the Indian states.

The correct answer is Kento Momota.

Key Points

• Kento Momota became the first Japanese man to win the Badminton World Championships.
• BWF World Championships 2018 is held at the Nanjing Youth Olympic Sports Park from July 30 to August 5.
• It is one of the top tournaments in the world.
• The BWF World Championships consists of men's singles, men's doubles, women's singles, women's doubles and mixed doubles.
• 359 world-class athletes from 48 countries and regions participated in the competition.
• The tournament had 251 games in 7 days.

 

• The Badminton World Championships 2020 has been postponed to November 2021.
• Time: November 29 - December 5, 2021.
• Venue: Carolina Marin Stadium Huelva, Spain.

The correct answer is Klaus Schwab.

Key Points

• About World Economic Forum (as of June 2021): 
• Founder and Executive Chairman: Professor Klaus Schwab.
• It was established in 1971.
• It is a not-for-profit foundation.
• Headquartered: Geneva, Switzerland.
• It is independent, impartial, and not tied to any special interests.
• The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
• The Forum engages the foremost political, business, cultural, and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas.
• The Forum strives in all its efforts to demonstrate entrepreneurship in the global public interest while upholding the highest standards of governance.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Government Securities.

Key Points

• Gilt-edged securities are high-grade bonds issued by certain national governments.
• Government security means a security created and issued by the Government for the purpose of raising a public loan or for any other purpose.
• Gilt-edged securities are favoured by investors who seek predictable returns, with little risk of default.
• These investments carry similar traits as United States Treasury securities.
• Gilt-edged securities are used to maintain SLR.
• Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the Indian government term for reserve requirement that the commercial banks in India require to maintain in the form of gold, government approved securities before providing credit to the customers.
• SLR is determined by the Reserve Bank of India maintained by banks in order to control the expansion of bank credit.

The correct answer is Kackching, Manipur.

• Kackching, Manipur bagged the cleanest city in North-East zone awards in August 2018.

Key Points

• Shri Hardeep Puri, Minister for Housing & Urban Affairs has congratulated the winners of Swachh Survekshan 2018 while announcing the results.
• The Swachh Survekshan 2018 assessed 4203 Urban Local Bodies.
• It was organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• It is under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).
• Cities having a population of one lakh and more and capital cities were ranked at National Level.
• And cities with a population of less than one lakh were ranked at Zonal Level – North, south, East, West and North East.
• Based on the performance in Swacch Survekshan, 2018, the awards were conferred to
• 29 cities/cantonment boards at National Level
• 20 cities at Zonal Level and
• 3 states having the best performance in the urban areas.
• At the national level, the Top 3 cleanest cities were:

1. Indore.
2. Bhopal.
3. Chandigarh.

• Swachh Survekshan Awards 2020:

The correct answer is Facial Recognition.

Key Points

• One of the most ground-breaking measures to be used during the Tokyo 2020 Games is the Facial Recognition ID system.
• It has been implemented to identify the faces of officials and athletes, granting them access to the venues.
• The system, provided by NEC Corporation, one of the world’s leading companies in facial recognition technology.
• It allowed approximately 300,000 athletes, officials, volunteers and media representatives access to restricted areas.
• It is for the first time in the history of the Olympic and Paralympic Games that this kind of facial recognition system is used to verify the identity of Games officials and authorized people.

Tokyo Olympics

• Tokyo Olympics were scheduled to be organized in 2020 but due to Covid Pandemic, it got postponed.
• Now it will be organized from 23 July to 8 August 2021 in Tokyo.
• The 2021 Olympic games will mark the second time organization of the Olympics in Japan.
• Tokyo first hosted Summer Olympics in 1964.
• There are two mascots for the Tokyo Olympics named Miraitowa and Someity, they are futuristic-looking superhero characters.
• Miraitowa is white and blue coloured whereas Someity is white and pink coloured.

The correct answer is Mughalsarai Junction.

Key Points

• The iconic Mughalsarai Railway Junction in Uttar Pradesh has been renamed as Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Junction Railway station.
• The largest railway marshalling yard in Asia.
• Deendayal Upadhyay was found dead under mysterious circumstances near the Mughalsarai station in February 1968.
• This is operated by East Central Railway (ECR).

Additional Information

• Varanasi is also known as Kashi and Banaras, interestingly it has different railway stations on its different names.
• They are Varanasi railway junction, Kashi railway station, and Banaras railway station.
• Recently the name of Manduadih railway station has been changed to Banaras railway station.

 

Given:

Students Passed in Mathematics = 75%

Students Passed in Physics = 80%

Students failed in both = 14 %

Formula used:

n(M U P) = n(M) + n(P) - n(M ∩ P)

Where, n(M) = Failed in mathematics

n(P) = Failed in physics

n(M ∩ P) = Failed in both subjects.

Calculation:

According to the question,

n(M) = 100% - 75% = 25%

n(P) = 100% - 80% = 20%

n(M U E) = 25% + 20% - 14%

⇒ 45% - 14% = 31%

Total number of student fail in mathematics and physics

⇒ n(M U E) = 31%

Now,

Pass percent 

⇒ 100% - 31%

⇒ 69%

∴ The pass percent in both subject is 69%.

Alternate MethodCalculation:

Total Passed students = 100% - (Failed in Mathematics + Failed in Physics − Common)

According to the question,

Failed in mathematics = 100% - 75% = 25%

Failed in physics = 100% - 80% = 20%

Total Passed students = 100% - (Failed in Mathematics + Failed in Physics − Common)

⇒ 100% - (25% + 20% - 14%)

⇒ 100% - 31% = 69%

∴ The pass percent in both subject is 69%.

Given:

Speed of first car = 50 km/hr

Another speed of car = 70 km/hr

Concept used:

60 minutes = 1 hour

⇒ 1 minutes = 1/60 hour

Objects moving in the same direction = Difference of Speeds

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Time = Distance/Speed

Calculation:

Distance travelled by the first car in 90 minutes.

Distance = 50 × 90/60 = 75 km

According to the question:

Time take to overtake the first car by another car = 75/(70 - 50)

⇒ 75/20 = 15/4 =  $3\dfrac{3}{4}$hrs

∴ Time take to overtake the first car by another car is $3\dfrac{3}{4}$hrs.

Given:

A sum of money becomes 140% of itself in 5 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

According to the question:

Amount = 140% × Principal

⇒ Amount/Principal = 140/100 = 7/5

Let the amount be Rs. 7x

And principal be Rs. 5x

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

⇒ 7x - 5x = Simple Interest

⇒ Simple Interest = 2x

Now,

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

⇒ Simple Interest = (5x × R × 5)/100

⇒ 2x = Rx/4

⇒ R = 8%

Again,

According to the question:

Amount = 2Principal

Principal + Simple Interest = 2Principal

Simple Interest = 2Principal - Principal = Principal

⇒ Simple Interest = Principal 

Now,

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

⇒ Principal = (Principal × 8 × Time)/100

⇒ Time = 100/8 = 25/2 years

∴  25/2 years it will double itself at the same rate of simple interest.

Given:

HCF = 24

Sum of two number = 480

Concept used:

If the number is 24a and 24b, then a and b will be coprime number

Calculation:

Let the number be 24a and 24b

24a + 24b = 480

⇒ 24(a + b) = 480

⇒ a + b = 20

Now, the required possible pair of values of a and b which are common numbers to each other are (1, 19), (3, 17), (7, 13), (9, 11)

∴ There will be 4 possible pairs.

Given:

Time taken by boat to cover 15 km upstream and 21 km downstream = 3 hrs.

Time taken by boat to cover 25 km upstream and 7 km downstream = 3 hrs.

Concept Used:

If 'b' is the speed of a boat and 's' is the speed of a stream then,

Upstream speed of boat = b - s

Downstream speed of boat = b + s

Formula used:

Time = Distance/Speed

Calculation:

Let the speed of the boat be 'b' and the speed of the stream be 's'.

According to the question,

{15/(b - s)} + {21/(b + s)} = 3      ----(i)

{25/(b - s)} + {7/(b + s)} = 3      ----(ii)

Let us put 1/(b - s) = P and 1/(b + s) = Q in equation (i) and (ii),

So, 

15P + 21Q = 3      ----(iii)

25P + 7Q = 3      ----(iv)

Multiplying equation (iv) by 3, and subtracting equation (iii) from equation (iv), we get

(15P + 21Q) - (25P + 7Q) × 3 = 3 - 9

⇒ 15P + 21Q - 75P - 21Q = -6

⇒ -60P = -6

⇒ P = 1/10

Putting the value of P in equation (iii), we get

15P + 21Q = 3 

⇒ 15 × 1/10 + 21Q = 3

⇒ 3/2 + 21Q = 3

⇒ 21Q = 3 - 3/2

⇒ 21Q = 3/2

⇒ Q = 1/14

So, b - s = 10 & b + s = 14

So, b = 12 km/hr and s = 2 km/hr.

∴ The speed of stream is 2 km/hr.

Formula used:

a³ + b³ + c³ - 3abc = (a + b + c)( a² + b² + c² -ab - bc - ca)

Calculation:

$\dfrac{(1.5)^3+(4.6)^3+(3.9)^3-4.5×4.6×3.9}{(15)^2+(46)^2+(39)^2-15×46-46×39-39×15}$

According to the Formula:

a = 1.5, b = 4.6, c = 3.9

$\dfrac{[(1.5)+(4.6)+(3.9)][{(1.5)^2+(4.6)^2+(3.9)^2-1.5×4.6-4.6×3.9-3.9×1.5]}}{(15)^2+(46)^2+(39)^2-15×46-46×39-39×15}$

⇒ $\dfrac{[(1.5)+(4.6)+(3.9)][{(1.5)^2+(4.6)^2+(3.9)^2-1.5×4.6-4.6×3.9-3.9×1.5]}}{(15)^2+(46)^2+(39)^2-15×46-46×39-39×15}$

⇒ 1/100 × (1.5 +  4.6 + 3.9) = 10/100 = 0.1

∴ The required answer will be 0.1.

Given:

2a = 3b = 7c

Calculation:

Let 2a = 3b = 7c be equal to k.

⇒ a : b : c = k/2 : k/3 : k/7

⇒ $\dfrac{1}{a}:\dfrac{1}{b}:\dfrac{1}{c}$ = 2 : 3 : 7

∴ The answer will be 2 : 3 : 7.

Concept used:

Mean proportion of 'a' and 'b' = √ab 

Calculations:

According to the question:

Mean proportion of 6 and 24 = √(24 × 6)

⇒ 6 × 2 = 12

Again, According to the question:

Let the third proportional be x

6 : 24 : : 24 : x

⇒ 6/24 = 24/x

⇒ x = (24 × 24)/6 = 96

The mean proportional = 12

The third proportional = 96

The product of mean proportion and third proportion = 12 × 96 = 1152

∴ The product of mean proportion and third proportion is 1152.

Concept Used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

$1-1\dfrac{2}{9}\ of\ 3\dfrac{3}{11}\div5\dfrac{1}{7}\ of\ \dfrac{7}{9}-\dfrac{5}{18}\ of\ 24$

⇒ $1-\dfrac{11}{9}\ of\ \dfrac{36}{11}\div\dfrac{36}{7}\ of\ \dfrac{7}{9}-\dfrac{5}{18}\ of\ 24$

⇒ $1-\ \dfrac{396}{99}\div\ \dfrac{252}{63}-\dfrac{20}{3}$

⇒  $1-\ \dfrac{396}{99}\times\ \dfrac{63}{252}-\dfrac{20}{3}$

⇒  $1-\ {1}-\dfrac{20}{3}$

⇒ (3 - 3 - 20)/3

⇒ -20/3

∴ The required value is -20/3.

Given:

A man spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 40% and his expenditure increases by 24%.

Concept used:

Income - Expenditure = Saving

Calculation:

Let the income be 100x

According to the question:

A man spends 75% of his income

Expenditure = 75x

⇒ 100x - 75x = 25x

Savings = 25x

Income increases by 40% 

⇒ 100x + 40x = 140x

Expenditure increases by 24%

⇒ 24% = 6/25

Increase of  24% = 31/25

⇒ 75x × 31/25

⇒ 93x

New savings = 140x - 93x = 47x

Change in savings 

⇒ 47x - 25x = 22x

Percentage increase in saving = (22x/25x) × 100 = 88%

∴ His savings are increased by 88%.

 

Let income = 100%

Expenditure = 75%

Savings = 25%

Increased income = 140%

Increased expenditure = 75 × (124/100) = 93

Savings = 140 - 93 = 47

Increase in savings = (47/25) × 100 = 188%

∴ His savings are increased by 88%.

Given:

The cost price of A = 125% of the Cost price of B

Article B is sold at 10% loss = Rs. 1400

Formula used:

Selling price = Cost price ± Profit/Loss

Calculation:

Let the Cost price of A be Rs. a and the Cost price of B be Rs. b

According to the question

The selling price of B = 0.9b

0.9b = 1440

⇒ b = 1440 × (1/0.9)

⇒ b = Rs. 1600

According to the question

a = 125% of b

⇒ a = (125\100) × 1600

⇒ a = Rs. 2000

Total cost price

= 1600 + 2000 = Rs. 3600

Over all profit is 20%

= 3600 × (120/100) = Rs. 4320

So, article A should be sold at

4320 - 1440 = Rs. 2880.

∴ A should be sold at Rs. 2880

Given:

The efficiency of A, B and C = 2 : 3 : 4

They together can complete = 24 hours

Formula used:

Work done = Time × Efficiency

Calculation:

Total work is

24 × (2 + 3 + 4) = 216

B can complete 15% of the work in

(216/3) × (150/100) = 108 hours

∴ B can complete 150% of the work in 108  days.

Given:

The diameters of the two cylinders are in the ratio 3 ∶ 4

The heights of the two cylinders are in the ratio  and 5 ∶ 6

Formula used:

The volume of cylinder = πr²h

Where r is the Radius

h is Height

Calculation:

Let the volume of one cylinder and second cylinder be V₁ and V₂

$\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{\pi {r_1}^2 h_1 }{\pi {r_2}^2 h_2 }$

⇒ $\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{\pi {\frac{3}{2}}^2 5 }{\pi {\frac{4}{2}}^26 }$

⇒ $\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{ {\frac{9}{4}} \times 5 }{ 4 \ \times \ 6 }$

⇒ $\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{ 9 \times 5 }{4 \ \times \ 4 \ \times \ 6 }$

⇒ $\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{15}{32 }$

∴ The ratio of volume is $\frac{15}{32}$

Given:

The ratio of the number 4 : 6 : 9

LCM of the number = 648

Calculation:

Let the number be 4x, 6x and 9x

LCM of 4x, 6x and 9x is 36x

36x = 648

⇒ x = 648/36

⇒ x = 18

HCF of 4x, 6x and 9x is x

So HCF of the numbers is 18

∴ The HCF of the numbers is 18.

Given:

Pipe A can fill a tank in 4 hours

Pipe B can fill a tank in 6 hours

Pipe C can empty the tank in 3 hours

Formula used:

Work done = Time × Efficiency

Time ∝ 1/Efficiency

Calculation:

In one hour pipe, A can fill 1/4

In one-hour pipe, B can fill 1/6

In one-hour pipe, C can empty 1/3

Pipe A and B are opened for 2 hours

(1/6 + 1/4) × 2 = 5/6

Empty tank left

1 - 5/6 = 1/6

Now, C is opened

1/4 + 1/6 - 1/3 = 1/12

No tank will be filled in

= (1/6)/(1/12) = 12/6 = 2 hours

∴ The tank is filled in the next 2 hours after pipe C is opened.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 8000

Rate of interest for 1^st year = 4%

Rate of interest for 2^nd year = 6%

Rate of interest for 3^rd year = 9%

Formula used:

Amount (A) = $P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^t$

Where r is Rate of Interest

and t is Time

Calculation:

The amount for 1^st year

A = $8000(1 + \frac{4}{100})^1$

⇒ $8000 \times (\frac{104}{100})$ = Rs. 8320

The amount for 2^nd year

A = $8320(1 + \frac{6}{100})^1$

⇒ $8320 \times (\frac{106}{100})$ = Rs. 8819.2

The amount for 3^rd year

A = $8819.2(1 + \frac{9}{100})^1$

⇒ $8819.2 \times (\frac{109}{100})$ = Rs. 9612.9 ≈ Rs. 9613

∴ The amount will be Rs. 9613

Given:

Sides of a triangle = 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm

Formula used:

Area of a triangle = $√{s(s \ - \ a)(s \ - \ b)(s \ - \ c)}$

Semiperimeter(s) = $\dfrac{a \ + \ b \ + \ c}{2}$

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × Base × Altitude

Calculation:

The semiperimeter of the triangle is

$\dfrac{13 \ + \ 14 \ + \ 15}{2}$ = 21

Area of the triangle

= $\sqrt{21(21 \ - \ 13)(21 \ - \ 14)(21 \ - \ 15)}$

⇒ $\sqrt{21\ × \ 8\ × \ 7\ × 6}$ = √7056 = 84 cm²

Altitude on the longest side

84 = 1/2 × 15 × Altitude

⇒ Altitude = 168/15 = 11.2 cm

∴ Altitude on the longest side is 11.2 cm.

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part value/Whole value) × 100

Calculation:

Total number of student play cricket

120 + 180 + 90 + 125 + 150 = 665

Number of student in school A who plays cricket = 120

Percentage = (120/665) × 100 = 18.04% ≈ 18% (corrected to once decimal place)

∴ The correct answer is option 3

Calculation:

Total number of students who play Hockey

90 + 55 + 45 + 85 + 65 = 340

Total number of students who play Badminton

50 + 40 + 60 + 50 + 30 = 230

Ratio of students who play Hockey and Badminton

340 : 230 = 34 : 23

∴ The ratio of students who play Hockey and Badminton = 34 : 23

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part value/Whole value) × 100

Calculation:

Total number of student play Cricket

120 + 180 + 90 + 125 + 150 = 665

Total number of student play Basketball

80 + 70 + 60 + 90 + 50 = 350

Total number of student play Football

40 + 65 + 55 + 70 + 35 = 265

Total number of students who play Hockey

90 + 55 + 45 + 85 + 65 = 340

Total number of students who play Badminton

50 + 40 + 60 + 50 + 30 = 230

Total number of students

665 + 350 + 265 + 340+ 230 = 1850

Total number of student plays Basketball and Football

350 + 265 = 615

Required percentage = (615/1850) × 100

= 33.2%

∴ The correct correct answer is 33.2%

The correct answer is 'A', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of auxiliary verb 'has'.
• 'Has' needs to be replaced with 'have'.
• Here, in the given sentence 'There' is used as a pronoun and when 'there' is used as a pronoun it introduces a noun or pronoun later in the sentence.
• Here, it is introducing 'complaints' which is a plural noun.
• According to the subject-verb agreement, when the subject is singular then the corresponding verb will be singular and if the subject is plural then the corresponding verb will be plural.
• Since, the subject i.e. 'complaints' is plural therefore, the verb will also be plural i.e. 'have'.
• Thus, the correct answer is 'A'.

<br>

Therefore, the correct answer is: There have been several complaints about her behaviour in class.

The correct answer is 'They ought not be allowed to park their vehicle here.', i.e. it is an incorrect statement.

Key Points

• The correct modal verb is 'ought to' and it is used to express obligation and duty through advice and recommendation.
• Structure:
  

 

• Therefore, from the above-given explanation, we can say that out of the given options, only option 1 is incorrect.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Hinglish

• सही modal verb 'ought to' है और इसका उपयोग सलाह और सिफारिश के माध्यम से दायित्व और कर्तव्य को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।
• संरचना:

 

• इसलिए, ऊपर दिए गए स्पष्टीकरण से, हम कह सकते हैं कि दिए गए विकल्पों में से केवल विकल्प 1 गलत है।
• अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

The correct answer is 'B', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the degree 'most'.
• There are some words like 'perfect', 'unique', 'circular', 'universal', 'everlasting', etc don't have any comparative and superlative degree.
• Therefore, these words are never used with any superlative or comparative degree, therefore, 'most' is needs to be obliterated from here.

<br>

Thus, the correct sentence is: You are the unique person I have ever met.

Additional Information

• Adjective: These are the words that are used to modify or qualify a noun.
• It has three degree:
• Positive degree: The positive degree of an adjective or adverb offers no comparison.
• For example:
• Adjectives: rich, pretty, handsome, good
• Adverbs: slowly, beautifully
• Comparative degree: It shows the comparison.
• For example:
• Adjectives: richer, prettier,better.
• Adverb: more slowly, more beautiful.
• Superlative degree: It is used to identify the best or the least out of something.
• For example:
• Adjectives: Richest, prettiest, best.
• Adverb: Most beautiful, most slowly

The correct answer is 'At the end of the book lie the hints that force us to read the third part of the book which reveals'.

Key Points

• In Statement 1, the error lies in the usage of the verb 'forces'. Here, in the sentence 'that' is used as a relative pronoun and the verb succeeding the relative pronoun depends on the noun preceding it. Here, in the sentence, the noun is 'hints' which is plural then the verb corresponding to it should be plural according to the subject-verb agreement.
• In Statement 2, the error lies in the usage of 'forces' as well as 'parts'. Here, in the sentence**, 'that'** is used as a relative pronoun and the verb succeeding the relative pronoun depends on the noun preceding it. Here, in the sentence, the noun is 'hints' which is plural then the verb corresponding to it should be plural according to subject-verb agreement. Also, the usage of the noun 'parts' is incorrect as the adjective 'third' is indicating a specific part which is singular and it will be succeeded by a singular noun.
• In Statement 3, the error lies in the usage of the verb 'reveal'. Here, in the sentence, 'that' is used as a relative pronoun and the verb succeeding the relative pronoun depends on the noun preceding it. Here, in the sentence, the preceding noun is 'book' which is singular therefore the verb corresponding to it will also be singular according to the subject-verb agreement.
• Statement 4 is a grammatically correct statement as it is following the correct structure of the subject-verb agreement and therefore will be used in the blank.

The correct sentence is: The second part of the book was not very interesting but, at the end of the book lie the hints that force us to read the third part of the book which reveals all of the mystery.

Additional Information

• Subject-verb agreement- It states that the verb corresponding to the singular subject will be singular and the verb corresponding to the plural subject will be plural.
• Example:
• She is planning a vacation in Switzerland.
• They are planning a vacation in Switzerland.

The correct answer is 'had seen; anywhere'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of speech of interrogative sentence with simple past structure.
• In speech, if the direct speech is in simple past structure then it is converted into the past perfect structure in indirect speech.
  

 

• When an interrogative sentence is given in direct speech then it is converted into an assertive sentence.
• Example:
• I said to them," Did you come yesterday?" (Direct speech)
• I asked them if they had come the previous day. (Indirect speech)
• The determiner 'some' is used for affirmative sentences and the determiner 'any' is used in negative or interrogative sentences.
• Therefore, 'had seen' will be used in the first blank, and 'anywhere' will be used in the second blank.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sentence is: She asked me if I had seen her notebook anywhere.

The correct answer is 'become'.

Key Points

• A relative pronoun is used to introduce a relative or dependent clause in a sentence and connect it to the independent clause. These are 'which', 'who', 'that', etc.
• When a relative pronoun is used in a sentence, then the verb of the clause depends upon the noun preceding the relative pronoun.
• Here, in the sentence, the preceding noun is 'students' which is plural therefore the corresponding verb will also be plural according to the subject-verb agreement.
• Thus, 'become' will be used in the sentence.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Is is always the brightest students who become successful in life.' 

Additional Information

• Subject-verb agreement: It states that if the subject is singular then the verb is singular and if the subject is plural then the corresponding verb will be plural.
• Example:
• He is planning a trip to Puna.
• They are planning a trip to Puna.

The correct answer is 'Are you?'

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of Question tags.
• Question tags are short questions at the end of the statements, and they are used in a statement to confirm if something is true or not or to encourage a reply from the person one is speaking to.
• A question tag is formed with an auxiliary verb with an appropriate subject.
• A positive statement is succeeded by a negative question tag whereas a negative statement is succeeded by a positive question tag.
• Example: 
• Jack is from Spain, isn't he?
• They aren't funny, are they?
• Here, in the given sentence the auxiliary verb is 'are' and the sentence is negative, therefore it will be succeeded by a positive question tag.
• Thus, 'are you?' will be used in the blank.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'You are not planning to attend the wedding. Are you?'

Additional Information

• Auxiliary verb: A verb used in forming the tenses, moods, and voices of other verbs. These are 'is', 'are', 'has', 'have', etc.

The correct answer is 'Doesn't she?'

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of Question tags.
• Question tags are short questions at the end of the statements, and they are used in a statement to confirm if something is true or not or to encourage a reply from the person one is speaking to.
• A question tag is formed with an auxiliary verb with an appropriate subject.
• A positive statement is succeeded by a negative question tag whereas a negative statement is succeeded by a positive question tag.
• Example: 
• Mary can speak English, can't she?
• He shouldn't say things like that, should he?
• Here, in the given sentence the auxiliary verb is 'does' and the sentence is positive, therefore it will be succeeded by a negative question tag.
• Thus, 'Doesn't she?' will be used in the blank.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'She does think he walks on water. Doesn't she?'**

Additional Information

• Auxiliary verb: A verb used in forming the tenses, moods, and voices of other verbs. These are 'is', 'are', 'has', 'have', etc.

The correct answer is 'is, seem'.

Key Points

• When the noun like 'days', 'dozen', 'kilometers', etc, is preceded by a definite number then the verb of the sentence corresponding to it will be singular.
• Example: Ten kilometers is not a long distance.
• Therefore, 'is' will be used in the first blank.
• The pronoun 'they' is plural in the sentence and will be succeeded by a verb that is plural according to the subject-verb agreement.
• Thus, 'seem' will be used in the second blank.

The correct answer is: 'Ten days is not needy enough to complete the entire syllabus though they seem believe it is possible'.

Additional Information

• Subject-verb Agreement: It states that the verb corresponding to the singular subject will be singular and the verb corresponding to the plural subject will be plural.
• Example:
• Roma is going to a party.
• They are going to a party.

The correct answer is 'Neither the members of the audience nor the orchestra knows what happened to the manager of the auditorium after the programme.'

Key Points

• In statement 1, the error lies in the usage of the noun 'orchestras'. The correct noun is 'orchestra' which means a group of instrumentalists, especially one combining string, woodwind, brass, and percussion sections and playing classical music. It is a collective noun.
• In statement 2, the error lies in the incorrect usage of the noun 'audiences'. The correct form of the noun is 'audience' which is a collective noun and it means the group of people together in one place to watch or listen to a play, film, someone speaking, etc.
• Statement 3 is a grammatically correct statement as it has the correct usage of the noun as well as the verb corresponding to it. Neither...nor is correlative conjunction and when correlative conjunction is used to connect two nouns then the verb of the sentence will depend upon the second noun.
• Example: Neither she nor her parents want to go for a vacation.
• In statement 4, the error lies in the incorrect usage of the verb 'know'. 'Neither...nor' is correlative conjunction and when correlative conjunction is used to connect two nouns then the verb of the sentence will depend upon the second noun. In the given sentence the first noun is 'members of the audience' and the second noun is 'orchestra' which is a collective noun and collective nouns are generally treated as singular therefore, they should succeed with a singular verb.

Additional Information

• Collective noun: A noun that denotes a group of individuals. For example - Family, crew, jury, committee, etc. Generally, collective nouns are treated as singular but when they are divided they are treated as plural.
• Example: 
• The committee has given its decision. (singular)
• The committee are divided in their opinion. (plural)
• Correlative conjunction: Correlative conjunctions correlate, working in pairs to join phrases or words that carry equal importance within a sentence. They are 'either....or', 'neither....nor', 'not only...but also', etc.

Hinglish

• कथन 1 में , त्रुटि 'orchestras' संज्ञा के उपयोग में निहित है। सही संज्ञा 'orchestra' है जिसका अर्थ है वाद्य यंत्रों का एक समूह, विशेष रूप से एक स्ट्रिंग, वुडविंड, ब्रास और पर्क्यूशन सेक्शन को मिलाकर और शास्त्रीय संगीत बजाना। यह एक सामूहिक संज्ञा (collective noun) है।
• कथन 2 में , त्रुटि 'audiences' संज्ञा के गलत उपयोग में निहित है। संज्ञा का सही रूप 'audience' है जो एक सामूहिक संज्ञा (collective noun) है और इसका अर्थ है लोगों का समूह एक साथ एक स्थान पर एक नाटक, फिल्म, कोई बोलने वाला आदि देखने या सुनने के लिए।
• कथन ३ एक व्याकरणिक रूप से सही कथन है क्योंकि इसमें संज्ञा के साथ-साथ इसके अनुरूप क्रिया का भी सही उपयोग होता है। Neither...nor सहसंबद्ध संयोजन (correlative conjunction) हैऔर जब दो संज्ञाओं को जोड़ने के लिए सहसंबद्ध संयोजन का उपयोग किया जाता है तो वाक्य की क्रिया दूसरी संज्ञा पर निर्भर करेगी।
• उदाहरण : Neither she nor her parents want to go for a vacation.
• कथन 4 में त्रुटि 'know' क्रिया के गलत प्रयोग में निहित है। 'Neither...nor' सहसंबद्ध संयोजन है और जब दो संज्ञाओं को जोड़ने के लिए सहसंबद्ध संयोजन का उपयोग किया जाता है तो वाक्य की क्रिया दूसरी संज्ञा पर निर्भर करेगी । दिए गए वाक्य में पहली संज्ञा 'members of the audience' है और दूसरी संज्ञा 'orchestra' है जो एक सामूहिक संज्ञा है और सामूहिक संज्ञाओं को आम तौर पर एकवचन माना जाता है, इसलिए उन्हें एकवचन क्रिया के साथ सफल होना चाहिए।

The correct answer is 'In the farming sector, there are no new companies investing at the moment, a fact that makes it  difficult for us farmers to continue in this field.'

Key Points

• In statement 1, the error lies in the usage of the auxiliary verb 'is'. 'Is' needs to be replaced with the phrase 'makes it' which means 'to do it in a particular manner.'
• In statement 2, the error lies in the usage of the pronoun 'we'. 'We' is a subjective pronoun and used to replace the subject and the objective case needs to be used in the sentence as the 'farmers' that is used in the sentence is an object of the sentence and will require an objective case i.e. 'us'.
• In statement 3, the error lies in the usage of the phrase 'make it' as 'which' is used as a relative pronoun here in the sentence, and 'investing' is a gerund here in the sentence which is singular and requires a singular verb according to subject-verb agreement.
• Statement 4 is grammatically correct, as it is following the correct structure of Subject-verb agreement.

Additional Information

• Subject-verb Agreement: It states that the verb corresponding to the singular noun will be singular noun and the verb corresponding to the plural noun will be plural.
• Example:
• She is planning a trip to Goa.
• They are planning a trip to Goa.
• Gerund: When the -ing form of a verb is treated as a noun in a sentence then it is called a gerund. A gerund is always singular.
• Example: 
• Swimming is good for your health.
• Relative Pronoun: A relative pronoun is one which is used to refer to nouns mentioned previously, whether they are people, places, things, animals, or ideas. Relative pronouns can be used to join two sentences.

The correct answer is 'A', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the noun 'criteria'.
• 'Criteria' needs to be replaced with 'criterion'.
• Let's look at the keyword 'One'. it is singular and therefore, requires a singular noun.
• 'Criteria' is a plural form of the noun 'criterion' and thus is incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct answer is 'A'.

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The correct sentence is: One main criterion for selection of candidates is their English proficiency.

The correct answer is 'that, which'.

Key Points

• 'Which' and 'that' both are used as a relative pronoun in a sentence and used in a sentence as they introduce a clause which can be modifying or explanatory.
• 'Which' is used to introduce an unrestrictive clause in a sentence whereas 'that' is used to introduce a restrictive clause in a sentence.
• Restrictive clause: A restrictive clause is a part of the sentence that can't be removed from the sentence and if removed will alter the context of the sentence.
• Example: The essay that covers grammar is very boring.
• Unrestrictive clause: Unrestrictive clause is a part of the sentence that can be removed from the sentence without altering the context of the sentence.
• Example: The essay that covers grammar, which I read while I was supposed to be working, is very boring.
• Therefore, 'that' will be used in the first blank, and 'which' will be used in the second blank.

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Thus, the correct sentence is: Out of all my gifts, the book that was written by your favourite author in which the main character dies is the one I like the most.

The Correct Answer is 'C'.

Key Points

Let's look at the following points-

• Usage of Preposition 'for'- to talk about a purpose or a reason for something:
• For E.g.- I wear these old trousers for painting.
• ​According to the above-mentioned line, the correct preposition to be used in the given context will be 'for'
  

​The correct sentence- Bring the medicine for your sister right now.

The correct answer is 'D', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the article 'a';
• The article 'a' is not required here in the sentence.
• Article 'a' and 'an' are called indefinite articles and it is used to define a noun which is unspecific whereas article 'the' is used to define a noun which is specific.
• Here, in the sentence, the adjective 'special' is used to modify the noun permission and it means better, greater, or otherwise different from what is usual, therefore, it will not require an article with it.

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Thus, the correct sentence is: 'They cannot leave the office without special permission.'