DSSSB TGT Natural Science (Female) 27 Sep 2018 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

According to the English alphabet series and its positional value:

The logic follows here is:

LOGIC: Numerator/Denoninator = Letter/Positional Value of Letter

1. Position value of E = 5

2. Positional value of J = 10

3) Positional value of T = 20

:

4) Positional value of U = 21 not 25

Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.

The pattern follows here is:

In each step, the figure is rotating 90° in the clockwise direction.

In Step 1:

 → 

In Step 2:

 → 

In Step 3:

→

So, the next term is:

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

Animal always has:

1. Mobile: This is not the necessary condition. Because animals don't have the Mobile. 

2. Tails: Each animal does not have Tails.

Frogs and toads likewise have four limbs and no tails. Apes, some members of the rodent family (capybaras or Guinea pigs), and koalas are just a few examples of four-legged animals without tails.

3. Legs: Animals always have legs.

Animals having legs are goat, rhinoceroses, cow, bull, and buffalo.

4. Feather: Animals does not have feather.

Animals that have feathers must be birds. A kind of mammal, the bat, can also fly. But they are not birds because they have no feathers. 

Hence, "Legs" is the correct answer.

The pattern follows here is;

In each step, the figure is rotating 90° anticlockwise direction.

Step 1: Rotating 90° anticlockwise direction.

 → 

Step 2: Rotating 90° anticlockwise direction.

 → 

Step 3: Rotating 90° anticlockwise direction.

  → 

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, Option (4) is the correct answer.

The total number of books published by the company = 12,462

Books of competitive exams are published by XYZ in 2016-17 = 10 % of Total number of Books

= (10 × 12462)/100

= 1246.2

= 1246 (approx)

Hence, "1246" is the correct answer.

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

A possible tree diagram will be:

Namya’s brother is also Nandini's brother.

Hence, "Brother" is the correct answer.

The feminine of Horse is Mare

Similarly; 

The feminine of the Fox is Vixen.

Hence, "Fox" is the correct answer.

 

All conditions are as follows;

Radha Mohan doesn't follow criteria (a)

So, she is referred to as a Junior accountant according to condition (1).

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

According to the English alphabet series and its positional value:

The logic follows here is:

Hence, "X" is the correct answer.

Vixen is the feminine of Fox, not Bullock.

Hence, "Bullock : Vixen" is the correct answer.

The given figure when unfolded is as follows:

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

The ratio between the present ages of M and N = 5 ∶ 8

Let present age of M = 5x

Present age of N = 8x

According to Question:

Age of N = Age of M + 6

8x = 5x + 6

3x = 6

x = 2

So, the present age of M = 5x = 5 × 2 = 10 years

The present age of N = 8x = 8 × 2 = 16 years

After 6 years:

Age of M = 10 + 6 = 16 years

Age of N = 16 + 6 = 22 years

The ratio of the ages of M and N after 6 years = 16 : 22

= 8 : 11

Hence, "8 : 11" is the correct answer.

The logic follows here is:

First Number - Second Number = 12

1. In 64 - 52 →

64 - 52 = 12

2. In 67 - 55 →

67 - 55 = 12

3) In 43 - 33 →

43 - 33 = 10 ≠ 12

4. In 82 - 70 →

82 - 70 = 12

Hence, "43 - 33" is the correct answer.

The logic follows here is:

Shaded figures move inside the blank figure.

Similarly;

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

The region belongs to Americans who are neither singers nor Doctors:

Americal not included Doctors and Singers.

Hence, "9" is the correct answer.

the pattern follows here is;

Hence, "40" is the correct answer.

Let say Students got a Number of Sums Right  = S

Then he got thrice as many sums wrong as he got right.

Number of Sums Wrong = 3 S

Total number of sums he solved =  Right Sums + Wrong Sums

Total number of sums he solved =  3S + S = 4S

4S = 60

S = 15

Solved correctly  = S = 15

Hence, "15" is the correct answer.

There are two conditions when someone gets stuck on a live electric wire.

1.Disconnect the power supply

2.Beat or push the person with a wooden stick to disconnect his body from live wire.

Hence, "Pull off the wire with wooden stick" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

1. If possible and if its easy to disconnect the power supply do it right away.

2. If the switch is far away or if you dont know where the switch is, we should consider the next option.Insulate yourself by using a chappal or shoe then with the help of a wodden stick, beat and push the person so that he gets out of the contact of live wire.

 

Please remember that the shocked person cannot intentionally pull his hand or body part out if the current is high.

1. After he is disconnected from the power supply and if he is having a serious condition or lost consciousness or trouble in heartbeat or respirartion give CPR.Its a whole another answer.There are many ways of artificial respiration.

2. Most common method is the Direct Mouth to mouth method of Artificial resuscitation and another effective method is Scahfer's method. 

3. If possible, employ someone to immediately call ambulance or do it yourself, while you should give Artificial Resuscitation and you have to do this continuously till ambulance arrives.

Decoding the information, 

 

Given the equation: (5C6) A (2C4) B8

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

(5 × 6) + (2 × 4) - 8

= 30 + 8 - 8

= 30.

Hence, the correct answer is "30".

The correct answer is Harry Kane.

• Harry Kane was given the Golden Boot award in the 2018 FIFA World Cup.

Key Points

• England's Harry Kane finished as the leading goalscorer at the 2018 FIFA World Cup to win the Adidas Golden Boot.
• France's Antoine Griezmann and Belgium's Romelu Lukaku finished second and third respectively.
• If two or more players are tied on goals, the winner is determined by total assists.
• If assists cannot split them, the players who played the least minutes will emerge with the prize.
• The Adidas Golden Boot accolade is coveted by every top striker on the planet, but only the highest scorers at the FIFA World Cup finals are awarded it.
• Here is the list of winners.
• 2018: Harry Kane (England) 6 goals
• 2014: James Rodríguez (Colombia) 6 Goals

Additional Information

• The 2021 FIFA Club World Cup is scheduled to be the 18th edition.
• A FIFA-organized international club football tournament between the winners of the six continental confederations, as well as the host nation's league champions.
• The tournament will be hosted by Japan in December 2021.
• Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA)
• President: Gianni Infantino
• Founded: 21 May 1904
• Headquarters: Zürich, Switzerland

The correct answer is the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

• By the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts were curtailed.

Key Points

• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is one of the most important amendments to the Indian Constitution.
• It was enacted by the Indian National Congress headed by Indira Gandhi then.
• Due to the large number of amendments this act has brought to the Indian Constitution, it is also known as the Mini-Constitution.
• It amended various provisions given below
• Attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• Laid down Fundamental Duties for citizens
• Terms- Socialist, Secular, and Integrity added to the Preamble

Additional Information

• 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974
• Terminated the protectorate status of Sikkim and conferred the status of an associate state of the Indian Union. The Tenth Schedule was added laying down the terms and conditions of association of Sikkim with the Indian Union
• 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
• It repealed six articles – 31D, 32A, 131A, 144A, 226A and 228A.
• That had been inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment.
• Article 131A barred High Courts making judgments on the constitutional validity of Central legislation, giving exclusive jurisdiction for such laws to the Supreme Court.
• 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
• It nullified this unjustified power to the government.
• Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights (Article 31) and was made a legal right under Article 300A.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

• Leela Samson is a classical dancer of Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Leela Samson is a Bharatanatyam dancer, choreographer, instructor, and writer from India.
• As a soloist, she is known for her technical virtuosity and has taught Bharatanatyam at Shriram Bhartiya Kala Kendra in Delhi for many years
• Bharatanatyam, also previously called Sadhir Attam, is a major form of Indian classical dance that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• It has flourished in the temples and courts of southern India since ancient times.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Malaysia.

• In the classification match for third place, Argentina defeated Malasia 3-2 goals in the 27th edition of the Sultan Azlan Shah cup 2018.

​

Key Points

• World champions Australia has lifted the coveted 27th edition of the Sultan Azlan Shah cup 2018 in Ipoh, Malaysia on March 10, 2018.
• In the final, they beat defending champions England by a narrow 2-1 margin.
• With this, Australia has now won the prestigious tournament for the 10th time.
• Earlier, in the classification match for the 3rd place, Argentina finished third after beating Malaysia 3-2.
• The hosts ended at the 4th spot.

Additional Information

• The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual invitational international men's field hockey tournament held in Malaysia.
• It began in 1983 as a biennial contest.
• The tournament became an annual event after 1998, following its growth and popularity. 
• No. of teams: 6
• Sport: Field hockey
• Most recent champion: South Korea (3rd title), (2019)
• Most titles: Australia (10 titles)
• Venue(s): Azlan Shah Stadium
• The 2021 Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Cup tournament scheduled for June 18-27 has been cancelled following a surge in Covid-19 cases in Malaysia.

The correct answer is Ghazipur.

• Indian Railways inaugurated Regional Rail Training Institute (RRTI) at Ghazipur in a bid to strengthen the expertise and capabilities of the employees of the North-Eastern Railway.

Key Points

• A new Regional Rail Training Institute (RRTI) was inaugurated at Ghazipur in Uttar Pradesh by the Minister of State for Railways Manoj Sinha on 22 July 2018.
• The main purpose is to strengthen the expertise and capabilities of the employees of North-Eastern Railways.
• The institute, built at the cost of Rs. 21 crores, is equipped with modern training facilities, an advanced model hostel, computer room, cafeteria, and other necessary facilities.
• The foundation stone of the institute was kept in 2015 by Sinha.

Additional Information 

• About Indian Railways
• Founded: 16 April 1853, India
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Chief Executive Officers: VK Tripathi
• The Fairy Queen is the oldest functioning steam engine in the world. It is plying between New Delhi and Alwar in Rajasthan.
• Four sites of Indian Railways have been declared as “World Heritage sites” by UNESCO.
• They are Darjeeling-Himalayan Railway, Nilgiri Mountain, Mumbai CST, and Kalka-Shimla Railways
• Indian Railways was nationalized in 1951.
• Toilets were introduced on Indian Railways in 1909.
• Indian Railways started computerized reservation in New Delhi in 1986.
• Indian Railways is the world’s second-largest network operated under a single administration and the largest rail network in Asia.

The correct answer is Addis Ababa.

• Addis Ababa is the headquarter of the African Union (AU) situated.

Key Points

• African Union (AU), formerly (1963–2002) Organization of African Unity, an intergovernmental organization, established in 2002.
• To promote unity and solidarity of African states, spur economic development, and promote international cooperation.
• The African Union (AU) replaced the Organization of African Unity (OAU).
• The AU’s headquarters - Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
• Addis Ababa, Ethiopia’s sprawling capital in the highlands bordering the Great Rift Valley, is the country’s commercial and cultural hub.
• Its National Museum exhibits Ethiopian art, traditional crafts, and prehistoric fossils, including replicas of the famous early hominid, "Lucy."

Additional Information

• Harare is the capital of Zimbabwe.
• Nairobi is Kenya’s capital city
• Cairo, Egypt’s sprawling capital, is set on the Nile River.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

• 'Tawa Project' is an irrigation project of Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Tawa Dam is a reservoir on the Tawa River in central India.
• It is located in Itarsi of Hoshangabad District of Madhya Pradesh state.
• In 1958, construction began on Tawa Dam, which was completed in 1978.
• Tawa dam is a multipurpose project situated upstream of Ranipur village and downstream of Tawa and Denwa.
• It confluence which are tributaries of Narmada river, in Hoshangabad district.
• The project has an annual irrigation potential of 332785 ha, a Culturable Command Area of 246972 ha. and a Gross Command Area of 401685 ha.
• The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana, India.
• Currently the world's largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers.

The correct answer is Sixth.

• According to updated World Bank figures on the GDP of countries for 2017, India has become the world’s sixth-biggest economy.
• India's gross domestic product (GDP) stood at $2.597 trillion at the end of 2017, compared to$2.582 trillion for France.
• The US continued to be the world's biggest economy, followed by China, Japan, and Germany.

Key Points

• Gross domestic product (GDP) is the standard measure of the value-added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.
• As such, it also measures the income earned from that production or the total amount spent on final goods and services (fewer imports).
• Economic growth in South Asian countries is expected to rebound to a stronger-than-expected 6.8 percent in 2021.
• And India's GDP is predicted to grow at 8.3 percent, according to the latest World Bank report on the global economic recovery post-Covid-19 pandemic.
• Real GDP or Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at Constant (2011-12) Prices in the year 2020-21 is now estimated to attain a level of ₹135.13 trillion.
• As against the First Revised Estimate of GDP for the year 2019-20 of ₹145.69 trillion, released on 29th January 2021.

      

• GDP (PPP) Ranking 2021

The correct answer is the UK.

Key Points

• The United Kingdom ranked 1st among 100 countries in the recently released Global Real Estate Transparency Index (GRETI).
• Global Real Estate Transparency Index (GRETI) is an important guide for companies operating in foreign markets and an exclusive benchmark of real estate market transparency.
• It is a vital guide for investors, developers, and corporate occupiers globally.

Additional Information

• The 2020 Global Real Estate Transparency Index covers 99 countries and territories and 163 cities.
• The latest Index is based on 210 indicators, having been extended to include additional data on sustainability and resilience, health and wellness, protect and alternatives.
• These variables are divided into six areas -
• Performance measurement 25%
• Market fundamental 16.5%
• Governance of listed vehicles 10%
• Regulatory & legal framework  23.5%
• Transaction process 15%
• Environmental sustainability 10%
• Important Ranking
• First Rank: United Kingdom
• Second Rank: United States
• Third Rank: Australia
• Thirty-Fourth Rank: India
• NIntee Nine Rank: Libya

The correct answer is Delhi.

• Ministry of Earth Sciences has unveiled SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting), the first of Its kind and most advanced system in India in Delhi.

Key Points

• Science& Technology, Earth Sciences; Environment, Forest & Climate Change Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan unveiled a state-of-the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System  SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting)at ChandniChowkin Delhi.

• The giant true color LED display gives out real-time air quality index on a 24x7 basis with color-coding along with a 72-hour advance forecast.

• The system, the first of its kind in the country, was developed indigenously in record time by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD)

• SAFAR will accelerate public awareness and preparedness of air pollution and weather extremes.

• It will also lead to a better understanding of linkages among emissions, weather, pollution, and climate.

• It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed, and wind direction.

• Important Unioun Ministers and their Ministries till 2021

The correct answer is Sri Gupta.

• Sri Gupta established the Gupta dynasty.

Key Points

• In Ancient India, the Gupta Dynasty ruled the mid-to-late 3rd century (approximately) to 543 AD.
• Founded by Sri Gupta, the dynasty rose to fame with rulers like Chandragupta-I, Samudragupta.
• The Murundas ruled for only 25 - 30 years.
• Around the last decade of the 3rd century CE (about  275 CE), the dynasty of the Guptas came to power.
• The Gupta empire established its control over a good part of the former dominions of both the Kushanas and the Satavahanas.
• The Guptas (possibly Vaishyas) kept northern India politically united for more than a century (335 CE- 455 CE).
• The Gupta period in ancient India is referred to as the “Golden Age” because of the numerous achievements in the field of arts, literature, science, and technology. It also brought about the political unification of the subcontinent.

​

Additional Information

• Sri Gupta
• ​Founder of the Gupta Dynasty.
• Reign from 240 CE to 280 CE.
• Used the title of Maharaja.
• Chandragupta I
• ​Reigned from 319 CE to 335/336 CE
• Started the Gupta Era
• He assumed the title of Maharajadhiraja.
• Married Lichchavi princess Kumaradevi
• ​Samudragupta
• ​Called ‘Napolean of India’ by V.A. Smith (Irish Indologist and Art Historian)
• His campaigns are mentioned in the Eran inscription (Madhya Pradesh)
• ​​Chandragupta II
• ​Navratnas (9 Gems in his Court)
• Took the title Vikramaditya
• ​​Kumaragupta I
• ​Founded Nalanda University
• He was also called Shakraditya
• ​Vishnugupta
• ​Last known ruler of the Gupta Dynasty.

The correct answer is the 19th anniversary.

• The 19th anniversary of Kargil Vijay Diwas was celebrated across India on 26 July 2018.

Key Points

• Kargil Vijay Diwas is observed on 26th July every year.
• On this day, the country remembers the extreme valour, sacrifice, and exemplary courage of Indian soldiers during the 1999 Kargil war.
• This year, 2020 nation is celebrating the 21 years of victory in the Kargil war.
• It was in 1999 that a high-altitude mountain war broke out along the peaks of Kargil near the Line of Control, the de-facto border that divides Kashmir between the two nations.
• The Kargil War, also known as the Kargil conflict, was an armed conflict fought between India and Pakistan from May to July 1999 in the Kargil district of Kashmir and elsewhere along the Line of Control.

Additional Information

• Operation Vijay
• The operation was launched by the Indian Army twice in Indian history.
• The first Operation Vijay was launched in 1961 that led to the capture of Goa, Anjediva islands, and Daman and Diu.
• The second operation was launched in 1999. Both the operations were of huge success.
• However, the Kargil Vijay However, the Kargil Vijay Diwas is marked on the culmination of the Kargil war. July 26 is celebrated as “Kargil Vijay Diwas” every year to mark the successful completion of “Operation Vijay” that ended the 3-month war along the Line of Control.
• Nearly 490 Indian army officers, soldiers, and jawans were martyrs during the course of the battle.
• Operation White Sea
• ​The operation White Sea was also launched during the Kargil war, 1999.
• During the operation, the Indian Air Force jointly acted with the Indian Army to flush out regular and irregular troops of the Pakistani army.

The correct answer is Minsk.

• The capital city of Belarus located in Minsk.

​

Key Points 

• Minsk is the capital and seat of the government of Belarus.
• As of 2013, the city had a population of 2,002,600, making it the most populated in the country.
• The city is situated on the slopes of the Minsk Hills, and two major rivers, the Nyamiha and Svislach, flow through it.
• Other smaller rivers also flow through the area.
• The edges of the city feature mixed forests and pinewood.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

• Kavadi is a folk dance associated with the Tamil Nadu state of India.

Key Points

• Kavadi Aattam is a ceremonial sacrifice and offering practised by devotees during the worship of Lord Murugan, the Hindu God of War.
• It is a central part of the festival of Thaipusam and emphasizes debt bondage.
• Folk dances in India represent the culture and tradition of the community from where they originated
• Folk dances are usually performed during the respective community’s celebration- childbirth, festivals, weddings.

​

Additional Information 

• There are different types of Folk dances in India:

The correct answer is Ustad Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar.

• Ustad Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar is a famous ‘Dhrupad' singer of India.

Key Points

• Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar was an exponent of Dagar Vani Dhrupad of Indian classical music.
• He represented the 19th generation of the Dagar Tradition.
• His cousins Nasir Moinuddin Dagar and Nasir Aminuddin Dagar were known as the Senior Dagar Brothers.
• Ustad Rahim Fahimuddin Khan Dagar was known not only for the power and spontaneity of his alaap but also for his rich repertoire of compositions, some of which are believed to date back to the 12th and 13th centuries.
• Ustad Rahim Fahimuddin Khan Dagar was honoured with numerous awards:
• Sangeet Ratan (1956)
• Kalidas Award (2002)
• Bihar Dhrupad Ratan (2002)
• Sangeet Bhusan (2003), Shama Indian Cultural Society Award (2004),
• Lifetime Achievement Award (2005) by North American Dhrupad Association
• Padma Bhushan (2008)
• Ustad Mushtaq Ali Khan Lifetime Achievement Award (2011).

Additional Information

• Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was an Indian Hindustani classical vocalist, from the Patiala Gharana.
• Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan was an Indian classical musician in the Hindustani classical music tradition, belonging to the Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 1991, followed by Padma Bhushan in 2006 and Padma Vibhushan in 2018.
• Ustad Mazhar Ali Khan is an Indian classical and lights classical vocalist of Patiala Gharana.
• He is a grandson of the doyen of the Patiala Gharana.

The correct answer is Neonatology.

• The study of a newborn is called Neonatology.​​

Key Points

• Neonatology is a subspecialty of paediatrics that consists of the medical care of newborn infants, especially the ill or premature newborn.
• It is a hospital-based speciality and is usually practised in neonatal intensive care units.
• A neonatal intensive care unit (NICU), also known as an intensive care nursery (ICN), is an intensive care unit (ICU) specializing in the care of ill or premature newborn infants.
• Neonatal refers to the first 28 days of life.
• Neonatal care, as known as specialized nurseries or intensive care, has been around since the 1960s.
• The first American newborn intensive care unit, designed by Louis Gluck, was opened in October 1960 at **Yale-New Haven Hospital.**​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Merrut.

• On 10th May Sepoy Mutiny broke out at Merrut.

​

Key Points​​

• Indian Mutiny, also called Sepoy Mutiny or First War of Independence, widespread but unsuccessful rebellion against British rule in India in 1857–59.
• Begun in Meerut on 10 May 1857  by Indian troops (sepoys) in the service of the British East India Company.
• It spread to Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow.
• In India, it is often called the First War of Independence and other similar names.
• This Sepoy Mutiny was a violent and very bloody uprising against British rule in India in 1857.
• Sepoy units in the south of India remained loyal, but in the north, many units of the Bengal Army turned on the British.

Additional Information​

• The Indian Mutiny which started in Meerut spread from town to town and reached Jhansi on 5 June 1857 where the 12th Bengal Native Infantry and the 14th Irregular Cavalry rebelled.
• They killed two British officers, took possession of the Star Fort with its guns and treasure, plundered the town, and released prisoners from the jail.
• The remaining Europeans took refuge in the Town Fort and appealed to the Rani of Jhansi who sent them guns and ammunition.
• The fort was too weak to defend and Major Skene accepted terms of safe conduct.
• However, on emerging from the fort on 7 June, the Europeans were seized and taken to the Jokan Bagh where they were killed.
• The mutineers left for Agra and Delhi on 11 June.
• List of Important Leaders associated with the revolt of 1857

The correct answer is Three.

• Three Sangams (assembly of Tamil poets) were held in South India.

Key Points

• The period roughly between the 3rd century B.C. and 3rd century A.D. in South India (the area lying to the south of river Krishna and Tungabhadra) is known as Sangam Period.
• It has been named after the Sangam academies held during that period that flourished under the royal patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai.
• At the Sangam eminent scholars assembled and functioned as the board of censors and the choicest literature was rendered in the nature of anthologies
• These literary works were the earliest specimens of Dravidian literature
• The First Sangam is believed to be held at Madurai, attended by gods and legendary sages. No literary work of this Sangam is available
• The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram, only Tolkappiyam survives from this
• The Third Sangam was also held at Madurai.

Additional Information

• South India, during the Sangam Age, was ruled by three dynasties-the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas.
• The main source of information about these kingdoms is traced from the literary references of the Sangam Period
• The Sangam period slowly witnessed its decline towards the end of the 3rd century A.D.
• The Kalabhras occupied the Tamil country post-Sangam period between 300 AD to 600 AD.
• Their period was called an interregnum or 'dark age' by earlier historians.

The correct answer is Article 51.

• Article 51 provides that the State shall endeavour for the promotion of international peace and security.

Key Points

• Articles 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
• Article 51 of the Constitution directs the state to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
• It further directs the state to respect International law and treaty obligations and settle disputes peacefully.
• Indian Constitution has not originally classified DPSPs but on the basis of their content and direction, they are usually classified into three types-
• Socialistic Principles (Article38 - 47)
• Gandhian Principles (Article40 - 48)
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles (Article44 - 51)

Additional Information

The correct answer is Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed.

• The 5th President of India was Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed from 1974 to 1977.
• He was also the second President of India to die in office.

Key Points

• The President of India is referred to as the first citizen of India.
• The Indian President is elected by an electoral college composed of the elected members of the Parliament, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Vidhan Sabha.
• There have been 14 personalities who served as Indian Presidents since the adoption of the Indian Constitution in 1950 and there have been tenures when the country was headed by an acting President. In this article, you will get to know about all the Presidents of India from 1950 to 2021
• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949 (It came into force on 26th January 1950).
• And Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first constitutional head of the state, the President of India.
• Ram Nath Kovind on July 25th, 2017, became the 14th Indian President, appointed by the electoral college.
• Dr. Zakir Hussain was the first Indian President to die in office before completing his term.
• He was the Third President of India.
• President of India, Part V (Articles 52-62)
• ​Article 52: The President of India
• Article 54: Election of President
• Article 55: Manner of election of President
• Article 60: Oath or affirmation by the President
• Article 61: Procedure for impeachment of the President

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Additional Information

Given:

An alloy of copper and zinc contains 80% zine by weight

Total alloy = 350g

Calculation:

According to the question,

Zinc by weight = 350 × 80/100 = 280g

Copper by weight = 350 - 280 = 70g

This alloy 50g of copper is added = 70 + 50 = 120g

New alloy = 280 + 120 = 400g

Required % = 120/400 × 100 = 30%

∴ Percentage of copper in the new alloy is 30%.

Given:  

Sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 30 cm and 34 cm.

Formula used:

Area of triangle = $\sqrt{s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)}$

s = (a + b + c)/2​

Area = 1/2 × base × altitude

Calculation:

Let a = 16 cm

b = 30 cm

c = 34 cm 

s = (a + b + c)/2

⇒ s = (16 + 30 + 34)/2

⇒ s = 80/2

⇒ s = 40 cm

Now, Area of triangle = $\sqrt{s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)}$s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−√s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)

⇒ Area of triangle = $\sqrt{40(40 − 16)(40 − 30)(40 − 34)}$

⇒ Area of triangle = $\sqrt{40 \times 24 \times 10 \times 6}$

⇒ Area of triangle = √(57600)

⇒ Area of triangle = 240 cm²

According to the question:

Area = 1/2 × base × altitude

When, base = 16 cm

⇒ 240 = 1/2 × 16 × altitude

⇒ 240 = 8 × altitude

⇒ altitude = 30 cm

When, base = 30 cm

⇒ 240 = 1/2 × 30 × altitude

⇒ 240 = 15 × altitude

⇒ altitude = 16 cm

When, base = 34 cm

⇒ 240 = 1/2 × 34 × altitude

⇒ 240 = 17 × altitude

⇒ altitude = 14.1 cm

∴ The length of its shortest altitude is 14.1 cm.

Given:

The sum of dimensions of a cuboid = 30 cm.

Length of diagonal = 2√77 cm

Formula used:

Diagonal of the cuboid = √(L2 + B2 + H2)

Surface area of the cuboid = 2(LB + BH + LH) 

Calculation:

Let Length be L, Breadth be B, and Height be C

According to the question,

Length + Breadth + Height = 30 cm

L + B + H = 30 cm  

Squaring both the sides we get,

(L + B + H)² = (30cm)²

⇒ (L + B + H)2 = 900cm²

⇒ L² + B² + H² + 2LB + 2BH + 2LH = 900     ----(1)

⇒ Diagonal of the cuboid = √(L2 + B2 + H2)

By the question,

⇒ √(L2 + B2 + H2) = 2√77

Thus,

L2 + B2 + H2 = 308     ----(2)

Putting the value of equation(2) in equation(1),

2 LB + 2 BH + 2 LH + 308 = 900

⇒ 2(LB + BH + LH) = 592

∴ The total surface area of the cuboid is 592 cm².

Given:

The HCF of two numbers = 18

Their sum = 288

Concept used:

If the number is 18x and 18y, then x and y will be Co-prime prime numbers,

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 18x and 18y.

According to the question,

18x + 18y = 288

⇒ x + y = 288/18

⇒ x + y = 16

Now, we can say x = 7 and y = 9, then x and y will be Co-prime number.

Numbers = 18 × 7 = 126 and 18 × 9 = 162

Sum of their reciprocals,

1/126 + 1/162

⇒ (9 + 7)/1134

⇒ 16/1134

⇒ 8/567

∴ The correct answer is 8/567.

Given:

a ∶ b = 2 ∶ 5

 b ∶ c = 7 ∶ 8

Calculation:

a = 2b/5

Then

5a = 2b

By,

b ∶ c = 7 ∶ 8

c = 8b/7

Then

7c = 8b

So according to question

5a ∶ 3b ∶ 7c = 2b ∶ 3b ∶ 8b

∴  5a ∶ 3b ∶ 7c = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 8

Given:

A train without stoppage travels with an average speed of 80 km/h 

And with the stoppage, it travels with an average speed of 64 km/h

Concept used:

Time of rest per hour = The difference in average speed/The speed without stoppage.

Calculation:

Without stoppage average speed = 80 km/h

With stoppages average speed = 64 km/h

According to the concept,

Required time = [(80 – 64)/80] × 60 = 12

∴ The required time is 12 minutes.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = 150%

He sells 40% of his stock at 10% discount

30% stock at 20% discount 

And remaining at 30% discount on the marked price

Formula used:

Profit% = (profit/CP) × 100

SP = MP × (100 - discount%)/100

Calculation:

Let the trader bought 100 goods at each price of Rs. x

Total C.P = Rs. 100x

MP of each article = 1.5x

He sold 40 article at 10% discount

SP = 1.5x × 90/100 = 1.35x

His profit is (1.35x - x) × 40 = 14x

He sold 30 article at 20% discount

SP = 1.5x × (80/100) = 1.2x

His profit is (1.2x - x) × 30 = 6x

He sold remaining 30 article at 30% discount

SP = 1.5x × (70/100) = 1.05x

His profit is (1.05x - x) × 30 = 1.5x

Total profit = 14x + 6x + 1.5x = 21.5

Profit% = (21.5x/100x) × 100 = 21.5%

∴ The over all profit is 21.5%.

Given:

A can complete a work in 30 days.

B can complete a work in 20 days.

Calculation:

According to the question,

(A + B)'s 1 day's work = (1/30 + 1/20) 

⇒ (A + B)'s 1 day's work = (2 + 3)/60

⇒ (A + B)'s 1 day's work = (5)/60

⇒ (A + B)'s 1 day's work = 1/12

Work completed by A and B together in 6 days = 1/12 × 6

⇒ 1/2

Remaining work = (1 - 1/2)

⇒ 1/2

Now, 1/20 work is completed by B in 1 days.

Then 1/2 work will be completed = 20 × 1/2

⇒ 10 days

The total time taken = (10 + 6) = 16 days.

∴ The total time taken is 16 days.

Given:

The greatest number divisible by 6, 7, 8, and 12.

Concept used:

LCM method used

Calculation:

Now finding the LCM,

6 = 3 × 2

7 = 7 × 1

8 = 2 × 2 × 2

12 = 2 × 2 × 3

So, required LCM = 2× 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 = 168

Therefore, the number has to be of form 168 x + 4, where x is an integer.

The largest number of 5 digits is 99999

When divided by 168, 99999 leaves the remainder 39, which is

99999 = 168 × 595 + 39

So, 99999 - 39 = 99960 which is divisible by 168.

Now as it leaves a remainder 4 in each case

Therefore, the required number is 99960 + 4 = 99964

∴ The correct answer is 99964.

Given:

Principal = Rs. 4200

Time = 2 years

Formula used:

Difference between C.I and S.I for 2 years = (r/100)2 × P

Where C.I = Compound interest

S.I = Simple interest

r = rate of interest

P = Principal

Calculation:

By applying the above formula

⇒ Difference = (r/100)2 × 4200

⇒ 34.02 = (r/100)2 × 4200

⇒ 0.0081 = (r/100)2

⇒ (0.0081) = (r/100)2

⇒ √(0.0081) = (r/100)

⇒ 0.009 = r/100

⇒ r = 9%

∴ The rate of interest per annum is 9%.

Given:

On selling 18 articles loss is equal to selling price 2 articles.

Formula Used:

Loss = CP – SP

Loss percent = Loss/CP × 100

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ Selling price of 18 articles = Cost price of 18 articles - Selling price of 2 articles

⇒ 18SP = 18CP - 2SP

⇒ 20SP = 18CP

⇒ 10SP = 9CP

SP = 9 and CP = 10

Loss = CP – SP

⇒ Loss = 10 – 9 = 1

Percent loss = Loss/CP × 100

⇒ Percent loss = 1/10 × 100

⇒ Percent loss = 10%

∴ The percent loss is 10%.

Given:

Rate of interest = 4%

Rate of interest increases by 0.5 subsequent year

Payable amount = Rs. 5309

Formula used:

Interest = PTR/100

where P = Principal or the sum lent, R = Rate of interest, T = Time duration and I = Simple interest

Calculation:

Let the loan be Rs. x

Interest for 1st year = 4%

Interest for 2nd year = 4.5%

Interest for 3rd year = 5%

Interest for 4th year = 5.5%

Now,

(x × 4 × 1)/100 + (x × 4.5 × 1)/100 + (x × 5 × 1)/100 + (x × 5.5 × 1)/100 = 5309

⇒ x × (4 + 4.5 + 5 + 5.5)/100 = 5309

⇒ x × (19/100) = 5309

⇒ x = 5309 × (100/19)

⇒ x = Rs. 27942.10

∴ The loan was Rs. 27942.

Formula used:

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 - ab + b2)

Calculation:

$\dfrac{94.3\times94.3+5.7\times5.7-94.3\times5.7}{9.43\times9.43\times9.43+0.57\times0.57\times0.57}$

⇒ $\dfrac{9.43\times9.43\times100+0.57\times0.57\times100-9.43\times0.57\times100}{9.43\times9.43\times9.43+0.57\times0.57\times0.57}$ 

⇒ $\dfrac{[(94.3)^2+(5.7)^2-94.3\times5.7]\times100}{(9.43)^3+(0.57)^3}$

⇒ $\dfrac{[(9.43)^2+(0.57)^2-9.43\times0.57]\times100}{(9.43+0.57){[(9.43)^2+(0.57)^2-9.43\times0.57}]}$

⇒ $\dfrac{100}{(9.43+0.57)}$

⇒ $\dfrac{100}{10}$

⇒ 10

∴ The value of $\dfrac{94.3\times94.3+5.7\times5.7-94.3\times5.7}{9.43\times9.43\times9.43+0.57\times0.57\times0.57}$ is 10

Given:

5 men or 3 women can finish a piece of work = 60 Hours 

Formula Used:

(M1 × D1)/W1 = (M2 × D2)/W2

Calculation:

5 Men = 3 women 

1 men = (3/5) women

8 Men = 8 × (3/5) women = (24/5) women

So work done = 8 Men and 12 Women

⇒ (24/5) + 12 = 84/5

Let the day of a complete piece of work 8 men and 12 women be X

⇒ (3 × 60)/W1 = [(84/5) × X]/W2

Here work is the same so W1 = W2

⇒ 3 × 60 = 84X/5

⇒ X = (3 × 60 × 5)/84= 75/7

∴ The  8 men and 12 women will do the same work in 75/7 days.

Given:

 A boatman can travel 16 km upstream and return downstream to the original point in 2 hours 20 minutes.

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation

Let x be the speed of the boat in the still water and y be the speed of the stream i.e 3 km/h.

Time taken in downstream = 16/(x + y) = 16/(x + 2)

Time taken in upstream = 16/(x - y) = 16/(x - 2)

Total Time of total journey = 2 Hour 20 minute = 7/3 Hour

Total time = Time taken in downstream + Time taken in upstream

16/(x + 2) + 16/(x - 2) = 7/3

⇒ 16 × (x - 2) + 16 × (x + 2) = 7/3 × (x - 2) × (x + 2)

⇒ 16x - 32 + 16x + 32 = 7/3 × (x² - 4)

⇒32x = 7/3 × (x2 - 4)

⇒ 96x = 7x2 - 28

⇒ 7x2 - 96x - 28 = 0

⇒ 7x2 - 98x - 2x - 28 = 0

⇒ 7x(x - 14) - 2(x + 14) = 0

⇒ (x - 14) × (7x + 2) = 0

x = 14, -2/7

∴ The boat in still water in km/h is 14 km.

Given:

$1 + \dfrac{1}{2+ \dfrac{1}{3+\dfrac{5}{6}}}$

Calculation:

$1 + \dfrac{1}{2+ \dfrac{1}{3+\dfrac{5}{6}}}$

⇒ $1 + \dfrac{1}{2+ \dfrac{6}{18+{5}}}$

⇒ $1 + \dfrac{1}{2+ \dfrac{6}{23}}$

⇒ $1 + \dfrac{23}{46+{6}}$

⇒ $1 + \dfrac{23}{52}$

⇒  $\dfrac{52 + 23}{52}$

⇒ $\dfrac{75}{52}$

∴ The after solving we get $\dfrac{75}{52}$

Calculation:

Total number of students who appeared in the exam be 260

Number of students who passed in Mathematics = 68% of 260

= 176.8

Number of students who passed in Science = 72% of 260

= 187.2

Number of students who failed in both = 20% of 260

= 52

Let; Number of students who passed in both the subjects = x

⇒ Total students = 176.8 + 187.2 + (52 - x)

⇒ 176.8 + 187.2 + (52 - x) = 260

⇒ 416 - x = 260

⇒ x = 156

Hence, the number of students who passed in both the subjects is 156.

Saving of B for June Month = 140

Total Saving of B = (180 + 140 + 100 + 140 + 130 + 210)

= 900

The central angle of the sector representing the savings for the month of June = (140/900) × 360° 

= 56° 

Hence, the central angle is 56°.

Total Saving of A = (140 + 120 + 100 + 160 + 140 + 140)

= 800

Total Saving of B = (180 + 140 + 100 + 140 + 130 + 210)

= 900

Percentage of the savings of B is more than savings of A = $\dfrac{Saving\ of\ B\ - Saving\ of \ A}{Saving\ of\ A} \times 100$

= $\dfrac{900 - 800}{800} \times 100$

= $\dfrac{100}{8}$

= 12.5%

Hence, the Saving of B is 12.5% more than the saving of A.

Saving of A for April = 120

Total Saving of A = (140 + 120 + 100 + 160 + 140 + 140)

= 800

The savings of A for the month of April is to the total savings of A of all 6 months = $\dfrac{Saving\ of\ A\ for\ April}{Saving\ of\ A} \times 100$

= $\dfrac{120}{800} \times 100$

= $\dfrac{120}{8}$

= 15%

Hence, the Saving of A for April is 15% of the total saving of A.

The correct answer is Is your brother’s wife attending the party?

Key Points

• The given is an Interrogative sentence.
• Is helping verb here refers to the wife of the brother.
• Apostrophes serve two basic functions in writing:
• to show possession
• to indicate that letters have been removed to form a contraction
• Here, the usage of apostrophe "s" with brother to show that wife belongs to brother.
• Hence, the given sentence is grammatically correct.

The correct sentence is: Is your brother’s wife attending the party?

The correct answer is "Joins". 

Key Points

• The statement describes a regular activity ("regularly") in the present tense, which indicates that the sentence should be in simple present tense.
• The subject "one of my best friends" is singular, which requires a singular verb form.
• The phrase "is going" confirms that the sentence is in present tense.
• Option 3, "joins", correctly completes the sentence by matching both the tense (simple present) and the subject-verb agreement (singular subject with singular verb form).
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

• Option 1, "were joining", is incorrect because it is in the past continuous tense and does not agree with the singular subject or the present tense of the statement.
• Option 2, "join", is the plural form of the verb and does not agree with the singular subject.
• Option 4, "is joining", would suggest an immediate or future action, which is not compatible with the context of a regular activity being described.

The correct answer is What will you do when you finish classes?

Key Points 

• Let's understand this with the help of these sentences:
• Type 1: Could you tell me when you will know the consequences?
• The second sentence is grammatically correct, but in the first case, you ask when, i.e., at what time the other person will know the results.
• Type 2: Could you tell me when you know the consequences?
• In the second case, you ask the person to let you know after getting the results, so they would wait until they get them and then tell you.
• The given sentence is a type 2 sentence in which it is asked what will be done by the subject you when he finishes the classes.

From the above rules, it is clear that the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is ​The newly wedded couple has decided to fly to Singapore for their honeymoon tomorrow evening.

Key Points

• The is given sentence is in Active voice.
• In this sentence, couple is a singular collective noun.
• According to the subject-verb agreement rule, a singular noun follows a singular helping verb, and hence newly wedded couple should follow has.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is I had a great time at your party last week.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the simple past tense.
• The adjective last means next before the present and is used about a time, period, event, etc., in the past that is nearest to the present.
• Let's understand the simple past tense:
• It is used for actions that started and finished at a specific time in the past.
• As the sentence is in the past tense, the subject I should follow a past form of the verb, i.e., have.
• As the superlative degree of adjective always preceded by the article the and hence option 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is: I had a great time at your party last week.

The correct answer is his.

Key Points

• Let's understand the usage of these pronouns:
• Everyone, everybody, everything, and everywhere are indefinite pronouns.
• We use them to refer to a total number of people, things, and places.
• We use them with singular verbs.
• ​When we don’t know if everyone is male or female, we use him or her.
• Here, the pronoun Everyone refers to the individual boy and should follow a singular helping verb his.

The complete sentence is: “Everyone must get his papers ready”. She said to all the boys.

The correct answer is We need to do something about improving his marks.

Key Points

 

• Here, the usage of preposition about is used with a sense of on the subject of (के विषय में, के बारे में, के संबंध में).
• Example: Let’s talk about something else.
• ​Similarly, the usage of preposition about in option 3 is correct.
• Other sentences are grammatically incorrect.

Hence, the correct sentence is: We need to do something about improving his marks.

The correct answer is A letter has been sent to a number of students by her.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the present perfect tense.
• Active and Passive sentences in the present perfect tense have the following structure:
• Active Form: Subject + has/have + past participle form of the verb + object
• Passive Form: Object of the active sentence + has/have + been + past participle form of the verb + by + subject of the active sentence
• The object of the active sentence is a letter, and the Subject is She.

​​According to the above structure, the correct passive form of the given sentence is: A letter has been sent to a number of students by her.

The correct answer is Who is supplying these students with such dangerous drugs?

Key Points

• The given is an Interrogative sentence.
• It is a type of sentence that asks a question and ends with a question mark.
• Format: Question Word + Auxiliary Verb + Subject + Main Verb + Remainder
• Example: Why did he leave us then?
• ​The sentence in option 2 follows the correct format of the interrogative sentence, and hence, it is correct. ​
• Other sentences are grammatically incorrect.

Hence, the correct sentence is: Who is supplying these students with such dangerous drugs?

The correct answer is ​Three quarters of the students are against the new rules.

Key Points

• A quarter is a noun that means one of four equal parts of something.
• Example: A quarter of the residents are over 65 years old.
• ​According to the subject-verb agreement rule, three quarter is a plural noun and hence, should follow a plural helping verb are.

Hence, the correct sentence is option 4.

The correct answer is The number of engineering colleges is gradually being reduced.

Key Points

• The expression 'The number of' is succeeded by a plural noun and singular verb whereas the expression 'A number of' is succeeded by a plural noun and plural verb.
• Example:
• A number of copies are distributed.
• The number of copies is distributed.
• Therefore, from the above-given explanation, statement 3 is grammatically correct. Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

According to the above structure, the correct sentence is:The number of engineering colleges is gradually being reduced.

The correct answer is ​Although she confessed the truth, we couldn't believe her.

Key Points

• Let's understand the usage of conjunction Although:
• Usage 1: Although (हालांकि) is used to introduce clauses that modify what is being said or that add further information.
• Example: The street was closed for the night, although lights were still lit.
• Usage 2: Although (यद्यपि) to introduce a statement which contrasts with something else that you are saying.
• Example: Although Rimjhim was only six, she can remember seeing the series "Friends" on TV.
• In the given sentence, clause two shows the contrast with clause one.

Hence, the grammatically correct sentence is: Although she confessed the truth, we couldn't believe her.

The correct answer is I would not have hesitated to help you.

Key Points

• The given is a negative conditional sentence.
• It is an example of the Third type of conditional sentence used to express how the situation would be different if the past had been different.
• Format 1: If + Past Perfect tense + would/could/should/might have + V3(past participle)
• Format 2: Had + past participle + would/could/should/might have + V3(past participle)
• Here, the sentence says how a result could be different if the subject you had to**ld what was wrong in the past.

​Hence, the correct answer is: If you had told me what was wrong, I would not have hesitated to help you.

 

Important Points

• When the if-clause is before the main clause, use a comma.
• Example: I**f they had booked earlier, they could have found better seats.
• We never use a comma when the if-clause is after the main clause.
• Example: We would be lying on a beach now if we had not missed the plane.

 ​

Additional Information

• Let's see how to form conditional sentences without using if; they are also called Shortened Conditional sentences.
• These sentences start with Were/Had/Should, and the subject follows it.                              

The correct answer is have, forgets.

Key Points

• According to the subject-verb agreement rule, a singular noun/pronoun follows a singular helping verb.
• In the given sentence, she is a singular pronoun and should follow a singular verb forgets.
• Here, the infinitive form of the verb to + infinitive i.e. to + have is used, and hence, the first blank contains the verb have.

Hence, the complete sentence is: She seems to always have things to do that she forgets all the time.

The correct answer is indicates.

Key Points

• According to the subject-verb agreement rule, a singular noun/pronoun follows a singular helping verb.
• Here, the noun arrival is singular, which means reaching the place to which you were travelling and hence, should follow a singular helping verb indicates.

Hence, the complete sentence is: The arrival of many delegates indicates a positive outlook.

The correct answer is ​Delves into perceptions of reality through social analysis interlaced with personal perspectives.

Key Points

• Let check the two statements given in the first and second paragraphs of the passage: 
• The second line of the first paragraph states, "In a crowded field of commentary on our lives with new technology, his first-hand reports on digital existence, narrated with blushes and allurements and a scholar’s grasp of intellectual history, were not like anyone else’s".
• It can be inferred that the first book, The four - Dimensional Human, that our lives in accordance with new technology.
• The initial lines of the first paragraph state, "Picnic Comma Lightning brings us further meditations on what digital life is doing to the way we find meaning in the world. Here again, Scott ponders his world with a mix of delighted avidity, candour, and melancholy. But this second book goes deeper, ranges even wider, and takes many different forms in the mind."
• ​It can be inferred that the second book, The picnic Comma Lightning, revolves around the keen interest, and a mix of sadness raelted with digital life.

Hence, the correct choice is option 2.

The correct answer is Ingenious.

Key Points

• Let's understand the meanings of these two words:
• Banal means lacking originality, freshness, or novelty.​
• Example: The instructor's script is banal, relying heavily on images of waves on a beach or clouds in the sky.
• Ingenious means marked by originality, resourcefulness.
• Example: *This is an ingenious medicine.*​

Hence, it is clear that Ingenious is the antonym of the word Banal.

Additional Information

• Let's understand the meanings of the other words:
• Native: belonging to a particular place by birth
• Trite: not fresh or original
• Vapid: lacking flavor, zest, interest, animation, or spirit