DSSSB TGT Social Studies Female 15 Oct 2018 Official Paper (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The pattern followed is:

Given series:

The figure is rotating by +45º clockwise direction in each step.

Another logic:

The dot is moving in the clockwise direction and taking place of a corresponding side of the hexagon.

The complete series is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

There are six children participate in the sports competition and each player has to play with every other once.

1^st player will play 5 games → 5

2^nd player will have 4 games as his game with player 1 is already counted → 4

3^rd player will have 3 unique games as 2 of his games are already counted → 3

Similarly,

4^th → 2

5^th → 1

Total number of games = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15

Hence, “15” is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is;

The line within the circle and the outer arrow are perpendicular to each other.

In option 1:

The line in the circle is vertical and the arrow is slant.

In option 2:

The line in the circle and arrow are slant but are perpendicular to each other.

In option 3:

The line in the circle and arrow both are slant but parallel to each other.

In option 4:

The line in the circle is horizontal and the arrow is slant.

So, only in option (2) line and arrow are perpendicular to each other.

Hence, "option (2)" is the correct answer.

The family chart is as follows:

Drawing the family tree as per the given information:

Thus we can see Rajesh's father's mother related to Vidya as a Grandmother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Grandmother".

The logic followed is:

Sense organ : It is used for

Option 1 → Tongue : Taste

The tongue is used to taste. The tongue has many nerves that help detect and transmit taste signals to the brain.

Option 2 → Nose : Fragrance

The nose is the body's primary organ of smell and also functions as part of the body's respiratory system.

Option 3 → Ear : Deaf

This is not the correct match.

The correct function of the ear is to transmit and transduce sound to the brain through the parts of the ear. 

Option 4 → Eye : See

The eyes are organs of the visual system. They provide animals with vision, the ability to receive and process visual detail, as well as enabling several photo response functions that are independent of vision. Eyes detect light and convert it into electro-chemical impulses in neurons.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

As we can see the given figure is embedded in Option 2. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Anurag Kumar has 6 years of work experience after education.

His birthday is 05-4-1992.

He has scored 62% marks in the selection process.

He has done his graduation in commerce and has scored 76% marks.

All conditions are as follows;

 

Anurag Kumar fulfills all the given criteria for the recruitment process in an accounting organization.

So, He should be selected

Hence, the correct answer is "Should be selected".

Thus, the image that is formed after folding the paper is an image shown below,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "48".

The logic followed is:

The given shape is rotating by +90º Anticlockwise except for figure D which is not following the pattern.

The correct pattern is:

Thus the Option D is odd from the rest of the image.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option D".

The logic followed is:

In botany, a tree is a perennial plant with an elongated stem, or trunk, roots, supporting branches, and leaves in most species.

As per the basic requirement for survival, the root is the most important part of the tree.

Option 1 - Flowers

Non-flowering plants are those that do not ever produce flowers. Some non-flowering plants, called gymnosperms, still produce seeds while others use spores for reproduction.

Option 2 - Horn

It is not always compulsory to be present in the tree.

Option 3 - Roots

More importantly, roots are the lifeline of a plant, taking up air, water, and nutrients from the soil and moving them up into the leaves, where they can interact with sunlight to produce sugars, flavors, and energy for the plant.

Option 4 - Fruit

There are many trees that don't bear any fruits in their lifetime.

Hence, the correct answer is "Roots".

The logic followed is:

Given situation:

You are giving an entrance exam. If you think it is very difficult to answer the question paper.

As it is the exam paper so the difficulty of the paper is totally dependent upon the question setter. He/she will not create the question according to all the individuals.

Option 1 - Thus Tell the invigilator and the organizer that the question is definitely off the syllabus is not the correct step to do.

Option 2 - The correct step will be to try to solve the question paper and solve as many questions as you know with a calm mind.

Option 3 - Students should not indulge in this kind of activity. 

Option 4 - Cheating is not a good habit for students.

Thus only Option 2 is the correct step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "QQ".

The logic followed is:

Decoding the information, 

 

Given the equation: 6 N 3 L 48 P 6 M 10 = ?

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

6 × 3 + 48 ÷ 6 - 10 = ?

6 × 3 + 8 - 10 = ?

18 + 8 - 10 = ?

26 - 10 = ?

? = 16

Hence, the correct answer is "16".

The logic followed is:

Let the age of Balu be “x” years.

Since Arjun is 4 years older than Balu.

Therefore, the age of Arjun = (x+4) years

Since Arjun is 4 years younger than Chandu, it means Chandu is 4 years older than Arjun

Therefore, age of Chandu = Age of Arjun + 4

= [(x + 4) + 4] years = (x + 8) years

Since Balu and Dinesh are twins

Therefore, age of Dinesh = age of Balu = x years

Difference between ages of Chandu and Dinesh = [(x + 8) - x] years = 8 years

Therefore, Chandu is 8 years older than Dinesh 

Hence, the correct answer is "8".

The logic followed is:

In each next step 1 line segment is deleting from the given letter.

In figure A

The given shape is the letter "E".

In figure B

One line segment get deleted from the right end

Thus we get 

In figure C

Again the one-line segment gets deleted from the right end.

Thus we get 

Similarly,

In figure D

Again one line segment will get deleted from the previous image to obtained figure D.

Thus only one figure is satisfying the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed is:

The second is the currency of the first.

 

All except option (2) are the correct matches of the country and their currency but Turkey is not correctly match.

The currency of the Turkey is Turkish lira, not Dollar. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Turkey : Dollar"

Additional Information

The logic followed is:

 

Thus the total number of deaths due to dengue in village 'Z' in the years 2014 and 2015 are:

15 + 10

= 25

Hence, the correct answer is "25".

From the given diagram:

There are 51 people who speak Gujarati and Marathi but do not speak Hindi.

Hence, the correct answer is "51".

The logic followed is:

The second number = (First number)³ + 2

Option 1 → 6 : 218

218 = (6)³ + 2

218 = 216 + 2

218 = 218

Option 2 → 7 : 345

345 = (7)³ + 2

345 = 343 + 2

345 = 345

Option 3 → 9 : 731

731 = (9)³ + 2

731 = 729 + 2

731 = 731

Option 4 → 11 : 1331

1331 = (11)³ + 2

1331 = 1331 + 2

1331 ≠ 1333 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is ​World Bank.

Key Points

• The Indus Waters Treaty was signed in 1960 after nine years of negotiations between India and Pakistan with the help of the World Bank, which is also a signatory.
• The negotiations were the initiative of former World Bank President Eugene Black.
• This treaty is seen as one of the most successful international treaties, it has survived frequent tensions, including conflict, and has provided a framework for irrigation and hydropower development for more than half a century.

 

• The Treaty sets out a mechanism for cooperation and information exchange between the two countries regarding their use of the rivers, known as the Permanent Indus Commission, which has a commissioner from each country.
• The Treaty also sets forth distinct procedures to handle issues which may arise: “questions” are handled by the Commission; “differences” are to be resolved by a Neutral Expert; and “disputes” are to be referred to a seven-member arbitral tribunal called the “Court of Arbitration.”
• As a signatory to the Treaty, the World Bank’s role is limited and procedural.
• On December 12, 2016, World Bank Group President Jim Yong Kim announced that the World Bank would pause before taking further steps in each of the two processes requested by the parties.
• The announcement by the Bank to pause the processes was taken to protect the Treaty in the interests of both countries.

Additional Information

• World Bank:
• Headquarters - Washington, D.C., United States.
• President - David Malpass.
• Comprises of - The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development and The International Development Association.

The correct answer is 4-1-5-2-3.​

Key Points

• Charan Singh - July 28, 1979 - January 14, 1980 (170 Days)
• Vishwanath Pratap Singh - December 02, 1989 - November 10, 1990 (343 days)
• Chandra Shekhar - November 10, 1990 - June 21, 1991 (223 days)
• H.D. Deve Gowda - June 01, 1996 - April 21, 1997 (324 days)
• I.K. Gujral - April 21, 1997 - March 18, 1998

 

• Charan Singh:​
• He briefly served as prime minister between 1979 and 1980.
• He served as the fifth Prime minister of India.
• He was known for his pioneering work to promote the welfare of farmers and the agricultural sector.
• National Farmers’ Day is celebrated across India on December 23 to honour India’s farmers, It marks the birth anniversary of Choudhary Charan Singh.
• ​Vishwanath Pratap Singh:
• ​V.P. Singh was an Indian politician who was the 7^th Prime Minister of India from 1989 to 1990.
• He was from Uttar Pradesh.
• Chandra Shekhar:
• ​Chandra Shekhar was born on July 1, 1927, in a farmer’s family in village Ibrahimpatti in District Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.
• He served as the eighth Prime Minister of India.
• His diary, written in Hindi while undergoing imprisonment during the Emergency period, was later published under the title ‘Meri Jail Diary’.
• H.D. Deve Gowda:
• ​Shri H. D. Deve Gowda was born on May 18, 1933, in Haradanahalli village of Holenarasipura taluk, Hassan District in Karnataka.
• A Civil Engineering Diploma holder, Shri Deve Gowda plunged into active politics at the early age of 20 when, after completing his education, he joined the Congress Party in 1953 and remained a member till 1962.
• Shri Deve Gowda resigned as the Chief Minister of Karnataka on May 30, 1996, to be sworn in as the 11^th Prime Minister of India.​​
• I.K. Gujral:
• ​Shri Inder Kumar Gujral was sworn in as the 12^th Prime Minister of India on Monday, the 21^st of April, 1997.
• At the young age of eleven, he himself actively participated in the freedom struggle in 1931.
• In 1942, he was jailed during the Quit India Movement.

The correct answer is Fortification.

Key Points

• Food Fortification: 
• Fortification is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as Iron, Iodine, Zinc, Vitamins A & D to staple foods such as rice, wheat, oil, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content.
• These nutrients may or may not have been originally present in the food before processing or may have been lost during processing.
• Why do we Need the Fortification of Food?
• Deficiency of micronutrients or micronutrient malnutrition, also known as hidden hunger, is a serious health risk.
• Access to safe and nutritious food is a must and sometimes due to lack of consumption of a balanced diet, lack of variety in the diet or unavailability of food one does not get adequate micronutrients. Often, there is a considerable loss of nutrients during the processing of food as well.
• One of the strategies to address this problem is the fortification of food.
• This method complements other ways to improve nutrition such as diversification of diet and supplementation of food.

 

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1957.

Key Points

• National Calendar of India – Saka Calendar 
• ​The Saka Era marked the beginning of the Saka Samvat, a historic Hindu calendar that was later introduced as the ‘Indian National Calendar’ in 1957.
• The Saka calendar consists of 365 days and 12 months which is similar to the structure of the Gregorian Calendar.
• The first month of the Saka Samvat is Chaitra which begins on March 22 which corresponds with March 21 during the leap year.

 

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) was constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 for hearing appeals against the orders of National Company Law Tribunal(s) (NCLT), with effect from 1^st June 2016.
• Objectives of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)
• Hear appeals against the orders passed by NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC), with effect from 1^st December 2016.
• Hear appeals against the orders passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC.
• Hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) – as per the amendment brought to Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 by Section 172 of the Finance Act, 2017, with effect from 26^th May 2017.
• Headquarters - New Delhi
• Chairperson -  Mr. Justice A.I.S. Cheema

The correct answer is Convention.

Key Points

United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982:

• ​The UNCLOS is an international treaty that provides a regulatory framework for the use of the world’s seas and oceans.
• It lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world's oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources.
• It enshrines the notion that all problems of ocean space are closely interrelated and need to be addressed as a whole.
• The Convention was opened for signature in December 1982 in Montego Bay, Jamaica.
• The Convention entered into force in accordance with its article 308 in November 1994, 12 months after the date of deposit of the sixtieth instrument of ratification or accession.
• It is the globally recognized regime dealing with all matters relating to the law of the sea.
• The convention has been ratified by 168 parties, which includes 167 states (164 United Nations (UN) member states plus the UN Observer state Palestine, as well as the Cook Islands and Niue) and the European Union. An additional 14 UN member states have signed, but not ratified the convention.
• While India ratified the UN Law of the Seas in 1995, the US has failed to do it so far.

The correct answer is Eighteenth.

Key Points

• Asian Games, a multi-sport event for all Asian countries, is set to take place in the Indonesian cities of Jakarta and Palembang from August 18 to September 2, 2018. This is the 18^th edition of the tournament, which first began in 1951 in New Delhi, and it is set to host around 10,000 athletes in 40 sports from 45 countries.
• Indonesia hosted the Asian Games for the second time, after the Jakarta Asian Games in 1962, it is the first time that the games are being hosted by two cities together.
• Mascot-Bhin Bhin—a greater bird-of-paradise, Atung—a Bawean deer, and Kaka—a Javan rhinoceros, representing the Eastern, Central, and Western regions of Indonesia.
• India’s Medals in Asian Games 2018
• Gold 15​​
• Silver 24
• Bronze 30

Additional Information

• Upcoming Asian Games
• 2022 Asian Games will be held in Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China.
• 2026 Asian Games will be held in Nagoya, Japan.

The correct answer is Cabinet.

• The cabinet is not included in the Indian Parliament.

Key Points

• Indian Parliament:
• According to Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.
• The members of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) are directly elected by the people through the voting process.
• The members of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) are elected by the members of the states’ legislative assemblies.
• The Parliament consists of the two Houses and the President of India.
• India has a parliamentary system of government.
• The Union Parliament is the supreme legislative body in the country.

The correct answer is Speaker, Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• The Lok Sabha Secretariat is an independent body that functions under the ultimate guidance and control of the Hon'ble Speaker, Lok Sabha.
• In the discharge of his Constitutional and statutory responsibilities, the Speaker, Lok Sabha is assisted by the Secretary-General, Lok Sabha,  functionaries of the level of the Additional Secretary, Joint Secretary and other officers and staff of the Secretariat at various levels.

Additional Information

• About Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• The Lok Sabha, which is the highest legislative body in the country, chooses its Speaker who presides over the day-to-day functioning of the House.
• Electing the Speaker of the House is one of the first acts of the newly constituted House.
• The office of the Speaker is a Constitutional Office.
• The Speaker is guided by the constitutional provisions and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker is placed very high in the Warrant of Precedence in the country i.e. at rank 6.
• Adequate Powers are vested in the office of the Speaker to help her/him in the smooth conduct of parliamentary proceedings.
• The constitution provides that the Speaker’s salary and allowances are not to be voted by the Parliament and are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• In the Lok Sabha chamber, the Speaker’s chair is distinctively placed to enable a commanding view of the entire House.
• The Speaker is assisted by the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha and senior officers of the Secretariat on parliamentary activities, practice and procedure.
• In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges the functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal.

Key Points

• Piyush Goyal is the Minister of Railways and Minister of Commerce & Industry in the Government of India.
• He is a Member of the Upper House of the Parliament of India (Rajya Sabha) and the Deputy Leader of Rajya Sabha.
• He was earlier the Minister of Railways and Coal (2017-19).
• He has also held additional charge of the Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs twice in 2018 and 2019.
• Earlier he was Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Power, Coal, New & Renewable Energy (2014-2017), and Mines (2016-17).
• Mr Goyal’s tenure has seen Indian Railways achieve its best-ever safety record in 2018-19.
• Constituency - Maharashtra

Additional Information

• Ministry and Ministers (2021) -

The correct answer is Good conductor of electricity.

• Plastics are not a good conductor of electricity.

Key Points

• Plastic is a polymer of ethene. A polymer is a substance made of many repeating units.
• It is a man-made substance.
• Plastics generally have these properties:-
• ​Resistance to corrosion and chemicals
• High strength-to-weight ratio
• Resistance to shock
• Good durability, low cost
• Easy to manufacture
• Water-resistant
• Low toxicity,
• Light in weight

​

• Thermoplastic:
• Thermoplastics are defined as polymers that can be melted and recast almost indefinitely.
• They are molten when heated and harden upon cooling.
• When frozen, however, thermoplastic becomes glass-like and subject to fracture.
• These characteristics, which lend the material its name, are reversible, so the material can be reheated, reshaped, and frozen repeatedly. As a result, thermoplastics are mechanically recyclable.
• Some of the most common types of thermoplastic are polypropylene, polyethylene, polyvinylchloride, polystyrene, Polyethylenetheraphthalate (PET), Teflon, Nylon, and polycarbonate.
• Thermosetting plastic.
• The plastic which keeps its shape and does not soften i.e the plastic which when moulded once, can not be softened by heating is called Thermosetting plastic.
• Thermosetting plastics are synthesized by condensation polymerization and have primary bonds between molecular chains and held together by strong cross-links.
• Thermosetting plastics have a high melting point and tensile strength as compared to thermoplastics.
• The most common types of thermoplastic are Bakelite, Melamine, Polyesters etc.

The correct answer is Third.

Key Points

• World Philosophy Day is observed on the third Thursday of November every year.
• It raises awareness about the importance of philosophy.
• Several institutions, philosophers and artists have partnered with UNESCO for the celebration of Philosophy Day.

Additional Information

• UNESCO:​
• It stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
• Founded on: 16 November 1945
• Founded in: London, United Kingdom
• Key Person: Audrey Azoulay (Director General)
• Headquarters: Paris, France

The correct answer is Beating plastic pollution.

Key Points

• World Environment Day is celebrated on the 5^th June of every year. United Nations started it to spread awareness and action for the protection of our environment.
• The United Nations Assembly established World Environment Day in 1972, which was the first day of the Stockholm Conference on the human environment.
• In 1974 the first WED was held with the theme "Only One Earth".
• The theme for 2018 is Beat plastic pollution or Defeat plastic pollution.

Important Points

• United Nations (UN)
• It was founded in 1945.
• Members- 193
• The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations.
• It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, US.
• Purposes of UN:
• To maintain international peace and security,
• To develop friendly relations among nations,
• To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems,
• To be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations in the attainment of these common ends.
• Secretary-General- António Guterres
• Secretariat- New York City, USA

Additional Information

• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
• It is the global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development.
• It serves as an authoritative advocate for the global environment.
• Its mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and people to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations.
• Headquarters- Nairobi, Kenya
• Executive Director- Inger Andersen

The correct answer is Chandrayaan-1.

Key Points

• M3, aboard the Chandrayaan-1 spacecraft, launched in 2008 by the ISRO, was uniquely equipped to confirm the presence of solid ice on the Moon.
• It collected data that not only picked up the reflective properties we’d expect from ice, but was able to directly measure the distinctive way its molecules absorb infrared light, so it can differentiate between liquid water or vapor and solid ice.

Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-1: 
• It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in October 2008 and operated until August 2009.
• It was India's first lunar probe.
• India launched the spacecraft using a PSLV-XL rocket on 22 October 2008 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
• Chandrayaan-2 :
• India's second mission to the Moon, Chandrayaan-2 was launched on 22^nd July 2019 from Satish Dhawan Space Center, Sriharikota.
• The Lander of Chandrayaan 2 is named Vikram after Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai, the Father of the Indian Space Programme.

The correct answer is Does not possess the qualities of the product that are due to the origin.

Key Points

• A Geographical Indication tag is a globally recognized that is given to specific products that are native or famous for being from a particular location.
• The intellectual property department of the government may assign GI tags to specific products to give them an edge in the global market and provide authenticity.
• A GI tag is valid for 10 years.
• In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999.
• Geographical indications are typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, wine and spirit drinks, handicrafts, and industrial products.
• It is covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights.
• Related to the place of origin of goods.

Additional Information

• Important GI Tags

The correct answer is Three person.

Key Points

• The Union Minister of Science and Technology informed that the human spaceflight module of Gaganyaan will be launched after the second unmanned mission planned in 2022-23.
• It was initially envisaged that the Rs. 10,000 crore Gaganyaan mission aims to send a three-member crew to space for five to seven days by 2022 when India completes 75 years of independence.
• In June 2019, the Human Space Flight Centre of the ISRO and the Russian government-owned Glavkosmos signed a contract for the training, which includes Russian support in the selection of candidates, their medical examination, and space training.
• India has signed MoU with France for cooperation on Gaganyaan Mission.
• The space agency of France CNES will train Indian flight physicians and CAPCOM mission control teams at French facilities.
• CNES will provide equipment developed by it, tested, and still operating aboard the International Space Station (ISS) to Indian crews.
• CNES will also supply fireproof carry bags made in France to shield equipment from shocks and radiation.

Additional Information

• ISRO Chairman: K.Sivan.
• ISRO Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• ISRO established: 15 August 1969.

The correct answer is Lord William Bentinck.

Key Points

• Lord William Bentinck -
• He was appointed the Governor of Madras in 1803.
• The Bengal Sati Regulation which banned the Sati practice in all jurisdictions of British India was passed on December 4, 1829, by him.
• He assumed the office of the Governor-General in 1828.
• As Governor-General, Bentinck had initiated an era of progress and reforms.
• He became the **first governor-general of India (**due to the provision in the Charter Act of 1833).
• William Bentinck adopted a policy of non-intervention and non-aggression with Indian states.
• In the field of financial reforms, he reduced the salaries and allowances of all officers and additional staff was removed.
• In the judicial department, he abolished the provincial courts of appeal established by Cornwallis.
• Lord William Bentinck was the first Governor-General to visualize a Russian threat to India.

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

• The 14^th edition of the Women’s Hockey World Cup started on July 21, 2018.
• The matches are being held at the Lee Valley Hockey and Tennis Centre in London.
• This is the first time the World Cup is being hosted in England.
• Women's Hockey World Cup winner - Netherlands, for a record eighth time.

Additional Information

• Women’s Hockey World Cup -

The correct answer is Transaction.

Key Points

• The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of direct tax which is levied at the time of purchase and sale of securities listed on stock exchanges in India.
• Securities are tradable investment instruments such as shares, bonds, debentures, equity-oriented mutual funds (MFs) and so on and are issued either by companies or by the Indian government.
• This tax was introduced in the Union Budget of 2004.
• The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) was introduced in India in the Budget of 2004 to curb tax avoidance on capital gains.
• On the other hand, Capital gains for securities are levied on the gains made from the sale of securities and not on the transaction as in the case of STT.

The correct answer is 1912.

Key Points

• Bihar and odhisha was separated from  Bengal in 1912.
• It was once a part of the Bengal Presidency which was the largest British province in India to exist at that time.
• In March 1936, Bihar and Odisha were made into separate provinces after the declaration of the Government Of India 1935.

​

• The Government of India Act of 1935:
• The Act divided legislative powers between the Centre and Provinces.
• Dyarchy was abolished in the provinces, but it was introduced at the federal level.
• It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country.
• It provided for the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.

Given:

A = B - 25% of B 

C = D + 25% of D

D = A – 10% of A

Calculation:

According to the question,

A = B - 25% of B 

⇒ A = B - ${1\over 4}B$

⇒ A = ${3\over 4}B$      ----(1)

C = D + 25% of D

⇒ C = D + ${1\over 4}D$

C = ${5\over 4}D$      ----(2)

D = A – 10% of A

⇒ D = A - ${1\over 10}A$

D = ${9\over 10}A$      ----(3)

Substituting value of eq(1) in eq(3), we get

D = ${3\over 4}\times {9\over 10}B$

Now, substituting the value of D in eq(2)

C = ${3\over 4}\times {9\over 10}\times {5\over 4}B = {27\over 32}B$

∴ 32 C = 27 B

Given:

length of a rectangular board is 15 cm more than its breadth.

length is increased by 9 cm and the breadth is decreased by 6 cm.

Let the breadth of the rectangular board be x

=> length of rectangular board = x + 15

Now

New, lenght of rectangular board be = x + 15 + 9

= x + 24

Breadth of rectangular board = x - 6

Given the area is equal. In both case

=> (x + 15) x = (x + 24) × (x - 6) 

x² + 15x = x² - 6x + 24x - 144

15x = 18x - 144

3x = 144

x = 144/3

x = 48

Thus breadth of the rectangular board = 48

length = (48 + 15)

length = 63 

Thus the ratio between the original length and breadth of the board = 63 : 48

= 21 : 16 

Hence, the correct answer is "21 : 16".

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation/number of observation

Calculation:

Let the 12 number be x₁, x₂, x₃, ..........x₁₂

ATQ,

(x1 + x2 + x3 + x₄)/4 = 40.5

 (x1 + x2 + x3 + x4) = 40.5 × 4 = 162 equation i)

And the last 5 number = (x₁₂ + x₁₁ + x₁₀ + x₉ + x₈)/5 = 42.8

(x12 + x11 + x10 + x9 + x8) = 42.8 × 5 = 214 equation ii)

Now,

x₆ = x₅ - 0.2

x₅ = x₆ + 0.2 equation iii)

x6 = x₇ + 0.6

x₇ = x₆ - 0.6 equation iv) 

Average of 12 number = 43.2

(x₁ + x₂ + x₃ +................+x₁₂)/12 = 43.2

(x1 + x2 + x3 +................+x12) = 43.2 × 12

(x1 + x2 + x3 +................+x12) = 518.4 equation v) 

Using i), ii), iii) and iv) in equation v) we get:

162 + x₆ + 0.2 + x₆ + x₆ - 0.6 + 214 = 518.4

3x₆ - 0.4 + 376 = 518.4

3x6 = 142.8

x₆ = 142.8/3 = 47.6

Now,

x5 = x6 + 0.2 = 47.6 + 0.2 = 47.8

x7 = x6 - 0.6 = 47.6 - 0.6 = 47

Average = (47.8 + 47)/2 = 94.8/2 = 47.4

Hence, the correct answer is "47.4".

Calculation:

$\dfrac{1\dfrac{2}{5} + 1 \dfrac{2}{3} \div 1\dfrac{1}{3}}{1\dfrac{1}{3} × 1 \dfrac{4}{5} \div \dfrac{2}{5}} \div 2 \dfrac{13}{20} × \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{2}+ \dfrac{1}{2} of \dfrac{1}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} × \dfrac{1}{2}}$

⇒ $\dfrac{\dfrac{7}{5} + \dfrac{5}{3} \div \dfrac{4}{3}}{\dfrac{4}{3} × \dfrac{9}{5} \div \dfrac{2}{5}} \div \dfrac{53}{20} × \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{2}+ \dfrac{1}{2} of \dfrac{1}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} × \dfrac{1}{2}}$

⇒ $\dfrac{\dfrac{7}{5} + \dfrac{5}{3} × \dfrac{3}{4}}{\dfrac{4}{3} × \dfrac{9}{5} ×\dfrac{5}{2}} ×\dfrac{20}{53} × \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{2}+ \dfrac{1}{2} of \dfrac{1}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2} × \dfrac{1}{2}}$

⇒ $\dfrac{\dfrac{7}{5} + \dfrac{5}{4}}{6} ×\dfrac{20}{53} × \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{2}+ \dfrac{1}{4} }{\dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{1}{4} }$

⇒ $\dfrac{\dfrac{7}{5} + \dfrac{5}{4}}{6} ×\dfrac{20}{53} × \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{2}+ \dfrac{1}{4} }{\dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{1}{4} }$

⇒ $\dfrac{\dfrac{(28 +25)}{20} }{6} ×\dfrac{20}{53} × \dfrac{\dfrac{(2 + 1)}{4} }{\dfrac{(2 - 1)}{4} }$

⇒ $\dfrac{{53}{} }{6× 20} ×\dfrac{20}{53} × \dfrac{\dfrac{3}{4} }{\dfrac{1}{4} }$

⇒ $\dfrac{{53}{} }{6× 20} ×\dfrac{20}{53 }$ × $\dfrac{{3}{} }{4} ×\dfrac{4}{1 }$

⇒ 1/2

∴ The required answer will be 1/2.

The greatest number of 4 digits = 9999

LCM of 6, 9, 12, 15, and 18 = 180

On dividing 9999 by 180 remainder obtained is = 99

9999 divided by 180 equals 55 with a remainder of 99

The largest four-digit number which is divisible by 6, 9, 12, 15, and 18 = (9999 – 99) = 9900

Required number (x)= (9900 + 4) = 9904

According to Question,

On dividing 9904 by 14 remainder obtained is = 6

∴ The remainder will be 6.

Given:

$a = \dfrac{√ 5 - 2}{√ 5 + 2}$ and  $b = \dfrac{√ 5 + 2}{√ 5 - 2}$

Calculation:

$a = \dfrac{√ 5 - 2}{√ 5 + 2}$ × $\dfrac{√ 5 - 2}{√ 5 - 2}$

⇒ (√5 - 2)²/(√5)² - (2)²

⇒ {(√5)² + (2)² - 4√5}/(√5)² - 4

⇒ (5 + 4 - 4√5)/(5 - 1)

⇒ 9 - 4√5

$b = \dfrac{√ 5 + 2}{√ 5 - 2}$ × $\dfrac{√ 5 + 2}{√ 5 +2}$

⇒ (√5 + 2)2/(√5)2 - (2)2

⇒ {(√5)2 + (2)2 + 4√5}/{(√5)2 - 4}

⇒ (5 + 4 + 4√5)/(5 - 1)

⇒ 9 + 4√5

Now, a + b = 9 - 4√5 + 9 + 4√5 = 18

ab = (9 - 4√5)(9 + 4√5)

ab = 81 - 80 = 1

$\dfrac{a^2 - ab + b^2}{a^2 + ab + b^2}$

⇒ $\dfrac{(a + b)^2 - 3ab }{(a + b)^2 - ab}$

⇒ {(18)² - 3}/((18)² - 1}

⇒ (324 - 3)/(324 - 1)

⇒ 321/323 = 0.99

∴ The required answer will be 0.99.

Given:

A is 60% more efficient than B.

A can do a piece of work in 10 days.

Together they work for 5 days.

Concept used:

If a person does work in n days then 1 days work = 1/n part

Calculation:

A = (100 + 60)/100 × B

A/B = 8/5 = x

Therefore

A efficiency = 8x

B efficiency = 5x

Total work = 10 × A efficiency

Total work = 10 × 8x

Total work = 80x

Total work when A + B work for 5 days = 5 × (8x + 5x)

Total work when A + B work for 5 days = 65x

Remaining work = 80x - 65x = 15x

Now B alone will complete the remaining work = remaining work/efficiency of B

⇒ 15x/5x

⇒ 3 days

Hence, the correct answer is "3days".

Given:

The first amount donated = 15% of monthly income

The second amount donated = 20% more than the first amount.

Formula used:

Final amount = First amount × (100 + percentage value)/100

Calculation:

Let x be the monthly salary of Rakhi

Now first donated amount = 15% of x

⇒ 0.15x

Now the second amount donated = 0.15x × (100 + 20)/100

⇒ 0.15x × 1.2

⇒ 0.18x

According to question:

The second amount donated = 2700

0.18x = 2700

x = 15000

Now first donated amount = 0.15x

⇒ 0.15 × 15000

⇒ 2250

Now 10% of the earlie amount donated =

10% of 2250

⇒ 225

Hence, the correct answer is "225".

Formula used:

Curved surface area = πrl

Volume of cone = (1/3) πr²h

Right circular cylinder of radius = r and height = h;

• Volume = πr²h
• Curved surface area = 2πrh

Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr (r + h)

Calculation:

According to Question

${πrl\over2πrh} = {5\over 8}$

l/h = 5/4

$l^2 = { \sqrt{r^2 + h^2} }$

r² = (9/16)h²

r/h = 3/4

For h = 8

r = 6

Volume of Cone = (1/3) π(6)2× 8

Volume of Cone = 96π

Calculation:

$\dfrac{(1.8)^3 + (4.5)^3 + (3.70^3 - 13.5 \times 6.66)}{(1.8)^2 + (4.5)^2 + 13.69 - 8.1 - 16.65 - 3 \times 2.22}$

⇒ a = 1.8, b = 4.5 , c = 3.7

According to the formula,

(a³ + b³ + c³) - 3abc}/(a² + b² + c² - ab - bc - ca)

⇒ (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - bc - ca)/(a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - bc - ca)

⇒ (a + b + c)

Where, 

⇒ a = 1.8, b = 4.5 , c = 3.7

⇒ (1.8 + 4.5 + 3.7) = 10

∴ The required answer will be 10.

Given:

Discount of 10% on their marked price

Sells them at 15% profit.

Concept used:

Cost price of dealer = Marked price × (100 - discount percentage)/100

Selling price = CP × (100 + profit percentage)/100

Calculations:

Let x be the markup price

CP of dealer = x × (100 - 10)/100

CP of dealer = 90x/100 = 0.9x

CP of dealer = 0.9x

Selling price ⇒ 2070 = 0.9x (100 + 15)/.100

2070 = 0.9x × 115/100

0.9x = 100 × 2070/115

0.9x = 1800

x = 1800/0.9

x = 2000

Hence, the correct answer is "2000".

 

Alternate MethodLet the Marked Price for the dealer be 100x

Cost Price for the dealer = 100x - 10% = 90x

Profit = 15%

Profit (in units) = 90x × 15% = 13.5x

Selling Price = 90x + 13.5x = 103.5x (given as 2070)

103.5x = 2070

x = 20

Marked Price = 100x = 2000

Given:

Sujata buys two articles for Rs. 460.

He sells one of them 28% loss and another at 12% gain.

Selling price of both articles = same.

Formula:

If selling price of two articles are same, which are sold at x% loss and other sold at y% gain, then

Cost of first article × (100 – x)/100 = Cost of second article × (100 + y)/100

Calculation:

Let cost of two books be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively

x × (72/100) = y × (112/100)

⇒ x/y = 14/9

⇒ x : y = 14 : 9

⇒ x : y = 14k : 9k

Now,

⇒ 14k + 9k = 460

⇒ 23k = 460

⇒ k = 460/23

⇒ k = 20

∴ Difference in their cost prices of articles = (14 - 9) × 20 = Rs. 100

Given:

Ratio of Acid to water in a solution = 7 : 5

Calculation:

Let acid in the solution be 7x and water be 5x

According to the question,

After taking out 1/7^th of the solution,

Then, Acid = [7x - (1/7) × 7x]

⇒ 7x - x = 6x

And water = 5x + x = 6x

New Ratio = 6x/6x = 1 : 1

∴ The ratio of water and acid in the solution is 1 : 1.

Given:

Speed of the train = 64 km/h

Original time is taken = 25 hours

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Distance covered = Speed × Time

⇒ 64 × 25 = 1600 km

Reduced time = 25 - 9 = 16 hour

Increased speed = Distance/Time 

⇒ 1600/16 = 100 km/h

Percentage Increase in speed = (100 - 64)/64 × 100 = $56 \dfrac{1}{4}$

Given:

Distance travel in $3 \dfrac{3}{4}$ hours (downstream) = 15 km

Distance travel in $2 \dfrac{1}{2}$ hours (upstream) = 5 km

Concept Used:

Upstream Speed = B - S

Downstream Speed = B + S

Time (T) = Distance (D)/Speed(S)

B = Speed of Boat

S = Speed of Stream

Calculation:

According to the question, we get

15/(B + S) = 15/4

⇒ B + S = 4 km/h  ---(ii)

5/(B - S) = 5/2

⇒ B - S = 2 km/h  ---(i)

From (i) and (ii), we get

B = 3 km/h

S = 1 km/h

According to the question, we get

Total Time taken (Time taken in Still water)

⇒ 18/3 = 6 hours

∴ The total time taken by boat is 6 hours.

Calcultion:

Rate of interest = 10% = 1/10

Where, Interest = 1, Principal = 10

According to the question:

Case I

 

So, 10 becomes 11.55

Case II

When compounded half-yearly (3 terms in 1/2 year)

R = 5% = 1/20

Where, Interest = 1, Principal = 20

 

So here, 8000 becomes 9261

To make principal equal for both case I and case II, we multiply by 800

⇒ 10 × 800 = 8000

As principal is multiplied by 800,To balance the ratio, Amount will also be multiplied by 800

So, 10 × 800 : 11.55 × 800

⇒ 8000 : 9240

Difference in Amount in two case = 9261 - 9240 = Rs. 21

Now, According to the question,

21 = Rs. 40.95

⇒ 1 = Rs. 1.95

Amit also took the same amount 

⇒ 8000 = 1.95 × 8000 = Rs. 1560

∴ The value of x is Rs. 15600.

Concept -

 $Ratio;\frac{1}{a};:\frac{1}{b};:\frac{1}{c} = \frac{{LCM;of;\left( {a,b,c} \right)}}{a};:;\frac{{LCM;of;\left( {a,b,c} \right)}}{b};:;\frac{{LCM;of;\left( {a,b,c} \right)}}{c};$

Calculation:

Rs. 5451 was to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of $\frac{2}{3}:\frac{4}{5}:\frac{5}{6}$

LCM of (3, 5, 6) = 30

Therefore Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of $\frac{2}{3}:\frac{4}{5}:\frac{5}{6};or\frac{{60}}{3};:\frac{{120}}{5};:\frac{{150}}{6}$

⇒ 20 : 24 : 25 

Share of A when Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 20 : 24 : 25  $= \frac{{20}}{{20 + 24 + 25}} \times 5451$

= (20/69) × 5451

= Rs 1580

Share of B when Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 20 : 24 : 25  $= \frac{{24}}{{20 + 24 + 25}} \times 5451$

= (24/69) × 5451

= Rs 1896

Share of C when Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 20 : 24 : 25  $= \frac{{25}}{{20 + 24 + 25}} \times 5451$

= (25/69) × 5451

= Rs 1975

But by mistake it was divided in the ratio of $\frac{3}{2}:\frac{5}{4}:\frac{6}{5}$

LCM of (2, 4, 5) = 20

Therefore Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of $\frac{3}{2}:\frac{5}{4}:\frac{6}{5};or\frac{{60}}{2};:\frac{{100}}{4};:\frac{{120}}{5}$

⇒ 30 : 25 : 24

Share of A when Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 30 : 25 : 24  $= \frac{{30}}{{30 + 25 + 24}} \times 5451$

= (30/79) × 5451

= Rs 2070

Share of B when Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 30 : 25 : 24  $= \frac{{25}}{{20 + 24 + 25}} \times 5451$

= (25/79) × 5451

= Rs 1725

Share of C when Rs 5451 was to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 30 : 25 : 24 $= \frac{{24}}{{20 + 24 + 25}} \times 5451$

= (24/79) × 5451

= Rs 1656

C = 1975 -1656 = 319

So, C got Rs 319 less.

Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.

Given: 

3 men and 4 women can do a piece of work in 7 days

5 men and 1 women can do the same work in 14 days

Formula:

Total work = Efficiency × Time Taken

Calculation:

Let efficiency of 1 man and 1 woman be M and W respectively

According to the question,

(3M + 4W) × 7 = (5M + 1W) × 14

⇒ 3M + 4W = 10M + 2W

⇒ 2W = 7M

⇒ 1M = 2/7W

⇒ 3M = 6/7W

Now,

Let the x women be complete the work.

(6/7W + 4W) = xW × 2

⇒ (34W/7) × 7 = xW × 2

⇒ x = 17 women

Now required women = 17 - 2 = 15 women

∴ The required women is 15.

Total number of employees = 3600

The ratio of the number of male employees in cities B = 432

The ratio of the number of male employees in cities E = 198

The number of female employees in cities B = 324

The number of female employees in cities D = 336

The number of female employees in cities F = 180

The number of male employees in cities B and E together = 432 + 198 = 630

The number of female employees in cities B, D, and F = 324 + 336 + 180 

= 840

The ratio of the number of male employees in cities B and E together to the number of female employees in cities B, D, and F together = 630/840

= 3/4 = 3 : 4

Hence, "3 :4" is the correct answer.

Total number of employees = 3600

The number of female employees in city A  = 512

The total number of employees in city C and E together = 288 + 432

= 720

Percentage of the number of female employees in city A  to the total number of employees in city C and E together = [(512)/720] × 100

= 71.1%

Hence, "71.1 %" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'No error'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of parallel structure or parallelism.
• Parallel structure: In this structure, when a multiple verbs are given in the sentence and there is only one subject, then each and every verb will be according to the subject of the sentence and the tense of the verb will also be the same.
• Example: He gets up early and goes for a walk.
• In the above-given example, there are two verbs 'gets' and 'goes' both are singular and according to the subject 'he' which is also singular.
• In the given sentence the subject is 'rice crop', the verbs are 'soaked', 'saved', and 'rinsed', all are in the third form and following a parallel structure.
• Thus, there are no errors in the given sentence.

Additional Information

• Subject-verb agreement: It states that if the subject is singular, then the verb will be singular and if the subject is plural then the verb will also be plural.
• Example: 
• He lives in Chandigarh.
• They live in Chandigarh.

The correct answer is 'Sheila replied that the blue saree suited me the best.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is a direct speech and it is in the simple present or present indefinite tense.
• The direct speech of simple present tense is converted into an indirect speech of simple past tense.

• Example:
• She said, "the exam is difficult". (Direct speech-> simple present tense).
• She said that the exam was difficult. (Indirect speech->Simple past tense).
• Following steps are needed to convert a direct speech into indirect speech:
• Change the tense of reported speech.
• While changing the direct speech into indirect speech pronouns of reported speech are changed.
• Replace the commas with the conjunction 'that'.
• From the above-given explanation, it is clear that the correct answer is option 1.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Sheila replied that the blue saree suited me the best.'

Additional Information 

• Direct speech: In a direct speech the message of the speaker is conveyed or reported in his own actual words without any change.
• Indirect speech: Indirect speech focuses more on the content of what someone said rather than their exact words.

The correct answer is 'BAC'.

Key Points

• Sentence B will be the first as it introduces the subject 'Oil and gas Industry'.
• Sentence A follows B as it explains what is the complaint of the industry.
• Sentence C is the last part and will follow A.

Thus, the correct sequence is: BAC 

• B: The oil and gas industry has complained that
• A: The law has halted the development of
• C:  Millions of acres of land

The correct answer is 'lending'.

Key Points

• 'Before' in a sentence can be used as a preposition, conjunction, or adverb.
• As an adverb, Before often comes after nouns such as day, morning, night, week, month, year to refer to the previous day, morning, etc.
• Example: Two people were ill at work yesterday and three people the day before!
• As a preposition, before most commonly with noun phrases to refer to timed events.
• Example: You can check-in online but you have to do it at least four hours before your flight.
• As a conjunction, it refers to an event that happens just after the first one. Generally, it is used with past tense but it can be used with present tense and -ing form of the verb, but in this case, the clause can refer to the future.
• Example:
• Before she left, she gave everyone a present.(past tense)
• Before I go to work, I jog for at least an hour. (Present tense)
• Before bringing the milk to the boil, add the egg. (-ing form of verb)
• Therefore, 'lending' will be used in the blank.

Thus, the correct answer is: 'Before lending money, banks have to assess the risks involved.'

The correct answer is 'Obsolete'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word.
• Obsolete: not in use anymore, having been replaced by something newer and better or more fashionable. (अब उपयोग में नहीं है, कुछ नया और बेहतर या अधिक फैशनेबल द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया गया है)
• Example: Gas lamps became obsolete when electric lighting was invented.
• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that 'Obsolete' is the correct substitution for the group of words that are asked.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Let's explore the meaning of the other options:

The correct answer is 'infected'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the given options:

• Thus, from the above-given explanation, 'infected' will be used in the blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is: I cut my finger while slicing onions and it became badly infected.

The correct answer is 'Disturb'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the given word and the marked word.
• Disrupt: interrupt (an event, activity, or process) by causing a disturbance or problem.
• Example: Meetings with her lawyers did not disrupt the schedule.
• Disturb: to interrupt what someone is doing.
• Example: Please don't disturb your sister - she's trying to do her homework.
• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that both 'Disrupt' and 'Disturb' are synonyms to each other.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

• Let's explore the meaning of other options as well.

The correct answer is 'in for'.

Key Points

• 'Go In for something' is a phrasal verb which means to enjoy a particular thing or activity.
• Example: I don’t go in for golf much.
• Therefore, 'in for' will be used in the blank.

Thus, the correct sentence is: She has always gone in for creative hobbies like knitting and pottery.

Additional Information

• Phrasal verb: A phrasal verb is a phrase or expression that consists of a verb plus another word or two such as:
• [verb + adverb] e.g: look up
• [verb + preposition] e.g: look after
• [verb + adverb + preposition] e.g: look forward to
• The whole phrase acts as a verb, and has a different meaning from the original verb.

The correct answer is 'Put'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the given options:

• Thus, from the above-given explanation, it is clear that 'put' will be used in the blank.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Epitaph'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word.
• Epitaph: a short piece of writing or a poem about a dead person, especially one written on their gravestone.
• Example: Several epitaphs from the past have been preserved in the cathedral.
• Thus, from the above-given explanation, it is clear that 'Epitaph' is the correct substitution for the group of words that is asked.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let's explore the meaning of the other given options: