DSSSB TGT CS 1 Aug 2021 Shift 2 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "WLJ".

Option 1: 6 + 8 × 2 ÷ 4 - 5 = 14

interchanging the two numbers 5 and 2 we get:

6 + 8 × 5 ÷ 4 - 2 = 14

applying the BODMAS we get:

6 + 8 × 1.25 - 2 = 14

6 + 10 - 2 = 14

16 - 2 = 14

14 = 14

The given equation is correct.

Option 2: 8 + 6 × 2 ÷ 5 - 4 = 19

interchanging the two numbers 5 and 2 we get:

8 + 6 × 5 ÷ 2 - 4 = 19

applying the BODMAS we get:

8 + 6 × 2.5 - 4 = 19

8 + 15 - 4 = 19

23 - 4 = 19

19 = 19

The given equation is correct.

Option 3: 2 + 8 × 7 ÷ 4 - 5 = 17

interchanging the two numbers 5 and 2 we get:

5 + 8 × 7 ÷ 4 - 2 = 17

applying the BODMAS we get:

5 + 8 × 1.75 - 2 = 17

5 + 14 - 2 = 17

19 - 2 = 17

17 = 17

The given equation is correct.

Option 4: 5 + 2 × 6 ÷ 4 - 1 = 7

interchanging the two numbers 5 and 2 we get:

2 + 5 × 6 ÷ 4 - 1 = 7

applying the BODMAS we get:

2 + 5 × 1.5 - 1 = 7

2 + 7.5 - 1 = 7

9.5 - 1 = 7

8.5 ≠ 7

The given equation is not correct after interchanging the two numbers 5 and 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "UJQ".

According to given information;

Hence, Ramesh is in the northeast direction.

Height of six cups H, R, S, T, V, and X.

1. Height of X is more than at most two cups.

X > _ > _

2. Height of V is more than X but less than S.

S > V > X

3. Height of R is more than H.

R > H

4. If the height of T is maximum.

T > _ > _ > _ > _ > _

Combineing statements;

T > S > V > X ≥ R > H 

X is either greater or equal to R.

I. R < X < V → True

II. H < R = X → True

III. R < X < S → True

Hence, I, II and III correct.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below,

Conclusions:

I. No L is B → False (There is no direct relation between L and B)

II. No M is L → True (As No L is M, Than No M is L is definitely true)

Hence, Only conclusion II follows.

Additional Information

Eight friends: P, Q, R, S, T U, V and W.

1. T is third to the left of V.

2. V is to the immediate right of Q.

3. Q is third to the left of P.

4. W is second to the right of U.

5. U is not the immediate neighbour of T.

6. S is not the immediate neighbour of Q.

Hence, S is second to the right of P.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "491".

6 teachers: P, Q, R, S, T, and U.

1. There are 3 male and 3 female teachers.

2. Each man is married to a woman.

3. R delivers on Friday but his wife does not deliver on Monday.

 

4) P delivered on the next day of S.

5) P's wife presents P's next day.

6) 2 people present between P and U. 

 

7) More than two persons deliver between T and U. 

So, Case - 1 gets eliminated.

 

8) T and U have the same gender. 

 

One lecture are delivered between Q and S.

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

The faces opposite to each other is shown below:

The opposite sides are:

1) 

 → This cube can be formed as no two opposite faces appear together on the same dice. 

2) 

 → This cube can be formed as no two opposite faces appear together on the same dice. 

3) 

 → This cube cannot be formed as 

 and 

 faces are opposite faces and no two opposite faces can appear together on the same dice.

4) 

→ This cube cannot be formed as 

 and 

 faces are opposite faces and no two opposite faces can appear together on the same dice.

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed is:

From figure 1 to 2:

i) The top symbols of the figures are exchanging there positions.

ii) The letter inside the circle is exchanging there places.

Similarly,

From figure 3 to 4:

i) The top symbols of the figures will exchange there positions.

ii) The symbols inside the circle will exchange there places.

Thus only figure 2 will satisfy the given above condition.

The complete pattern will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

 

Note: Two opposite faces are never seen together or adjacent to each other:

In Figure, I: None of the opposite faces are seen together nor they are adjacent to each other. Thus this cube can be made.

In Figure II: None of the opposite faces are seen together nor they are adjacent to each other. Thus this cube can be made.

In Figures III: D and J are opposite faces but here they are seen together which is wrong. Thus this cube cannot be made.

In Figure IV: H and C are opposite faces but here they are seen together which is wrong. Thus this cube cannot be made.

Thus Figures III, and figure IV cannot be formed by folding the dice.

Hence, the correct answer is "III and IV". 

Additional Information

• Dices are of two types :

1. Standard Dice
2. Non-Standard Dice.

• Dice has:-

1. faces = 6
2. sides = 12
3. corners = 8

• Two opposite faces never seen together.
• Adjacent faces are never opposite to each other.

Shirt, Jacket and Trouser are clothes that are wear.

While;

Male is the gender of Human.

Hence, "Male" is the correct answer.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

Similarly;

Hence, "(KQRN, QXZW, WEHF)" is the correct answer.

From the given diagram:

The shaded part represents the number of bikes which are scooters i.e (16 + 2) = 18

Hence, the correct answer is "18".

According to question;

Code for "can" is either "4" or "8".

Code for "think" is either "4" or "8".

So, code for "think can" is "84"

Hence, "84" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "CDSX".

The logic follows here is:

Statement 1: The number of balls which are not blue is 4.

From the diagram given below,

Here shaded part represents number of balls which are not blue is 4.

Thus statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: The total number of cartons is 23.

From the diagram given below,

The shaded part represents total numbers of cartoon i.e (3 + 16 + 2) = 21 ≠ 23

Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

Thus we concluded only statement II is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II".

Drawing the Diagram as per the given information:

AC = 16 m

BC = 8 m

Thus the distance between point B from point A is given by Pythagoras Theorem.

Now, Triangle "ABC" is a right-angled triangle, so using Pythagoras Theorem: 

AB2 = AC2 + BC2 

AB2 = (16)2 + (8)2

AB2 = 256 + 64

AB2 = 320

AB = √320

The starting point is in a South-West direction with respect to B.

Hence, the correct answer is "√320 and South-West ".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below,

Conclusions:

I. Some Chairs are not White → True (As No White is Honey and All Honey is Chair. So, Some part of chair i.e Honey are not White)

II. Some Honey are not White → True (As No White is Honey. So, Some Honey are not white is definitely true)

III. Some Chairs are Honey → True (As All Honey are chair. Than, Some Chairs are Honey is definitely true)

Hence, All conclusions follow.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Rory McIlroy is related to Golf.
• He has been named the European Tour Golfer of the Year.
• He received the award for the third time in four years.
• Previously, McIlroy was named the European Tour Golfer of the Year in 2014 and 2012.
• He is a four-time major champion, winning the 2011 U.S Open, 2012 PGA Championship, 2014 Open Championship, and 2014 PGA Championship.
• He is the first European to win three different majors.
• In 2021 Rory wins Wells Fargo Championship.
• Martina Hingis is related to Tennis.
• She was born in Martina Hingisová on 30 September 1980.
• She is a Swiss former professional tennis player.
• She spent a total of 209 weeks as the singles world No. 1 and 90 weeks as doubles world No. 1, holding both No. 1 ranking simultaneously for 29 weeks.
• She is the Youngest Woman To Win Wimbledon.

The correct answer is Fungi.

Key Points

• The rust of wheat is caused by the fungus - Puccinia
• Puccinia is a heteroecious fungus i.e it requires two different hosts for completion of its life cycle.
• 1. Wheat,
• 2. Barberry
• Puccinia is known as the rust fungi
• Three different species of Puccinia develop rust in wheat
• Puccinia graminis - Black rust or Stem rust
• Puccinia recondita - Brown rust or leaf rust
• Puccinia striiformis - Yellow rust or stripe rust
• The life cycle of Puccinia is called the rust cycle, it was discovered by Prof. K.C. Mehta

Additional Information

The correct answer is IMF.

Key Points

• The World Economic Outlook Report is released by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• IMF is an international financial institution, headquartered in Washington, D.C., USA.
• India joined the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on 27 December 1945.
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 190 countries.
• It aims to:
• Foster global monetary cooperation
• Secure financial stability
• Facilitate international trade
• Promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and
• Reduce poverty around the world.
• Managing Director of IMF: Kristalina Georgieva
• Headquarters: Washington DC

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• ​Earthquake:
• ​The study of seismic waves provides a complete picture of the layered interior.
• It is a natural event.
• It is caused due to release of energy, which generates waves that travel in all directions.
• ​All-natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere.
• There are two types of Earthquake waves.
• P-waves
• ​They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.
• P wave is a Longitudinal wave.
• These are also called primary waves.
• The P-waves are similar to sound waves.
• They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
• S-waves
• They arrive at the surface with some time lag.
• These are called secondary waves.
• S wave is a Transverse wave.
• They can travel only through solid materials.
• It has helped scientists to understand the structure of the interior of the earth.
• The surface waves are the last to report on seismographs.
• These waves are more destructive.

The correct answer is Ammonium Hydroxide.

Key Points

• Ammonium Hydroxide: Used in water treatment, hair dye, and Window cleaner.
• The chemical formula of Ammonium hydroxide is NH4OH.
• Ammonia is alkaline in nature.
• Its aqueous solution produces ammonium hydroxide NH4OH which is a base.
• As per red litmus indicator characteristics, it turns blue in the alkali solution.

Additional Information

Elements and their uses:

The correct answer is 1918.

Key Points

• After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi successfully organised satyagraha movements in various places.
• Mahatma Gandhi was to spend much of 1917 in Champaran, seeking to obtain the peasant's security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice.
• The following year, 1918, Gandhiji was involved in two campaigns in his home state of Gujarat.
• First, he intervened in a labour dispute in Ahmedabad, demanding better working conditions for
  

the textile mill workers.

• Then he joined peasants in Kheda in asking the state for the remission of taxes following the failure of their harvest

Additional Information

• Important movements led by Mahatma Gandhi:
• ​Champaran Movement (1917)
• Kheda Movement (1918)
• Khilafat Movement (1919)
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920)
• Civil Disobedience Movement: Dandi March (1930)
• Quit India Movement (1942)

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Aligarh Muslim University was originally established by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.
• It was established in 1875.
• Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College became Aligarh Muslim University in 1920, following the Aligarh Muslim University Act.
• It has three off-campus centres in
• Malappuram (Kerala)
• AMU Murshidabad centre (West Bengal), and
• Kishanganj Centre (Bihar).

Additional Information

• Sir Syed Muhammad Saadulla, was the Prime Minister of Assam in British India.
• Syed Muhammad Saadulla was born on 21st May 1885 in Guwahati.
• He was passed away on 8th January 1955.

The correct answer is Mehrgarh.

Key Points

• Mehrgarh is an important Neolithic site, that greatly helped in understanding the transition process from the food-collecting stage to the food-producing stage.
• The First Evidence of Cotton in the Neolithic period was found in Mehrgarh.
• The earliest evidence of crop production has been found at Mehrgarh, which yielded evidence of cultivated barley and wheat.

Additional Information

• Salient Features of the Harappan Culture - 
• The Harappan culture was distinguished by its system of town planning on the lines of the grid system that is streets and lanes cutting across one another almost at right angles thus dividing the city into several rectangular blocks.
• Another remarkable feature was the underground drainage system connecting all houses to the street drains which were covered by stone slabs or bricks.
• There was also great progress in the economic and agricultural life of the people.
• Wheat and barley were the main crops grown besides sesame, mustard, and cotton.
• Animals like sheep, goats, and buffalo were domesticated.
• Foreign trade was mainly conducted with Mesopotamia, Afghanistan, and Iran.
• The Harappan sculpture revealed a high degree of workmanship.

The correct answer is I, II and III.

• All three metals are found in India, therefore are also found in Asia.

Key Points

• Manganese
• Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese.
• Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi, and Bolangir are the major manganese regions in Odisha.
• Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Shivamogga, Chitradurga, Tumkur, and Chikkmagaluru are major manganese regions in Karnataka.
• Nagpur, Bhandara, and Ratnagiri districts are the major regions of manganese in Maharashtra.
• Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and Jhabua districts are the important manganese regions of Madhya Pradesh.
• Bauxite
• Odisha is the largest producer of Bauxite in India.
• Kalahandi, Sambalpur, Bolangir, and Koraput are the leading producers of bauxite in Odisha.
• Lohardaga (Jharkhand) is rich in bauxite deposits.
• Amarkantak plateau has rich deposits of bauxite in Chhattisgarh.
• Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat are the major regions of bauxite in Madhya Pradesh.
• Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune, and Kolhapur in Maharashtra are important bauxite producers.
• Nickel
• The State of Odisha is endowed with the largest share of resources of nickel ore in the country at 175 million tonnes.
• These resources are mainly found to occur in three districts, namely, Jajpur, Mayurbhanj, and Keonjhar.
• Odisha is followed by Jharkhand & Nagaland.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Article 239
• Administration of union territories.
• The president may appoint the governor of the state as the administrator, where he exercises his functions as such administrative independently of his council of ministers
• Article 241
• Deals with high courts for union territories.

Additional Information

• Article 239AA. Special provisions concerning Delhi:
• As from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991.
• The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

The correct answer is Only I.

• Narmada and Tapti are major West flowing rivers.

Key Points

• Tapti/Tapi River
• It originates from the Multai reserve forest, Madhya Pradesh.
• The river is flowing through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
• Kakrapar Dam, Ukai Dam, Girna Dam are the major projects on this river.
• The Suki, the Gomai, the Arunavati, the Vaghur, the Amravati, the Purna, the Mona, and the Sipna are the major tributaries of the Tapti River.
• Narmada
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian sea.
• It originates in the Amarkantak plateau, where the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges meet.
• It acts as the boundary between North and South India.
• It is the largest west-flowing river.
• It flows through the rift valley of the Vindhya and Satpura mountains.
• The rift valley is a lowland region that forms where the earth's tectonic plates move apart.
• The famous Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on the river Narmada.

Important Points

• Other west-flowing rivers are:
• Sharavathi 
• The Sharavathi river flows in the western Karnataka state and drains into the Arabian Sea.
• It is famous for the highest waterfalls in India " jog falls".
• Mahi 
• The Mahi river rises in Madhya Pradesh flows through Rajasthan and finally enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian sea.
• It is the river that crosses the tropic of cancer twice.
• The total length of Mahi is 583 km.
• Dam - Mahi Bajaj Sagar Dam, Wanakbori dam, Kadana Dam.
• Sabarmati 
• It is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India.
• It originates in the Aravalli hills and drains into the Arabian sea at the gulf of combat.
• It flows through the states of Gujarat and Rajasthan.
• Dams - Dharoi Dam, Vasna Barrage.

The correct answer is Flute.

Key Points

• ​Sushira Vadya (Wind Instruments)
• ​​Now also known as Aerophones, these instruments have various holes in which the air is blown and resonated or vibrates creating different tones or sounds.
• A very common example of such kind is a Flute which was also the favourite of Krishna.
• According to Sangita Damodara, these were also liked by Gandharvas.
• The frequency of the sound and the tone can be controlled by the pressure of air blown in it.
• Examples of aerophones.
• Shehnai, Nadaswaram, Magudi, Alghoza, Kombu or Shringa and Harmonium

Additional Information

The correct answer is Cash Reserve Ratio.

Key Points

• Cash Reserve Ratio:
• It is a specific part of the total deposit that is held as a reserve by the commercial banks and is maintained by the reserve bank of India.
• CRR ensures that the banks do not run out of money.
• CRR in India is decided by the Monitory Policy Committee.
• If the CRR is low the liquidity with banks increases, which in turn goes into investment and lending.
• Higher CRR creates a negative impact on the economy and also lowers the availability of loanable funds.
• Significance of CRR
• It regulates the money supply and level of inflation.
• CRR ensures the security of the preserved amount.
• It also has a major role to play during high inflation.

Important Points

• Monitory Policy Committee:
• The Monetary Policy Committee is a statutory and institutionalized framework under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, for maintaining price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• The Governor of RBI is the ex-officio Chairman of the committee.
• The committee comprises six members (including the Chairman) - three officials of the RBI and three external members nominated by the Government of India.
• Current All members of the MPC – Dr. Shashanka Bhide; Dr. Ashima Goyal; Prof. Jayanth R. Varma; Dr. Mridul K. Saggar; Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra; and Shri Shaktikanta Das

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The refraction of light by the Earth’s atmosphere is known as the atmospheric refraction of light.
• The phenomena of atmospheric refraction are:
• twinkling of stars
• early Sunrise
• delayed sunset
• stars seem higher than actual height.

Important Points

• Twinkling of stars: 
• As the movements of air and convection currents cause a change in the density of the layers of air.
• As a result, the position of the image of the star goes on to change after every short interval.
• These different positions of the images formed at short intervals of time give the impression that the star is twinkling.
• Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
• ​The Sun is visible a little before the actual sunrise and until a little after the actual sunset due to the refraction of light through the atmosphere.
• The layers of air nearer to earth are denser than those above it.
• At sunrise and sunset when the sun is below the horizon, the light rays starting from the sun are incident on these layers.
• They pass through successively denser layers and thus get bent more and more towards the normal until they fall upon the eye of the observer.
• To the observer, these rays appear to come from S’ which is above the horizon. It is for this reason that the sun is visible to us a little before it rises above the horizon and so also till a little later it sets below the horizon.
• The difference in time is about 2 minutes each for an early rise and late setting of the Sun.

The correct answer is 'None of the above'.

Key Points

Tat Vadya:

• These are stringed instruments.
• Tat Vadya: We know that Tat Vadya refers to stringed instruments. Hence, associating Tat with "Air" would be incorrect.
• Sound is produced by way of vibrating strings or strings stretched between two points.
• These instruments are further classified into plucked, bowed, fretted, and non-fretted instruments.
• Sound is produced by inducing the vibration of a taut string or chord by plucking or bowing.
• The length of the string and the tension in it determines the pitch of the note and the duration of the sound.
  

String instruments can be classified based on the mode of play:

• By friction with a bow like a sarangi, dilruba, esraj, etc. (Ravanastram is one of the earliest known bowed instruments);
• By plucking the string like the Saraswati veena, Rudra veena
• By striking with a hammer or a pair of sticks like gettuvadyam, swaramandala.

 

Avaanaddha Vadya:

• These are percussion instruments. Sound is produced by a stretched membrane, such as a drum.
• ​Avaanaddha Vadya: This refers to percussion instruments in the Indian musical tradition (source not provided in the links). Thus, linking Avaanaddha Vadya with "Wire" is also incorrect.
• Membranophonic instruments act as skin-vibrators because they produce sound-waves by vibrations of a stretched skin or membrane when struck, plucked, or stroked.
• A hollow vessel is covered with a membrane that generates beats when struck.

Percussion instruments can be classified by modes of playing:

• Played by hand like mridangam
• Played using sticks like nagara
• Played partly by hand and partly by stick-like Tavil
• Self struck like Damaru

The correct answer is Geneva.

Key Points

• International Labour Organization (ILO):
• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world.
• Established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations, the ILO became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946. In recognition of its activities, the ILO was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969.
• The functions of the ILO include the development and promotion of standards for national legislation to protect and improve working conditions and standards of living.
• India is a founding member of the ILO and it has been a permanent member of the ILO Governing Body since 1922.
• In India, the first ILO Office was started in 1928.
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
• Current Director-General: Gilbert Houngbo

Important Points

The correct answer is February 26.

 

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the second edition of the Khelo India Winter Games started on February 26 2021, in Gulmarg, Jammu & Kashmir.
• The annual event, which made its debut last year in Ladakh and J&K, is organized by the J&K Sports Council and the Winter Games Association of J&K under the aegis of the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
• The second edition of the Games will see a participation of over 1200 people, including 600 athletes across 27 States and Union Territories.
• The participation list of athletes also includes the Indian Army and the Jawahar Institute of Mountaineering and Winter Sports.
• The various sports disciplines include Sprint, Speed Skating, Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, Ice Stock, Giant Slalom, Snow Boarding, Vertical Race, Cross Country, Snowshoe, Long-distance running, Ski Mountaineering, Skiing, and Nordic Ski.
• Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir won the maximum number of medals in the second edition of the Khelo India Winter national Games, They won 11 gold, 18 silver, and 5 bronze to finish with a tally of 34 medals.
• Second position- Karnataka won 5 gold and 4 bronze medals.
• Third position- Maharashtra won 3 gold, 3 silver, and 2 bronze medals.

 

• About Khelo India:
• ​Khelo India is a national sports development programme
• Launched by the government to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level.
• Youth Games at school and college levels in various summer Olympic sports and more are already being held at a large scale under Khelo India since 2018.
• Now, winter sports are also receiving support from Khelo India.
• The first edition of the Khelo India Winter Games was also held at Gulmarg in March 2020.

The correct answer is Money multiplier.

Key Points

• The money multiplier is defined as the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money in an economy, viz. M/H.
• The money multiplier is the amount of money created by commercial banks for a given fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio.
• An increase in the cash reserve ratio prevents the banks from lending more money and reduces the money multiplier.
• An increase in the banking habit of the population will increase the lending, thereby will lead to more deposits in the banking system, hence increasing the money multiplier.
• Even if there is an increase in the population of the country, the money multiplier in an economy does not necessarily increase.
• The size of the money multiplier is determined by the currency ratio (Cr) of the public, the required reserve ratio (RRr) at the central bank, and the excess reserve ratio (ERr) of commercial banks. The lower these ratios are, the larger the money multiplier is.
• The multiplier holds an inverse relationship with the reserve ratio.
• Money Multiplier = 1 / Reserve Ratio

The correct answer is Gold Coast.

Key Points

• The 2018 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXI Commonwealth Games, was an international multi-sport event for the members of the commonwealth that were held at Gold Coast, Queensland, Australia between 4 & 15 April 2018.
• Borobi was the official mascot of the 2018 Commonwealth Games
• There were 18 sports categories.
• In the 2018 Commonwealth Games, India won a total of 66 medals.
• Gold - 26
• Silver - 20
• Bronze - 20
• Australia topped the medal table rank with 80 gold, second England with 45 gold, and third India with 26 gold.

Important Points

• Birmingham will host Commonwealth Games in 2022.
• The Commonwealth Games is an international multi-sport event that was first held in 1930.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games is officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games.
• The Games are expected to take place between 28 July and 8 August 2022.
• It will be the third time England will host the Commonwealth Games, after London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.
• The Birmingham Organising Committee for the 2022 Commonwealth Games is responsible for the planning and operational delivery of the Games.
• This includes sport, venue and competition management, ticket sales, all ceremonies, and the Queen’s Baton Relay.

The correct answer is 243E.

Key Points

• Article 243E:
• ​It states about the Duration of Panchayats, etc.
• Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
• No amendment of any law for the time being in force shall have the effect of causing dissolution of a Panchayat at any level, which is functioning immediately before such amendment, till the expiration of its duration specified in clause (1).
• An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed—
• before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1)
• before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

Additional Information

Given:

The expression = 15 × 15 × 15 + 64 + 3 × 60 × 19

Concept:

Calculation:

⇒ 15 × 15 × 15 + 64 + 3 × 60 × 19

⇒ 225 × 15 + 64 + 180 × 19

⇒ 3375 + 64 + 3420 = 6859

∴ The required result will be 6859.

Given:

The expression = 42a + 42b = 672

Concept:

The average = (The of total items)/(The number of items)

Calculation:

⇒ 42 × (a + b) = 672

⇒ a + b = 672/42

⇒ a + b = 16

⇒ The required result will be = 16/2 = 8

∴ The required result will be 8.

Given:

The perimeter of rectangle = 110 cm

Difference between length and breadth = 5 cm

Formula used:

The perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (Length of the rectangle + Breadth of the rectangle)

The area of the equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × (The side of the equilateral triangle)²

Calculation:

Let be assume the length and breadth of the rectangle is a and b respectively and the side of the equilateral triangle is p

⇒ 110 = 2 × (a + b)

⇒ a + b = 55     ----(1)

⇒ a - b = 5     ----(2)

⇒ By solving equations (1) and (2)

⇒ a = 30, b = 25

⇒ The area of rectangle = 30 × 25 = 750 cm²

⇒ The area of equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × (a²)

⇒ 750 = √3/4 × a²

⇒ 3000/√3 = a²

⇒ (1000 × 3 × 3^-1/2)^1/2 = a

⇒ (1000000^1/2 × 3^1/2)^1/2 = a

⇒ 1000000^1/4 × 3^1/4 = a

⇒ 10000^1/4 × 100^1/4 × 3^1/4 = a

⇒ 10 × 300^1/4 cm = a

∴ The required result will be  10 × 3001/4 cm.

Given:

P = 9A

A = 7A

Concept:

The gain marks percentage = {(Total gain marks)/(Total marks)} × 100

Calculation:

⇒ The required percentage = {(P - Q)/(Q)} × 100

⇒ ((9A - 7A)/7A} × 100 = (2A/7A) × 100 = 28.56%

∴ The required result will be 28.56%.

Given:

The ratio of cost price and selling price of article = 11 : 16

Concept:

Profit percentage = {(Selling price - Cost price)/Cost price} × 100

Calculation:

Let the cost price and selling price of the article be 11x and 16x respectively

According to the question,

⇒ New cost price = 11x × (120/100) = 66x/5

⇒ New selling price = 16x × (120/100) = 96x/5

⇒ The profit percentage = {(96x/5 - 66x/5)/(66x/5)} × 100 = (30/66) × 100

⇒ (0.4545) × 100 = 45.45%

∴ The required result will be 45.45%.

Given:

The simple interest = 1280

The time = 4 years

Concept:

Simple interest = (Principle × Time × Rate)/100

Calculation:

Let be assume the sun is X and the rate of interest is R

⇒ 1280 = (X × 4 × R)/100

⇒ 32000 = XR  

⇒ Let be assume simple interest is I for 10 years let be assume

⇒ I = (X × R × 10)/100

⇒ I = (32000 × 10)/100 = 3200

∴ The required result will be 3200.

Given:

 x ∶ y = y ∶ z

Concept:

If a : b = b : c then,

b² = ac

Calculation:

⇒ x ∶ y = y ∶ z

⇒ y² = xz

⇒ x ∶ y = y ∶ z

⇒ (x/y)⁴ = (y/z)⁴

⇒ x⁴/y⁴ = y⁴/z⁴

⇒ x4/y⁴ = (xz)²/z⁴

⇒ x⁴/y⁴ = x²/z²

∴ The required result will be x² : z².

Given:

The distance = 30 km

The time = 36 minutes

Concept:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

⇒ Let speed of bus be S

⇒ S = 30/(36/60) = (30 × 60)/36 = 50 km/h

⇒ Now, speed reduce by 10 km/h then time taken by bus to cover same distance

⇒ Time = 30/(50 - 10) = 30/40 = 3/4 hours = (3/4) × 60 = 45 minutes

∴ The required result will be 45 minutes.

Given:

The marked price of C = 450

The selling price of C = 425

The marked price of D = 362

The selling price of D = 318

The marked price of E = 435

The selling price of E = 420

Calculation:

⇒ J₁ = (450 - 425) + (362 - 318) = 25 + 44 = 69

⇒ J₂ = (362 - 318) - (435 - 420) = 44 - 15 = 29

⇒ J₁ - J₂ = 69 - 29 = 40

∴ The required result will be 40.

Given:

The difference between two numbers = 75% of the sum of the numbers

Concept:

If two number is A and B then,

A - B = (75/100) × (A + B)

Calculation:

Let be assume the larger number is A and the smaller number is B

⇒ A - B = (75/100) × (A + B)

⇒ 4A - 4B = 3A + 3B

⇒ 4A - 3A = 3B + 4B

⇒ A/B = 7/1 = 7 : 1

∴ The required result will be 7 : 1.

Given:

Speed of boat = 6 km/h

Speed of stream = 2 km/h

Upstream distance = 42 km

Downstream distance = 84 km

The length of the platform = 1200

The length of the train = 600

Concept:

Upstream speed = Speed of the boat - Speed of the stream

Downstream speed = Speed of the boat + Speed of the stream

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

For statement l

⇒ 42/(6 - 2) + (84)/(6 + 2) = 42/4 + 84/8 = 10.5 + 10.5 = 21 hours

⇒ Hence, statement l is wrong

For statement ll

⇒ Let be assume length of the platform is X

⇒ 30 = (600 + X)/(54 × 5/18) 

⇒ 30 = (600 + X)/15

⇒ 450 = 600 + X

⇒ X = 600 - 450 = 150

⇒ Hence, statement ll is wrong

∴ The required result will be "Neither I nor II".

Given:

The expression = $√[3]{0.02+√{0.000049}}$

Concept:

If √A then,

√A = A²

Calculation:

⇒ ∛(0.02 + √0.000049)

⇒ ∛{0.02 + (49/10⁶)^1/2}

⇒ ∛ (0.02 + 7/1000)

⇒ ∛{(20 + 7)/1000}

⇒ (27/1000)^1/3 = 3/10

⇒ 0.3

∴ The required result will be 0.3.

Given:

The six-time of the volume of a sphere = 29106 cm³

Concept:

The volume of the sphere = (4/3) × π × (The radius of the sphere)³

Calculation:

Let be assume the radius of the sphere is R

⇒ 29106 = 6 × {(4/3) × (22/7) × R³}

⇒ 29106/6 = (88/21) × R³

⇒ (4851 × 21)/88 = R³

⇒ 1157.625 = R³

⇒ R = ∛(1157.625) = 10.5 cm

⇒ The ten time of the radius of the sphere = 10 × 10.5 = 105 cm

∴ The required result will be 105 cm.

Given;

a : b = 2 : 3

Concept:

If a : b = x : y then,

a = bx/y

Calculation:

⇒ a : b = 2 : 3

⇒ a = 2b/3

⇒ (b2 + 2a2) ∶ (b2 - 2a2)

⇒ {b² + 2 × (2b/3)²} : {b² - 2 × (2b/3)²}

⇒ (9b² + 8b²)/9 : (9b² - 8b²)/9

⇒ 17b²/b² = 17/1 = 17 : 1

∴ The required result will be 17 : 1.

Given:

A/B = 11/9

Concept:

If a : b = x : y then, 

a = bx/y

Calculation:

⇒ A/B = 11/9

⇒ A = 11B/9

⇒ (A - B)/(A + B) = (11B/9 - B)/(11B/9 + B) 

⇒ (2B/9) ÷ (20B/9) = 2B/20B = 1/10

∴ The required result will be 1/10.

Given:

10 men working 4 hours per day can do a work = 15 days

Concept:

Work = Time × Efficiency 

Calculation:

Let be assume the remaining work will be done in X days

⇒ (10 Men × 15 Days × 4 Hours) = (5 Days × 10 Men × 4 Hours) + (X Days × 6 Men × 4 Hours)

⇒ 600 = 200 + 24X

⇒ X = (600 - 200)/24 = 400/24 = 50/3

∴ The required result will be 50/3.

Given:

Birth rate Q and R and S respectively = 8.3, 7.6 and 6.8

Concept:

The gain marks percentage = {(Gain marks)/(Total marks)} × 100

Calculation:

For statement l

⇒ The required % = {(8.3 - 7.6)/7.6} × 100 = (0.7/7.6) × 100 = (0.092) × 100 = 9.2

⇒ Hence, statement l is correct

For statement ll

⇒ The required % = {(7.6 - 6.8)/6.8} × 100 = (0.8/6.8) × 100 = (0.1176) × 100 = 11.76%

⇒ Hence, Statement ll is correct

For statement lll

⇒ The required percentage = {(8.3 - 6.8)/6.8} × 100 = (1.5/6.8) × 100 = (0.2205) × 100 = 22.05%

⇒ Hence, statement lll is wrong

∴ The required result will be "Both l and ll".

Given:

The price of C₁ in city X = 3.5 lakh

The price of C₄ in city Z = 3.0 lakh

The price of C₅ in city X and Y respectively = 4.0 and 4.2

Concept:

If the price of A is x and the price of B is y then,

The ratio of the price of A and B = x/y

Calculation:

For statement l

⇒ The required ratio = 3.5/3.0 = 35/30 = 7/6

⇒ Hence statement l is wrong

For statement ll

⇒ The required ratio = 3.5/3.0 = 35/30 = 7/6

⇒ Hence, statement ll is correct 

For statement lll

⇒ The required % = {(4.2 - 4.0)/4.0} × 100 = (0.2/4.0) × 100 = (2/40) × 100 = 5%

⇒ Hence, statement lll is correct 

∴ The required result will be "Both II and III".

Given:

HCF of two numbers = (2/5) × (LCM of two numbers)

The product of two numbers = 1690

Concept:

LCM × HCF = Product of two number

Calculation:

⇒ HCF = (2/5) × LCM

⇒ LCM = (5/2) × HCF

⇒ The product of two number = HCF × LCM

⇒ 1690 = HCF × LCM

⇒ 1690 = (HCF) × (5/2) × (HCF)

⇒ (HCF)² = (1690 × 2)/5 = 338 × 2 = 676

⇒ HCF = √676 = 26

∴ The required result will be 26.

Given:

(729 - 730 - 731 + 732)

Concept:

If Ab + Xb then,

Ab + Xb = b × (A + X)

Calculation:

⇒ (729 - 730 - 731 + 732)

⇒ (7²⁹ - 7 × 7²⁹ - 49 × 7²⁹ + 343 × 7²⁹)

⇒ Now will take 7²⁹ common

⇒ 7²⁹ × (1 - 7 - 49 + 343)

⇒ 7²⁹ × (288)

⇒ 288 is completely divisible by 72 then, 729 × (288) is also completely divisible by 72

∴ The required result will be 72.

The correct answer is 'Deicide'.

Key Points

• Deicide: the killing of a god.
• Example: hat became the Christian charge of deicide; the Jews were then accused of killing God, and especially in medieval Europe.
• Thus, from above, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Regicide: the action of killing a king.
• Matricide: the killing of one's mother.
• Sororicide: the act of killing one's sister.

The correct answer is  'To overcome reserve'.

Key Points

• To break the ice: It is an idiomatic phrase which means to make people feel more friendly and willing to talk to each other.
• Example: This gambit nevertheless breaks the ice, and they begin by discussing the merits of various brands of scotch.
• Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'interest area'.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of noun.
• 'Field' needs to be replaced with 'area'.
• Field: a subject that people study or an area of activity that they are involved in as part of their work.
• Example: She is famous for her work in the field of human rights.
• Area: a particular subject, range of activities, or group of related subjects.
• Example: We’re funding research into new areas such as law enforcement technology.
• Thus, from the above meaning and the context of the sentence, we can conclude that the correct answer is option 1.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The profession you choose depends upon your interest area.'

The correct answer is 'Responsive'.

Key Points

• Responsive: reacting quickly and positively.
• Example: We try to be responsive to the needs of the customer.
• Thus, from above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'Passion'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Enthusiasm: a strong feeling of interest and enjoyment about something and an eagerness to be involved in it.
• Example: Gillian and Darren greeted the speakers with great enthusiasm.
• Passion: a very strong belief or feeling about something
• Example: He spoke with considerable passion about the importance of art and literature.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Gainsay: deny or contradict (a fact or statement).
• Example: No one dared to gainsay him.
• Entertain: provide (someone) with amusement or enjoyment.
• Example: She entertained the children with stories, songs and drama.
• Emend: make corrections and improvements to (a text).
• Example: It is possible that we will have to emend the data after it has been released.

The correct answer is 'RSPQ'.

Key Points

• Statement R will follow will be first in sequence as it introduces the subject 'Female readers'.
• Statement S will follow Statement R as it mentions the reason that is liked by female readers.
• Statement P will follow statement S as it connects the adjective confident with its noun 'woman'.
• Statement Q will be the last part.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sequence is RSPQ

• Sequence:
• R: female readers liked the Wonder Woman
• S: series because it presented a strong and confident
• P: woman who often spoke about the power of
• Q: womanhood and the need for female solidarity

The correct answer is 'that'.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the conjunction 'when'.
• 'When' needs to be replaced with 'that'.
• When: As a conjunction, it is used to talk about two things that happen at the same time.
• Structure: Action/Event + when + time/action
• Example: She was studying when I was watching TV.
• That: As a conjunction, it is used to introduce a subordinate clause to make a statement or provide more information.
• Example: He said that he was catching fish in the river.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Isn’t it time that you focus on your studies?'

The correct answer is 'Brethless', i.e. it is a wrongly spelt word.

Key Points

• Brethless: It is a wrongly spelt word. The correct spelling is 'Breathless'.
• Breathless: having difficulty breathing, especially because you are very tired, excited, or frightened.
• Example: The long climb left Jan feeling breathless.
• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Economics: the branch of knowledge concerned with the production, consumption, and transfer of wealth.
• Example: He knows very little about economics or international finance.
• Technology: the application of scientific knowledge for practical purposes, especially in industry.
• Example**:** Modern technology makes moving money around much easier than it used to be.
• Modulation: the exertion of a modifying or controlling influence on something.
• Example: These drugs modulate the disease process.

The correct answer is 'of the awful behavior', i.e. the error lies in this part of something.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the preposition 'of' with 'fed up'.
• 'Of' needs to be replaced with 'with'.
• Fed up (with someone or something): Irritated, exasperated, bored, or disgusted with someone or something.
• Example: My wife is fed up with our car, but we just can't afford a new one.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'She got fed up with the awful behavior of her cousins.'

The correct answer is 'To enjoy oneself​.'

Key Points

• To kick up one's heels: It is an idiomatic phrase which means To enjoy oneself exuberantly; to frolic.
• Example: They spent most of their Saturdays kicking up their heels at the various nightclubs around town.
• Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'Norm'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Anomaly: something that deviates from what is standard, normal, or expected.
• Example: In those days, a woman professor was still an anomaly.

Norm: something that is usual, typical, or standard.

• Example: Short-term contracts are now the norm with some big companies.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Paradigm: a typical example or pattern of something; a model.
• Example**:** Community interaction of this kind could be a paradigm for race relations in the future.
• Character: the mental and moral qualities distinctive to an individual.
• Example: He has a cheerful but quiet character.
• Paradox: a seemingly absurd or self-contradictory statement or proposition that when investigated or explained may prove to be well founded or true.
• Example: It’s a paradox that in such a rich country there can be so much poverty.

The correct answer is 'educated and are also at par of', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of idiom in the context.
• The correct idiom is 'on a par with (someone or something)'.
• On a par with (someone or something): at the same level or standard as (someone or something else).
• Example: The new version of the software is on a par with the old one.
• At par: At the price that something is worth; at face value. This phrase is often used in reference to stocks and bonds.
• Example: I hope you bought this at par and didn't pay more than it's worth.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Women in India are much more educated and are also on a par with the men in almost all fields.'

The correct answer is 'PRSQ'.

Key Points

• Statement P will follow statement 1 as it mentions the disease which affects coffee shrub.
• Statement R will follow Statement P as it mentions the damage caused by this disease.
• Statement S will follow statement R as it mentions another disease which attacks arabica.
• Statement Q will be the last part.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sequence is SRPQ

• Sequence:
• Among the diseases of the coffee shrub
• P: are leaf rust caused by the fungus Hemileia vastatrix, which
• R: does considerable damage in the plantations of Arabica,
• S: and the coffee berry disease caused by the fungus Colletotrichum coffeanum,
• Q: which also attacks the Arabica

The correct answer is 'nor'.

Key Points

• Correlative conjunctions: Correlative conjunctions correlate, working in pairs to join phrases or words that carry equal importance within a sentence, such as 'neither...nor', 'either...or', 'not only.....but also', etc. 
• Example: 
• Every night, either loud music or fighting neighbors wake John from his sleep.
• Neither Debra nor Sally expressed her annoyance when the cat broke the antique lamp.
• Not only did Mary grill burgers for Michael, but she also fixed a steak for her dog, Vinny.
• Thus, 'nor' will be used in the blank.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Neither her parents nor her husband wants to meet her.'

The correct answer is 'pass'.

Key Points

Let's explore the meaning of the given options:

 

• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that 'pass' will be used in the blank.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'To meet our food security and climate needs proper balance between mineral and particulate based organic matter is required, considering human interaction.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• Sequestering soil carbon effectively requires an understanding of how particulate organic matter and mineral-associated organic matter work, how human actions affect them, and how to build up both types to meet our planet’s climate and food security needs.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'Before preparing the soil for carbon sequestration, its potential should be checked.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• Before implementing any management practices for carbon sequestration, participants should first assess the carbon storage potential of the local soil, much as a doctor studies a patient before prescribing a cure.
• Thus, from above we can infer that just like when a doctor prescribes a medicine he/she performs an examination to know the type of disease or problem that patient has, the potential of soil to store carbon should be assessed before implementing any management practices.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is Managing soil carbon for climate change and food security.

Key Points

• The main idea is a statement that sums up the general theme of the passage.
• The passage as a whole focuses on Managing soil carbon for climate change and food security.
• The other choices address more specific ideas expressed in the passage but are not its main idea.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'It will create more particulate organic matter than mineral-based organic matter in the soil.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• For example, adding low-quality crop residues to agricultural fields would likely create more particulate organic matter than mineral-associated organic matter.
• Thus, from above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Bolster'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Boost: help or encourage (something) to increase or improve.
• Example: The new resort area has boosted tourism.
• Bolster: support or strengthen.
• Example: Timman needs to win a game to bolster his confidence.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Inhibit: hinder, restrain, or prevent (an action or process).
• Example: An unhappy family life may inhibit children’s learning.
• Placate: make (someone) less angry or hostile.
• Example: These changes did little to placate the unions.
• Shackle: restrain; limit.
• Example: Industrial progress is being shackled by a mass of regulations.

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर ‘द्रुम’ है। 

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में से द्रुम शब्द पेड़ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है।
• इसके अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द हैं - वृक्ष, पेड़, पादप, विटप, तरु, गाछ।
• द्रुम तत्सम शब्द है।
  

अन्य विकल्प:

 

Additional Information

व्यक्ति, स्थान या वस्तुविशेष का बोध करने वाले शब्दों को 'व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा' कहते हैं।

Key Points

• व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा – जिन शब्दों से किसी विशेष व्यक्ति, स्थान या वस्तु के नाम का पता चले, वे व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहलाते हैं; जैसे - जवाहर लाल नेहरू, अमिताभ बच्चन, नरेंद्र मोदी, बाइबिल, कुरान, रामायण, महाभारत, रूस, जापान, अमेरिका, दिल्ली, पंजाब आदि शब्द विशेष व्यक्ति, वस्तु और स्थान की ओर संकेत कर रहे हैं। इसलिए ये व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहलाते हैं।

Additional Information

आपके बुलाने पर वह आ जाएगा। - यह वाक्य सरल वाक्य का उदाहरण है।

स्पष्टीकरण:

<br>

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प:

• आपने बुलाया इसलिए वह आ गया। - यह वाक्य संयुक्त वाक्य का उदाहरण है।
• जब आप बुलाएँगे तब वह आ जाएगा। - यह वाक्य मिश्र वाक्य का उदाहरण है।
• आप बुलाएँगे तो वह आ जाएगा। - यह वाक्य संयुक्त वाक्य का उदाहरण है।

Additional Information

स्पष्टीकरण

दिए गये शब्दों में 'सामूहिक' शब्द की वर्तनी शुद्ध रूप में लिखी गयी है।

• सामूहिक शब्द का अर्थ - समूह में रहकर की जाने वाली क्रिया को को सामूहिक कहा जाता है।
• समूह + इक = सामूहिक।
• अन्य विकल्पों में वर्तनीगत अशुद्धियाँ है।

Key Points 

राम ने एक चॉकलेट के छोटे छोटे टुकड़े कर दिए। इस वाक्य में छोटे छोटे के मध्य (-) योजक चिन्ह होना आवश्यक है।

योजक चिन्ह - हिंदी में अल्पविराम के बाद योजक चिन्ह का प्रयोग अधिक होता है। दो शब्दों में परस्पर संबंध स्पष्ट करने के लिए तथा उन्हें जोड़कर लिखने के लिए योजक-चिन्ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है। इसे 'विभाजक-चिन्ह' भी कहते है।

Key Points

 

विराम चिन्ह – भाषा के लिखित रूप में विशेष स्थानों पर रुकने का संकेत करने वाले चिन्हों को विराम चिन्ह कहते हैं।

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 ‘अग्रज’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Points

• ‘अग्रज’ शब्द का उचित विलोम ‘अनुज’ होगा।
• ‘अग्रज’ का अर्थ है – पहले जन्मा हुआ, बड़ा भाई।

 

अन्य विकल्प:

 

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दिए गये वाक्यों में 'किसी दूसरे से यह काम करवा लीजिये।' यह वाक्य व्याकरण रीति से शुद्ध और सटीक वाक्य है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प:

• किसी ओर दुसरे से वह काम करा लीजीये। - इस वाक्य में ओर शब्द अशुद्ध है, और क्रम व्यवस्थापन में गलती है।
• किसी और दुसरे से यह काम करा लीजिए। - इस वाक्य में दूसरे शब्द में अशुद्धि और क्रम व्यवस्थापन में गलती है।

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• वाक्य में व्याकरण के अनुसार पदों का क्रमबद्ध होना बहुत अधिक आवश्यक है। पदों के उचित क्रम में न होने पर उसके भाव या अर्थ में स्पष्टता नहीं रहती और इसे वाक्य की पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ कहा जाता है।
• वाक्य भाषा की अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण इकाई है। अतएव परिष्कृत भाषा के लिए वाक्य शुद्धि का ज्ञान आवश्यक हैं। वाक्य - रचना में संज्ञा ,सर्वनाम ,विशेषण, क्रिया अव्यय से सम्बंधित या अन्य प्रकार की अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।

दिए गये विकल्पों मे से 'उपवेष्टन-ओढ़ना' यह तत्सम - तद्भव शब्द का युग्म सही है।

• उपवेष्टन शब्द से ओढ़ना शब्द बना है।

 Key Points

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अन्य विकल्प:

 

 

 

 

 

 

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