DSSSB TGT Computer Science 7 Aug 2021 Shift 1 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Five boxes: B1, B2, B3, B4 and B5.

Five colour: L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5.

1. Box B4 is placed in the top most rack.

2. Two boxes are placed between L2 coloured box and L5 coloured box.

3. L1 coloured box is placed immediate above L5 coloured box.

4. L5 coloured box is placed above L4 coloured box.

5. Box B3 is coloured with L4.

6. Box B2 is coloured with L1.

So, case - 2 gets eliminated.

3. Box B1 is not placed immediately above box B3.

So, B2 and B3 boxes are placed immediately above and immediately below B5 box respectively.

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "EX174".

Note: In the official paper IT370 was given but according to the correct pattern it should be there IT 350.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below:

Conclusions: 

1. Some S are A → True (As all A are S, thus some S will also be A is a definite conclusion). 2. All S are D → False (As no D is A but there is no direct relation between S and D is given. It is possible but not definite). 3. No A is D → True (As no D is A, so no A is D is also definite conclusion).

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and III follows".

LOGIC:

In a row;

(First Number + second Number + Third Number) × 2 = Fourth Number

Row 1:

(4 + 6 + 8) × 2 

= 18 × 2

= 36

Row 2:

(2 + 7 + 6) × 2

= 15 × 2

= 30

Row 3:

(5 + 1 + 2) × 2

= 8 × 2

= 16

Hence, "16" is the correct answer.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

Similarly;

Hence, "(LAPT, WLDH, KZOS)" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "BHCQ".

The pattern followed here is:

The positional value of the letter is given as their code.

Given code:

‘LACKEY’ is written as ‘121311525’

 

‘LUSTER’ is written as ‘12211920518’

 

Similarly,

 

Thus ‘KIPPER’ is written as ‘1191616518’

Hence, the correct answer is "1191616518".

Let the faces ABCD, BGFC is painted with red colour.

The faces ABHG, ADEH are painted with yellow colour.

The faces CDEF, EFGH are painted with brown colour.

Clearly, the cubes will have 3 faces painted with different colours are the Common corner which have three faces of different colour is D, G.

Hence, ‘2’ is the correct answer.

According to the question,

Statement 1: Number 9 represents those figures that are neither red nor bottle.

As shown here, the figures which are neither red nor bottles is 9.

Hence, Statement 1 is True.

Statement 2: Number 8 represents those figures that are not bottles.

 

As shown, the figures that are not bottles are represented by 9 and 8.

So, 8 is one of the figures that does not represent the bottles.

Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Now we have to answer the correct statements.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

The family chart is as follows:

Drawing the family tree as per the given information:

We can see the pointing woman is the daughter of the Vipin's son's wife.

Thus we can say woman related to Vipin as Grand daughter.

Hence, the correct answer is "Grand daughter".

The pattern followed is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "XTV".

Confusion PointsYTU could also be the answer but as it is not available in the options, we need to think about any other logics, according to which option is available.

The logic followed is:

Decoding the information, 

 

Option 1: 8A15D5C11B7 = 35

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

8 + 15 ÷ 5 × 11 - 7 = 35

8 + 3 × 11 - 7 = 35

8 + 33 - 7 = 35

41 - 7 = 35

34 ≠ 35

Option 2: 9A16D64C32B3 = 14

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

9 + 16 ÷ 64 × 32 - 3 = 14

9 + .25 × 32 - 3 = 14

9 + 8 - 3 = 14

17 - 3 = 14

14 = 14

Option 3: 26D14C7A9B3 = 20

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

26 ÷ 14 × 7 + 9 - 3 = 20

1.8571 × 7 + 9 - 3 = 20

13.00 + 9 - 3 = 20

22 - 3 = 20

19 ≠ 20

Option 4: 6C21D7A9B15 = 10

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

6 × 21 ÷ 7 + 9 - 15 = 10

6 × 3 + 9 - 15 = 10

18 + 9 - 15 = 10

27 - 15 = 10

12 ≠ 10

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern followed is:

Option 1: NO - MN

Option 2: LX - WK

Option 3: TA - ZS

Option 4: CR - QB

Thus we can see in all the given option there is a common pattern of 1^st letter - 4^th letter = -1 and 2^nd letter - 3^rd letter = -1 whereas option (1) is not following the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Seven boys**:** A, B, C, P, Q, R and S.

1. S is second to the left of C.

2. P is second to the left of S.

3. Q is not the immediate neighbour of P or S.

4. B is fourth to the right of A.

Checking options one by one;

1) B is second to the right of Q → Incorrect

B is the second to the left of Q.

2) B is the immediate neighbour of S and C → Correct

3) A is not the immediate neighbour of P or Q → Incorrect

A is the immediate neighbour of P or Q

4) P is third to the left of C → Incorrect

P is third to the right of C.

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

LOGIC:

Number of Dashes in Left Figure + 2 = Number of Dashes in Right Figure

1) In option 1:

Number of Dashes in Left Figure = 8

Number of Dashes in Right Figure = 11

8 + 2 = 10 ≠ 11

2) In option 2:

Number of Dashes in Left Figure = 5

Number of Dashes in Right Figure = 7

5 + 2 = 7

3) In option 3:

Number of Dashes in Left Figure = 11

Number of Dashes in Right Figure = 13

11 + 2 = 13

4) In option 4:

Number of Dashes in Left Figure = 13

Number of Dashes in Right Figure = 15

13 + 2 = 15

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

As per the given information;

Hence, Prema is facing in the South direction.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below:

Conclusions: 

1. Some hard are land → True (As some land are hard so, some hard will so be land will be logically correct). 2. Some stone are hard → False (As there is no direct relation given between stone and hard given so, it is possible but not definite).

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion I follows".

Additional Information

i) Ramesh is facing towards south direction.

ii) He rotates by 140 degrees in clockwise direction (means CW 90º = west and again +50º CW will be somewhere in North west direction).

iii) He again rotates by 362 degrees in anti-clockwise direction (means 362º ACW from North west direction will be again in North west direction).

According to the information given in the question, we can draw the following diagram.

Thus we can say he is finally facing in North west direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "North-west".

Confusion Points

The options given are different.

Option number 2 and 4 looks similar but there is difference in the both the options.

The Line given in the figure is different.

In Option (4) line started from the corner of the Square while in the Option (2) line is started from the Side of the Square.

Important Points

Completing the incomplete pattern;

 

Hence, option(4) is the correct answer.

The bat are only car represented by "0"

Hence, "0" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is

Key Points

• Rice crop needs a hot and humid climate.
• It is best suited to regions that have high humidity, prolonged sunshine and an assured supply of water.
• The average temperature required throughout the life period of the crop ranges from 21 to 37º C.

Important Points

• Rice is a staple food for the majority of the population in India.
• Though it is considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties that are grown in different agro-climatic regions.
• In southern states and West Bengal, the climatic conditions allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an agricultural year.
• In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’.
• But in the Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a Kharif crop during the Southwest Monsoon season.
• Rice cultivation in the irrigated areas of Punjab and Haryana was introduced in the 1970s following the Green Revolution.
• India had the highest export volume of rice worldwide, at 15.5 million metric tons as of 2020/2021.

The correct answer is 44.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Indian constitution contains the provision for Uniform Civil Code.
• Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India states that the “State shall endeavor to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India”.
• The objective of this endeavour should be to address the discrimination against vulnerable groups and harmonize diverse cultural practices.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Falls less sharply.

Key Points

• Disposable income is used by economists to measure and estimate various other related indicators like discretionary income, personal savings rates, marginal propensity to consume (MPC), and marginal propensity to save (MPS).
• When disposable income increases, households have more money to either save or spend, which naturally leads to a growth in consumption.
• In the case of recession, revenue falls while expenditures rise thereby creating a deficit. In order to balance the budget, the government must raise more revenue (by increasing taxes) and cut expenditures. Both of these actions will lower disposable income. As a result, consumption and aggregate demand will fall.

Important Points

• Types of Disposable Income:
• Personal Disposable Income (PDI) - 
• Personal Disposable Income is the part of the aggregate income which belongs to the households.
• They may decide to consume a part of it and save the rest.
• If we deduct the Personal Tax Payments (income tax, for example) and Non-tax Payments (such as fines) from Personal Income, we obtain what is known as the Personal Disposable Income.
• Thus Personal Disposable Income (PDI ) = PI – Personal tax payments – Non-tax payments.
• National Disposable Income -
• It is the sum of the disposable incomes of all resident institutional units.
• National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + Other current transfers from the rest of the world.

The correct answer is Vienna.

Key Points

• International Atomic Energy Association (IAEA), an independent international organization, was established in 1957 in response to deep fears and expectations generated by discoveries of Nuclear Technology.
• Its Headquarters is in Vienna, Austria.
• It is widely known as the "Atoms for Peace and Development Organization".
• It works with member states and multiple partners worldwide to promote safe and secure use of Nuclear energy.
• In 2005, it was awarded Nobel Peace Prize for its work in a safe and peaceful world.
• It submits reports annually to United Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
• IAEA Director General - **Rafael Mariano Grossi.**​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Insolation:
• Insolation is the solar radiation that reaches the earth's surface.
• It is measured by the amount of solar energy received per square centimetre per minute.
• There is a tilt in the axis of the Earth. As a result of this tilt the sunlight, and by extension, the incoming radiations, cover a larger area at the Equator than at the Poles.
• The amount of insolation decreases from the equator towards the poles.
• The amount of insolation received determines a location's temperature. Because insolation varies with latitude, temperature varies as well.
• It influences the distribution of temperature.

The correct answer is Iris.

Explanation:

• Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.
• The pupil is a small empty space surrounded by the iris.
• The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
• The iris contracts and relaxes to regulate the size of the pupil.
• When it is dark, the pupil expands to allow more light to enter the eye.
• Iris controls the pupil which in turn controls the amount of light entering the eye. The pupil is just an adjustable opening, the iris is a membrane.
• When it is bright, the pupil contracts to prevent more light from entering the eye.

Additional Information

The correct answer is White blood cells.

Key Points

• White blood cells are an important part of the immune system which helps in fighting infections by attacking bacteria, viruses, and germs that invade the body.
• White blood cells are also known as leukocytes.
• They help in protecting the body against both infectious diseases and foreign invaders.
• WBC are produced in the bone marrow.
• Normal levels of white blood cells in the blood are 4,500-10,000 white blood cells per mm3.
• White blood cells are formed continually; some only live for hours or days, but some live for years.
• Leukocytes are further classified into two subcategories:
• Granulocytes consist of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
• Agranulocytes consist of lymphocytes and monocytes
• ​The maximum part of White Blood Cells is made up of Neutrophils.

​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• In 1848, Lord Dalhousie arrived in India as the Governor-General and was determined to extend British rule over India.
• He devised a policy that came to be known as the Doctrine of Lapse.
• Dalhousie occupied the Punjab and Sindh through war and brought several subordinate states directly under the Company’s rule by annexing them on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse.
• By the Doctrine of Lapse, if the king of a subordinate state died without a natural male heir, then the kingdom would lapse to the British i.e. it would automatically pass into the hands of the British.
• Satara, Sambalpur, Jhansi, and Nagpur were annexed under this policy and the families of the former rulers would be pensioned off. However, Nana Saheb, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, was not given a pension.
• On grounds of maladministration, Awadh was occupied in 1856 and Nawab Wajid Ali was pensioned off and sent to Calcutta.
• By 1856, the East India Company had brought the whole of India under its control.

The correct answer is 1984.

Key Points

• The Constitution (Fifty-first Amendment) Act, 1984:
• It was enacted to provide for reservation of seats in the house of the people for scheduled tribes in Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh and also for reservation of seats for scheduled tribes in the legislative assemblies of Nagaland and Meghalaya by suitably amending articles 330 and 332.
• The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of any State under article 332 of the constitution will have to be determined having regard to the provisions of Article 332 (3) of the Constitution.

 

Additional Information

The correct answer is Erling Haaland.

Key Points

• 2019 FIFA U-20 World Cup was hosted by Poland between 23 May and 15 June 2019.
• This was the first FIFA tournament hosted by Poland.
• The Ukraine national under-20 football team won the 2019 FIFA U-20 World Cup.​
• Erling Haaland is a Norwegian footballer who plays as a striker and joined Borussia Dortmund from Red Bull Salzburg in Austria.
• Haaland won the tournament's Golden Boot after he scored a record nine goals in a single match in the 2019 FIFA U-20 World Cup.
• South Korean midfielder Lee Kang-win earned the Golden Ball as the best player of the FIFA U-20 World Cup.
• Image of Erling Haaland:

Important Points

• FIFA Women's World Cup 2023
• Host Countries - Australia and New Zealand.
• FIFA men's World Cup 2023
• ​Host Countries - Indonesia​

Additional Information

• FIFA is a non-profit organization that describes itself as an international governing body of association football, fútsal, and beach soccer.
• It is the highest governing body of association football.
• Headquarters: Zürich, Switzerland
• Founded: 21 May 1904, Rue Saint-Honoré, Paris, France
• Main organ: FIFA Congress
• Founded at: Paris, France

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

• About Asian Games 2018
• Asian games 2018 was hosted in Jakarta, Indonesia.
• India competed at the 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia, from 18^th August to 2^nd September.
• Neeraj Chopra was the flag bearer for the opening ceremony while Rani Rampal was named as the flag bearer for the closing ceremony.
• India ranked 8^th in the 2018 Asian Games Medal Table with 69 medals in total.
• China topped the medal tally with 132 Golds and a total of 289 Medals.
• Japanese swimmer Ikee Rikako has been named as the Most Valuable Player (MVP) of the recently-concluded 18^th edition of the Asian Games.

 

• The Chinese city of Hangzhou has been confirmed as the host of the 2022 Asian Games by the Olympic Council of Asia.
• China has hosted the Asian Games twice before, at Beijing in 1990 and Guangzhou in 2010, and has already been awarded the Winter Olympics in 2022.
• The first Asian Games were held from 4 March to 11 March 1951 in New Delhi.​
• India has hosted the Asian Games twice, that is in 1951 and in 1982.
• The first edition of the games which took place in 1951 was hosted by India.

The correct answer is Vyas.

Key Points

• In most Hindu traditions, Krishna Dvaipayana Vyasa, also referred to as Vyasa or Veda-Vyasa (the one who classified the Vedas into four parts), is a central and revered figure.
• Traditionally, he is considered the author of the Mahabharata.
• Although it is also commonly believed that only the centre of the epic, the Bharata, was written.
• He is also known as the scribe of Puranas, ancient Hindu texts eulogising various deities through divine tales, mainly the divine Trimurti God in Hinduism.
• The Bhagavad Gita was also composed by Vyasa.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Widow Remarriage Act (1856) 
• The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 legalize the remarriage of Hindu widows on 16^th July 1856.
• The Hindu widow remarriage act was drafted during the tenure of Lord Dalhousie.
• The act was passed by Lord Canning in 1856.
• The remarriage of Hindu widows was first legalized by Lord Canning.
• This act also provided all the rights and inheritances to all the windows that they have had at the time of her first marriage.
• The enactment of The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 was a major social reform to improve the condition of the widow in India.
• Before this law, the custom of Sati was also abolished by Lord William Bentinck in 1829.
• Child Marriage Restraint Act (1929)
• The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 is also known as the Sharda Act as it was sponsored by Harbilas Sharda.
• The objective of the Act is to eliminate the special evil which had the potentialities of dangers to the life and health of a female child, who could not withstand the stress and strains of married life and to avoid early deaths of such minor mothers.
• The Act was passed in the Imperial Legislative Council of India, fixed the age of marriage for girls at 14 years and boys at 18 years which was later amended to 18 for girls and 21 for boys.
• The Act came into force on 1^st April 1930.

The correct answer is Fiji.

Key Points

• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding members of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
• The ASEAN is an economic union comprising 10 member states in Southeast Asia, which promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilities economic, political, security, military, educational, and sociocultural integration among its members and other countries in Asia.The 11 countries of ASEAN are 

1. Brunei
2. Cambodia
3. Indonesia
4. Laos
5. Malaysia
6. Myanmar
7. Philippines
8. Singapore
9. Thailand
10. Vietnam.
11. Timor-Leste (on October 26, 2025)

• Brunei then joined on 7 January 1984.
• Vietnam on 28 July 1995.
• Laos and Myanmar on 23 July 1997.
• Cambodia on 30 April 1999.
• Making up what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN.
• The Secretary-General of ASEAN - Kao Kim Hourn​.
• ASEAN headquarter - Jakarta, Indonesia.

The correct answer is Khazana Building Museum.

Key Points

• The Khazana Building Museum is in Hyderabad, Telangana.
• The Khazana Building Museum was built in the year 1580 CE by the Qutb Shahi kings for housing their Treasury, hence the name "Khazana".
• Earlier it was a building known as "Khazana Khana" and was converted into a museum in the year 2013.
• The museum houses collection of relics from the following dynasties:
• Qutb Shahi dynasty
• Bahmani dynasty
• Kakatiya dynasty

Additional Information

The correct answer is Australia and Japan.

Key Points

• India, Japan and Australia formally launched the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) to build resilient supply chains in the Indo-Pacific region in a virtual trilateral ministerial meeting on 27^th April 2021.
• The meeting held by videoconference was attended by Piyush Goyal, Australia’s minister for trade, tourism and investment Dan Tehan and Japan’s minister of economy, trade and industry Kajiyama Hiroshi.
• Aim:
• The SCRI aims to reduce dependence on China amid a likelihood of rechurning of supply chains in the Indo-Pacific region amid the Covid-19 pandemic.
• It aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience with a view to eventually attaining strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth in the region.
• It seeks to build upon the existing bilateral frameworks like the Asean-Japan Economic Resilience Action Plan and India-Japan Industrial Competitiveness Partnership and attract foreign direct investment in the region.
• In 2019, the cumulative GDP of the three countries was $9.3 trillion, and their merchandise goods and services trade was $2.7 trillion and$0.9 trillion, respectively.
• The trade ministers decided to convene at least once a year to provide guidance to the implementation of the SCRI as well as to consult on how to develop the initiative$.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Bhavani is a tributary of Kaveri.
• Bhima is a tributary of Krishna.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Winnowing

Key Points

• Winnowing: The process of separating heavier and lighter components of a mixture by wind or by blowing air is called winnowing.

 

• Threshing is the process of loosening the edible part of grain from the straw.
• It can be either done by hand, by using a treadle thresher or mechanized.
• Sieving is separating wanted elements from unwanted material it is done for characterizing the particle size.
• Hand Picking is a method of separating easily identifiable material from a mixture using our hands.

Image of Winnowing:

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Tata Vadya (String Instruments) or Chordophones are Stringed instruments.
• The tata vadya is a group of musical instruments in which sound is made by the vibration of a chord or a string.
• The vibrations are made by plucking a string or bowing on a string that has been stretched or pulled tight.
• The pitch of the note produced depends on the length of the vibrating wire or string, the degree of tightening of the string.
• The duration for which the sound lasts also marginally depends on the vibrating string’s length.
• Examples of string instruments
• Tanpura or Tambura, Veena, Sarod, Dilruba, Violin, Santoor, Surbahar, and Rabab.
• ​Sushira Vadya (Wind Instruments)
• ​Now also known as Aerophones, these instruments have various holes in which the air is blown and resonated or vibrates creating different tones or sounds.
• A very common example of such kind is a Flute which was also the favourite of Krishna.
• According to Sangita Damodara, these were also liked by Gandharvas.
• The frequency of the sound and the tone can be controlled by the pressure of air blown in it.
• Examples of aerophones.
• Shehnai, Flute, Nadaswaram, Magudi, Alghoza, Kombu or Shringa and Harmonica.
• ​That is why both the options are incorrect.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• A direct tax is paid by an individual or organization to the entity that levied the tax.
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes deals with matters related to levying and collecting Direct Taxes and formulation of various policies related to direct taxes.
• A taxpayer pays a direct tax to a government for different purposes, including real property tax, personal property tax, income tax or taxes on assets, FBT, Gift Tax, Capital Gains Tax, etc.

 

• Corporate taxes are a good example of direct taxes.
• Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on the net income or profit that enterprises make from their businesses.
• The taxation system in India is such that the taxes are levied by the Central Government and the State Governments.
• Some minor taxes are also levied by the local authorities such as the Municipality and the Local Governments.

​​

Additional Information

• An indirect tax is a tax that is levied upon goods and services before they reach the customer who ultimately pays the indirect tax as a part of the market price of the good or service purchased.
• Indirect tax such as sales tax, a specific tax, value-added tax (VAT), or goods and services tax (GST) is a tax collected by an intermediary (such as a retail store) from the person who bears the ultimate economic burden of the tax.
• ​Goods and Services Tax -
• The GST is an indirect tax that replaced many indirect taxes such as excise duty, Value added tax, and service taxes in India.
• In India, GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122^nd Amendment) Bill.
• The Goods and Services Act was passed in parliament on 29^th March 2017 and came into effect from 1^st July 2017

Given:

Income of A = 20% more than the income of B

Income of B = 30% more than the income of C

Concept:

If A is X% more than B than 

A = B × (100 + X)/100

Calculation:

Let be assume income of C is X

⇒ The income of B = 1.3X

⇒ The Income of A = 1.2 × 1.3 × X = 1.56X

⇒ The income of C less% = {(1.56X - X)/(1.56X)} × 100 = (0.3589) × 100 = 35.89 ≈ 36%

∴ The required result will be 36%.

Given:

The largest side of isosceles right-angle triangle = 30 cm

Concept:

The area of triangle = (1/2) × Base × Height

Calculation:

Let be assume two equal sides of the right-angle triangle is x cm and hypotenuse of triangle is 30 cm

⇒ x² + x² = (30)²        (By Pythagoras theorem)

⇒ 2x² = (30)²

⇒ x = √(30²/2) = 30/√2

⇒ The area of triangle = (1/2) × (30/√2) × (30/√2) = (900/4) = 225 cm²

∴ The required result will be 225 cm².

Given:

(x + y) ∶ (y + z) ∶ (z + x) = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4 

(x + y + z) = 27

Concept:

If A : B : C = X : Y : Z then,

A/B = X/Y and A/C = X/Z

Calculation:

⇒ (x + y)/(y + z) = 2/3

⇒ 3x + 3y = 2y + 2z

⇒ y = 2z - 3x  ...... (1)

⇒ (x + y)/(z + x) = 1/2

⇒ 2x + 2y = z + x

⇒ x = z - 2y   .... (2)

⇒ By equation (1) and (2)

⇒ x = z - 2 × (2z - 3x)

⇒ -5x = -3z

⇒ x = 3z/5

⇒ y = 2z - 3 × (z - 2y) = 2z - 3z + 6y

⇒ -5y = -z

⇒ y = z/5

⇒ x + y + z = 27

⇒ (3z/5) + (z/5) + z = 27

⇒ 3z + z + 5z = 27 × 5

⇒ 9z = 27 × 5

⇒ z = 3 × 5 = 15

∴ The required result will be 15.

Given:

The maximum mark of B = 150

The maximum mark of A = 120

Concept:

The percentage of gain marks = {(The gain marks)/(The total marks)} × 100

Calculation:

⇒ From the statement l if the highest mark of B is 150 the total highest marks of 6 subjects is 900

⇒ The marks gain by B = (50 + 80 + 60 + 65 + 75 + 35) × (150/100) = 365 × 1.5 = 547.50

⇒ The total percentage of B = (547.50/900) × 100 =  60.84

⇒ So, the I statement is wrong

⇒ The second statement ll

⇒ if the highest of A is 120 then A will score marks in six subject 

⇒ S₁ = (90/100) × 120 = 108, S₂ = (75/100) × 120 = 90, S₃ =(90/100) × 120 = 108, S₄ = (80/100) × 120 = 96, S₅ = (70/100) × 120 = 84, and S₆ = (65/100) × 120 = 78

⇒ Now, there is S₁ and S₃ has more marks than 105

⇒ So, statement ll is correct 

∴ The required result will be "Only ll".

Given:

The diameter of wheel = 17.5 cm

The speed of cyclist = 90 km/hr

Calculation:

Speed = Distance/Time

The circumference of the circle = 2 × π × (The radius of the circle)

Calculation:

⇒ The circumference of the wheel = 2 × (22/7) × {17.5/(2 × 100)} = 0.55 m

⇒ The total distance = (165 × 60) × (90 × 5/18) = 247500 m

⇒ The total round taken by wheel = 247500/0.55 = 450000

∴ The required result will be 450000.

Given:

The marked price of article = 4000

The selling price of the article = 2600

Concept:

Discount % = {(Marked price - Selling price)/(Marked price)} × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount % = {(4000 - 2600)/4000} × 100

⇒ (1400/4000) × 100 = 1400/40 = 140/4 = 35

∴ The required result will be 35.

Given:

The downstream speed of boat = 20 km/hr

The speed of stream = 4 km/hr

Concept:

Speed of downstream = Speed of boat + Speed of stream

Speed of upstream = Speed of boat - Speed of stream

Calculation:

⇒ The speed of boat = 20 - 4 = 16 km/hr

⇒ Time taken in downstream = 160/20 = 8 hours

⇒ Time taken in upstream = 96/(16 - 4) = 96/12 = 8 hours

⇒ The total time taken = 8 + 8 = 16 hours

∴ The required result will be 16 hours.

Given:

The selling price of the article = 864

The loss percentage of article = 28

Concept:

Loss% = {(Cost price - Selling price)/(Cost price)} × 100

Calculation:

Let be assume cost price of article is C

⇒ C × (100 - 28)/100 = 864

⇒ C = (864 × 100)/72 = 12 × 100 = 1200

⇒ The selling price at 20% profit = 1200 × (1 + 20/100) = 1200 × (6/5) = 1440

∴ The required result will be 1440.

Given:

The surface area of hemisphere = 4158 cm²

Concept:

The surface area of hemisphere = 3 × π × (The radius of the sphere)²

The volume of hemisphere = (2/3) × π × (The radius of the sphere)³

The volume of cylinder = π × (The radius of the cylinder)² × (The height of the cylinder)

Calculation:

Let be assume the radius of the hemisphere is R and N cylinder can be formed from the hemisphere

⇒ 4158 = 3 × (22/7) × R²

⇒ R = 21

⇒ The volume of hemisphere = (2/3) × (22/7) × (21)³ = 19404 cm³

⇒ 19404 = (22/7) × (7)² × 1 × (N)

⇒ N = 126

∴ The required result will be 126.

Given:

The amount invested in 2002 = 120

The amount invested in 2003 = 225

The amount invested in 2004 = 375

The amount invested in 2005 = 330

The amount invested in 2006 = 525

The sales in 2002 = 200

The sales in 2003 = 300

The sales in 2004 = 500

The sales in 2005 = 400

The sales in 2006 = 600

J1 = Average amount invested from 2002 to 2006

J2 = Average sales of goods from 2002 to 2006

J3 = Difference between the amount invested and value of sales in 2005

Concept:

The average = (The sum of all items)/(The total number of items)

Calculation:

⇒ J₁ = (120 + 225 + 375 + 330 + 525)/5 = 1575/5 = 315

⇒ J₂ = (200 + 300 + 500 + 400 + 600)/5 = 2000/5 = 400

⇒ J₃ = 400 - 330 = 70

⇒ J₂ - J₁ + J₃ = 400 - 315 + 70 = 155

∴ The required result will be 155.

Given:

The number = (9835 × 88A)

Concept:

The number is divisible by 15 if it is divisible by 3 and 5.

Calculation:

⇒ The number is (9835 × 88A) will be divisible by 5 because 9835 will be divisible by 5

⇒ The 88A will be divisible by 3 if the sum of digits will be divisible by 3

⇒ 8 + 8 + A = 16 + A

⇒ The possible value of A = 2, 5, 8

∴ The required result will be 2.

Given:

The number = 6500

Concept:

The gain marks % = {(The gain marks)/(The total marks)} × 100

Calculation:

⇒ (24/100) × (35/100) × 6500

⇒ 546

∴ The required result will be 546.

Given:

The profit percentage of P in 2016 = 5%

The profit percentage of Q in 2016 = 15%

Concept:

Net profit % = {(Income - Expenditure)/(Expenditure)} × 100

Calculation:

⇒ From statement l =  {(7250 - 45500)/(45500)} × 100 = -84.06% 

⇒ The statement l is the wrong

⇒ ll Let be assume income of P and Q is 16X and 15X respectively and expenditure is 4Y and 5Y respectively

⇒ From the statement, ll can not say anything 

∴ The required result will be "Neither I nor II".

Given:

The fractions = 7/11, 3/7, 11/17, 19/28

Concept:

If A is greater than B then A > B

Calculation:

⇒ 7/11 = 0.6363

⇒ 3/7 = 0.42

⇒ 11/17 = 0.64

⇒ 19/28 = 0.67

⇒ (19/28) > (11/17) > (7/11 ) > (3/7)

∴ The required result will be 19/28.

Given:

The sum of two numbers = 66

The difference of two numbers = 22

Concept:

If A and B are two numbers then the sum and difference of the number (A + B) and (A - B) respectively

Calculation:

Let be assume two numbers is A and B

⇒ A + B = 66 ... (1)

⇒ A - B = 22 .....(2)

By solving both equations,

⇒ A = 44 and B = 22

⇒ The required ratio = 44/22 = 2/1

∴ The required result will be 2/1.

$(\sqrt{(0.07)^2+(0.24)^2})\div 25$

$(\sqrt{(0.0049)+(0.0576})\div 25$

$(\sqrt{0.0625\div 625}$

$\sqrt{\frac{625}{625;\times ;10000}}$

= 1/100

= 0.01

Given:

The sum = 1200

The amount = 1560 

The time 3 years

Concept:

The simple interest = (Principle × Time × Rate)/100

Calculation:

Let be assume the rate of interest is R

⇒ 1560 - 1200 = (1200 × 3 × R)/100

⇒ 360 = 3600R/100

⇒ R = 10

⇒ In second condition let be assume time is T

⇒ 1120 - 800 = (800 × 10 × T)/100

⇒ 320 = 8000T/100

⇒ T = 4

∴ The required result will be 4.

Given:

The LCM of three numbers = 42

The HCF of three numbers = 7

Concept:

HCF is the highest common factor of some given numbers. When we divide the numbers by their HCF, the quotients will be prime to each other.

LCM = HCF × Product of the quotients after dividing the numbers by the HCF

Calculation:

⇒ The possible number is 7, 14, 21, and 42 where 42 can not fulfil the condition because number should be less than 42

⇒ So, the number is 7, 14, and 21

⇒ The product of these number  = 7 × 14 × 21 = 2058

∴ The required result will be 2058.

The formula LCM × HCF = Product of the numbers is only applicable in the case of two numbers.

When it comes to three or more numbers it will not work.

Given:

The P alone can complete the work = 12 days

The Q alone can complete the work = 18 days

The R alone can complete the work = 24 days

Concept:

Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

⇒ The efficiency of P, Q, and R is 1/12, 1/18, and 1/24 respectively

⇒ P work for 5 days = 5/12

⇒ Q work for 4 days = 4/18

⇒ R work for 6 days = 6/24 = 1/4

⇒ the ratio of their efficiency of P, Q, and R respectively  = 5/12 : 4/18 : 1/4 = 15 : 8 : 9

⇒ The share of Q = (8/32) × 32000 = 1000 × 8 = 8000

∴ The required result will be 8000.

Given:

The expression = 153 ÷ 17 × 8

Concept:

Calculation:

⇒ 153 ÷ 17 × 8

⇒ 9 × 8

⇒ 72

∴ The required result will be 72.

The correct answer is  'To cause commotion.'

Key Points

• To raise a dust: It is an idiomatic phrase that means to cause disruption, confusion, or turmoil.
• Example: The MP's resignation raised a dust of uncertainty within parliament about the future of the prime minister's agenda.
• Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Commotion: a sudden, short period of noise, confusion, or exciting movement

The correct answer is 'found'.

Key Points

• The context of the sentence is making this sentence an example of simple past tense.
• Simple past tense: It describes as the action started in past, finished in past and has no relation with the present.
• Structure: Subject+ the second form of verb.
• Example: He played chess.
• Thus, 'found' will be used in the blank.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'They found it difficult to read that book.'

The correct answer is 'SRPQ'.

Key Points

• Statement S will follow statement 1 as it mentions one of the goals of Stop TB partnership.
• Statement R will follow Statement S as it connects the awareness with tuberculosis which tells us the author is conveying that one of the goals is to raise awareness about tuberculosis.
• Statement P will follow statement R as it connects the adjective 'supporting' with its noun 'efforts'.
• Statement Q will be the last part.

Therefore, the correct sequence is SRPQ

• Sequence:
• The common goals of the Stop TB Partnership
• S: include raising global awareness
• R: of tuberculosis and supporting
• P: efforts aimed at preventing and
• Q: developing a cure for the disease

The correct answer is 'Transmission'.

Key Points

• Transmission: the action or process of transmitting something, or the state of being transmitted.
• Example: Broadband transmission has speeded up access to these sites.
• Thus, from above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'lunatic'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the given options:

 

• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that 'lunatic' will be used in the blank.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is  'A sudden and entirely unforeseen event​.'

Key Points

• Bolt from the blue: It is an idiomatic phrase that means something important or unusual that happens suddenly or unexpectedly.
• Example: The resignation of the chairman came like a bolt from the blue.
• Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'Reminiscence'.

Key Points

• Reminiscence: the act of remembering events and experiences from the past
• Example: The novel contains endless reminiscences of/about the author's youth.
• Thus, from above, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Indictment: a formal charge or accusation of a serious crime.
• Blockade: an act or means of sealing off a place to prevent goods or people from entering or leaving.
• Vengeance: punishment inflicted or retribution exacted for an injury or wrong.

The correct answer is 'in view of'.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the phrase.
• 'In regards to' needs to be replaced with 'in view of'.
• In regards to: In reference to; considering.
• Example: In regard to that proposal, I think we should postpone moving forward with it for the time being.
• In view of: because or as a result of.
• Example: The poor condition of libraries is of concern in view of the increased emphasis on reference work.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'The meeting had evoked curiosity in view of the recent panchayat.'

The correct answer is 'came to'.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the verb.
• 'comes to' needs to be replaced with 'came to'.
• Rule of parallelism: It states that if there are verbs that are given in the sentence and have the same subject, then the verbs will follow the same subject (subject-verb agreement) and the time and tense of each and every verb remains the same.
• Example: He gets up early and goes for a walk.
• Since the subject of the sentence is the same i.e. 'he', and it is followed by a simple past tense in the second part of the sentence, therefore, it will take simple past tense in first part of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Although he came to the event, he was as usual late.' 

Additional Information

• Simple past tense: It describes an action that is started in past, finished in past, and has no relation with the present.
• Structure: 
• Subject+ the second form of verb+ object.
• Example:
• He played tennis.
• Subject-verb agreement: It states that if the subject is singular then the verb will be singular and if the subject is plural then the verb will also be plural.
• Example:
• He is planning a trip to Mumbai.
• They are planning a trip to Mumbai.

The correct answer is 'Caution'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Warning: a statement or event that indicates a possible or impending danger, problem, or other unpleasant situation.
• Example: Completely without warning, he turned up at my door with all four children!
• Caution: advice or warning.
• Example: Just a word of caution - the cheaper models probably aren't worth buying.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Victim: a person harmed, injured, or killed as a result of a crime, accident, or other event or action.
• Example: The new drug might help save the lives of cancer victims.
• Accuse: charge (someone) with an offense or crime.
• Example: He's been accused of robbery/murder.
• Attention: notice taken of someone or something.
• Example: Ladies and gentlemen, could I have your attention, please?

The correct answer is 'SQRP'.

Key Points

• Statement S will follow will be first in sequence as it introduces the subject 'Wonder Woman'.
• Statement Q will follow Statement S as it mentions the appearance of Wonder woman on all merchandise.
• Statement R will follow statement Q as it mentions that along with merchandise wonder woman also has a presence in pop culture consciousness.
• Statement P will be the last part.

Therefore, the correct sequence is SPRQ

• Sequence:
• S: appealing to a vast demographic, Wonder Woman
• Q: has appeared on all manner of merchandise and
• R: has remained a presence in the pop culture consciousness in
• P: spite of sometimes anaemic comic book sales

The correct answer is 'other men in the city', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the usage of 'other' with a superlative degree.
• 'Other' is never used with a superlative degree in a sentence.
• Example: Sachin is the best of all the players.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'My son is the bravest of all men in the city.'

The correct answer is 'for the last assessment report in 2017', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of 'for'.
• 'For' needs to be replaced with 'since'.
• For: We use ‘for’ to talk about a period of time continuing up to the present. It is used with length of time (e.g. four years, two months, etc).
• Example: Ken has studied English for two months.
• Since: Since is used to give the starting point of actions or events that continue up to the moment of speaking. It is a point in time. (E.g. June, 1976, etc).
• Example: We haven't seen him since his birthday.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'India’s forest and tree cover has increased by nearly 4,000 sq km since the last assessment report in 2017. '

The correct answer is 'Comisson', i.e. it is a wrongly spelt word.

Key Points

• Comisson: It is a wrongly spelt word. The correct spelling is 'Commission'.
• Commission: a group of people officially charged with a particular function.
• Example: The government has set up/established a commission to investigate the problem of inner city violence.
• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Gathering: come together; assemble or accumulate.
• Example: There will be a gathering of world leaders in Vienna next month.
• Brightness: the quality or state of giving out or reflecting light.
• Example: The brightness of the snow made him blink.
• Assumption: a thing that is accepted as true or as certain to happen, without proof.
• Example: People tend to make assumptions about you when you have a disability.

The correct answer is 'Coexist'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Altercate: dispute or argue noisily and publicly.
• Example: This discussion is so silly we might as well altercate on how many angels can dance on the point of a needle
• Coexist: (of nations or peoples) exist in mutual tolerance despite different ideologies or interests.
• Example: The two communities coexist peacefully.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Concurrent: existing or happening at the same time
• Example: The judge imposed concurrent sentences totaling 14 years for the attacks on the girls.
• Contend: to compete in order to win something.
• Example: There are three world-class tennis players contending for this title.
• Nitpick: to find faults in details that are not important.
• Example: You're always nitpicking - it's so annoying!

The correct answer is 'Labour Force'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• The Index measures the extent of gender-based gaps on four key parameters-economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.
• Thus, from above we can conclude that the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'The condition of women in India is at a risk.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• Despite a small score improvement, India has lost four positions as some countries ranked lower than India have shown better improvement. The country has reportedly closed two-thirds of its overall gender gap, with a score of 66.8 percent, but the report notes with concern that the condition of women in large fringes of Indian society is ‘precarious’.
• Thus, from above, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'Mind the gap: On Gender gap.'

• The title of the passage should express the main idea of the passage.
• The passage as a whole focuses on the Gender gap.
• The other choices address more specific ideas expressed in the passage but are not its main idea.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Unwary'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Alarming: worrying or disturbing.
• Example: The rainforest is disappearing at an alarming rate.
• Unwary: not cautious; not aware of possible dangers or problems.
• Example: Such conditions led to areas of swamp which were a natural trap for unwary animals which ventured to the river to drink.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 'Neither I nor II'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• The participation of women in the labour force is also among the lowest in the world, and the female estimated earned income is only one-fifth of male income.
• According to the question we need to find the incorrect statements hence both the statements are correct So the correct answer is Option 2.

निम्नलिखित शब्द युग्मो में 'काम - बाम' सही शब्द युग्म नही है।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प:

• भलाई - बुराई का अर्थ अच्छा करना या बुरे करने से है।
• सुख - दुःख - मानव मन के अनुकूल व्यवहार को सुख और प्रतिकूल को दुःख कहा जाता है।
• पाया - खोया - प्राप्त करना और प्र्राप्त हुआ जो है उसे खो देना।

दिए गए विकल्पों में से ‘सुन्दर’ शब्द गुणवाचक विशेषण  है। अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत है।

• सुन्दर = गुणवाचक विशेषण
• 'वह सुन्दर लड़का है।

Additional Information

Important Points

अन्य विकल्प:

• आठ - यह एक संख्यावाची विशेषण है।
• कोई - यह अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम है।
• यह - सार्वनामिक विशेषण शब्द है।

बच्चे रो रहे हैं। यह अकर्मक क्रिया का उदाहरण है

• रोना = अकर्मक क्रिया
• अकर्मक क्रिया में कर्म की आवश्यकता नहीं होती।

Key Points

Additional Information

कविकी’, ‘कवियत्री ’ निरर्थक शब्द हैं, इसके अतिरिक्त ‘कवयित्री’ शब्द ‘कवि’ का स्त्रीलिंग है। अतः इस आधार पर हम कह सकते हैं कि सही विकल्प कवयित्री है।

Key Points

विशेष -

'जो व्यक्ति बूढ़ा है उसे दवा पिला दो। शेष विकल्प असंगत हैं। अतः सही विकल्प 1 -‘जो व्यक्ति बूढ़ा है उसे दवा पिला दो।’ है।

Key Points

• 'जो व्यक्ति बूढ़ा है उसे दवा पिला दो।' मिश्र वाक्‍य है क्योंकि इसमें एक प्रधान और एक आश्रित वाक्य है।
• मिश्र वाक्य में एक से अधिक वाक्य मिले हों, किन्तु एक प्रधान उपवाक्य तथा शेष आश्रित उपवाक्य होते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प–

1. बूढे व्यक्ति को दवा पिला दो। - सरल वाक्य
2. व्यक्ति बूढ़ा है, अतः उसे दवा पिला दो।- संयुक्त वाक्य
3. व्यक्ति बूढ़ा है इसलिए उसे दवा पिला दो।  - संयुक्त वाक्य

Additional Information

'रेलवे के कई कर्मचारियों की गिरफ्तारी हुई।' इस वाक्य में वाक्य का क्रम शुद्ध एवं सटीक व्याकरण से युक्त है। अन्य विकल्पों में क्रम व्यवस्थापन में गलतियाँ है। 

Key Points

अन्य विशेष वाक्यों के उदाहरण:

Important Points

दिए गए सभी विकल्पों में ‘​ममत्व’ शब्द में ‘​त्व’ प्रत्यय का योग है, अतः यह 'अ' प्रत्यय से बना हुआ शब्द नही है। 

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प:

• वासुदेव - वसुदेव + अ
• राघव - रघु + अ
• लाघव - लघु + अ

Additional Information

'को' और 'के लिए' संप्रदान कारक के चिन्ह है।

Key Points

Additional Information

• कारक के आठ भेद होते हैं- कर्म कारक, कर्ता कारक, सम्बन्ध कारक, अधिकरण कारक, संबोधन कारक, आपदान कारक, सम्प्रदान कारक, करण कारक।
• जो शब्द क्रिया के साथ सम्बन्ध प्रकट करते हैं वे कारक कहलाते अथवा कारक चिन्हों को परसर्ग या विभक्ति कहते हैं।