DSSSB TGT CS 7 Aug 2021 Shift 2 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Palace is a large house that is or was the home of a king or queen.

Similarly;

Stables are a place or a building where horses are kept.

Hence, "Horse" is the correct answer.

A big solid cube is cut into small cubes.

If 4 cuts are made on each axis then the total cubes made from each edge is 5.

Now the total number of cubes = 53 = 125

The number of cubes will have one face painted with blue colour and one face painted with yellow colour are the cubes which are on the combined faces of blue and yellow coloured at the edges = 5 + 5 = 10

Hence, "10" is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

For a cube of side nnn painted on all sides which is uniformly cut into smaller cubes of dimension 111,

Number of cubes with 0 side painted = (n-2) ^3

Number of cubes with 1 side painted =6(n - 2) ^2

Number of cubes with 2 sides painted= 12(n-2)

Number of cubes with 3 sides painted= 8(always)

According to the question,

Statement 1: The total number of odd is 10.

As shown here, figures which total number of odd is (2 + 3 + 6) =  11

Hence, Statement 1 is False.

Statement 2: The number of an even which is not a letter is 10.

 

As shown, The figure which number of an even which is not a letter is (8 + 2) = 10

Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Now we have to answer the incorrect statements.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

Five person: P1, P2, P3, P4, and P5. 

Occupation: D1, D2, D3, D4, and D5.

Transport: T1, T2, T3, T4, and T5.

1. P2's business is D1. P4 uses T2.

2. P3's business is not D4 or D5.

3. P5 does not uses, T3 or T5.

4. Persons having business D4 and D2 use T5 and T3 transport respectively.

5. The person whose business is D3 does not use T1 or T4.

As T1 and T4 are not confirmed.

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

The correct order of the given words is:

1. Aaerstd
2. Aaersted
3. Acgledhi
4. Acgledih
5. Amquarine

Hence, the correct answer is "12453".

Additional Information

1. First of all, check the common letter in all. 
2. Arrange them according to the alphabet they come first. 
3. When common letters are arranged, then go for the rest.

The  red are neither green nor rectangle is "4".

Hence, "4" is the correct answer.

White, Yellow, and Green are the names of the colour.

While;

Alloy is not the colour.

Hence, "Alloy" is the correct answer.

Important PointsAlloy: A metal made by mixing two types of metal together.

Name of Alloys:

• Chromium.
• Molybdenum.
• Vanadium.
• Manganese.
• Nickel.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

LOGIC: Sum of positional values of letter + 1

In RACER →

R = 18

A = 1

C = 3

E = 5 

R = 18

RACER = (18 + 1 + 3 + 5 + 18) + 1 = 46

In USAGE →

U = 21

S = 19

A = 1

G = 7

E = 5

USAGE = (21 + 19 + 1 + 7 + 5) + 1 = 54

In ESSAY →

E = 5

S = 19

A = 1

Y = 25 

ESSAY = (5 + 19 + 19 + 1 + 25) + 1 = 70

Hence, "70" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below,

Conclusions:

I. Some lands are garden → True (As Some gardens are land. So, Some land are gardens are definitely true)

II. Some lands are field → False (As No field is land. So, Some lands are field is not true)

Hence, Only conclusion I follows.

Additional Information 

Directions are represented in the diagram:-

New Direction diagram:-

Hence, "North-East" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below,

Conclusions:

I. All S are B → False (As All B are S. Then All S can't be B)

II. Some S are B → True (As All B are S, then Some S are definitely B)

III. All K are B → False (As No S is K. then All K are B is not true)

Hence, Only conclusion II follows

Additional Information

As per the given information;

Distance between Start point and End point = √(24² + 7²)

= √625

= 25 m

Hence, "25 m, south-west" is the correct answer.

The faces opposite to each other is shown below:

The opposite sides are:

1) 

 → This cube cannot be formed as 

 and 

 faces is opposite faces and no two opposite faces can appear together on the same dice.

2) 

 → This cube cannot be formed as 

 and 

 faces is opposite faces and no two opposite faces can appear together on the same dice.

3) 

 → This cube cannot be formed as 

 and 

 faces is opposite faces and no two opposite faces can appear together on the same dice.

4) 

 → This cube cannot be formed as 

 and 

 faces is opposite faces and no two opposite faces can appear together on the same dice.

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

8 cylinders: C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6, C7, and C8

Important Points

• Given question: Which of the following sequence is not possible?
• This means that there are 3 correct or possible sequences; we have to identify the incorrect sequence out of the four options.

1. Either C1 or C7 is the minimum area.

C1/C7 (Minimum)

2. The area of C4 is greater than that of C1 but less than that of C5.

C1 < C4 < C5

3. The area of C6 is less than only C3 and C2.

This implies the area of C6 is greater than the remaining ones.

C1, C2, C4, C5, C7, C8 < C6 < C3, C2

4. The area of C5 is less than that of C7 and C8.

C5 < C7, C8

This implies that C1 is the minimum.

After combining:

C1 < C4 < C5 < C7, C8 < C6 < C2, C3

This gives us the following possible arrangements:

1. C1 < C4 < C5 < C8 < C7 < C6 < C2 < C3 - this is same as option 2

2. C1 < C4 < C5 < C7 < C8 < C6 < C2 < C3 - this is same as option 3

3. C1 < C4 < C5 < C8 < C7 < C6 < C3 < C2 - this is not same as option 4

4. C1 < C4 < C5 < C7 < C8 < C6 < C3 < C2 - this is same as option 1

Therefore, the arrangement in option (4) is not possible.

Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.

The pattern follows here is;

Movement of A:

Movement of J:

Movement of T:

Correct movement of T is:

Movement of R:

Correct movement of R:

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

Similarly;

Hence, "DWBO : FSNU" is the correct answer.

The logic followed is:

Decoding the information, 

 

Checking options one by one;

1) Given the equation: 5D14C28A12 = (–2)

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

5 × 14 ÷ 28 + 12

= 5 × 0.5 + 12

= 2.5 + 12

= 14.5 ≠ - 2

2) Given the equation: 22D2C4A11 = 33

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

22 × 2 ÷ 4 + 11

= 22 × 0.5 + 11

= 11 + 11

= 22 ≠ 33

3) Given the equation: 56C28D17B36 = (–2)

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

56 ÷ 28 × 17 - 36

= 2 × 17 - 36

= 34 - 36

= - 2

4) Given the equation:14D2B18A19 = 6

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

14 × 2 - 18 + 19

= 28 - 18 + 19

= 47 - 18

= 29 ≠ 6

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

The pattern follows here is;

Hence, "752" is the correct answer.

Eight players: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

1. G sits fourth to the right of A.

2. D sits second to the left of A.

3. E sits second to the right of C.

4. C is not an immediate neighbor of G or D.

5. B sits second to the right of F.

Hence, F is third to the right of H.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this is as follows;

Hence, "FOMHEH" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is I and II Both.

Key Points

• India competed at the 2016 Summer Olympics in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from 5 to 21 August 2016.
• P V Sindhu won the Silver Medal at the summer Olympics of 2016 in Women's Singles Badminton.
• Sakshi Malik won a bronze medal in Wrestling at the 2016 summer Olympics

Important Points 

Tokyo 2020 Olympics:

• The 2020 summer Olympics is an international sports event that will be held from 23 July to 8 August 2021, in the city of Tokyo, Japan.
• As the name suggests, this summer Olympics were originally intended to be held from 24 July to 9 August 2020, but due to the ongoing Covid-19 Pandemic, Tokyo 2020 Olympics was postponed.
• Total 7 medals won by India with one Gold medal in Javelin Throw by Neeraj Chopra.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

Bhaichung Bhutia:

• Baichung Bhutia is a former Indian professional footballer who played as a striker.
• He is often nicknamed the Sikkimese Sniper because of his shooting skills in football.
• He is also India's second-youngest international goal scorer after Jerry Zirsanga when he scored his first goal against Uzbekistan in the 1995 Nehru cup at the age of 18 years 90 days.
• In August 2011, Bhutia announced his retirement from international football.
• He has a football stadium named after him in honour of his contribution to Indian football has also won many awards, such as the Arjuna Award and the Padma Shri.

**Rupinder Pal Singh:**​

• Rupinder Pal Singh is a professional field hockey player.
• He currently represents India in the Indian Hockey Team.
• He plays as a fullback and is known for his abilities as one of the best drag flickers in the world.
• He represented India in the 2014 Commonwealth Games at Glasgow, 2014 Asian Games at Incheon, 2016 Olympic Games held at Rio de Janeiro, and at the 2018 Commonwealth Games, held at Gold Coast, Australia.
• He was part of the Indian hockey team that won a Bronze medal at the 2020 Olympic Games in Tokyo.

The correct answer is Skin.

Key Points

• Earthworms breathe through their skin.
• The air can pass easily through their skin which makes it moist & slimly.
• Small blood capillaries are present in the moist skin region where the exchange of gases occurs.
• The oxygen gets picked by the dissolved hemoglobin, and the carbon dioxide is removed from the body.

Additional Information

• Different organisms use different organs for breathing.
• Fishes breathe through the gills, Earthworm uses their moist skin, Amphibians, Reptiles & Mammals breathe using vascularised bags called the lungs.
• Cockroaches & other insects breathe through the spiracles.

The correct answer is 66 mm × 135 mm.

Key Points

• Fluorescent blue, the new notes bear the picture of the iconic stone chariot at Hampi, Karnataka, on the reverse.
• The size of the new note is 66 mm x 135 mm.

Important Points 

• The new banknotes were introduced in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series, highlighting the cultural heritage and scientific achievements of the country.
• Distinct colors were used for the different denominations and size was reduced.
• Two new denominations viz. ₹ 2000 on November 08, 2016, and ₹ 200 on August 23, 2017, were introduced in the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series.
• For More Information regarding the new currency visit RBI official site click here.

The correct answer is Supply of Money.

Key Points

• The money supply is the total amount of money (Currency + Deposit money) present in an economy at a particular point in time.
• Money Supply is also known as Money Stock.

 

Important Points

• Money Supply is measured and expressed using different monetary aggregates like M1, M2, M3, M4 etc.
• RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3, and M4.
• M1 = CU + DD
• M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
• M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
• M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates)
• CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
• The word ‘net’ implies that only deposits of the public held by the banks are to be included in the money supply.
• The interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks, are not to be regarded as part of the money supply.
• M1 and M2 are known as narrow money.
• M3 and M4 are known as broad money.
• These gradations are in decreasing order of liquidity.
• M1 is the most liquid and easiest for transactions whereas M4 is the least liquid of all.
• M3 is the most commonly used measure of the money supply.
• It is also known as aggregate monetary resources.

 

Confusion Points

• It needs to be noted that the total stock of money is different from the total supply of money.
• Supply of money is only that part of the total stock of money that is held by the public at a particular point of time.

The correct answer is would have been the same.

Key Points

Different positions of the object and their image by a concave mirror: 

​

Important Points

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• President Ram Nath Kovind has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards, including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the award is counted as one) for the year 2021.
• The list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and 102 Padma Shri Awards.
• The Padma awardees includes 29 women.
• 10 persons are from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI.
• The list includes 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee.

 

Important Points

List of Padma Awardees 2021

The correct answer is 1917.

Key Points

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi.
• The Satyagraha made as the farmers were forced to grow indigo without any payment for it.
• The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was the third Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi.
• This movement to support workers of the Kheda district who were unable to pay the high taxes imposed by the British due to crop failure.
• Mahatma Gandhi organized the satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers at Ahmedabad in the year 1918.
• The cotton mill workers demanded a 50% wage hike but the Mill Owners were willing to give only a 20% wage hike, to support the Cotton mill workers Gandhiji made a hunger strike.
• The result of the Satyagraha was that the strike was successful and the workers got a 35% wage increase.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi died January 30, 1948, in Delhi, and the day is celebrated as Shaheed Diwas or Martyrs' Day.
• His autobiography is titled My Experiments with Truth.
• Important movements led by Mahatma Gandhi:
• ​Champaran Movement (1917)
• Kheda Movement (1918)
• Khilafat Movement (1919)
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920)
• Civil Disobedience Movement: Dandi March (1930)
• Quit India Movement (1942)

The correct answer is 292.

Key Points

• Article 292- States about the Borrowing by the government of India.
• Provisions of Borrowings under Constitution
• Borrowing by Centre and the States: Chapter II in Part XII of the Constitution of India deals with borrowing. Article 292 covers borrowing by the Central Government, and Article 293 covers borrowing by States.
• Empowering State Legislatures: Article 293(1) provides State legislatures with the power by law to enable or limit the State’s executive powers of borrowing and giving guarantees.
• Consent of the Centre: Under clauses (3) and (4) of Article 293, State Governments need to obtain the consent of the Centre for raising fresh loans in case they are indebted to the latter, and such consent may be granted subject to conditions.

Additional Information

• Article 326: States about the Election to the hose of the people and to the legislative assembly of the state to be on the base of adult suffrage.
• Article 218: States abut the Application of certain provisions related to the Supreme Court to the high court.
• Article 246: States about the Subjugation matter of laws made by parliament and by the legislature of states.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of sediment by rivers and streams. They are found in floodplains and deltas and are among the most fertile soils in the world.

 

Key Points 

(Option 1: Bangar - New Alluvium): Bangar refers to older alluvial deposits, typically found at higher elevations, while New Alluvium refers to younger alluvial deposits found in the floodplains of rivers. Therefore, this option is wrong.

 

(Option 2: Quarry - Old Alluvial): Quarries are not a type of alluvial soil. They are excavations made in the ground to extract rock or minerals. This option is wrong.

 

Therefore, neither option I nor option II is correct.

Additional Information 

Alluvial soils are classified into two main types:

 

Khadar: These are the newer alluvial soils found in the floodplains of rivers. They are lighter in color and texture and are more fertile than the Bangar soils.

Bangar: These are the older alluvial soils found on the higher terraces of rivers. They are darker in color and heavier in texture and are less fertile than the Khadar soils.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Mountain Forests:
• Montane forests are those found in mountains.
• Mountain forests differ significantly along the slopes of the mountain.
• On the foothills of the Himalayas until a height of 1500 meters, evergreen trees like Sal, teak, and bamboo grow copiously.
• On the higher slope, temperate conifer trees like pine, fir, and oak grow.
• At the higher elevation of the Himalayas, rhododendrons and junipers are found.
• Further, then these vegetation zones, alpine grasslands appear up to the snowfield.​
• Plam Trees are not found in Mountain Forests.

The correct answer is Nomadland.

Key Points

• Nomadland movie was won the best picture award at the 93^rd Oscar award ceremony.
• Nomadland won most honors with three awards:
• Best Picture: Nomadland
• Best Director: Chloe Zhao (for Nomadland movie)
• Best Actress: Frances McDormand (for Nomadland movie)
• The Oscar award is also known as Academy Award.
• The 93^rd Oscar award ceremony took place in Los Angeles on April 25, 2021.
• The award is presented annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS).
• Best Actor award won by Anthony Hopkins for the movie The Father.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Chhau Dance:
• ​Chhau dance is a traditional dance form performed by men from Eastern India that enacts episodes from epics including Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• The main objective of this dance form is to celebrate martial arts.
• Chhau dance can be classified into three divisions based on the place it is performed; Mayurbhanj Chau of Odisha, Seraikella Chau of Jharkhand, and Purulia Chau of Bengal.
• Chhau dance is intimately connected to regional festivals, notably the spring festival Chaitra Parva.
• While the performers wear amazing masks in Jharkhand and Bengal, the dancers in Odisha don’t necessarily wear one while performing.
• Music flows in the form of percussion instruments like ‘Dhol’, ‘Nagara’ and wind instruments like ‘Shehnai’.
• In 2010 UNESCO inscribed Chhau in the representative list of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
• Sangeet Natak Academy (India’s National Academy) recognizes only eight classical dances of India, however, the Ministry of Culture also considers Chhau Dance as a classical dance of India, making the total number of classical dances in India as nine.​
• Sattriya Dance:
• ​The Sattriya dance form was introduced in the 15^th century A.D by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankaradeva as a powerful medium for the propagation of the Vaishnava faith.
• This neo-Vaishnava treasure of Assamese dance and drama has been, for centuries, nurtured and preserved with great commitment by the Sattras i.e. Vaishnava maths or monasteries.
• Because of its religious character and association with the Sattras, this dance style has been aptly named Sattriya.
• Sattriya was recognised as a classical dance form by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Prokaryotic cells:
• Organisms that lack a membrane-bound nucleus are called prokaryotes.
• A prokaryotic cell does not contain a well-defined nucleus.
• The genetic material is present on a single chromosome.
• All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane except in mycoplasma.
• The nucleolus is absent in prokaryotic cells.
• The fluid matrix filling the prokaryotic cell is the cytoplasm.
• Membrane-bound cell organelles are absent in prokaryotes.
• In prokaryotes, cell division takes place by fission or budding.
• Blue-green algae, bacteria, and mycoplasma are examples of prokaryotes.
• Eukaryotic Cells:
• Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus enclosed within the nuclear membrane and form large and complex organisms.
• They can maintain different environments in a single cell that allows them to carry out various metabolic reactions.
• This helps them grow many times larger than the prokaryotic cells.
• Since eukaryotic cells typically have multiple linear chromosomes, capped with telomeres, eukaryotic DNA replication and cell division (mitosis and meiosis) are a bit more complicated.
• Protozoa, fungi, plants, and animals all have eukaryotic cells.

The correct answer is Malaria.

Key Points

• The WHO has identified 25 countries with the potential to eradicate malaria by 2025 under its ‘E-2025 Initiative’.
• The countries were selected based on 4 criteria. They were as follows:
• Establishment of Government-endorsed elimination plan
• The country should have met the threshold of malaria case reductions in recent years
• The country should have the capacity for malaria surveillance
• It should have been selected by the WHO Malaria Elimination Oversight Committee
• These 25 countries will have to work by responding to the dual threat of malaria and the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19).
• The WHO will provide specialised support and technical guidance to these countries under the initiative so that they are able to eliminate malaria by 2025.
• The report, titled Zeroing in on malaria elimination, was released by WHO April 21, 2021 ahead of World Malaria Day April 25.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• The 73^rd amendment in 1992 added a new eleventh schedule to the Indian constitution:
• The eleventh schedule specifies the power, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• Twenty-nine subjects are listed in the eleventh schedule of the Constitution.
• These subjects are to be transferred to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
• The 73^rd amendment act is also called the "Panchayati Raj Act".
• The 73^rd amendment act has added a new Part IX to the constitution of India.
• It consists of provisions from article 243 to 243 O.

Important Points

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Westerlies:
• These are prevailing winds that flow from the west towards the east.
• They flow in the Earth’s middle latitudes, Between 30 and 60 degrees latitude.
• They originate from the high-pressure areas in the horse latitudes and trend towards the poles and steer extratropical cyclones in this general manner.
• They are also called anti-trade winds.
• Local winds:
• These blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area. For example, land and sea breeze.
• Loo is the hot and dry local wind of northern planes of India.
• 

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• Humayun's tomb:
• Humayun's tomb is located in Delhi.
• Humayun’s Tomb was built in the 1560s, with the patronage of Humayun’s son, the great Emperor Akbar.
• it was the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent.
• It inspired several major architectural innovations, culminating in the construction of the Taj Mahal.
• Humayun's Tomb, Delhi is the earliest example of the double dome in Mughal Architecture.
• The double or 'double-layered dome, has its outer layer which supports the white marble exterior, while the inner part gives shape to the cavernous interior volume.
• It was designed by the architect Mirak Mirza Ghiyath.
• It includes other contemporary, 16^th-century Mughal garden-tombs such as Nila Gumbad, Isa Khan, Bu Halima, Afsarwala, Barber’s Tomb and the complex where the craftsmen employed for the Building of Humayun’s Tomb stayed, the Arab Serai.
• Humayun’s garden-tomb is also called the ‘dormitory of the Mughals’ as in the cells are buried over 150 Mughal family members.

 

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Magadha became the most important Mahajana Pada in about two hundred years.
• The Ganga and Son Rivers flowed through Magadha.
• Magadha empire was established on the bank of river Ganges and was bounded to the river Son on the west.
• Magadha was an ancient Indian kingdom in Bihar.
• The First capital of Magadha was Rajagriha**.**
• The first ruling dynasty of Magadha was the Haryak dynasty.
• Bimbasar ruled Magadha Empire for almost 52 years.
• Magadha finds mention in the Atharva Veda which conveys that Magadha was semi-Brahmanical habitation.
• Later, Magadha became a centre of Jainism and the first Buddhist Council was held in Rajagriha.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Civil Disobedience Movement: 
• The movement started with the breaking of the salt law at Dandi in March 1930.
• The Dandi March started from Gandhiji's ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
• The movement was called off in the year 1931, and Gandhiji decided to enter into the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
• The terms of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact included calling off of the movement, releasing all prisoners, and manufacturing salt along the coast.
• The failure of the Second Round Table and the new repression cycle adopted by the British led to the relaunching of the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1932.
• When Gandhiji returned to India, Nehru, and Ghaffar Khan both were in jail, Congress was declared illegal, etc.
• Thus, Gandhiji decided to relaunch the movement in 1932. But, it lost its momentum in 1934.
• The Khilafat Committee on August 31, 1921, launched a campaign of non-cooperation.
• his led to the official launch of the Khilafat movement as well.
• The adoption by the Congress of the non-cooperation movement initiated, earlier by the Khilafat Committee gave it new energy, and the years 1921 and 1922 saw an unprecedented popular upsurge.

 Important Points

• The Non-Cooperation Movement(1920-22):
• The movement was launched formally on 1 August 1920 by Gandhiji.
• He announced his plan to begin Non-Cooperation with the government as a sequel to the Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat Movement.
• At a special session in Calcutta, Congress approved a non-cooperation programme headed by CR Das till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and swaraj was established.
• Before it could be launched a mob of people at Chauri Chaura clashed with the police and burnt 22 policemen on 5 February 1922.
• Khilafat Movement:
• The movement was started as an agitation by the Indian Muslims against the treatment accorded to the Ottoman Empire after World War I
• The Khilafat Movement begins in 1919 under the leadership of the Ali brothers; Maulana Muhammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
• By the mid-1920s, the Khilafat leaders joined hands with Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement.

Given:

Time = 5 years

Formula used:

I = (P × R × T)/100    (Where I = Simple interest, P = Principle, R = Rate, and T = Time)

Calculation:

Let be assume the rate of interest is R and the principle is X

⇒ The simple interest = 5X/2 - X = 3X/2

⇒ 3X/2 = (X × R × 5)/100

⇒ (1.5) × 100 = 5R

⇒ R = 150/5 = 30%

∴ The required result will be 30%.

Given:

The ratio of the three numbers = 7 : 6 : 5

Sum of all three numbers = 324

Calculation:

Let the required number be 7x, 6x and 5x respectively,

According to the question,

⇒ 7x + 6x + 5x = 324

⇒ 18x = 324

⇒ x = 18

The value of 7x = 7 × 18 = 126

The value of 6x = 6 × 18 = 108

The value of 5x = 5 × 18 = 90

∴ The largest number among the three numbers is 126.

Calculation:

Let the required number be x

According to the question,

x = 600 × (45/100) × (80/100)

⇒ x = 216

∴ The required number is 216.

Given:

15% of marked price (MP) = 18% of selling price (SP)

Concept:

Discount = MP - SP

Where MP = Marked Price,

SP = Selling Price

The discount percentage is always calculated on the base as mp

Solution:

Let the MP of the item be 100

Then, according to the question:

⇒ 15 = $\dfrac{18SP}{100}$

⇒ SP = 83.33

⇒ Discount = 100 - 83.33 = 16.66

Since, MP was 100

∴ Discount percentage = $\dfrac{16.66}{100}$ × 100 = 16.66%

Given:

Some expression

Calculation:

⇒ $\sqrt [3]{2} > \sqrt [6]{3} > \sqrt [18]{12} > \sqrt [9]{4}$

⇒ 1.25 > 1.20 > 1.14 > 1.16

⇒ Hence, this expression is wrong

⇒ $\sqrt [3]{2} > \sqrt [6]{3} > \sqrt [9]{4} > \sqrt [18]{12}$

⇒ 1.25 > 1.20 > 1.16 > 1.14

⇒ Hence, this expression is correct and the remaining is wrong

∴ The required result will be "$\sqrt [3]{2} > \sqrt [6]{3} > \sqrt [9]{4} > \sqrt [18]{12}$".

Alternate Method1^st option

$\sqrt [3]{2} > \sqrt [6]{3} > \sqrt [18]{12} > \sqrt [9]{4}$

this can also be written as

${2^{\frac{1}{3}}} > {3^{\frac{1}{6}}} > {12^{\frac{1}{{18}}}} > {4^{\frac{1}{9}}}$

taking power by the number which is divisible by all the number present at denominator

Here it is 18. 

${\left( {{2^{\frac{1}{3}}}} \right)^{18}} > {\left( {{3^{\frac{1}{6}}}} \right)^{18}} > {\left( {{{12}^{\frac{1}{{18}}}}} \right)^{18}} > {\left( {{4^{\frac{1}{9}}}} \right)^{18}}$

${2^6} > {3^3} > {12^1} > {4^2}$

$64 > 27 > 12 > 16$

So 1^st expression is incorrect.

Similarly,

2^nd expression, 64> 27>16 > 12 which is correct.

Given:

The numbers = 8, 12, and K

Concept:

LCM = The product of highest power of all prime factor of numbers

Calculation:

⇒ 8 = 2³

⇒ 12 = 2² × 3

⇒ K = ?

⇒ K × 1 = 144

⇒ K = 144

∴ The required result will be 144.

Hint

According to question,

LCM is 144

At first cleared your doubt we have to check, options one by one

Option:(1)

8, 12 , 48 (Lcm is 48 but according to question LCM is 144, so 48 is not correct answer.)

Option:(2)

8, 12 , 18 (Lcm is 72 but according to question LCM is 144, so 18 is not correct answer.)

Option:(3)

8, 12 , 12 (Lcm is 24 but according to question LCM is 144, so 12 is not correct answer.)

Option:(4)

8, 12 , 144 (Lcm is 144 and according to question LCM is 144, so 144 is correct answer.)

Given:

Selling of product B and C in 2001 respectively = 5.95 and 4.25 (In lakh)

Selling of product A and E in 2001 respectively = 18.5 and 7.5 (In lakh)

Selling of product C in 2001 and D in 2005 respectively = 4.25 and 29.75 (In lakh)

Formula used:

The gain marks percentage = {(The gain marks)/(The total number of marks)} × 100

Calculation:

For statement l

⇒ The required percentage = {(5.95 - 4.25)/4.25} × 100 = (1.7/4.25) × 100 = (0.4) × 100 = 40%

⇒ Hence, this statement is wrong

For statement ll

⇒ The required percentage = {(18.5 - 7.5)/7.5} × 100 = (11/7.5) × 100 = (1.4666) × 100 = 146.66%

⇒ Hence, statement ll is correct 

For statement lll

⇒ The required ratio = 4.25/29.75 = 1/7

⇒ Hence, statement lll is correct

∴ The required result will be "Only ll and lll".

Given:

J1 = Average runs scored by all five batsmen.

J2 = Difference between runs scored by E and D.

J3 = Difference between runs scored by C and B.

Formula used:

The average = (The of total items)/(The number of items)

Calculation:

J1 = Run scored by (A + B + C +D + E)/5

⇒ (95 + 105 + 135 + 75 + 145)/5

⇒ 555/5

⇒ 111

J2 = Difference between runs scored by E and D which is 145 - 75 = 70

J3 = Difference between runs scored by C and B which is 135 - 105 = 30

So the value of (J3 – J2 + J1)

⇒ 30 - 70 + 111

⇒ 71

∴ option D is correct.

Given:

The expression = 58579A

Concept:

If a number is divisible by 36, it should be divisible by both (3 × 3) and 4.

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of digits of the number is divisible by 3

Calculation:

⇒ 58579A

⇒ 5 + 8 + 5 + 7 + 9 + A = 34 + A

⇒ The possible value of A = 2, 

⇒ 34 + 2 = 36     (Which is divisible by both 9 and 4)

∴ The required result will be 2.

Given:

The loss % = 17%

The selling price = 1992

Formula used:

L% = {(CP - SP)/CP} × 100      (Where L = Loss, CP = Cost price and SP = Selling price)

Calculation:

Let's assume the cost price of the article to be X

⇒ X × {(100 - 17)/100} = 1992

⇒ 83X = 199200

⇒ X = 199200/83 = 2400

⇒ New selling price = 2760

⇒ The profit = 2760 - 2400 = 360

⇒ The profit % = (360/2400) × 100 = 15%

∴ The required result will be 15%.

Given:

The radius of the hemisphere = 12 cm

The base radius of the cone = 12 cm

Concept:

When we reshape a solid in another solid then the volume will be the same

Formula used:

The volume of the hemisphere = (2/3) × (π) × (r)³    (Where r = Radius of the hemisphere)

The volume of the cone = (1/3) × (π × r² × h)          (Where r = Radius of the cone, h = Height of the cone)

Calculation:

Let be assume the height of the cone is h

⇒ The volume of the hemisphere = (2/3) × (π) × (12)³

⇒ The volume of the cone = {(1/3) × π × (12)2 × h}   

⇒ (2/3) × (π) × (12)³ = {(1/3) × π × (12)2 × h}   

⇒ h  = 12 × 2 = 24 cm

∴ The required result will be 24 cm.

Given:

The per cent of the population in M = 32% of the total

The percentage of the population in N = 16% of the total

The percentage of the population in O = 14% of the total

The percentage of the population in P = 8% of the total

Concept:

1% = 225000/100 = 2250

Formula used:

Average = (The sum of all item)/(Total number of items)

Calculation:

⇒ J1 = (16 + 14) × 2250 = 30 × 2250 = 67500

⇒ J2 = (32 - 16) × 2250 = 16 × 2250 = 36000

⇒ J3 = {(32 + 16 + 14 + 8)/4} × 2250 = (70/4) × 2250 = 17.5 × 2250 = 39375

⇒ J1 + J2 + J3 = 67500 + 36000 + 39375 = 142875

∴ The required result will be 142875.

Concept:

Calculation:

10 ÷ 5(4 – 2) × 6

⇒ 10 ÷ 5(2) × 6

⇒ 1 × 6 = 6

∴ The value of 10 ÷ 5(4 – 2) × 6 is 6.

Given:

The length of the trains = 220 m

Formula used:

S = D/T

Where S = Speed, D = Distance and T = Time)

Calculation:

Let be assume speed of second train is S

⇒ The speed of the first train = 220/11 = 20 m/s

⇒ Train cross each other = 8 second

⇒ 8 = (220 + 220)/(20 + S)

⇒ (20 × 8) + 8S = 440

⇒ 160 + 8S = 440

⇒ 8S = 440 - 160 = 280

⇒ 8S = 280

⇒ S = 280/8 = 35 m/s

∴ The required result will be 35 m/s.

Given:

Four rings well at interval respectively = 5, 10, 12, and 15

Concept:

LCM = The smallest positive number that is multiple of two or more number

Calculation:

The bell ring together again = LCM of (5, 10, 12, 15) = 60 minutes = 1 hours

⇒ The bell will ring in 18 hours = 1 × 18 = 18 times

∴ The required result will be "1 hour, 18 times".

Given:

Time is taken by train 1 to move from A to B = 6 hours

Time is taken by train 2 to move from B to A = 8 hours

Formula used:

S = D/T

(Where S = Speed, D = Distance, and T = Time)

Calculation:

Let be assume the total distance from A to B is D and the speed of A and B  is S1 and S2 respectively

⇒ The speed of train A = D/6      ----(1)

⇒ The speed of train B = D/8      ----(2)

⇒ Distance travel by A till 10 am = 2 × (D/6) = D/3

⇒ The remaining distance = D - D/3 = 2D/3

⇒ Time taken by both train to meet = (2D/3)/(D/6 + D/8) = {(2D/3)/(4D + 3D)/(24)} = (2D /3) × (24/7D)

⇒  16/7 hours = (2 + 2/7) hours = 2 hours and 17.14 minutes = 10 am + 2 hours and 17.14 minutes = 12.17 pm (approx)

∴ The required result will be 12.17 pm.

Given:

P alone can complete the work = 18 days

Q alone can complete the work = 45 days

Formula used:

W = T × E

(Where W = Work, T = Time, and E = Efficiency)

Calculation:

Let be assume Q did work for X days

⇒ The efficiency of P = 1/18 days

⇒ The efficiency of Q = 1/45 days

⇒ 3/18 + X/45 = 1

⇒ {(5 × 3) + 2X}/90 = 1

⇒ 15 + 2X = 90

⇒ 2X = 90 - 15

⇒ X = 75/2 = 37.5 days

Complete the remaining work by Q = 37.5 - 3 = 34.5

∴ The required result will be 34.5 days.

Given:

The ratio of P, Q and R is 3 : 5 : 8

Sum of all three numbers = 400

Calculation:

Let the required number be 3x, 5x and 8x respectively,

According to the question,

⇒ 3x + 5x + 8x = 400

⇒ 16x = 400

⇒ x = 25

The value of P = 3x = 3 × 25 = 75

The value of Q = 5x = 5 × 25 = 125

The value of R = 8x = 8 × 25 = 200

The difference between P and R = 200 - 75 = 125.

Given:

Raman's marks = 30% and failed by 30 marks

Passing marks = 60%

Concept:

Maximum quantity in percentage terms is always = 100%

Solution:

According to the question:

Raman's percentage + 30 marks = passing percentage

⇒ 30% + 30 = 60%

⇒ 30% marks = 30

∴ 100% marks i.e total marks = 100

GIVEN:

Diagonal of square = 40 cm

FORMULA USED:

Area of square = ½ (diagonal)2

CALCULATION:

According to the question,

Area of square = 1/2(40)²

⇒ 1/2 × 1600 = 800 cm²

∴ The area of the square is 800 cm2.

The correct answer is 'Deicide'.

Key Points

• Deicide: the killing of a god.
• Example: hat became the Christian charge of deicide; the Jews were then accused of killing God, and especially in medieval Europe.
• Thus, from above, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Regicide: the action of killing a king.
• Matricide: the killing of one's mother.
• Sororicide: the act of killing one's sister.

The correct answer is  'To overcome reserve'.

Key Points

• To break the ice: It is an idiomatic phrase which means to make people feel more friendly and willing to talk to each other.
• Example: This gambit nevertheless breaks the ice, and they begin by discussing the merits of various brands of scotch.
• Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'interest area'.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of noun.
• 'Field' needs to be replaced with 'area'.
• Field: a subject that people study or an area of activity that they are involved in as part of their work.
• Example: She is famous for her work in the field of human rights.
• Area: a particular subject, range of activities, or group of related subjects.
• Example: We’re funding research into new areas such as law enforcement technology.
• Thus, from the above meaning and the context of the sentence, we can conclude that the correct answer is option 1.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The profession you choose depends upon your interest area.'

The correct answer is 'Responsive'.

Key Points

• Responsive: reacting quickly and positively.
• Example: We try to be responsive to the needs of the customer.
• Thus, from above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'Passion'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Enthusiasm: a strong feeling of interest and enjoyment about something and an eagerness to be involved in it.
• Example: Gillian and Darren greeted the speakers with great enthusiasm.
• Passion: a very strong belief or feeling about something
• Example: He spoke with considerable passion about the importance of art and literature.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Gainsay: deny or contradict (a fact or statement).
• Example: No one dared to gainsay him.
• Entertain: provide (someone) with amusement or enjoyment.
• Example: She entertained the children with stories, songs and drama.
• Emend: make corrections and improvements to (a text).
• Example: It is possible that we will have to emend the data after it has been released.

The correct answer is 'RSPQ'.

Key Points

• Statement R will follow will be first in sequence as it introduces the subject 'Female readers'.
• Statement S will follow Statement R as it mentions the reason that is liked by female readers.
• Statement P will follow statement S as it connects the adjective confident with its noun 'woman'.
• Statement Q will be the last part.

Therefore, the correct sequence is RSPQ

• Sequence:
• R: female readers liked the Wonder Woman
• S: series because it presented a strong and confident
• P: woman who often spoke about the power of
• Q: womanhood and the need for female solidarity

The correct answer is 'that'.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the conjunction 'when'.
• 'When' needs to be replaced with 'that'.
• When: As a conjunction, it is used to talk about two things that happen at the same time.
• Structure: Action/Event + when + time/action
• Example: She was studying when I was watching TV.
• That: As a conjunction, it is used to introduce a subordinate clause to make a statement or provide more information.
• Example: He said that he was catching fish in the river.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Isn’t it time that you focus on your studies?'

The correct answer is 'Brethless', i.e. it is a wrongly spelt word.

Key Points

• Brethless: It is a wrongly spelt word. The correct spelling is 'Breathless'.
• Breathless: having difficulty breathing, especially because you are very tired, excited, or frightened.
• Example: The long climb left Jan feeling breathless.
• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Economics: the branch of knowledge concerned with the production, consumption, and transfer of wealth.
• Example: He knows very little about economics or international finance.
• Technology: the application of scientific knowledge for practical purposes, especially in industry.
• Example**:** Modern technology makes moving money around much easier than it used to be.
• Modulation: the exertion of a modifying or controlling influence on something.
• Example: These drugs modulate the disease process.

The correct answer is 'of the awful behavior', i.e. the error lies in this part of something.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of the preposition 'of' with 'fed up'.
• 'Of' needs to be replaced with 'with'.
• Fed up (with someone or something): Irritated, exasperated, bored, or disgusted with someone or something.
• Example: My wife is fed up with our car, but we just can't afford a new one.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'She got fed up with the awful behavior of her cousins.'

The correct answer is 'To enjoy oneself​.'

Key Points

• To kick up one's heels: It is an idiomatic phrase which means To enjoy oneself exuberantly; to frolic.
• Example: They spent most of their Saturdays kicking up their heels at the various nightclubs around town.
• Thus, from above we can say that the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'Norm'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Anomaly: something that deviates from what is standard, normal, or expected.
• Example: In those days, a woman professor was still an anomaly.

Norm: something that is usual, typical, or standard.

• Example: Short-term contracts are now the norm with some big companies.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Paradigm: a typical example or pattern of something; a model.
• Example**:** Community interaction of this kind could be a paradigm for race relations in the future.
• Character: the mental and moral qualities distinctive to an individual.
• Example: He has a cheerful but quiet character.
• Paradox: a seemingly absurd or self-contradictory statement or proposition that when investigated or explained may prove to be well founded or true.
• Example: It’s a paradox that in such a rich country there can be so much poverty.

The correct answer is 'educated and are also at par of', i.e. the error lies in this part of the sentence.

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect usage of idiom in the context.
• The correct idiom is 'on a par with (someone or something)'.
• On a par with (someone or something): at the same level or standard as (someone or something else).
• Example: The new version of the software is on a par with the old one.
• At par: At the price that something is worth; at face value. This phrase is often used in reference to stocks and bonds.
• Example: I hope you bought this at par and didn't pay more than it's worth.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Women in India are much more educated and are also on a par with the men in almost all fields.'

The correct answer is 'PRSQ'.

Key Points

• Statement P will follow statement 1 as it mentions the disease which affects coffee shrub.
• Statement R will follow Statement P as it mentions the damage caused by this disease.
• Statement S will follow statement R as it mentions another disease which attacks arabica.
• Statement Q will be the last part.

Therefore, the correct sequence is SRPQ

• Sequence:
• Among the diseases of the coffee shrub
• P: are leaf rust caused by the fungus Hemileia vastatrix, which
• R: does considerable damage in the plantations of Arabica,
• S: and the coffee berry disease caused by the fungus Colletotrichum coffeanum,
• Q: which also attacks the Arabica

The correct answer is 'nor'.

Key Points

• Correlative conjunctions: Correlative conjunctions correlate, working in pairs to join phrases or words that carry equal importance within a sentence, such as 'neither...nor', 'either...or', 'not only.....but also', etc. 
• Example: 
• Every night, either loud music or fighting neighbors wake John from his sleep.
• Neither Debra nor Sally expressed her annoyance when the cat broke the antique lamp.
• Not only did Mary grill burgers for Michael, but she also fixed a steak for her dog, Vinny.
• Thus, 'nor' will be used in the blank.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Neither her parents nor her husband wants to meet her.'

The correct answer is 'pass'.

Key Points

Let's explore the meaning of the given options:

 

• Thus, from the above-given explanation, we can say that 'pass' will be used in the blank.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'To meet our food security and climate needs proper balance between mineral and particulate based organic matter is required, considering human interaction.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• Sequestering soil carbon effectively requires an understanding of how particulate organic matter and mineral-associated organic matter work, how human actions affect them, and how to build up both types to meet our planet’s climate and food security needs.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'Before preparing the soil for carbon sequestration, its potential should be checked.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• Before implementing any management practices for carbon sequestration, participants should first assess the carbon storage potential of the local soil, much as a doctor studies a patient before prescribing a cure.
• Thus, from above we can infer that just like when a doctor prescribes a medicine he/she performs an examination to know the type of disease or problem that patient has, the potential of soil to store carbon should be assessed before implementing any management practices.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is Managing soil carbon for climate change and food security.

Key Points

• The main idea is a statement that sums up the general theme of the passage.
• The passage as a whole focuses on Managing soil carbon for climate change and food security.
• The other choices address more specific ideas expressed in the passage but are not its main idea.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'It will create more particulate organic matter than mineral-based organic matter in the soil.'

Key Points

• Let's refer to the following lines of the passage:
• For example, adding low-quality crop residues to agricultural fields would likely create more particulate organic matter than mineral-associated organic matter.
• Thus, from above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Bolster'.

Key Points

• Let's explore the meaning of the marked word and the given word.
• Boost: help or encourage (something) to increase or improve.
• Example: The new resort area has boosted tourism.
• Bolster: support or strengthen.
• Example: Timman needs to win a game to bolster his confidence.
• From above, we can refer that the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Inhibit: hinder, restrain, or prevent (an action or process).
• Example: An unhappy family life may inhibit children’s learning.
• Placate: make (someone) less angry or hostile.
• Example: These changes did little to placate the unions.
• Shackle: restrain; limit.
• Example: Industrial progress is being shackled by a mass of regulations.

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 ‘विस्मयादिबोधक' है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Points

जिन वाक्यों में घृणा, हर्ष, शोक, आश्चर्य के भाव प्रकट हो और विस्मयादि बोधक (!) चिह्न का प्रयोग हो।

जैसे: हाय ! मैं तो मर गया।

Additional Information

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 ‘अपादान कारक’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर है।

Key Points 

• दिए गए वाक्य 'पत्ता पेड़ से गिरा।'  में अपादान कारक है।
• अपादान कारक- “वाक्य में जिस स्थान या वस्तु से किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु की पृथकता अथवा तुलना का बोध होता है, वहाँ अपादान कारक होता है।”
• यानी अपादान कारक से जुदाई या विलगाव का बोध होता है।
• प्रेम, घृणा, लज्जा, ईर्ष्या, भय और सीखने आदि भावों की अभिव्यक्ति के लिए अपादान कारक का ही प्रयोग किया जाता है।
• अपादान कारक का भी विभक्ति चिन्ह 'से' होता है। उदाहरण- पेड़ से आम नीचे गिर गया।

अन्य विकल्प:

 

Additional Information

दिए गए विकल्पों में सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 ‘भाववाचक संज्ञा' है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Points

• 'बुढापा' शब्द भाववाचक संज्ञा है।
• किसी प्राणी या पदार्थ के स्वभाव, गुण, भाव आदि का बोध करने वाले शब्द भाववाचक संज्ञा कहलाते हैं।
• मीठा, थकान, गुस्सा आदि।

अन्य विकल्प:

 

Additional Information

चने की झाड पर चढ़ाना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है झूठी तारीफ़ करना। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं।

Key Points

स्पष्टीकरण:-

 

अन्य विकल्प:-

 

Important Points

 मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है। मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है। हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर  विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

इसका सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 'अव' है।

Key Points

• 'औगुन' शब्द में 'अव' उपसर्ग है।
• मूल शब्द - गुण (अव + गुण)
• अन्य शब्द:​ औगढ़, औसर, औघट, औतार
• ​आ उपसर्ग से बने शब्द - आदान, आजीवन, आगमन, आरम्भ, आचरण, आमुख।

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