DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 27 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Based on the information provided, we can determine the arrangement of the seven boxes (A, B, C, D, E, F, and G) from position 1 (top) to 7 (bottom).

C is kept sixth from the top.

Only three boxes are kept between G and C. Counting three places up from C (positions 5, 4, and 3), G must be placed at position 2.

B is immediately above A but below F. Also, D is not kept below F, which means D is above F. The order must be D > F > B > A.

The available empty slots are 1, 3, 4, 5, and 7. To satisfy the sequence D > F > B > A, where B and A are adjacent, the only fit is:

• D at position 1
• F at position 3
• B at position 4
• A at position 5

The remaining box E will occupy position 7.

The Final Arrangement is:

As per the table, the boxes kept below A are C and E.

Thus, there are two boxes kept below A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Total students = 16

Payel is 7^th from the left.

Kapil is 9^th to the right of Payel.

Step 1: Find Kapil's position from the left

Kapil's position = 7 + 9 = 16^th from the left.

Step 2: Find Kapil's position from the right

Position from the right = 16 − 16 + 1 = 1^st.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given statement: P > C < E < K = D

Conclusions:

i) P > K → False (As P > C < E < K = D. We know that P > C and E < K, but the exact relationship between P and K cannot be determined. Therefore, P > K does not definitely follow.)

ii) C > D → False (As P > C < E < K = D. Since C < E, E < K, and K = D, therefore C < D. Hence, C > D does not follow.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Solution

Given Statements:

All pets are animals.

All animals are humans.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some humans are animals - Follow (Since all animals are humans, the region occupied by animals is a part of humans, so some humans are definitely animals.)

II. All pets are humans - Follow (Because pets are inside animals and animals are inside humans, all pets are automatically inside the humans circle.)

So, both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Series:

(Left) 9 6 4 8 7 7 7 7 7 1 3 6 4 7 2 3 1 8 5 6 8 9 9 9 4 9 8 (Right)

Required pattern:

Odd Number → Even Number → Even Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 9 6 4 8 7 7 7 7 7 1 3 6 4 7 2 3 1 8 5 6 8 9 9 9 4 9 8 (Right)

Even numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 6 in (9 6 4)

→ 6 in (3 6 4)

→ 6 in (5 6 8)

Therefore, there are 3 such even numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Word:

NATIVELY

Arrange the letters in alphabetical order:

Original Word       : N  A  T  I  V  E  L  Y

Alphabetical Order : A  E  I  L  N  T  V  Y

Compare the positions:

Only the letter Y remains in the same position.

Therefore, 1 letter remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 — One".

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: R − S & T Y < Z: R is the son of S, S is the wife of T, T is the brother of Y, and Y is the father of Z.

⇒ S is the wife of T, so T is the husband of S and the father of R.

⇒ T is the brother of Y.

⇒ Y is the father of Z.

⇒ Since T and Y are brothers, R (son of T) is the nephew of Y and the cousin of Z.

⇒ From Z's perspective, R is the son of Z's father's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Word:

NOTECARD

Arrange the letters in alphabetical order:

Original Word       : N  O  T  E  C  A  R  D

Alphabetical Order : A  C  D  E  N  O  R  T

Compare the positions:

Only the letters E and R remain in the same positions.

Therefore, 2 letters remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is common word identification by comparing the given phrases and their respective coded strings.

Phrase 1: rim lake lemon is coded as yg nq zj

Phrase 2: bend lemon line is coded as nq qi gs

Therefore, the code for lemon in the given language is nq.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Based on the information given, the exam schedule can be determined step-by-step by placing each person on their respective day of the week:

1. O has an exam on Friday.

2. Only two people have an exam between X and O. Since O is on Friday, X must be on Tuesday (leaving Wednesday and Thursday in between).

3. Only four people have an exam between E and X. Since X is on Tuesday, E must be on Sunday (leaving Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, and Saturday in between).

4. Z has an exam immediately after A. Looking at the remaining spots, the only two consecutive vacant days are Wednesday and Thursday. Therefore, A has an exam on Wednesday and Z has an exam on Thursday.

5. U doesn’t have an exam on Monday. The remaining available days are Monday and Saturday. Thus, U must have an exam on Saturday, and the final person I must have an exam on Monday.

Final Arrangement:

I has an exam on Monday.

U has an exam on Saturday.

The people between them are X, A, Z, and O.

Total count = 4

Therefore, four people have an exam between U and I.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given statement: X > J < G ≤ E = B

Conclusions:

i) X > E → False (As X > J < G ≤ E = B. We know that X > J and G ≤ E, but the exact relationship between X and E cannot be determined. Therefore, X > E does not definitely follow.)

ii) J > B → False (As X > J < G ≤ E = B. We know that J < G, G ≤ E, and E = B. Hence, J < B (or at most equal is impossible through the given relations), so J > B does not follow.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

HUTS is coded as '6279'

YOUR is coded as '3751'

Therefore, the code for U in the given code language is 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the information provided, we can determine the seating arrangement step-by-step:

1. Only two people sit to the right of C. This means C occupies the 5^th position from the left in a row of 7 people.

2. F sits third from the left end of the row.

3. E is the immediate neighbour of G and C. This implies E sits between G and C. Since F is already at position 3, E and G must be placed at positions 6 and 7.

4. A sits to the immediate right of B. The only two adjacent vacant spots are at positions 1 and 2.

5. D is the only person remaining, so D will occupy the vacant 4^th position.

Final Seating Arrangement:

From the table, the people sitting to the right of D are C, E, and G.

Counting them, we find that three people sit to the right of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Total students = 23

Yashu is 9^th from the right.

Suman is 4^th to the left of Yashu.

Step 1: Find Yashu's position from the left

Yashu's position from the left = 23 − 9 + 1 = 15^th.

Step 2: Find Suman's position from the left

Suman is 4 places to the left of Yashu.

Suman's position = 15 − 4 = 11^th from the left.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 ".

Solution

⇒ Six people L, M, N, T, U and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the center.

⇒ Z sits immediately to the right of M.

⇒ T is an immediate neighbor of both M and L. Since Z is to the right of M, T must be to the left of M, and L is to the left of T.

⇒ U is not an immediate neighbor of L. The two remaining seats are next to L and between Z and L. Since U cannot be next to L, U must sit between Z and the unknown person. This leaves N to sit in the seat next to L.

⇒ Z sits immediately right of M.

⇒ T sits between M and L.

⇒ U sits between Z and N because it cannot sit next to L.

⇒ N sits between U and L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

LIES is coded as '6721'

SLIP is coded as '1367'

Therefore, the code for 'P' is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: P × Q + R − S / T: P is the sister of Q, Q is the husband of R, R is the mother of S, and S is the brother of T.

⇒ P is the sister of Q.

⇒ Q is the husband of R, so Q is the father of R’s children.

⇒ R is the mother of S and T (since S and T are siblings).

⇒ Q is the father of T.

⇒ Since P is the sister of Q, P is the sister of T’s father.

⇒ Therefore, P is related to T as father’s sister.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Series:

(Left) 8 4 7 6 1 2 7 1 5 9 9 5 6 3 1 2 1 4 5 1 5 3 5 9 8 2 6 (Right)

Required pattern:

Odd Number → Odd Number → Odd Number

Checking the series: (Left) 8 4 7 6 1 2 7 1 5 9 9 5 6 3 1 2 1 4 5 1 5 3 5 9 8 2 6 (Right)

7 1 5 

1 5 9 

5 9 9 

9 9 5 

5 1 5 

1 5 3 

5 3 5 

3 5 9 

Total such odd numbers = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Series:

(Left) L M % K J = F % P R A @ S * U N D E $ ! G (Right)

Required pattern:

Letter → Symbol → Letter

Checking the series: (Left) L M % K J = F % P R A @ S * U N D E $ ! G (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition:

→ % (between M and K)

→ = (between J and K)

→ % (between F and P)

→ @ (between A and S)

→ * (between S and U)

Total such symbols = 4.

Hence, the correct answer should be "Option 4".

Given Series:

(Left) 3 2 6 7 6 1 6 2 7 9 4 1 1 6 9 4 2 5 3 4 3 9 8 3 6 3 8 (Right)

Required pattern: (Left) 3 2 6 7 6 1 6 2 7 9 4 1 1 6 9 4 2 5 3 4 3 9 8 3 6 3 8 (Right)

Odd Number → Even Number → Even Number

Even numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 2 in (3 2 6)

→ 6 in (1 6 2)

→ 4 in (9 4 2)

Total such even numbers = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Letter Mapping:

Given Expression:

18 Q 2 S 5 R 5 P 3 = ?

After substituting the signs according to the mapping table:

= 18 × 2 − 5 ÷ 5 + 3

= 18 × 2 - 1 + 3

= 36 - 1 + 3

= 39 - 1

= 38

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 38.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series follows an addition pattern where each subsequent number is obtained by adding a constant value of 31 to the previous term.

Therefore, the value that should come in place of '?' in the series is 213.

Hence, the corect answer is "Option 1".

Given Word:

JACKPOT

Original Positions:

Arrange the letters in alphabetical order:

Comparison:

The letters remaining unchanged are:

→ K (Position 4)

→ T (Position 7)

Therefore, 2 letters remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 — Two".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: First Number × 20 = Second Number.

For the right side pair (13 : Y) →

Calculation for Y = 13 × 20 = 260

Therefore, Y = 260.

For the left side pair (X : 160) →

Calculation for X = 160 ÷ 20 = 8

Therefore, X = 8.

Similarly, substituting the values:

For the first pair: 8 : 160 → 8 × 20 = 160

For the second pair: 13 : 260 → 13 × 20 = 260

Therefore, the numbers that should replace X and Y are 8 and 260 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Sign Interchange:

Given Equation:

27 − 18 + 9 × 46 ÷ 46 = ?

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes:

= 27 + 18 − 9 ÷ 46 × 46 

= 27 + 18 - 9 

= 45 - 9

= 36

Therefore, the value that will come in place of '?' is 36.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is based on the alphabetical positional values of the letters. Each cluster follows a specific pattern of addition and subtraction between the positions of its letters.

1) QVS

2) JOL

3) MRP

4) EJG

The observed pattern for most groups is: (Position 1 + 5) and (Position 2 − 3). However, in the case of MRP, the second difference is − 2 instead of − 3.

Therefore, MRP is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Sign Interchange Table:

Given expression:

24 × 12 − 3 ÷ 45 + 41 = ?

After interchanging the signs as per the logic, the new expression is:

= 24 ÷ 12 + 3 × 45 − 41

= 2 + 3 × 45 - 41

= 2 + 135 - 41

= 137 - 41

= 96

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 96.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Sign Conversion Table:

Given Expression:

94 ÷ 11 − 15 + 208 × 8 = ?

Applying the sign replacements:

= 94 + 11 × 15 − 208 ÷ 8

= 94 + 11 × 15 - 26 

= 94 + 165 - 26

= 259 - 26

= 233

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 233.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (1^st Number + 18 = 2^nd Number) and (1^st Number − 6 = 3^rd Number).

For (34, 52, 28) →

2^nd Number = 34 + 18 = 52

3^rd Number = 34 − 6 = 28

For (49, 67, 43) →

2^nd Number = 49 + 18 = 67

3^rd Number = 49 − 6 = 43

Similarly, let's check the logic for the set (73, 91, 67):

2^nd Number = 73 + 18 = 91

3^rd Number = 73 − 6 = 67

Therefore, the set (73, 91, 67) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Solution

Given Statements:

All rings are toys.

No ring is a jar.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some jars are toys - Does not follow (As there is no direct relation between jars and toys, it is a possibility but not a definite conclusion.)

II. All toys are jars - Does not follow (Since all rings are toys and no ring is a jar, the portion of toys that are rings can never be jars.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Number:

5678314

Rule:

• Subtract 3 from each even digit.
• Add 2 to each odd digit.

Transformation:

New Number:

7395531

Digits greater than 7:

→ 9

Therefore, only 1 digit is greater than 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4 — One".

The logic followed here is:

For SONG to XTSL

For HAIR to MFNW

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +5 for each letter in the word.

For LAKE to ?

By applying the same logic, LAKE is related to QFPJ.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Option 1: PTX

Option 2: AEF

Option 3: JNO

Option 4: GKL

The pattern observed in AEF, JNO, and GKL is +4 and +1. However, PTX follows a different pattern of +4 and +4.

Therefore, PTX is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The difference between the positional values of consecutive letters in each letter-cluster is 3.

1. BEG:

2) ZCF:

3) SVY:

4) FIL:

In all letter-clusters except BEG, the difference between consecutive letters is consistently 3. In BEG, the difference between the second and third letters is 2.

Therefore, the letter-cluster that does not belong to the group is BEG.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is:

The number series follows an alternating addition pattern where the values 7 and 17 are added sequentially to obtain the next term.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark is 79.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each number in the series is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 2 and then alternately adding 3 and subtracting 3.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark in the series is 385.

Hence, the coorrect answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is based on mirror symmetry and pattern completion within a 4×4 grid.

The given figure is divided into four quadrants. To find the missing top-left quadrant, we must observe the symmetry with the other three parts:

Therefore, the option figure that completes this symmetrical pattern is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct image is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is based on the English alphabetical order and the positional values of letters:

For MILE to LJNG

For ZEST to YFUV

The common pattern is a sequence of shifts: −1, +1, +2, +2.

Applying the same logic to YARN:

For YARN to XBTP

Thus, the word YARN is related to XBTP following the logic of −1, +1, +2, +2 shifts.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (First Number)² − 10 = Second Number

For X : 215

To find X, we calculate: X² − 10 = 215

X² = 215 + 10 = 225

X = √225 = 15

For 21 : Y

To find Y, we calculate: 21² − 10 = Y

Y = 441 − 10

Y = 431

Therefore, the values that replace X and Y are 15 and 431 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

To find the embedded figure, we need to carefully analyze the components of Figure (X) and search for them in the given options without any rotation.

Therefore, the given Figure (X) is embedded in Option (2).

Hence, the correct image is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Rural employment and livelihood guarantee.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025 is a legislative framework designed to institutionalize livelihood security for households in rural India.
• The primary focus of this mission is to provide a statutory guarantee for employment, ensuring that the rural workforce has access to stable income-generating opportunities throughout the year.
• It aligns with the overarching Viksit Bharat @2047 vision, which aims to transform India into a developed nation by the centenary of its independence through inclusive growth.
• Unlike previous schemes, this bill emphasizes a transition from basic manual labor to skill-intensive employment and entrepreneurial ventures within the rural economy.
• The mission targets the reduction of rural distress and forced migration by creating localized economic hubs and enhancing the purchasing power of the rural population.
• It integrates modern technological tools and data-driven monitoring to ensure the effective delivery of employment benefits and the creation of durable community assets.

 Additional Information

• Agricultural Export:
• Focuses on the Ministry of Commerce and Industry initiatives to increase the global share of Indian farm produce.
• Involves policies like the Agriculture Export Policy aimed at doubling farmers income through international trade rather than domestic wage guarantees.
• Urban Skill Development:
• Primarily addressed through the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM).
• Concentrates on the urban poor and providing training for city-based industrial and service sector roles.
• Healthcare Access:
• Governed by the National Health Mission (NHM) and schemes like Ayushman Bharat (PM-JAY).
• Focuses on providing Universal Health Coverage and improving medical infrastructure rather than managing employment or livelihoods.

The correct answer is Highest score in a U19 World Cup final.

Key Points

• Vaibhav Sooryavanshi, a young left-handed batting prodigy from India, achieved the milestone of the Highest score in a U19 World Cup final during the tournament held in February 2026.
• His record-breaking innings surpassed the previous highest individual scores in a final, which were held by Unmukt Chand (111* in 2012) and Manjot Kalra (101* in 2018).
• The feat is significant as it was achieved at an exceptionally young age, demonstrating his ability to perform under the high-pressure environment of a global ICC tournament final.
• This performance played a decisive role in determining the outcome of the U19 Cricket World Cup 2026, further solidifying India's dominant legacy in the history of the competition.
• The record adds to his series of early career achievements, where he has been recognized for his technical sound batting and aggressive strike rate in the top order.

 Additional Information

• Vaibhav Sooryavanshi:
• Hailing from Bihar, he made headlines globally for being one of the youngest cricketers to make a First-Class debut in the Ranji Trophy at the age of 12.
• He is known for his prolific scoring in domestic age-group cricket, which earned him a quick promotion to the India U19 squad.
• U19 Cricket World Cup:
• This is a biennial international tournament organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) to showcase the best talent under the age of 19.
• India remains the most successful nation in the history of the U19 World Cup, having won the title multiple times since their first win in 2000 under Mohammad Kaif.
• The 2026 edition served as a crucial transition point for several players entering senior international cricket or major T20 leagues.

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Key Points

• The iconic slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) was given by Mahatma Gandhi at the beginning of the Quit India Movement.
• Gandhi delivered this historic speech on August 8, 1942, during the All India Congress Committee (AICC) session held at Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, which is now famously known as August Kranti Maidan.
• The slogan served as a clarion call for non-violent mass resistance, urging Indians to dedicate themselves fully to the cause of achieving Purna Swaraj (complete independence) or perish in the struggle against British Imperialism.
• The movement was a direct response to the failure of the Cripps Mission, which had failed to offer full independence or a clear timeline for self-governance to India.
• Gandhi specifically appealed to government servants, soldiers, and students to resign from their positions and join the movement to end British Rule immediately.

 Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• He was the first Prime Minister of independent India and is renowned for his 'Tryst with Destiny' speech.
• He also coined the popular slogan 'Aaram Haram Hai' to encourage the youth to work tirelessly for national development.
• Lala Lajpat Rai:
• Known as Punjab Kesari, he was a prominent leader in the Indian National Congress and popularized the slogan 'Simon Go Back' during protests against the Simon Commission in 1928.
• Bhagat Singh:
• A legendary revolutionary who popularized the slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' (Long Live the Revolution), which was originally composed by the poet Maulana Hasrat Mohani.
• He founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and was a key member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).

The correct answer is Mehsana.

Key Points

• The inaugural Dharoi Adventure Fest was launched on 23 May 2025 as a major initiative to transform the Dharoi Dam region into a sustainable adventure tourism hub.
• The festival is primarily hosted in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, leveraging the scenic landscape and the vast reservoir of the Dharoi Dam.
• Organized by Gujarat Tourism, the event aims to highlight the state's potential for high-octane adventure sports, including activities on land, in the air, and on the water.
• The festival serves as a platform to boost the local economy and promote the North Gujarat tourism circuit, which connects various historical and religious landmarks.
• Key highlights of the event include aero-sports like paramotoring, water-based activities such as jet skiing and speed boating, and land-based adventure trials designed to attract youth and adventure enthusiasts.

 Additional Information

• Dharoi Dam:
• It is a gravity dam constructed on the Sabarmati River near the village of Dharoi, providing water for irrigation and consumption to districts like Mehsana and Ahmedabad.
• The dam's vicinity is strategically close to Vadnagar, the birthplace of the Prime Minister of India, and the famous Ambaji Temple, making it a critical node for regional tourism development.
• Mehsana District:
• Famous for the Modhera Sun Temple, built during the reign of Bhima I of the Chaulukya Dynasty, showcasing exquisite temple architecture.
• It is also recognized for the Dudhsagar Dairy, a prominent cooperative under the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF).
• Tourism Initiatives in Gujarat:
• The state has been aggressively promoting unique festivals like the Rann Utsav in Kutch and the Statue of Unity circuit to enhance its global tourism footprint.

The correct answer is Year of Reforms.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Defence (MoD) of the Government of India has officially designated the year 2025 as the Year of Reforms to streamline administrative processes and enhance operational efficiency.
• This declaration was emphasized by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh during high-level review meetings and Chintan Shivirs (brainstorming sessions) aimed at transforming India’s defense ecosystem.
• The primary objective of the Year of Reforms is to consolidate the structural changes initiated over the past few years, such as the creation of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post and the Department of Military Affairs (DMA).
• The focus remains on Aatmanirbharta (self-reliance) in defense manufacturing, ensuring that indigenization moves from the assembly phase to core technology development.
• It aims to accelerate Theaterisation, which involves the integration of the Army, Navy, and Air Force into unified commands for better synergy during conflicts.
• The initiative also targets the modernization of procurement procedures under the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020 to reduce delays and promote transparency.

 Additional Information

• Defense Production and Exports:
• India has set an ambitious target to achieve a turnover of Rs 1,75,000 crore in aerospace and defense goods and services by 2024-25.
• This includes an export target of Rs 35,000 crore to friendly foreign countries, positioning India as a global defense manufacturing hub.
• Innovation Ecosystem:
• The iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework plays a critical role in the Year of Reforms by engaging startups and MSMEs in solving complex military challenges.
• Significant reforms include the corporatization of the erstwhile Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) into seven new Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs).
• Technology Absorption:
• While 2025 focuses on broader reforms, the Indian Army previously observed 2024 as the Year of Technology Absorption to integrate Artificial Intelligence, Drones, and Quantum Computing into its tactical operations.

The correct answer is Chandipur.

Key Points

• The Agni-III is a surface-to-surface intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.
• The flight test conducted in February 2026 took place at the Integrated Test Range (ITR) situated in Chandipur, Odisha, which serves as a premier site for testing short to medium-range weaponry.
• This successful trial was designed to verify the reliability of the missile's two-stage solid propellant engine and its high-precision guidance systems under operational conditions.
• Chandipur is equipped with sophisticated tracking radars, telemetry stations, and electro-optical tracking systems (EOTS) to monitor the missile's entire flight path over the Bay of Bengal.
• With a strike range of over 3,000 kilometers, the Agni-III provides India with a robust second-strike capability and strengthens its strategic deterrence posture.

 Additional Information

• Sriharikota:
• Located in Andhra Pradesh, this site hosts the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), which is the primary launch hub for ISRO satellite missions such as PSLV and GSLV.
• Pokhran:
• A site in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan used exclusively for nuclear tests, notably Smiling Buddha in 1974 and Operation Shakti in 1998.
• Wheeler Island:
• Now known as Abdul Kalam Island, it is a dedicated missile testing facility off the Odisha coast, typically used for long-range intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) trials.

The correct answer is Indians were allowed to participate through nominated members..

Key Points

• The Indian Councils Act of 1892 was an important constitutional landmark that increased the size of the Legislative Councils in British India.
• It expanded the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central Legislative Council to a minimum of 10 and a maximum of 16, compared to the previous limit of 6 to 10 under the 1861 Act.
• The act introduced the principle of representation by allowing non-official members to be nominated based on recommendations from specific local bodies.
• In the Central Council, nominations were made by the Governor-General on the recommendation of Provincial Legislative Councils and the Bengal Chamber of Commerce.
• For Provincial Councils, the Governors nominated members based on recommendations from district boards, municipalities, universities, and trade associations.
• This system provided a formal channel for Indians to enter the legislative process as nominated non-official members, marking a step toward representative government.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The act was primarily a response to the growing political demands of the Indian National Congress (formed in 1885), which sought greater participation of Indians in the administration.
• Legislative Powers:
• The act empowered members to discuss the annual financial statement (Budget), though they could not vote on it.
• It also allowed members to address questions to the executive on matters of public interest, provided a six-day notice was given.
• Limitations:
• Despite the increase in members, the British government maintained a permanent official majority in the councils to ensure total control over legislation.
• The term election was deliberately avoided in the act; the process was officially described as nomination based on recommendation.

The correct answer is Longest Kapalbhati breaths while jogging.

Key Points

• In November 2025, a landmark endurance record was officially certified for an Indian athlete who successfully performed Kapalbhati breaths while maintaining a steady jogging pace.
• The record signifies a unique fusion of Pranayama (yogic breathing) and aerobic exercise, testing the practitioner's ability to maintain rhythmic, forceful exhalations during continuous physical exertion.
• Physiologically, this feat requires extreme diaphragmatic strength and respiratory control, as the athlete must manage carbon dioxide clearance while sustaining the heart rate typical of a jogging session.
• This specific record was validated by international endurance bodies, highlighting the integration of traditional Indian wellness practices into mainstream global athletic standards.
• The performance demonstrated that the athlete could sustain the Kapalbhati technique for an extended duration without compromising their gait or respiratory rhythm, a task that demands significant neuromuscular coordination.

 Additional Information

• Kapalbhati Pranayama:
• Commonly known as the 'Skull Shining Breath', it involves short, powerful active exhalations and passive inhalations.
• In the context of sports science, it is studied for its ability to improve vital capacity and strengthen the abdominal muscles.
• Endurance Synergy:
• Combining jogging with breath-work like Pranayama is a growing trend in functional fitness, aimed at optimizing VO₂ max and enhancing mental focus under physical stress.
• Records of this nature are often monitored for rhythm consistency and distance coverage to ensure the athletic integrity of the performance.

The correct answer is Variable factor.

Key Points

• In economic theory, the short run is defined as a production period during which at least one factor of production (input) remains fixed in quantity, while other factors can be altered.
• A variable factor refers to those inputs that can be easily increased or decreased by a producer in the short run to change the level of total output.
• Labour is categorized as a variable factor because a firm can adjust the number of workers or the hours worked (overtime) relatively quickly in response to changes in market demand.
• The relationship between the variable input and output when other factors like capital and land are held constant is governed by the Law of Variable Proportions (also known as the Law of Diminishing Returns).
• As more units of a variable factor (labour) are combined with fixed factors, the Marginal Product initially rises, then reaches a peak, and eventually declines.

 Additional Information

• Fixed Factor:
• These are inputs whose quantity cannot be changed in the short run regardless of the level of output, such as factory buildings, heavy machinery, and top-level management.
• The costs associated with these factors are known as Total Fixed Costs (TFC), which remain constant even if output is zero.
• Long Run Production:
• In the long run, the distinction between fixed and variable factors disappears as all inputs become variable.
• Firms can change their scale of production by installing new plants or acquiring more land, a concept governed by the Laws of Returns to Scale.
• Natural Factor:
• This typically refers to Land and all free gifts of nature used in production, which are considered primary factors but are usually fixed in the short run.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The 6^th National Crop Nutrition Summit is a prestigious agricultural event scheduled to be hosted in Mumbai in the year 2026.
• This summit serves as a collaborative platform for agronomists, agricultural scientists, and industry experts to strategize on improving soil fertility and crop productivity across India.
• The choice of Mumbai as the venue highlights the city's role as a major hub for corporate agribusiness and logistics, facilitating better networking between the private sector and government bodies.
• Discussions at the summit are expected to center around Integrated Nutrient Management (INM), which combines the use of chemical fertilizers, organic manures, and bio-fertilizers to maintain ecological balance.
• The 2026 edition will place a significant emphasis on the digitalization of agriculture, particularly in monitoring nutrient uptake and optimizing fertilizer application rates through IoT devices and precision farming tools.

 Additional Information

• Core Concepts in Crop Nutrition:
• Macro-nutrients: These include Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K), which are required by plants in large quantities for fundamental growth processes and cellular functions.
• Nutrient Use Efficiency (NUE): A key metric discussed in these summits, referring to the ratio between the amount of nutrient acquired by the plant and the amount of fertilizer applied to the soil.
• Fertilizer Policy: A major focus area involving the Department of Fertilizers and the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, aimed at ensuring the availability of affordable nutrients to farmers via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
• Sustainable Soil Health: The summits align with national initiatives like the Soil Health Card Scheme, launched in February 2015, to promote scientific soil testing and prevent the over-utilization of Urea.
• Innovative Products: The introduction of Nano-Urea and Nano-DAP is frequently showcased to reduce environmental runoff and improve the environmental footprint of Indian agriculture.

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in December 1885 as the first modern nationalist movement to emerge in the British Empire in Asia and Africa.
• The first session of the INC took place from December 28 to December 31, 1885, at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British officer of the Indian Civil Service, played the pivotal role of the primary organizer and founder.
• The first president of the congress was Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee (W.C. Bonnerjee), who led an assembly of 72 delegates representing different provinces of India.
• The initial gathering included prominent leaders such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, and Pherozeshah Mehta, focusing on administrative reforms and greater Indian representation in the government.

 Additional Information

• Viceroyalty and Theories:
• Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India during the formation of the INC and initially took a neutral stance toward the organization.
• The Safety Valve Theory suggests that the British encouraged the INC to prevent a mass uprising similar to the 1857 Revolt by providing a platform for political dialogue.
• Subsequent Key Milestones:
• The second session in 1886 was held in Calcutta, presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, where the membership grew to 434 delegates.
• In 1887, Badruddin Tyabji became the first Muslim President of the INC during the Madras session.
• The 1905 session in Benares, led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, marked a turning point following the Partition of Bengal.

The correct answer is Promotion of resource-efficient technology.

Key Points

• Sustainable infrastructure development refers to the design, building, and operation of structural elements in ways that do not diminish the social, economic, and ecological processes required to maintain human equity and diversity.
• The Promotion of resource-efficient technology is a fundamental principle because it optimizes the use of raw materials, energy, and water, thereby reducing the carbon footprint of large-scale projects.
• In the context of the Indian economy, adopting green technologies helps in achieving Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement by minimizing environmental degradation.
• Resource efficiency aligns with the Circular Economy model, where waste is minimized through recycling and reuse, ensuring that infrastructure remains viable for future generations.
• This principle is reflected in government schemes like the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) and Smart Cities Mission, which prioritize clean energy and low-carbon transport systems.

 Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goal 9 (SDG 9):
• Focuses on building resilient infrastructure, promoting inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and fostering innovation.
• Encourages the upgrading of infrastructure and retrofitting industries to make them sustainable through increased resource-use efficiency.
• PM Gati Shakti:
• A National Master Plan for Multi-modal connectivity that aims to provide integrated and seamless connectivity for movement of people, goods, and services, reducing logistics costs and environmental waste.
• National Resource Efficiency Policy (2019):
• Proposed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to promote a circular economy and enhance resource productivity in India across various sectors.

The correct answer is Steel sheet.

Key Points

• Intermediate goods, also known as producer goods, are semi-finished products used as inputs in the production of other goods or services. They are not intended for immediate consumption by the end-user.
• Steel sheet is categorized as an intermediate good because it serves as a primary raw material for various manufacturing industries, including automotive, construction, and appliance manufacturing.
• In the production cycle, steel sheets undergo further processing and value addition. For instance, they are pressed or welded to form the body of a vehicle or the chassis of a machine.
• The value of intermediate goods is already embedded in the price of the final product. Therefore, to avoid double counting during Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculations, only the value of the final good is recorded.
• Whether a product is an intermediate or final good depends on its end-use; if a builder buys steel for a project, it is intermediate, whereas if an individual buys a finished product for personal use, it is a consumer good.

 Additional Information

• Final Goods (Consumer Goods): These are products purchased by consumers for personal use and do not undergo any further transformation for resale.
• Car: A consumer durable used for personal transportation. It is a final product because it is ready for its ultimate user.
• Refrigerator: A major appliance used for cooling and preservation; it is a final consumer good sold directly to households.
• Scooter: A two-wheeled motor vehicle classified as a final product because it is utilized by the purchaser for travel without further industrial processing.
• Capital Goods: Unlike intermediate goods which are used up in production, capital goods (like machinery) are used to produce other goods but remain in the production process for a long time.

The correct answer is Overdraft.

Key Points

• An overdraft is a financial instrument and credit facility that allows account holders (typically current or savings) to withdraw funds even when the balance reaches zero, up to a pre-determined limit.
• This facility is essentially a revolving credit line where the bank permits a negative balance, helping individuals and businesses manage short-term liquidity gaps.
• Unlike a standard loan, interest is calculated on a daily basis only on the specific amount utilized and for the duration it remains unpaid, rather than the entire sanctioned limit.
• The sanctioned limit for an overdraft is determined by the bank based on factors such as the customer's credit history, monthly income, or the value of collateral provided.
• There are two main types: Secured Overdrafts (backed by assets like Fixed Deposits, insurance policies, or equity) and Unsecured Overdrafts (based solely on creditworthiness).
• This banking service is highly flexible as it does not require a fixed repayment schedule or Equated Monthly Installments (EMIs); users can repay as per their cash flow.

 Additional Information

• Credit:
• It represents a broad contractual agreement where a borrower receives something of value now and agrees to repay the lender at a later date.
• Common forms include trade credit, consumer credit, and bank credit, which are fundamental to modern macroeconomic functioning.
• Mortgage:
• A specific type of secured loan where immovable property (such as land or a building) serves as collateral.
• Under the Transfer of Property Act, the lender holds a legal interest in the property until the principal and interest are fully repaid.
• Advance:
• These are credit facilities provided by banks for short-term requirements, such as Cash Credit or Bill Discounting.
• Advances are primarily used by businesses to meet working capital needs and are generally for a duration of less than one year.

The correct answer is Hardik Singh.

Key Points

• Hardik Singh is a premier midfielder for the Indian Men's Field Hockey team, widely recognized for his exceptional agility and playmaking skills on the international circuit.
• He was nominated for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2025 in recognition of his significant contributions to Indian sports, particularly his role in maintaining India's global dominance in hockey.
• Singh was an instrumental figure in India clinching the Bronze Medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics, marking the nation's second consecutive Olympic podium finish in field hockey.
• In 2023, he achieved the prestigious FIH Player of the Year award, becoming one of the few Indians to be recognized as the world's best player by the International Hockey Federation.
• He has been a core part of several successful campaigns, including winning the Gold Medal at the 2022 Asian Games in Hangzhou and the 2023 Asian Champions Trophy.

 Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• This is the highest sporting honor in India, bestowed annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports for spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years.
• Named after the legendary hockey icon Major Dhyan Chand, it carries a substantial cash prize of 25 lakh rupees, a medallion, and a certificate.
• The award was previously known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award before being renamed in 2021.
• Other Notable Personalities:
• Rishabh Pant is a prominent wicketkeeper-batsman for the Indian national cricket team, known for his explosive batting and match-winning performances in Test cricket.
• Suryakumar Yadav is a world-renowned T20I specialist batsman, frequently ranked as the number one player in the ICC Men's T20I Batting Rankings.
• Priyanka Ingle is a distinguished athlete representing India in Pencak Silat, a traditional Indonesian martial art that has gained significant traction in the Indian sports ecosystem.

The correct answer is Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India.

Key Points

• The Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) was incorporated on January 5, 1955, following a joint initiative by the Government of India, the World Bank (IBRD), and representatives of Indian industry.
• The organization was specifically designed to encourage the participation of foreign capital and private sector equity in the Indian industrial landscape.
• It aimed to provide medium and long-term project financing to industrial entities in the private sector, which was a critical requirement for post-independence industrial growth.
• ICICI acted as a channel for foreign currency loans, enabling Indian businesses to import modern machinery and technical expertise from international markets.
• The initial share capital of ICICI was contributed not only by Indian banks and insurance companies but also by foreign financial institutions from the United Kingdom and the United States.
• The institution played a pioneering role in developing underwriting services and the merchant banking sector in India during the 1970s.

 Additional Information

• Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI):
• Established in July 1964 as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), it was later made an autonomous corporation to act as the apex body for industrial finance.
• State Financial Corporation (SFC):
• Formed under the State Financial Corporations Act, 1951, these institutions operate at the state level to provide financial support to small and medium-scale enterprises (SMEs).
• Unit Trust of India (UTI):
• Founded in 1963 through an Act of Parliament, it was the first mutual fund entity in India, established to mobilize small household savings for investment in the capital market.

The correct answer is Swami Dayanand Saraswati.

Key Points

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati (1824–1883) was a profound scholar of Sanskrit and a social reformer who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 in Bombay.
• He propagated the slogan 'Back to the Vedas', believing that the Vedas were the infallible source of all divine knowledge and the foundation of true Aryan culture.
• He rejected the authority of later Hindu scriptures like the Puranas, arguing that they introduced idolatry, polytheism, and superstition which were absent in the original Vedic texts.
• In his major work, Satyarth Prakash (1875), he emphasized monotheism and strictly advocated for a life based on Vedic principles, social reform, and ethical conduct.
• He viewed the Vedas as Apaurusheya (not of human origin), considering them to contain the seeds of all modern scientific discoveries and spiritual truths.

 Additional Information

• Shiv Narain Agnihotri:
• He was the founder of the Dev Samaj in 1887 at Lahore, which initially followed Brahmo ideals but later shifted toward the worship of the Guru and moral laws.
• Dwarkanath Tagore:
• A pioneer industrialist and one of the founders of the Brahmo Samaj alongside Raja Ram Mohan Roy, focusing on modernization and rationalism.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
• A legendary polymath and social reformer from Bengal primarily remembered for his tireless efforts toward the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 and women's education.

The correct answer is Human Development Index (HDI).

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average achievement in three key dimensions of human development: health, education, and standard of living.
• It was created by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian economist Amartya Sen in 1990 to provide a more holistic alternative to GDP for evaluating national progress.
• The health dimension is assessed by Life Expectancy at Birth, which indicates the average number of years a newborn is expected to live if prevailing mortality patterns stay the same.
• The education dimension is measured through a combination of Mean Years of Schooling for adults aged 25 and older and Expected Years of Schooling for children of school-entering age.
• The standard of living is quantified using Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) to reflect the actual buying power of individuals in different countries.
• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the Human Development Report annually, ranking countries on a scale from 0 to 1, categorized into low, medium, high, and very high human development tiers.

 Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
• Represents the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given period.
• It serves as the primary indicator of economic productivity but does not account for the quality of life or social inequality.
• Consumer Price Index (CPI):
• A statistical estimate constructed using the prices of a sample of representative items whose prices are collected periodically.
• It is the most common tool used to measure inflation and cost-of-living adjustments in an economy.
• Gini Coefficient:
• A mathematical measure used to represent the income distribution of a nation’s residents.
• It ranges from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality), helping policymakers identify wealth gaps within a population.

The correct answer is Champaran Satyagraha.

Key Points

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in India, marking his entry into the Indian political struggle after returning from South Africa in 1915.
• The movement was centered in the Champaran district of Bihar, where peasant farmers were being exploited by British indigo planters under the oppressive Tinkathia system.
• Under the Tinkathia system, tenants were legally forced to plant indigo on 3/20^th of their land, which led to severe economic distress when indigo prices plummeted due to German synthetic dyes.
• Rajkumar Shukla, a local cultivator, met Gandhi at the Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress in 1916 and persistently invited him to investigate the plight of the farmers.
• Gandhi’s non-violent protest and refusal to leave the district despite official orders forced the British government to appoint the Champaran Agrarian Enquiry Committee, with Gandhi as a member.
• The struggle resulted in the enactment of the Champaran Agrarian Act in 1918, which abolished the Tinkathia system and provided partial compensation to the exploited farmers.

 Additional Information

• Quit India Movement:
• Launched in August 1942 during World War II, this movement demanded an immediate end to British rule in India.
• Gandhi gave the famous slogan Do or Die at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Initiated in 1920 and lasted until 1922, it was a response to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Rowlatt Act.
• The movement was called off by Gandhi after the violent Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922.
• Salt Satyagraha:
• Commonly known as the Dandi March, it began on March 12, 1930, to protest the British salt tax.
• This 24-day march from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi sparked the Civil Disobedience Movement nationwide.

The correct answer is Diwali.

Key Points

• Diwali, also known as Deepavali, is one of the most significant festivals in India, celebrated to symbolize the triumph of light over darkness, good over evil, and knowledge over ignorance.
• The festival is observed on the night of Amavasya (new moon) in the Hindu month of Kartika, which generally falls between mid-October and mid-November.
• According to the epic Ramayana, it marks the day Lord Rama returned to Ayodhya with his wife Sita and brother Lakshmana after 14 years of exile and his victory over the demon king Ravana.
• The citizens of Ayodhya celebrated his return by lighting rows of earthen lamps (diyas), a practice that remains the central ritual of the festival today.
• It is a five-day celebration that includes Dhanteras, Naraka Chaturdashi, Lakshmi Pujan, Govardhan Puja, and Bhai Dooj, primarily dedicated to Goddess Lakshmi, the deity of wealth and prosperity.
• Beyond Hinduism, Jains celebrate it to mark the Nirvana (spiritual liberation) of Lord Mahavira, and Sikhs celebrate it as Bandi Chhor Divas to commemorate the release of Guru Hargobind Ji from the Gwalior Fort.

 Additional Information

• Baisakhi:
• It is a major harvest festival celebrated primarily in Punjab and parts of North India.
• It marks the Sikh New Year and commemorates the formation of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
• Holi:
• Commonly known as the Festival of Colors, it signifies the arrival of spring and the end of winter.
• It celebrates the victory of the devotee Prahlada over the demoness Holika, symbolizing the triumph of devotion over ego.
• Onam:
• It is the state festival of Kerala and a major harvest festival for the Malayali community.
• It honors the homecoming of the legendary King Mahabali and is famous for its Pookalam (flower patterns) and Vallam Kali (snake boat races).

The correct answer is at least five.

Key Points

• According to Article 124(3) of the Constitution of India, specific qualifications are mandatory for a person to be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• The candidate must have been a Judge of a High Court (or of two or more such Courts in succession) for a minimum duration of five years. Hence, the requirement for a High Court Judge is at least five years.
• This provision ensures that the individual has gained significant judicial experience and expertise at the appellate level within the State Judiciary before moving to the Union Judiciary.
• The President of India makes the appointment based on the recommendations of the Collegium system, which comprises the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

 Additional Information

• Alternative Qualifications:
• Advocate: A person is also eligible if they have been an Advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.
• Distinguished Jurist: An individual can be appointed if, in the opinion of the President, they are a distinguished jurist.
• Tenure and Removal:
• A Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until the age of 65 years.
• The resignation is addressed to the President of India.
• A judge can only be removed from office by an order of the President after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
• Oath: Before entering office, the judge must subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the President or some person appointed by him.

The correct answer is Scientific solid waste management systems.

Key Points

• The Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U) was launched on October 2, 2014, by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with the primary goal of making urban India clean and open defecation-free (ODF).
• A central component of the mission is the 100 percent scientific processing of municipal solid waste generated in all Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) across the country.
• The mission emphasizes source segregation of waste into wet (organic), dry (recyclable), and domestic hazardous categories to streamline processing and reduce landfill pressure.
• SBM-U focuses on establishing Material Recovery Facilities (MRFs), waste-to-energy plants, and composting units to transform waste into useful resources like electricity or organic manure.
• Under SBM-U 2.0, launched in October 2021, the scope was expanded to achieve Garbage Free Cities through the remediation of legacy dumpsites and better plastic waste management.

 Additional Information

• SBM-U 2.0 Strategy:
• It aims for complete bioremediation of all legacy dumpsites in Indian cities, moving toward a Circular Economy.
• The mission utilizes the Star Rating Protocol for Garbage Free Cities to evaluate and incentivize the performance of ULBs in waste management.
• Functional Distinctions:
• National Highway Toll Collection: This is managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) using technologies like FASTag, unrelated to urban sanitation missions.
• Railway Freight Logistics: These operations fall under the Ministry of Railways and are aimed at improving cargo transport efficiency via Dedicated Freight Corridors.
• Urban Air Quality: While SBM-U reduces pollution from waste burning, specific air quality monitoring is managed under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) and the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

The correct answer is Article 79.

Key Points

• Article 79 of the Constitution of India mandates the establishment and constitution of the Parliament of India.
• According to this article, the Union Parliament is not a single body but a composite institution consisting of the President and two distinct Houses.
• The two Houses are officially designated as the Council of States (also known as the Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (also known as the Lok Sabha).
• The inclusion of the President under Article 79 signifies that although the President is not a member of either House, no bill can become law without the Presidential Assent.
• This provision establishes the Bicameral legislature system at the central level, ensuring a check and balance mechanism within the Union Government.
• The Parliament serves as the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India, located in New Delhi.

 Additional Information

• Article 80:
• Focuses on the Composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
• It stipulates a maximum strength of 250 members, where 12 members are nominated by the President for their contributions to literature, science, art, and social service.
• Article 65:
• Deals with the Vice-President acting as the President or discharging his functions during casual vacancies in the office.
• This occurs in events such as death, resignation, or removal of the President.
• Article 70:
• Empowers the Parliament to make provisions for the discharge of the President’s functions in any contingency not specifically mentioned in the Constitution.
• Part V:
• All these articles are housed under Part V of the Indian Constitution, which covers The Union, spanning from Article 52 to Article 151.

The correct answer is Kumbh Mela.

Key Points

• The Kumbh Mela is a massive Hindu pilgrimage and the world's largest peaceful religious gathering, held in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh, every 12 years.
• It takes place at the Triveni Sangam, which is the sacred confluence of three rivers: the Ganges, the Yamuna, and the mythical or invisible Saraswati.
• The festival follows a 12-year cycle (Purna Kumbh) and a 6-year cycle (Ardh Kumbh), with the locations rotating between Haridwar, Ujjain, Nashik, and Prayagraj based on astrological alignments of Jupiter and the Sun.
• Historically, the fair was recorded by the Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang in the 7^th century during the reign of Emperor Harshavardhana.
• In December 2017, the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage inscribed Kumbh Mela on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

 Additional Information

• Deva Mela
• Located in Barabanki, Uttar Pradesh, this fair is held at the shrine of the Sufi Saint Haji Waris Ali Shah.
• It is renowned for promoting communal harmony and is celebrated during the months of October and November.
• Pushkar Fair
• Held in the state of Rajasthan, it is one of the world's largest camel and livestock fairs, occurring on the banks of Pushkar Lake.
• It coincides with the religious festival of Kartik Purnima and is famous for its proximity to the rare Brahma Temple.
• Taj Mahotsav
• An annual 10-day cultural festival organized by Uttar Pradesh Tourism in Agra every February.
• It showcases India's rich arts, crafts, and cuisines, drawing inspiration from the Mughal era.

The correct answer is Housing, demography, migration, education, economic activity.

Key Points

• The Census of India is a massive decennial administrative exercise conducted under the Census Act, 1948, to provide a comprehensive snapshot of the nation's socio-economic status.
• Housing data is a primary component, where information regarding the quality of housing, household amenities, and assets like telephones or vehicles is meticulously recorded.
• The demography section captures essential statistics including age, sex ratio, marital status, and fertility, which are critical for understanding population growth and distribution.
• Migration statistics track the internal and external movement of people by identifying the place of birth and place of last residence, along with reasons for migration such as work or marriage.
• Information on education and literacy is collected for every individual, categorizing the population based on their highest level of schooling or technical qualifications across all age groups.
• The economic activity of the population is recorded by distinguishing between main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers, as well as the nature of the industry or occupation they are involved in.

 Additional Information

• Organizational Structure: The census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Historical Background:
• The first census in India was initiated in 1872 under the governor-generalship of Lord Mayo.
• The first synchronous census, covering the entire country simultaneously, was held in 1881 during the tenure of Lord Ripon.
• Strategic Importance: Census data forms the bedrock for the delimitation of constituencies for the Lok Sabha and state assemblies and serves as the primary data source for the Finance Commission to determine horizontal tax devolution to states.

The correct answer is Iodine.

Key Points

• Iodine is an essential trace mineral required by the Thyroid Gland to synthesize hormones, specifically Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3).
• These hormones are critical for regulating the body's Metabolism, energy expenditure, and the growth and development of the Central Nervous System.
• When dietary intake of iodine is insufficient, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough hormones, causing the Pituitary Gland to release higher levels of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH).
• This chronic overstimulation results in the abnormal enlargement of the gland, a condition known as Goitre.
• Iodine Deficiency is one of the most common causes of preventable Intellectual Disability and brain damage worldwide, particularly during fetal development and early childhood.

 Additional Information

• Dietary Sources: Primary sources include Iodized Salt, Seafood (such as fish, shrimp, and seaweed), and Dairy Products.
• Magnesium:
• Acts as a cofactor in over 300 biochemical reactions, including Protein Synthesis, Muscle Function, and maintaining a steady Heart Rhythm.
• Calcium:
• Vital for the structural integrity of Bones and Teeth; it also plays a key role in Cell Signaling and Blood Clotting processes.
• Iron:
• A fundamental component of Hemoglobin, the protein in Red Blood Cells responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.

The correct answer is habeas corpus.

Key Points

• The writ of Habeas Corpus is a Latin term that literally means 'to have the body of'. It serves as a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.
• It is an order issued by a court to a person who has detained another person, directing them to produce the body of the latter before the court to examine the legality of the detention.
• If the court finds that the detention is illegal, unauthorized, or lacks jurisdiction, it exercises its power to set the detained person free immediately.
• In the Indian context, the Supreme Court has the authority to issue this writ under Article 32 for the enforcement of fundamental rights, while the High Courts possess similar powers under Article 226.
• This writ is unique because it can be filed not only by the aggrieved person but also by any interested person or relative on their behalf, ensuring protection against unlawful custody by both the state and private entities.

 Additional Information

• Apart from Habeas Corpus, the Constitution of India provides for other prerogative writs to safeguard the Rule of Law:
• Mandamus: Translating to 'we command', it is issued to a public official or a public body to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform.
• Quo Warranto: Meaning 'by what authority', it is used to prevent the illegal usurpation of a public office by an individual, asking them to prove the legality of their claim to that office.
• Prohibition: Issued by a higher court to a lower court or quasi-judicial body to prevent them from exceeding their legal jurisdiction or acting against the principles of natural justice.
• Certiorari: Meaning 'to be certified', it is issued by a higher court to quash or annul an order already passed by a lower court or tribunal due to an error of law or lack of jurisdiction.

The correct answer is Kandariya Mahadev Temple, Khajuraho.

Key Points

• The Nagara style of architecture is the indigenous style of North India, characterized by the absence of elaborate boundary walls and the presence of a curvilinear tower known as the Shikhara.
• The Kandariya Mahadev Temple, built by the Chandela dynasty between 1025 and 1050 AD, is considered the zenith of the Khajuraho school of Nagara architecture.
• The temple is renowned for its Panchayatana plan, where the main shrine is surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines, and its exterior is decorated with over 800 intricate sculptures.
• The Shikhara of this temple consists of several miniature towers called Urushringas, which rise progressively to create a silhouette resembling the peaks of the Himalayas.
• Unlike South Indian temples, the Nagara style typically places the deity on a raised platform called Jagati.

 Additional Information

• Meenakshi Temple, Madurai:
• Represents the Dravida style, specifically the Nayaka phase.
• Famous for its massive Gopurams (gateways) and the Hall of a Thousand Pillars.
• Brihadeeswara Temple, Thanjavur:
• A masterpiece of Chola architecture and a classic Dravida style structure.
• Features a massive Vimana (pyramidal tower) and was built by Rajaraja Chola I around 1010 AD.
• Chennakeshava Temple, Belur:
• An example of the Vesara style (or Hoysala style), which blends Nagara and Dravida elements.
• Known for its stellate (star-shaped) ground plan and extremely detailed soapstone carvings.

The correct answer is DNA.

Key Points

• DNA, or Deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material found in the nucleus of almost all living organisms, carrying the blueprint for development and functioning.
• The molecule is structured as a double helix, consisting of two strands of polynucleotides held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary nitrogenous bases.
• Information is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C), and Thymine (T).
• Each nucleotide unit within the DNA strand is composed of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and one of the four nitrogenous bases.
• The specific sequence of these bases determines the genetic instructions necessary for the synthesis of proteins and RNA molecules, facilitating the transmission of traits from parents to offspring.

 Additional Information

• Proteins:
• Complex molecules made of amino acids that perform a wide range of functions, including structural support (keratin), transport (hemoglobin), and defense (antibodies).
• Enzymes:
• Mostly proteinaceous in nature, they act as biological catalysts to speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required.
• Lipids:
• A diverse group of hydrophobic organic compounds like fats, oils, and steroids used for long-term energy storage and the formation of cell membranes (phospholipids).

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• As per the Energy Statistics India 2025 report released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Tamil Nadu possesses the highest lignite reserves in India as of 1^st April 2024.
• The state accounts for an overwhelming share of approximately 79.14% of the total lignite resources in the country, amounting to nearly 37.03 billion tonnes out of the national total of 46.74 billion tonnes.
• The most significant deposits in Tamil Nadu are located in the Neyveli region of the Cuddalore district, which is primarily exploited by NLC India Limited for thermal power generation.
• The Energy Statistics India report is a critical document that tracks the availability, production, and inventory of energy resources, categorizing lignite as a vital component of India's fossil fuel basket.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan:
• Holds the second-largest lignite reserves in India, with major fields situated in Barmer, Bikaner, and Nagaur districts.
• Key mining sites include Kapurdi, Jalipa, and Palana.
• Gujarat:
• Ranks third in lignite deposits, with significant occurrences in the Kutch, Surat, and Bharuch regions managed by the Gujarat Mineral Development Corporation (GMDC).
• Lignite Characteristics:
• Commonly known as brown coal, it is a low-grade coal with high moisture content and lower carbon content compared to bituminous coal.
• It is predominantly utilized in specialized power plants located near the mines due to its low calorific value and transport costs.

The correct answer is Amylase - Starch.

Key Points

• Amylase is a vital digestive enzyme responsible for the chemical breakdown of complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides) into simpler sugars.
• The substrate for amylase is starch, which it hydrolyzes by breaking the α-1,4-glycosidic bonds to produce maltose, maltotriose, and α-limit dextrins.
• In the human body, Salivary Amylase (also called ptyalin) initiates digestion in the mouth, while Pancreatic Amylase continues the process within the small intestine.
• Efficient starch digestion occurs at an optimal pH range of 6.7 to 7.0, facilitating the eventual absorption of glucose in the jejunum.

 Additional Information

• Lipase
• This enzyme is a lipolytic agent produced by the pancreas and gastric glands to digest lipids (fats).
• It breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol, rather than acting on proteins.
• Pepsin
• Secreted by the chief cells of the gastric mucosa as pepsinogen, it is the primary proteolytic enzyme of the stomach.
• Its substrate is proteins, which it converts into smaller peptides (proteoses and peptones) in a highly acidic pH environment.
• Maltase
• Produced in the small intestine (succus entericus), its specific substrate is maltose.
• It cleaves the disaccharide maltose into two molecules of glucose; it is not involved in the digestion of amino acids.

The correct answer is Sanchika.

Key Points

• Sanchika is an advanced digital repository developed and maintained by the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), situated in Mysuru.
• The platform functions as a comprehensive archive for Indian languages, specifically targeting the aggregation of dictionaries, primers, literary works, and multimedia content for both Scheduled and tribal languages.
• The primary goal of Sanchika is to provide a structured linguistic database that serves as a foundation for training Artificial Intelligence (AI) models and Large Language Models (LLMs).
• By digitizing endangered and minority languages, the repository aids in the development of Machine Translation (MT) systems and Natural Language Processing (NLP) tools, ensuring these languages are not left behind in the digital era.
• It supports the broader vision of the National Language Translation Mission by creating high-quality datasets that facilitate cross-lingual communication and digital inclusion for native speakers of various Indian dialects.

 Additional Information

• Bhashini:
• This is the National Language Translation Mission (NLTM), an AI-led platform aimed at breaking language barriers by providing real-time translation services in Indian languages.
• It features the Bhasha Daan initiative, which encourages citizens to contribute data to improve AI accuracy for local dialects.
• Anuvadini:
• Developed by AICTE, this is an AI-based translation tool designed to facilitate multilingual education by translating technical textbooks and materials into Indian regional languages.
• It focuses on voice-to-voice and text-to-text translation to align with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 goals.
• Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL):
• Founded on July 17, 1969, it is a premier research institute under the Ministry of Education located in Mysuru, Karnataka.
• It is responsible for the promotion, protection, and development of all Indian languages, including the implementation of the Classical Languages scheme.