DSSSB Assistant Superintendent Official Paper (Held On: 14 Jul, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

'INDIAN' related to 'FKAFXK':

And,

'EXAM' related to 'BUXJ'

Similarly,

'FATHER' is related to

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

‘FAIRLY’ is written as ‘AKRKZF’

Similarly,

‘GROUND’ is written as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

(AR, BU, CX)

And,

(HQ, IT, JW) 

Similarly,

Option 1) (TC, UF, VI) 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 

1) A is the mother of B.

2. B is the brother of C.

3) C is the sister of D.

4. D is the husband of E.

Thus, C is the sister of B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct order of words as they would appear in an English dictionary:

4. Strick
5. Stricture
6. Strife
7. Strike
8. String

Thus, 'Strife' will be at the third position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 18 - 23 × 455 ÷ 7 + 28 = 377

According to the question, after + and –, 3 and 5 are interchanged:

I. 5 × 4 + 3 – 6 ÷ 2 ⇒ 3 × 4 - 5 + 6 ÷ 2

⇒ 3 × 4 - 5 + 6 ÷ 2

⇒ 3 × 4 - 5 + 3

⇒ 12 + 3 - 5

⇒ 15 - 5

⇒ 10

II. 7 × 4 ÷ 2 – 5 + 3 ⇒ 7 × 4 ÷ 2 + 3 - 5

⇒ 7 × 4 ÷ 2 + 3 - 5

⇒ 7 × 2 + 3 - 5

⇒ 14 + 3 - 5

⇒ 17 - 5

⇒ 12

III. 5 – 3 + 8 × 4 ÷ 2 ⇒ 3 + 5 - 8 × 4 ÷ 2

⇒ 3 + 5 - 8 × 4 ÷ 2

⇒ 3 + 5 - 8 × 2

⇒ 3 + 5 - 16

⇒ 8 - 16

⇒ -8

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

114 : 229

114 × 2 + 1 = 229

228 + 1 = 229

229 = 229 (LHS = RHS)

And,

21 : 43

21 × 2 + 1 = 43

42 + 1 = 43

43 = 43 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

64 : ?

64 × 2 + 1 = ?

128 + 1 = ?

129 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: (Left) NOD QDC SOE BUL SIT (Right)

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in one word thus formed will have two vowels.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

14 C 7 = 245

→ 14² + 7² = 245

→ 196 + 49 = 245

And,

17 C 8 = 353

→ 172 + 82 = 353

→ 289 + 64 = 353

Similarly,

15 C 4 = ?

→ 152 + 42 = ?

→ 225 + 16 = ?

→ 241 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: (Left) QFM TIH UPV NET TSH (Right)

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in three words thus formed will have two vowel.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

ACE : XAD

And,

PST : MQS

Similarly,

Option 3) JMO : GKN 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

‘GUIDE’ is coded as ‘ITKCG’

And,

‘LOOK’ is coded as ‘NNQJ’

Similarly,

‘SHEET’ is coded as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Decoding symbols:

Given: N × K – R ÷ S + T

N × K → N is the sister of K.

K – R → K is the father of R.

R ÷ S → R is the daughter of S.

S + T → S is the mother of T.

Thus, S is R's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

10 % 5 = 250

→ (10² + 5²) × 2 = 250

→ (100 + 25) × 2 = 250

→ 125 × 2 = 250

And,

13 % 6 = 410

→ (132 + 62) × 2 = 410

→ (169 + 36) × 2 = 410

→ 205 × 2 = 410

Similarly,

20 % 4 = ?

→ (202 + 42) × 2 = ?

→ (400 + 16) × 2 = ?

→ 416 × 2 = ?

→ 832 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

176 : 529

176 × 3 + 1 = 529

528 + 1 = 529

529 = 529 (LHS = RHS)

And,

222 : 667

222 × 3 + 1 = 667

666 + 1 = 667

667 = 667 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

99 : ?

99 × 3 + 1 = ?

297 + 1 = ?

298 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

​(1, 14, 28)​

1 × 14 = 14

14 × 2 = 28

And,

(12, 168, 336)

12 × 14 = 168

168 × 2 = 336

Similarly,

(3, 42, 84)

3 × 14 = 42

42 × 2 = 84

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

ABD : ZAC

And,

RBS : QAR

Similarly,

Option 3) ARE : ZQD

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: (Left) MRP AUR RJD ONS KTM (Right)

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in three words thus formed will have one vowel.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​Option 1) NUD – PSW

Option 2) YES – ZDH

Option 3) MIN – NHM

Option 4) OVL – PUO

Thus, out of all 'NUD – PSW' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Five persons J, K, L, M and N are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre.

1) K is sitting second to the left of N.

2) J is sitting second to the right of N.

3) L is an immediate neighbour of J and N. 

After positioning L only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. M.

Thus, M is sitting immediate left of N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All B are D → Follow (As all B are C and all C are D. As whole B comes in C which whole comes in D.)

II. All A are C → Does not follow (As some A are B and all B are C. So it is possible but nit definite.)

III. No C is B → Does not follow (As all B are C. As whole B comes in C, therefore it is false.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion I follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​Option 1) GKJ

Option 2) AED

Option 3) IML

Option 4) BDC

Thus, out of all 'BDC' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

(OD, RH, UL)

And,

(KV, NZ, QD)

Similarly,

Option 2) (UK, XO, AS)

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: In a row of girls Shweta is 12th from the left end of row. Swati is 10 places to the right of Shweta and is at the exact centre of row.

Shweta's rank from the left end of row → 12th

Swati's rank from the left end of row → 12 + 10 = 22nd

As, Swati is at the exact centre of row, therefore equal number of girls are to the left and right of Swati.

Thus, total number of girls in the row → 22 × 2 - 1 = 43

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given: Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed one above the other.

1) Only two boxes are placed above box S. 

2) Only one box is placed between box V and S.

3) Three boxes are placed between box Q and R.

4) Q is placed above R.

5) As many as boxes are placed between box V and T as between box T and P. 

As there is no possible position for P in case 2, therefore is eliminated.

After positioning T and P only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. U.

Thus, zero boxes are placed between U and R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given: Seven friends namely – P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6 and P7 are living in a building of seven floors, lowermost floor is numbered 1, floor above it is numbered 2 and so on till the top-most floor which is numbered 7. Each person lives on a single floor.

1) P1 lives on a floor numbered four.

2) No one lives below P7. 

3) P2 lives four floor above P4.

4) P2 doesn’t live on top floor.

5) P6 lives above P4, but not immediately above.

6) Number of person who live between P6 and P1 are same as the number of persons who live between P1 and P5. 

After positioning P5 only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. P3.

Thus, two friends live between P4 and P6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given: 7 girls P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row facing towards south.

1) Four girls are sitting between V and T.

2. T is to the left of V.

3) U is to the left of T.

4) P is third to the right of S. 

5) Q is third from one of the end

After positioning Q only one position is left which will be occupied by the only girl left i.e. R.

Thus, SR depict the immediate neighbours.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given: Five students A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing towards south.

1) A is third to the left of E.

2. A is not at any of the end.

3) B is third to the right of C.

After positioning B and C only one position is left which will be occupied by the only student left i.e. D.

Thus, D is sitting in the middle of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:

​Option 1) QUT

Option 2) YCB

Option 3) PTS

Option 4) OLN

Thus, out of all 'OLN' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

​Option 1) RTU

Option 2) DAB

Option 3) FCD

Option 4) JGH

Thus, out of all 'RTU' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

→ 3 sides = 3 Internal Lines

And,

→ 4 sides = 4 Internal Lines

So checking each option one by one:

Option 1)

→ 5 sides = 5 Internal Lines

Option 2)

→ 4 sides ≠ 2 Internal Lines

Option 3) 

→ 6 sides ≠ 4 Internal Lines

Option 4)

→ 0 sides ≠ 4 Internal Lines

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All D are B → Does not follow (As no B is C and no C is D. So it is possible but nit definite.)

II. All C are E → Does not follow (As no C is D and no D is E. So it is possible but nit definite.)

III. Some B are E → Does not follow (As no B is C, no C is D and no D is E. So it is possible but nit definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some M are W → Follow (As some W are X and all X are M. As some part of W is common with X which whole comes in M, therefore it is true.)

II. Some X are W → Follow (As some W are X. As some part of W is common with X, therefore it is true.)

III. Some X are not H → Follow (As some W are X and no H is W. As some part of X is common with W which cannot be H, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, All conclusion follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Nua Khai is a traditional agricultural festival celebrated in the state of Odisha and certain parts of Chhattisgarh.
• The festival is observed to welcome the newly harvested rice of the season.
• Nua Khai is derived from two words: "Nua" meaning new and "Khai" meaning food, symbolizing newly harvested food consumption.
• It is mainly observed by farmers and rural communities and is usually celebrated a day after Ganesh Chaturthi.
• The festival emphasizes community bonding, gratitude to nature, and prayers to Mother Earth and local deities for a good harvest.

Additional Information

• Agricultural Significance: Nua Khai marks the beginning of the harvest season in Odisha, where farmers offer the first grains of their harvest to the deity before consuming it.
• Rituals: The day begins with "Nabanna" (offering of the new rice) to the family deity, followed by a grand feast with family and friends.
• Folk Traditions: The festival is associated with cultural activities like Sambalpuri dance and music, showcasing the rich heritage of Odisha.
• Regional Variations: While it is majorly celebrated in western Odisha, other states such as Chhattisgarh and parts of Jharkhand observe similar harvest festivals.
• Global Recognition: The celebration of Nua Khai has gained international attention due to the diaspora from Odisha, who organize the festival abroad to preserve their cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad.

Key Points

• Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), known as the "cradle of space sciences in India," is located in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
• PRL was established in 1947 by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, widely regarded as the father of the Indian space program.
• The institute conducts advanced research in areas like space and atmospheric sciences, astronomy, astrophysics, and theoretical physics.
• PRL is supported by the Department of Space, Government of India, and plays a pivotal role in India's space research and scientific advancements.
• The facility has contributed to key space missions such as Chandrayaan and Mangalyaan, providing essential scientific inputs and data.

Additional Information

• Vikram Sarabhai
• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai was a renowned Indian scientist and the founder of PRL.
• He was instrumental in establishing the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969.
• He emphasized the use of space technology for societal development, making India a global player in space exploration.
• Key Research Areas at PRL
• Space and Atmospheric Sciences: Research on ionosphere, magnetosphere, and planetary atmospheres.
• Astronomy and Astrophysics: Studies on celestial phenomena, star formations, and cosmic rays.
• Theoretical Physics: Investigations into quantum mechanics, particle physics, and cosmology.
• ISRO Collaboration
• PRL collaborates closely with ISRO for space missions like Chandrayaan and Mangalyaan.
• Its scientists contribute to satellite payloads, data analysis, and mission planning.
• PRL's Facilities
• PRL operates major research facilities such as the Udaipur Solar Observatory and a neutron monitoring station.
• It is equipped with advanced laboratories for spectroscopy, molecular analysis, and computational simulations.

The correct answer is K.L. Rahul.

Key Points

• K.L. Rahul recorded the fastest century by an Indian batsman in the ODI World Cup 2023, achieving the milestone in just 62 balls.
• His innings was part of an explosive batting display, contributing significantly to India's dominance in the match.
• Rahul's century included a mix of aggressive stroke play, with multiple boundaries and sixes.
• This achievement showcased K.L. Rahul's ability to adapt to high-pressure scenarios and perform at the international stage.
• Rahul's century in the World Cup added to his reputation as one of India's most dependable middle-order batsmen in ODIs.

Additional Information

• ODI World Cup Format:
• The ODI World Cup is organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) and follows a 50-over format.
• It is held every four years, featuring the best cricketing nations competing for the prestigious title.
• The 2023 ODI World Cup is hosted by India, marking the fourth time the country has hosted the tournament.
• Importance of Centuries in ODIs:
• Scoring a century in ODIs is considered a significant achievement, highlighting a player's consistency and skill.
• Fast centuries are particularly noteworthy as they demonstrate a player's ability to score runs quickly while maintaining composure.
• K.L. Rahul's Career Highlights:
• Rahul is known for his versatility, capable of playing as an opener or a middle-order batsman.
• He has represented India across all formats of the game and has been a key player in ICC tournaments.
• Rahul is also recognized for his wicketkeeping skills, adding depth to the Indian team's lineup.
• Indian Batting Records in World Cups:
• India has a rich history of batting milestones in World Cups, with legendary players like Sachin Tendulkar and Virat Kohli setting records.
• Fast centuries by players like Rahul contribute to India's dominance in the tournament.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• The Haryana Police launched the 'Safe Journey' initiative in October 2023 to enhance the safety of women traveling across the state.
• This initiative focuses on providing safer travel options and improving surveillance mechanisms in public transport systems and highways.
• The program includes measures such as deployment of police personnel at key points, installation of CCTV cameras, and quick response teams to ensure women's safety.
• 'Safe Journey' aims to create a secure and harassment-free environment for women travelers and commuters.
• The initiative also includes awareness campaigns to educate women on safety protocols and emergency helpline numbers.

Additional Information

• Women's Safety in India
• The Government of India has introduced multiple initiatives such as 'Nirbhaya Fund' to enhance women's safety.
• Women's safety includes measures like self-defense training, safety apps, emergency helplines, and gender sensitization programs.
• Emergency Helpline Numbers
• 112: National emergency number for police, ambulance, and fire services.
• 1091: Dedicated helpline for women's safety.
• These numbers aim to provide quick assistance in case of harassment or emergencies.
• Technology in Women's Safety
• Mobile applications like 'Himmat Plus' by Delhi Police enable women to report emergencies with location tracking.
• GPS-enabled surveillance in public transport ensures real-time monitoring of routes and safety measures.
• Gender Sensitization
• Police departments across India conduct gender sensitization workshops to train personnel in handling cases of harassment and violence sensitively.
• Such programs foster a better understanding of women's issues and promote respectful behavior in society.

The correct answer is Tulu.

Key Points

• Tulu is a Dravidian language primarily spoken in the coastal regions of Karnataka and northern Kerala.
• It is not among the languages commonly spoken in Rajasthan, where Hindi, Rajasthani, Urdu, and regional dialects like Mewati are prevalent.
• Rajasthan is linguistically dominated by Indo-Aryan languages, and Tulu belongs to the Dravidian language family.
• Other languages widely spoken in Rajasthan include Marwari, Dhundhari, and Shekhawati, which are dialects of Rajasthani.
• The absence of Tulu in Rajasthan is due to the geographic and cultural distinctions between the Dravidian-speaking southern states and Rajasthan.

Additional Information

• Languages Spoken in Rajasthan:
• Hindi is the official language of Rajasthan and widely spoken across the state.
• Rajasthani is a group of dialects including Marwari, Mewari, Shekhawati, and Dhundhari, which are culturally significant.
• Urdu is also spoken, particularly in areas with Muslim communities.
• Mewati is a dialect spoken in the Mewat region of Rajasthan and Haryana.
• Tulu Language Overview:
• Tulu is spoken by around 2 million people in Karnataka and Kerala, primarily in the Tulu Nadu region.
• It does not have official status in India but is culturally significant in its native region.
• Tulu has rich literature and folklore traditions, including Yakshagana performances.
• Language Families in India:
• India's languages are classified into major families: Indo-Aryan, Dravidian, Austroasiatic, and Tibeto-Burman.
• Indo-Aryan languages dominate northern and western India, including Rajasthan.
• Dravidian languages are concentrated in southern India, including Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, and Tulu.
• Rajasthan Cultural Diversity:
• Rajasthan is culturally diverse, with distinct traditions, dialects, and folk art forms like Ghoomar and Kalbelia dance.
• The state's linguistic diversity reflects its rich heritage and history.

The correct answer is Pooram Festival.

Key Points

• Pooram Festival is primarily celebrated in the state of Kerala, particularly in the temples of Thrissur district.
• The festival is widely known for its grand elephant procession, traditional percussion performances, and temple rituals.
• Pooram is a prominent Hindu temple festival that marks the gathering of deities from neighboring temples to honor the presiding deity.
• Thrissur Pooram is the most famous Pooram festival, celebrated in the Vadakkunnathan Temple, showcasing cultural and religious fervor.
• Unlike Bastar Dussehra, Madai Festival, or Kajari Festival, which are native to Chhattisgarh, Pooram Festival has no significant cultural ties to the region.

Additional Information

• Bastar Dussehra:
• Bastar Dussehra is celebrated in Chhattisgarh and is the longest Dussehra festival in the world, spanning 75 days.
• It is dedicated to the worship of local deities and involves traditional rituals and cultural performances.
• Madai Festival:
• Madai Festival is a tribal festival celebrated in different parts of Chhattisgarh to worship local deities.
• It features folk music, dance, and fairs, reflecting the rich tribal culture of the region.
• Kajari Festival:
• Kajari Festival is celebrated in northern India, particularly in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.
• It is observed during the monsoon season and involves traditional folk songs and rituals dedicated to nature and agriculture.
• Chhattisgarh Festivals:
• Chhattisgarh is known for its unique tribal festivals, which showcase the vibrant cultural heritage of the state.
• Major festivals include Bastar Dussehra, Madai Festival, and Chakradhar Samaroh.

The correct answer is 1955.

Key Points

• The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) was developed by Dr. Jonas Salk and first used in 1955.
• The IPV uses a killed version of the poliovirus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease.
• Clinical trials conducted in 1954 demonstrated the vaccine's safety and effectiveness, leading to its approval for public use.
• Mass immunization campaigns with IPV drastically reduced polio cases worldwide, marking a major milestone in public health.
• IPV has been included in routine immunization schedules in many countries as part of efforts to eradicate polio globally.

Additional Information

• Polio (Poliomyelitis):
• Polio is a highly infectious viral disease that primarily affects children under the age of 5.
• It can lead to permanent paralysis or death in severe cases.
• Types of Polio Vaccines:
• Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV): Made from killed poliovirus; administered via injection.
• Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV): Made from live attenuated (weakened) poliovirus; administered orally.
• Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI):
• Launched in 1988, the GPEI aims to eradicate polio worldwide.
• It is a partnership of organizations like WHO, UNICEF, and Rotary International.
• Polio-Free Certification:
• India was declared polio-free by the WHO in 2014 after years of intense immunization campaigns.
• As of 2023, polio remains endemic in only two countries: Afghanistan and Pakistan.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• India's first 5G training labs and applications in the health sector were launched in Assam in September 2023.
• The initiative was aimed at enhancing technological capabilities in the northeastern region, with a focus on healthcare innovations.
• The labs will focus on 5G-driven solutions for telemedicine, remote diagnostics, and real-time health monitoring.
• Assam was chosen as a strategic location to boost regional development and integrate advanced technologies into healthcare and other sectors.
• The project is supported by collaborative efforts between the government and private stakeholders to promote research and innovation in 5G technologies.

Additional Information

• 5G Technology
• 5G is the fifth-generation mobile network technology designed to deliver higher data speeds, lower latency, and greater connectivity.
• It enables applications such as IoT (Internet of Things), AI-driven solutions, and smart healthcare systems.
• The technology is expected to transform industries like health, agriculture, education, and transportation.
• Telemedicine
• Telemedicine refers to the use of technology to provide healthcare services remotely, including consultations and diagnostics.
• With 5G, telemedicine can offer real-time data sharing and seamless communication between patients and doctors.
• Applications of 5G in Healthcare
• 5G enables remote surgeries through high-speed networks and low latency.
• It allows for advanced health monitoring using connected devices and IoT sensors.
• Real-time imaging and diagnostics become more accessible even in remote areas.
• Development in Northeastern India
• The northeastern region of India has been receiving focused attention for technological and infrastructural development.
• Projects like 5G labs aim to integrate the region into the mainstream technological advancements of the country.

The correct answer is Brhatkatha.

Key Points

• The Brhatkatha was authored by Gunadhya, a prominent writer in ancient India.
• This work was written in the Paisachi language, an ancient and now-extinct Prakrit language.
• The Brhatkatha is a massive narrative, detailing numerous stories and adventures, and is known for its rich literary style.
• Though the original text is lost, it survives through adaptations like Kathasaritsagara by Somadeva and Brhatkathamanjari by Kshemendra.
• The Brhatkatha is considered an important source of Indian folklore and cultural heritage.

Additional Information

• Paisachi Language
• Paisachi was an ancient Prakrit language used primarily in storytelling and oral traditions.
• It is often referred to as the "language of the demons" in Sanskrit literature, though it holds significant historical value.
• Today, the language is extinct, but it was once used for literary works like the Brhatkatha.
• Kathasaritsagara
• This is a famous Sanskrit adaptation of Gunadhya's Brhatkatha, written by Somadeva in the 11th century.
• It translates to "Ocean of Streams of Stories" and contains tales of adventure, love, and wisdom.
• Brhatkathamanjari
• Another adaptation of Brhatkatha, authored by Kshemendra in the 11th century.
• It is written in Sanskrit and provides a condensed version of the stories in Brhatkatha.
• Naishadhacharitra
• This is an epic Sanskrit poem written by Sriharsha, unrelated to the Brhatkatha.
• It depicts the love story of King Nala and Damayanti.
• Historical Significance of Folklore
• Works like the Brhatkatha serve as a repository of cultural, societal, and moral values of ancient India.
• They provide insights into the oral storytelling traditions that were prevalent during that time.

The correct answer is Stand Up India Scheme.

Key Points

• Stand Up India Scheme is an initiative launched by the Government of India to promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and women.
• It was implemented by the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
• The scheme facilitates bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up greenfield enterprises.
• Stand Up India Scheme was launched on 5 April 2016 by PM Narendra Modi as part of the broader initiative to foster inclusive growth.
• The scheme primarily focuses on economic empowerment by promoting entrepreneurship and job creation rather than direct welfare programs for women and children.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)
• The MWCD is responsible for policies and programs related to the welfare, development, and empowerment of women and children in India.
• Key initiatives under MWCD include Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana, Anganwadi Services Scheme, and POSHAN Abhiyaan.
• These programs focus on improving nutrition, maternal health, child welfare, and empowerment of women and girls.
• POSHAN Abhiyaan
• Also known as the National Nutrition Mission, POSHAN Abhiyaan aims to reduce malnutrition and stunting among children, anemia among women and children, and low birth weight.
• The initiative focuses on improving the nutritional status of women and children through awareness and integrated service delivery.
• Anganwadi Services Scheme
• This scheme provides a range of services such as supplementary nutrition, preschool education, and healthcare to children under 6 years and pregnant/lactating mothers.
• Implemented through Anganwadi centers, it is a flagship program of MWCD for early childhood care and development.
• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
• PMMVY is a maternity benefit program under MWCD, providing financial assistance to pregnant women and lactating mothers.
• Eligible beneficiaries receive ₹5,000 in three installments for the first live birth as part of this scheme.

The correct answer is Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production.

Key Points

• The A-HELP programme stands for Accredited Agent for Health and Extension of Livestock Production.
• It is a government initiative aimed at enhancing livestock productivity and promoting animal health in rural areas.
• The programme involves training women under the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) to become agents for livestock extension services.
• A-HELP agents play a critical role in providing veterinary first aid, vaccination, and livestock-related advisory services to farmers.
• The initiative not only supports livestock welfare but also empowers rural women by creating employment opportunities.

Additional Information

• Livestock Sector in India:
• India is the largest producer of milk globally, contributing significantly to rural livelihoods.
• The livestock sector contributes nearly 4.5% to India's GDP and provides employment to millions.
• Livestock plays a key role in reducing poverty and ensuring nutritional security.
• National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM):
• NRLM is a poverty alleviation programme by the Ministry of Rural Development.
• It aims to organize rural poor into self-help groups and enhance their livelihoods.
• NRLM collaborates with various initiatives like A-HELP to improve rural incomes.
• Importance of Livestock Productivity:
• Enhanced livestock productivity leads to higher income generation for farmers.
• Improved animal health reduces economic losses due to diseases.
• Productive livestock contributes to sustainable agriculture.
• Veterinary Extension Services:
• Extension services involve transferring knowledge and technology to livestock farmers.
• A-HELP agents bridge the gap between veterinary professionals and farmers.
• These services ensure timely vaccination, disease prevention, and better herd management.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The English and Foreign Languages University (EFLU) is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
• EFLU was established in 1958 as the Central Institute of English (CIE), later becoming a university in 1973.
• The university specializes in English and foreign language studies, offering programs in linguistics, literature, cultural studies, and language teaching.
• It is a central university under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• EFLU has regional campuses in Lucknow and Shillong, apart from its main campus in Hyderabad.

Additional Information

• Central Universities:
• Central universities are established by an Act of Parliament and funded by the Central Government of India.
• These universities are meant to cater to higher education and research needs across various fields.
• There are a total of 54 central universities in India as of 2023.
• Language Studies in India:
• India is home to numerous institutions specializing in language studies, reflecting its rich linguistic diversity.
• Studies include Indian languages as well as foreign languages such as French, German, Spanish, Chinese, and Arabic.
• EFLU's Contributions:
• EFLU focuses on producing skilled professionals in language teaching, translation, and cultural studies.
• It conducts research on language pedagogy, sociolinguistics, and applied linguistics.
• Hyderabad as an Educational Hub:
• Hyderabad houses prominent institutions like IIT Hyderabad, ISB, NALSAR, and EFLU.
• The city is known for its emphasis on technology, management, and language studies.

The correct answer is Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Key Points

• The SUGAM initiative in renewable energy was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in 2023 to facilitate sustainable growth in the aviation sector.
• SUGAM stands for Sustainable Green Aviation Mission, emphasizing the adoption of green energy solutions in airports and aviation operations.
• The initiative aims to achieve net-zero carbon emissions across all Indian airports by 2030, aligning with global environmental goals.
• It includes measures such as the adoption of renewable energy, energy-efficient technologies, and green building practices for airport infrastructure.
• SUGAM also promotes the use of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) to reduce the carbon footprint of air travel.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF):
• SAF is a cleaner alternative to conventional jet fuel, produced from sustainable feedstocks like waste oils, agricultural residues, and non-food crops.
• Its use can reduce lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions by up to 80% compared to traditional jet fuel.
• Several global aviation players are adopting SAF as part of their carbon neutrality efforts.
• Green Airports:
• Green airports are designed to minimize environmental impact through energy-efficient infrastructure, renewable energy use, and waste management systems.
• India has set a target to make 100 airports carbon neutral by 2024 under various sustainability initiatives.
• Net-Zero Carbon Emissions:
• Net-zero emissions refer to achieving a balance between the amount of greenhouse gases emitted and the amount removed from the atmosphere.
• It is a key goal for industries worldwide to mitigate the impacts of climate change.
• Ministry of Civil Aviation:
• The Ministry is responsible for the formulation of national policies and programs for the development and regulation of the civil aviation sector in India.
• It oversees the infrastructure development of airports, air navigation services, and the promotion of sustainable aviation practices.

The correct answer is Visakhadatta.

Key Points

• Mudrarakshasa is a classical Sanskrit drama written by Visakhadatta, known for its political and historical significance.
• The play primarily revolves around the clever political maneuverings of Chanakya and the establishment of the Maurya Empire.
• It is considered one of the masterpieces of Indian classical literature and showcases the art of statecraft and diplomacy.
• Visakhadatta is believed to have lived during the Gupta period, though the exact dates are not clearly established.
• The drama is unique for its focus on political intrigue rather than romantic or mythological themes, which were common in Sanskrit literature.

Additional Information

• Chanakya:
• Chanakya was an ancient Indian teacher, philosopher, economist, and royal advisor, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta.
• He played a pivotal role in the establishment of the Maurya Empire and was the chief advisor to Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
• Chanakya is credited with writing the ancient Indian political treatise Arthashastra, which deals with governance, economics, and military strategy.
• The Maurya Empire:
• The Maurya Empire was one of the largest and most powerful empires in ancient India, founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 BCE.
• Under the guidance of Chanakya, the empire expanded significantly and became a model of efficient administration.
• Emperor Ashoka, one of Chandragupta’s successors, is famous for spreading Buddhism and his policies of non-violence.
• Sanskrit Drama:
• Sanskrit drama is a prominent form of classical Indian literature, characterized by its elaborate use of language and adherence to strict literary conventions.
• Famous works include Kalidasa’s "Shakuntala" and Bhasa’s "Swapnavasavadatta."
• These plays often reflect cultural, religious, and societal themes prevalent during their time.
• Gupta Period:
• The Gupta Empire (circa 320 CE–550 CE) is often referred to as the "Golden Age" of India due to its advancements in art, literature, science, and mathematics.
• During this period, Sanskrit literature flourished, with notable works in drama, poetry, and philosophy being composed.
• It was marked by significant contributions to astronomy and mathematics, including Aryabhata’s work on the concept of zero.

The correct answer is Iron.

Key Points

• Iron is a vital component of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body.
• Each hemoglobin molecule consists of four iron atoms, which bind to oxygen molecules for transport.
• Iron is essential for maintaining healthy oxygen levels in tissues and supporting energy metabolism in cells.
• The body obtains iron through dietary sources such as red meat, leafy green vegetables, legumes, and fortified cereals.
• An iron deficiency can lead to anemia, characterized by fatigue, weakness, and reduced oxygen transport in the blood.

Additional Information

• Hemoglobin:
• A protein found in red blood cells that contains iron and gives blood its red color.
• Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues, facilitating cellular respiration.
• Myoglobin:
• A protein similar to hemoglobin, found in muscle tissues.
• Myoglobin stores oxygen for muscle use during physical activity.
• Iron Deficiency Anemia:
• A condition caused by insufficient iron levels in the body, leading to decreased hemoglobin production.
• Symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, dizziness, and pale skin.
• Iron Absorption:
• Vitamin C-rich foods, such as citrus fruits, enhance the absorption of non-heme iron (plant-based iron).
• Calcium and certain compounds in tea and coffee can inhibit iron absorption.

The correct answer is Transport and release of oxygen.

Key Points

• Proteins primarily function in growth, repair, and maintenance of the human body.
• They are crucial for the synthesis of enzymes, hormones, and antibodies, which regulate and protect the body.
• Proteins do not directly transport and release oxygen; this function is carried out by hemoglobin, which is a protein but relies on iron for oxygen binding.
• Other essential roles of proteins include cell signaling, muscle contraction, and nutrient storage.
• Oxygen transport is a specific function of red blood cells and hemoglobin, not a general function of proteins.

Additional Information

• Hemoglobin:
• Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that binds with oxygen in the lungs and releases it into tissues.
• It contains iron, which is essential for oxygen binding.
• This process is vital for respiration and energy production in the body.
• Antibodies and Hormones:
• Proteins like antibodies play a key role in the immune system by identifying and neutralizing pathogens.
• Hormones such as insulin and glucagon are protein-based and regulate metabolic processes.
• Enzymes:
• Enzymes are biological catalysts made of proteins that accelerate chemical reactions in the body.
• An example is amylase, which helps in the digestion of carbohydrates.
• Protein Sources:
• Common dietary sources of protein include meat, fish, eggs, dairy products, legumes, and nuts.
• Adequate protein intake is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health.

The correct answer is Kuno National Park.

Key Points

• Kuno National Park is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh, India.
• It became the site for the reintroduction of cheetahs in India as part of the Project Cheetah, an initiative to restore the cheetah population in the country.
• The Namibian cheetah named Aasha gave birth to three cubs at Kuno National Park, marking a milestone in the cheetah reintroduction program.
• This event is significant as cheetahs had been declared extinct in India in 1952, and their reintroduction represents a major step in wildlife conservation.
• The reintroduced cheetahs were brought to India from Namibia under a historic bilateral agreement signed in 2022.

Additional Information

• Project Cheetah
• Launched in 2022, it is an ambitious project to reintroduce cheetahs into India after their extinction in 1952.
• The project involves the translocation of cheetahs from countries like Namibia and South Africa to India.
• It aims to establish viable cheetah populations in suitable habitats like Kuno National Park, ensuring the long-term conservation of the species.
• Cheetahs in India
• The Asiatic cheetah, once native to India, was declared extinct in the country due to extensive hunting and habitat loss.
• The reintroduced cheetahs are African cheetahs, as Asiatic cheetahs are critically endangered and found only in Iran.
• Kuno National Park
• It spans an area of approximately 748 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity.
• Initially identified as a potential site for the relocation of Asiatic lions, it was later chosen for the cheetah reintroduction program.
• Global Importance
• The reintroduction of cheetahs in India is the first intercontinental wildlife translocation of its kind for large carnivores.
• This initiative highlights international collaboration in wildlife conservation and biodiversity restoration.

The correct answer is World Health Organization.

Key Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Preparedness and Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) initiative to enhance global preparedness for disease pandemics and emerging health threats.
• PRET focuses on improving the ability of countries to prevent, detect, and respond to emerging health threats in a coordinated and effective manner.
• The initiative emphasizes the importance of multisectoral collaboration, integrating health systems, and fostering partnerships between governments, organizations, and communities.
• PRET aims to address gaps identified during previous health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, by creating frameworks that enhance pandemic preparedness and response.
• The program is aligned with WHO's broader mission of achieving global health security and ensuring that all countries are equipped to respond to emerging health challenges.

Additional Information

• World Health Organization (WHO):
• WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
• Founded in 1948, its headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland.
• WHO plays a key role in coordinating global efforts to combat health emergencies, such as pandemics and epidemics.
• Global Health Security:
• It refers to protecting populations worldwide from infectious disease threats.
• Global health security emphasizes prevention, detection, and rapid response to health emergencies.
• Key frameworks include the International Health Regulations (IHR) and initiatives like PRET.
• Lessons from the COVID-19 Pandemic:
• The COVID-19 pandemic highlighted gaps in global health systems, including inequalities in health infrastructure.
• It underscored the need for better surveillance, vaccine equity, and coordinated responses.
• Initiatives like PRET aim to address these issues to prevent future pandemics.
• Emerging Health Threats:
• These include zoonotic diseases, antimicrobial resistance, and other new or re-emerging infectious diseases.
• Emerging threats are often linked to environmental changes, globalization, and increased human-animal interaction.
• Effective preparedness involves research, early warning systems, and robust healthcare infrastructure.

The correct answer is Alexander Fleming.

Key Points

• Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 while working at St. Mary’s Hospital, London.
• Penicillin was the first widely effective antibiotic and is considered one of the most important discoveries in medical history.
• The discovery of penicillin occurred when Fleming noticed that a mold called Penicillium notatum inhibited the growth of bacteria in a petri dish.
• This groundbreaking discovery led to the development of antibiotics, revolutionizing the treatment of bacterial infections.
• Fleming received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1945, alongside Howard Florey and Ernst Boris Chain, for their contributions to the development of penicillin as a therapeutic drug.

Additional Information

• Penicillin and Antibiotics:
• Penicillin belongs to the group of antibiotics known as beta-lactams, which work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
• Antibiotics are substances used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria, and they have significantly reduced mortality rates from bacterial infections since their discovery.
• Impact of Penicillin:
• Penicillin was initially used during World War II to treat wounded soldiers, marking the start of its widespread use.
• This discovery paved the way for other antibiotics, such as streptomycin and tetracycline, which have saved countless lives globally.
• Challenges with Antibiotics:
• The overuse and misuse of antibiotics have led to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, posing a major global health challenge.
• Continuous research is essential to develop new antibiotics and combat resistant strains.
• Legacy of Alexander Fleming:
• Fleming’s work is celebrated as one of the greatest contributions to modern medicine.
• His discovery emphasized the importance of serendipity in scientific research and the need for careful observation.

The correct answer is Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers launched the National Policy on Research and Development and Innovation in Pharma-MedTech Sector in India in September 2023.
• The policy aims to promote self-reliance and innovation in the pharmaceutical and medical technology sectors.
• Alongside the policy, the government introduced the Scheme for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Pharma MedTech Sector (PRIP).
• PRIP seeks to strengthen R&D infrastructure and incentivize innovation in the pharma and MedTech industries.
• This initiative aligns with India's vision of becoming a global leader in pharmaceuticals and medical technology manufacturing.

Additional Information

• Pharma-MedTech Sector:
• The pharmaceutical industry involves the development, production, and marketing of medications for therapeutic use.
• Medical technology (MedTech) encompasses devices, diagnostics, and digital health solutions used in healthcare delivery.
• National Policy on R&D:
• This policy focuses on enhancing India's scientific capabilities and fostering innovation ecosystems.
• It aims to reduce India's dependency on imports and promote domestic manufacturing.
• Scheme for Promotion of Research and Innovation in Pharma MedTech Sector (PRIP):
• The scheme supports startups and MSMEs in the pharmaceutical and MedTech sectors.
• It provides financial incentives for research-oriented projects and infrastructure development.
• India's Pharma Industry:
• India is the third-largest producer of pharmaceuticals globally by volume.
• It accounts for approximately 20% of the global supply of generic drugs.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The population of India has significantly grown over the decades due to advancements in medical facilities, which have improved healthcare accessibility and quality, reducing mortality rates.
• There has been a reduction in death rates due to effective disease control, immunization programs, and improved sanitation systems.
• Access to better healthcare services has resulted in longer life expectancy, contributing to the population increase.
• Government initiatives and programs aimed at public health improvement have also played a crucial role in lowering mortality rates and improving overall population health.

Additional Information

• Medical Advancements:
• Technological advancements in medical science have enabled early disease detection and effective treatments.
• Introduction of antibiotics, vaccines, and advanced medical equipment has significantly reduced mortality rates.
• Reduction in Infant Mortality:
• Infant mortality rates in India have decreased due to better maternal healthcare, immunization programs, and nutrition awareness.
• Improved Sanitation and Hygiene:
• Government-led initiatives like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan have improved sanitation facilities, reducing diseases caused by poor hygiene.
• Impact of Family Planning Programs:
• Although family planning programs have been implemented, their impact on population growth has been gradual and uneven across different regions.
• Life Expectancy:
• Life expectancy at birth in India has increased from approximately 49 years in 1971 to about 70 years in 2021 due to better healthcare and living conditions.

The correct answer is 1867.

Key Points

• The Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• It was founded by Atmaram Pandurang and inspired by the ideas of the Brahmo Samaj.
• The organization focused on religious and social reforms, advocating for monotheism and against caste discrimination.
• Prominent leaders like M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar played a vital role in strengthening the Samaj's efforts.
• The Prarthana Samaj emphasized women's education, widow remarriage, and abolition of untouchability as part of its reform agenda.

Additional Information

• Brahmo Samaj:
• Founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, it aimed at purifying Hinduism by removing superstitions and idol worship.
• It advocated for monotheism and social reforms, including women's rights and education.
• Social Reform Movements in India:
• 19th-century reform movements aimed at eradicating social evils like caste discrimination, child marriage, and sati.
• Leaders such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, and Jyotirao Phule were prominent in these efforts.
• Widow Remarriage Act of 1856:
• Passed under the initiative of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, this law legalized the remarriage of Hindu widows.
• It was a significant step toward improving the status of women in Indian society.
• Religious Reform in 19th Century India:
• Movements like Arya Samaj, Brahmo Samaj, and Prarthana Samaj sought to reinterpret Hinduism and eliminate regressive practices.
• They emphasized rationality, education, and equality, aligning with modern values.

The correct answer is Attorney General of India.

Key Points

• The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the Government of India, as per Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India and must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Attorney General provides legal advice to the Government of India and represents it in cases of utmost importance, including those before the Supreme Court.
• The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President and is not a member of the government or any political party.
• He/she is assisted by the Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitors General in performing official duties.

Additional Information

• Attorney General of India – Key Roles and Responsibilities:
• Advises the Government of India on legal matters.
• Represents the Government of India in the Supreme Court and other courts.
• Performs other legal duties assigned by the President or the Government of India.
• Does not have the right to vote in Parliament but can participate in parliamentary proceedings.
• Eligibility Criteria for Attorney General:
• Must be an Indian citizen.
• Should have been a judge of a High Court for at least 5 years or an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.
• Alternatively, must be an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President.
• Difference Between Attorney General and Solicitor General:
• The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor and primary lawyer for the Government of India.
• The Solicitor General and Additional Solicitors General assist the Attorney General in performing his/her duties.
• Unlike the Attorney General, the Solicitor General is not a constitutional post but is appointed to support legal functions.
• Tenure and Removal:
• The Attorney General does not have a fixed tenure and serves at the pleasure of the President.
• He/she can be removed by the President at any time.

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

• The Narmada River is one of the major rivers in India that flows into the Arabian Sea.
• It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows westward over a length of approximately 1,312 km before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
• The Narmada is also referred to as the "Lifeline of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat" due to its importance in water supply, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.
• This river forms the natural boundary between North India and South India and is part of the Pennar Basin.
• Unlike other rivers in India that predominantly flow eastward, the Narmada flows westward, discharging its waters into the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

• Rivers flowing into the Arabian Sea:
• Other major rivers discharging into the Arabian Sea include the Tapi (Tapti), Mahi, and Sabarmati.
• These rivers, along with the Narmada, flow westward, which is uncommon compared to the majority of Indian rivers that flow eastward.
• Westward vs. Eastward Flow of Rivers:
• Most Indian rivers such as the Ganga, Yamuna, and Mahanadi flow eastward and drain into the Bay of Bengal.
• Rivers flowing westward, like the Narmada, Tapi, and Mahi, are relatively fewer and originate near the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
• Significance of Narmada River:
• The river basin supports agriculture, drinking water, and industrial needs for millions of people in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra.
• The Sardar Sarovar Dam on the Narmada is a key multipurpose project for irrigation, water supply, and hydroelectric power generation.
• Arabian Sea Drainage System:
• The Arabian Sea drainage system includes rivers originating in the Western Ghats, central India, and the northern regions of the Deccan Plateau.
• These rivers significantly contribute to the biodiversity and ecological balance of the Arabian Sea coastal regions.

The correct answer is Babur.

Key Points

• Babur (1483–1530) was the founder and the first emperor of the Mughal Empire in India.
• He was a descendant of Timur on his father's side and Genghis Khan on his mother's side.
• Babur established Mughal rule in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat (1526).
• He is known for introducing advanced military tactics such as the use of artillery in battles, which played a significant role in his victory at Panipat.
• Babur's autobiography, "Baburnama," is a significant historical source that provides insights into his life, conquests, and administration.

Additional Information

• The Mughal Empire:
• It was established in 1526 and lasted until the mid-19th century when it was dissolved by the British.
• Key Mughal rulers included Babur, Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb.
• The empire is known for its contributions to architecture, art, and culture, including the construction of the Taj Mahal.
• First Battle of Panipat:
• Fought on April 21, 1526, between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
• Babur's use of cannons and strategic military formations played a decisive role in his victory.
• Baburnama:
• It is the autobiography of Babur, written in Chagatai Turkish, the language of his court.
• Considered a masterpiece of Islamic literature, it provides a detailed account of Babur's life, his military campaigns, and his observations of the regions he conquered.
• Mughal Military Tactics:
• Babur introduced the use of advanced artillery and innovative military formations such as the "Tulughma" (flanking maneuver).
• These tactics gave the Mughals a significant advantage over their adversaries in battles.

The correct answer is National Human Rights Commission.

Key Points

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body, established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• It is not a constitutional body as it is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
• The NHRC's primary role is to promote and protect human rights, focusing on rights guaranteed by the Constitution and international conventions.
• Constitutional bodies are those established directly by the Constitution of India, such as the Election Commission, Finance Commission, etc.
• Other examples of statutory bodies in India include the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Central Information Commission (CIC).

Additional Information

• Constitutional Bodies:
• These are bodies explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.
• Examples include the Election Commission of India, Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), and Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• Such bodies derive their powers and functions directly from the Constitution.
• Statutory Bodies:
• Statutory bodies are created by an Act of Parliament or a state legislature.
• These include NHRC, National Commission for Women (NCW), and the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
• They are not mentioned in the Constitution but derive their authority from specific laws.
• National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
• NHRC was established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• Its main objectives include investigating complaints related to human rights violations and recommending corrective measures.
• The NHRC is headquartered in New Delhi, India.
• Election Commission of India:
• It is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Election Commission conducts free and fair elections in India.
• It is an autonomous body, independent from the influence of the executive or legislature.

The correct answer is 1764 CE.

Key Points

• The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the British East India Company and the combined forces of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal; Shuja-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Awadh; and Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor.
• The battle took place at Buxar, located in present-day Bihar, India.
• The British forces were led by Hector Munro, and they emerged victorious, marking a significant milestone in establishing British dominance in India.
• This victory solidified the company's control over Bengal and laid the foundation for the Diwani Rights granted in 1765, allowing the British to collect revenue from Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha.
• The Battle of Buxar was crucial in shaping the political and economic framework of British rule in India.

Additional Information

• Mir Qasim: He was the Nawab of Bengal who allied with Shuja-ud-Daula and Shah Alam II against the British, hoping to reclaim his lost territories.
• Shuja-ud-Daula: The Nawab of Awadh who joined the alliance against the British, fearing their growing influence in the region.
• Diwani Rights: After the battle, the Treaty of Allahabad (1765) granted the British East India Company the rights to collect revenue (Diwani) from Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, marking the beginning of significant British economic exploitation in India.
• Hector Munro: The commander of the British forces during the Battle of Buxar, whose leadership was instrumental in the decisive victory.
• Impact of the Battle: The British East India Company's victory at Buxar further weakened the Mughal Empire and regional powers, paving the way for the establishment of British supremacy in India.

The correct answer is Punjab Himalaya.

Key Points

• The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Indus and Satluj is traditionally referred to as the Punjab Himalaya.
• This region includes areas of the western Himalayas and extends across parts of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
• The Punjab Himalaya serves as a significant geographical feature that influences the climate and ecosystem of the northern Indian plains.
• The Indus River marks the western boundary, while the Satluj River marks the eastern boundary of this Himalayan segment.
• This section of the Himalayas is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to important hill stations like Shimla, Dharamshala, and Manali.

Additional Information

• Himalayan Segmentation:
• The Himalayas are divided into various segments based on rivers: Punjab Himalaya (Indus-Satluj), Kumaon Himalaya (Satluj-Kali), Nepal Himalaya (Kali-Teesta), and Assam Himalaya (Teesta-Brahmaputra).
• Each segment has distinct geographical and ecological characteristics.
• Western Himalayas:
• The western Himalayas, which include the Punjab Himalaya, are characterized by high-altitude peaks, valleys, and alpine ecosystems.
• This region experiences heavy snowfall during winters and contributes significantly to the glacial runoff feeding major rivers.
• Rivers in Punjab Himalaya:
• The Indus and Satluj rivers are the major water bodies in this region, playing an important role in agriculture and hydropower generation.
• Other tributaries of these rivers also contribute to the irrigation systems in northern India.
• Significance of Punjab Himalaya:
• The region serves as a critical source of water for the Indus Basin, which supports millions of livelihoods.
• It is a key area for tourism, biodiversity conservation, and cultural heritage in northern India.

The correct answer is Three months.

Key Points

• According to Article 22(4) of the Indian Constitution, a person can be detained under preventive detention laws for a maximum period of three months without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board.
• The Advisory Board, which consists of judges or retired judges, must review the detention order if the government seeks to extend the detention beyond three months.
• Preventive detention is a measure to detain individuals to prevent them from committing an act that may harm public order, national security, or the interests of the state.
• The three-month limit ensures a balance between individual liberty and the need to maintain public safety.
• Parliament has the authority to legislate and provide for a longer period of preventive detention under certain circumstances.

Additional Information

• Preventive Detention
• Preventive detention refers to the act of detaining a person based on suspicion that they may commit an offense in the future.
• It is different from punitive detention, where a person is detained after being convicted of a crime.
• Preventive detention is seen as necessary in cases related to national security, public order, or economic stability.
• This measure is often criticized for its potential misuse to curtail individual freedom.
• Article 22 of the Indian Constitution
• Article 22 provides protection for individuals against arbitrary arrest and detention.
• It distinguishes between punitive detention and preventive detention.
• The article lays down safeguards such as the right to consult a legal practitioner and the need to produce the arrested person before a magistrate within 24 hours.
• In the case of preventive detention, these safeguards are limited as the individual may not have the right to be informed of the grounds of detention.
• Advisory Board
• The Advisory Board is constituted under preventive detention laws to review detention orders and ensure they are not arbitrary.
• It typically comprises sitting or retired High Court judges.
• The board must review detention orders within three months of detention and provide its report to the government.
• If the board finds the detention unjustified, the person must be released immediately.
• Extension of Detention
• The government can extend preventive detention beyond three months only after obtaining the opinion of the Advisory Board.
• The maximum period of detention varies depending on the specific law under which the detention is carried out.
• For example, under the National Security Act (NSA), detention can extend up to 12 months.

The correct answer is fertility rate.

Key Points

• The fertility rate measures the number of live births per 1000 women in the child-bearing age group, typically considered 15-49 years.
• It is a key demographic indicator used to assess population growth trends and reproductive behavior in a society.
• The fertility rate helps policymakers design strategies for healthcare, education, and economic planning tailored to population needs.
• In developed nations, fertility rates are often below the replacement level of 2.1, while in developing nations, they are generally higher.
• Factors influencing fertility rate include cultural norms, healthcare access, economic conditions, and government policies on family planning.

Additional Information

• Birth Rate: Refers to the number of live births per 1000 people in a population annually.
• Death Rate: Indicates the number of deaths per 1000 people in a population annually.
• Sex Ratio: Represents the number of females per 1000 males in a population and is crucial for understanding gender balance.
• Replacement Level: The total fertility rate required to maintain a stable population size without migration, typically 2.1 children per woman.
• Factors Affecting Fertility Rate: Includes access to contraception, education levels, urbanization, healthcare quality, and cultural attitudes towards family size.

The correct answer is Muhammad Yunus.

Key Points

• Muhammad Yunus, a Bangladeshi social entrepreneur, economist, and civil society leader, is the founder of the Grameen Bank and a pioneer in the concepts of microcredit and microfinance.
• He received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006, jointly with the Grameen Bank, for their efforts to create economic and social development from below.
• The statement highlights his philosophy that financial inclusion of the poor can lead to significant socio-economic development.
• Yunus introduced the concept of microloans, which are small loans given to impoverished people without requiring collateral, enabling them to start small businesses and lift themselves out of poverty.
• He strongly advocated that credit is a fundamental human right, and his work has positively impacted millions of lives globally, especially in developing countries.

Additional Information

• Microfinance:
• Microfinance refers to the provision of financial services, such as loans, savings, insurance, and training, to low-income individuals or groups who do not have access to traditional banking services.
• It is a key tool for poverty alleviation and women's empowerment.
• The Grameen Bank model is a notable example of successful microfinance implementation.
• Grameen Bank:
• Founded in 1983 by Muhammad Yunus in Bangladesh, the Grameen Bank operates on the principle of group-based lending and financial inclusion.
• The bank provides small loans to rural poor, with a strong focus on empowering women.
• It has inspired similar microfinance institutions worldwide.
• Nobel Peace Prize:
• The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually to individuals or organizations that have made significant contributions to peace efforts globally.
• Muhammad Yunus and Grameen Bank received the prize in 2006 for their innovative approach to poverty alleviation and economic empowerment.
• Financial Inclusion:
• Financial inclusion involves ensuring that individuals and businesses, particularly those from disadvantaged groups, have access to useful and affordable financial products and services.
• It is a critical component of sustainable economic development and reducing inequality.

The correct answer is Sphagnum.

Key Points

• Sphagnum, also known as peat moss, is a type of bryophyte and not a pteridophyte.
• Pteridophytes are vascular plants, meaning they have a well-developed vascular system (xylem and phloem), whereas bryophytes lack such a system.
• Examples of pteridophytes include Selaginella, Salvinia, and Fern, all of which are seedless vascular plants.
• Sphagnum is non-vascular, grows in moist environments, and forms peat deposits, which are used as fuel and soil conditioner.

Additional Information

• Pteridophytes:
• Pteridophytes are vascular plants that reproduce via spores rather than seeds.
• They are considered the first true plants to have evolved vascular tissue for water and nutrient conduction.
• Pteridophytes include ferns, horsetails, and club mosses (e.g., Selaginella).
• They are found in damp and shady environments, typically in tropical and subtropical regions.
• Bryophytes:
• Bryophytes are non-vascular plants that include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.
• They require water for reproduction and are found in moist habitats.
• They lack true roots, stems, and leaves, and instead have structures called rhizoids.
• Sphagnum moss is a prominent example, known for its water retention capacity and role in forming peat bogs.
• Selaginella:
• A genus of pteridophytes commonly known as spikemoss or club moss.
• It exhibits heterospory, producing two types of spores: microspores and megaspores.
• It is often used as a model organism in studies of plant evolution.
• Salvinia:
• A genus of aquatic ferns belonging to the pteridophyte group.
• It is commonly referred to as water moss and floats on the surface of water bodies.
• Salvinia species are used in wastewater treatment due to their ability to absorb heavy metals.

The correct answer is Aurelia.

Key Points

• Aurelia is a genus of jellyfish and belongs to the phylum Cnidaria, not Porifera.
• Phylum Porifera consists of organisms commonly referred to as sponges, characterized by their porous bodies and lack of specialized tissues or organs.
• Examples of phylum Porifera include Euspongia, Spongilla, and Sycon, which are aquatic, sessile organisms.
• Jellyfish like Aurelia have specialized structures such as tentacles and nematocysts, which are absent in sponges.
• Unlike Porifera, members of Cnidaria exhibit radial symmetry and possess a gastrovascular cavity.

Additional Information

• Phylum Porifera
• Porifera means "pore bearers" and refers to their porous body structure.
• Organisms in this phylum are multicellular but lack true tissues and organs.
• They are primarily marine and filter-feed by drawing water through their pores.
• Sponges can reproduce both sexually and asexually and have remarkable regenerative abilities.
• Phylum Cnidaria
• Cnidarians are aquatic animals characterized by radial symmetry and a simple body plan.
• They possess specialized cells called nematocysts, which are used for capturing prey and defense.
• Examples include jellyfish (Aurelia), sea anemones, and corals.
• They exhibit two body forms: polyp (sessile) and medusa (free-floating).
• Key Differences Between Porifera and Cnidaria
• Porifera are sessile and lack true tissues, while Cnidarians have specialized tissues and can be motile.
• Porifera use pores for water circulation, whereas Cnidarians use tentacles for feeding.
• Sponges exhibit asymmetry, while Cnidarians display radial symmetry.
• Other Examples of Phylum Porifera
• Euspongia: Also known as the bath sponge, commonly used for bathing.
• Spongilla: A freshwater sponge known for its green color due to algae symbiosis.
• Sycon: A small marine sponge with a tubular structure.

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

• Members of the Public Service Commission (PSC) can hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
• The rules governing the tenure of PSC members are outlined in Article 316 of the Indian Constitution.
• The chairman and members of PSC are appointed by the President of India at the Union level and by the Governor at the state level.
• The tenure ensures stability and independence in decision-making for matters concerning recruitment and service conditions.
• PSC members are expected to discharge their duties impartially without any political influence.

Additional Information

• Public Service Commission (PSC)
• PSC is a constitutional body responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to various civil services.
• It ensures merit-based recruitment and advises the government on service-related matters.
• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) operates at the national level, while State Public Service Commissions (SPSC) function at the state level.
• Article 316 of the Indian Constitution
• It specifies the appointment, term, and conditions of service for PSC members.
• The chairman and members cannot hold any office of profit or engage in any other employment during their tenure.
• Removal of PSC Members
• Members can be removed by the President on grounds of misbehavior or incapacity after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.
• This ensures independence and safeguards the integrity of the commission.
• Age Limit for PSC Members
• Members retire upon reaching the age of 62 years or after completing their six-year term, whichever is earlier.
• The retirement age ensures the infusion of new perspectives into the commission.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Indian desert, also known as the Thar Desert, is located towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills, primarily in the state of Rajasthan.
• It experiences an arid climate, characterized by extremely low annual rainfall, often less than 250 mm.
• The vegetation in the Indian desert is sparse and consists mostly of xerophytic plants, adapted to survive in harsh conditions.
• The desert covers an area of approximately 200,000 square kilometers, making it the 17th largest desert in the world.
• Both statements I and II are correct as they describe the geographical location and climate of the Indian desert accurately.

Additional Information

• Xerophytic plants:
• These are plants adapted to arid conditions, with features like thick cuticles, reduced leaf surface, and deep roots.
• Examples include cactus, khejri, and thorny bushes in the Indian desert.
• Aravali Hills:
• These are one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world and run diagonally across Rajasthan.
• The Aravali range acts as a climatic divide, influencing desert formation on its western side.
• Climate of the Thar Desert:
• It is characterized by high diurnal temperature variation, with hot days and cool nights.
• Wind erosion is a significant factor shaping the landscape, forming sand dunes and ripples.
• Population and Livelihood:
• The Thar Desert has a relatively dense human population compared to other deserts, with communities relying on livestock rearing and agriculture in irrigated areas.
• Desertification and Conservation:
• Desertification is a concern due to overgrazing and deforestation.
• Efforts like the Thar Desert Development Programme aim to combat desertification and improve the livelihoods of local communities.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, ensuring basic human freedoms and rights to all citizens, such as equality before the law, freedom of speech, and religious freedom.
• Secularism is a key feature of the Indian Constitution, ensuring that the state treats all religions equally and does not favor or discriminate against any religion.
• The Indian Constitution is one of the few in the world that explicitly includes both Fundamental Rights and the principle of Secularism as core principles.
• These features reflect the inclusive and democratic nature of the Indian Constitution, which aims to balance individual freedoms with social harmony.
• Both Fundamental Rights and Secularism have been integral since the adoption of the Constitution on 26th January 1950.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights:
• There are six categories of Fundamental Rights: Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• These rights are enforceable in a court of law, and the judiciary acts as the guardian of these rights.
• They are considered essential for the holistic development of individuals in a democratic society.
• Secularism in India:
• Indian secularism is distinct as it ensures equal treatment of all religions, rather than the strict separation of religion and state as practiced in some other countries.
• Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution guarantee religious freedom to all citizens.
• The state is prohibited from promoting or interfering in religious affairs, except to ensure public order, morality, and health.
• Constitutional Framework:
• The Indian Constitution is the longest written Constitution in the world, with 448 Articles originally, divided into 22 Parts and 12 Schedules.
• It was drafted by the Constituent Assembly, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, and adopted on 26th November 1949.
• Significance of Fundamental Rights and Secularism:
• They ensure the protection of individual liberties and promote social justice and equality.
• Secularism fosters unity in a diverse society like India, where multiple religions coexist.

The correct answer is Tura.

Key Points

• Tura is a town situated in the Garo Hills region of Meghalaya, India, and is known for its high rainfall and unique climatic conditions.
• This region experiences some of the highest rainfall in the world, with certain areas like Cherrapunji and Mawsynram nearby recording annual rainfall exceeding 11,000 mm.
• The rainfall in Tura and the surrounding Garo Hills region is so intense that, in a single day, it can exceed the average rainfall recorded in arid regions such as Jaisalmer over a decade.
• It is a key area for ecological biodiversity, with the Garo Hills being home to lush green landscapes and diverse flora and fauna.
• Tura is also a cultural hub of the Garo tribe and hosts several festivals celebrating the natural bounty and tribal traditions.

Additional Information

• Geographical Importance of Meghalaya:
• Meghalaya is located in the northeastern region of India and is part of the Khasi, Jaintia, and Garo Hills.
• The region's unique topography and monsoonal winds make it one of the wettest places on Earth.
• Cherrapunji and Mawsynram:
• These areas, located near the Garo Hills, have held records for the highest annual rainfall globally.
• Mawsynram, currently the wettest place on Earth, is known for its rain-fed natural attractions like waterfalls and caves.
• Impact of High Rainfall:
• Regions like Garo Hills face challenges such as soil erosion and landslides due to heavy rainfall.
• However, the abundant rainfall also supports rich biodiversity and sustains agriculture in the region.
• Climate in Jaisalmer:
• Jaisalmer, located in Rajasthan, is part of the Thar Desert and receives very low annual rainfall, typically less than 200 mm.
• The stark contrast between Jaisalmer and regions like Tura highlights the diverse climatic zones in India.

The correct answer is - Punjab National Bank

Key Points

• Punjab National Bank
• It was nationalised in 1969 during the first phase of bank nationalisation, not in 1980.
• The Government of India took over 14 major commercial banks in July 1969, and Punjab National Bank was one of them.
• Hence, it was not part of the 1980 batch of nationalised banks.

Additional Information

• First Phase of Nationalisation (1969)
• 14 banks with deposits above ₹50 crore were nationalised.
• Examples: Punjab National Bank, Bank of India, Canara Bank, Indian Bank.
• Second Phase of Nationalisation (1980)
• 6 more banks were nationalised in April 1980.
• These included: Oriental Bank of Commerce, New Bank of India, Corporation Bank, Andhra Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, and Vijaya Bank.
• Total Nationalised Banks
• After the two phases, there were 20 nationalised banks in India.
• Later mergers reduced their number in recent years.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Hoysalas were a prominent South Indian dynasty that ruled Karnataka between the 10th and 14th centuries CE.
• Their capital was initially located at Belur and later shifted to Halebidu.
• The Hoysalas are renowned for their unique contributions to architecture, particularly the construction of intricately carved temples such as the Chennakesava Temple at Belur and Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu.
• They played a significant role in promoting Kannada and Sanskrit literature during their reign.
• The Hoysalas emerged as a dominant power in the region by defeating rival dynasties such as the Chalukyas and established a flourishing kingdom in Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Hoysala Architecture
• It is a distinctive style of temple architecture characterized by ornate sculptures and detailed carvings.
• The temples were built using soapstone, which allowed for intricate detailing.
• The star-shaped platform or plan is a notable feature of Hoysala temples.
• Temples such as the Chennakesava Temple and Hoysaleswara Temple are considered masterpieces of this architectural style.
• Key Rulers
• Vishnuvardhana: One of the most prominent Hoysala kings who expanded the kingdom significantly and initiated the construction of many temples.
• Veera Ballala II: Another significant ruler who consolidated Hoysala power and resisted invasions from rival dynasties.
• Literary Contributions
• The Hoysalas patronized poets and scholars in both Kannada and Sanskrit.
• Works such as Pampa Bharata and Vikramarjuna Vijaya were composed during their reign.
• Decline of the Hoysalas
• The dynasty declined in the 14th century due to invasions by the Delhi Sultanate.
• Their territories were eventually absorbed into the Vijayanagara Empire.

The correct answer is Mixed Economy.

Key Points

• A Mixed Economy is an economic system where both private and public sectors coexist and operate simultaneously.
• This type of economy combines elements of capitalism (private ownership) and socialism (government control).
• India is a prime example of a Mixed Economy, featuring both government-owned enterprises (e.g., Indian Railways) and privately owned industries.
• The government ensures social welfare through regulations, subsidies, and programs, while the private sector contributes to economic growth and innovation.
• Mixed Economies aim to balance wealth distribution and economic efficiency by leveraging the strengths of both sectors.

Additional Information

• Capitalist Economy:
• An economic system where private ownership of resources and businesses is predominant.
• Market forces (supply and demand) drive production, pricing, and distribution.
• Countries like the United States are examples of capitalist economies.
• Socialistic Economy:
• An economic system where the government owns and controls major industries and resources.
• The focus is on equitable wealth distribution and social welfare.
• Countries like Cuba and North Korea are examples of socialistic economies.
• Market Economy:
• An economy where decisions regarding production, distribution, and pricing are based purely on market forces.
• There is minimal government interference.
• Market economies emphasize consumer sovereignty and competition.
• Mixed Economy in India:
• India adopted the Mixed Economy model post-independence to balance rapid industrialization and social welfare.
• Key sectors such as defense, railways, and atomic energy are government-controlled, while private sectors thrive in IT, pharmaceuticals, and manufacturing.
• Mixed economies help address issues like unemployment, poverty, and inequality through combined efforts of both sectors.

Given:

Average age of 15 students = 18 years

Number of students = 15

Age of new student = 34 years

Formula used:

New average age = $\dfrac{\text{Sum of ages of all students}}{\text{Total number of students}}$

Calculations:

Sum of ages of 15 students = $\text{Average age} \times \text{Number of students}$

⇒ Sum = 18 × 15 = 270

Sum of ages after adding the new student = $\text{Previous sum} + \text{Age of new student}$

⇒ New sum = 270 + 34 = 304

Total number of students = 15 + 1 = 16

New average age = $\dfrac{\text{New sum}}{\text{Total number of students}}$

⇒ New average = $\dfrac{304}{16}$ = 19

 ∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Option 1: (2²)³

Option 2: 2³²

Option 3: 2²³

Option 4: (2³)²

Formula used:

Power calculation rules:

(a^b)^c = a^b×c

a^bc = a^bc

Calculations:

Option 1: (2²)³

⇒ 2^2×3 = 2⁶ = 64

Option 2: 2³²

⇒ 2^3×3 = 2⁹ = 512

Option 3: 2²³

⇒ 223 = 2⁸ = 256

Option 4: (2³)²

⇒ 2^3×2 = 2⁶ = 64

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹9,000

Rate for SI (r_SI) = 15% per annum

Time for SI (t_SI) = 3 years

Rate for CI (r_CI) = 10% per annum

Time for CI (t_CI) = 4 years

Formula used:

SI = $\dfrac{P \times r \times t}{100}$

CI = $P(1+\dfrac{r}{100})^t - P$

Calculations:

Find Principal (P) using SI formula.

₹9,000 = $\dfrac{P \times 15 \times 3}{100}$

⇒ $\dfrac{9,000 \times 100}{15 \times 3}$ = P

⇒ P = ₹20,000

Calculate Compound Interest (CI).

CI = $20,000(1 + \dfrac{10}{100})^4 - 20,000$

⇒ CI = $20,000(1.1)^4 - 20,000$

⇒ CI = ₹29,282 - ₹20,000

⇒ CI = ₹9,282

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

25% of M = 20% of N

N = u% of M

Formula used:

Percentage formula: a% of b = (a × b)/100

Calculation:

25% of M = 20% of N

⇒ $\frac{25}{100} \times M = \frac{20}{100} \times N$

⇒ $\frac{25}{100} \times M = \frac{20}{100} \times (u \times M/100)$

⇒ $\frac{25}{100} = \frac{20}{100} \times \frac{u}{100}$

⇒ $2500 = 20u$

⇒ u = 125

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹15,681.6

Time (t) = 2 years

Rate of Interest (r) = 32% per annum

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)^t

Where,

P = Principal

Calculation:

15,681.6 = P(1 + 32/100)²

⇒ 15,681.6 = P(1.32)²

⇒ 15,681.6 = P × 1.7424

⇒ P = ₹9,000

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Marks in Hindi = 77

Marks in Mathematics = 82

Marks in Science = 95

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of marks) ÷ (Number of subjects)

Calculations:

Sum = 77 + 82 + 95

⇒ Sum = 254

Average = 254 ÷ 3

⇒ 84.66

∴ The average marks of Hindi, Mathematics and Science = 84.66

Given:

Percentage of boys = 44%

Number of girls = 14

Formula used:

Total students = Number of boys + Number of girls

Number of boys = (Percentage of boys × Total students) ÷ 100

Calculation:

Let total students = x

Number of boys = 0.44 × x

Number of girls = x - (0.44 × x) = 14

⇒ x - 0.44x = 14

⇒ 0.56x = 14

⇒ x = 25

Total students = 25

Number of boys = 0.44 × 25 = 11

∴ The correct answer is option (1).