DSSSB Assistant Superintendent Official Paper (Held On: 20 Jul, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given string:

(Left) Y V K E S G L H O N P J R H F M A W I Q Z A T X L (Right)

Find the fifth letter from the right.

(Left) Y V K E S G L H O N P J R H F M A W I Q Z A T X L (Right)

The fifth letter from the right is Z.

Find the eighth letter to the left of 'Z'.

(Left) Y V K E S G L H O N P J R H F M A W I Q Z A T X L (Right)

The eighth letter to the left of 'Z' is R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

Given interchanges:

• Signs: '+' and '×' are interchanged.
• Numbers: '5' and '4' are interchanged.

Equation I:

Original: 4 + 8 × 5 – 7 ÷ 1

Applying interchanges:

New Equation: 5 × 8 + 4 – 7 ÷ 1

⇒ 5 × 8 + 4 – 7 ÷ 1

⇒ 40 + 4 – 7

⇒ 44 – 7

⇒ 37

Equation II:

Original: 5 × 3 – 4 + 6 ÷ 2

Applying interchanges:

New Equation: 4 + 3 – 5 × 6 ÷ 2

⇒ 4 + 3 – 5 × 6 ÷ 2

⇒ 4 + 3 – 15

⇒ 7 – 15

⇒ -8

Equation III:

Original: 4 + 8 – 6 ÷ 3 × 5

Applying interchanges:

New Equation: 5 × 8 – 6 ÷ 3 + 4

⇒ 5 × 8 – 6 ÷ 3 + 4

⇒ 40 – 2 + 4

⇒ 38 + 4

⇒ 42

The values for equations I, II, and III are 37, -8, and 42, respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed in the given number pairs is:

Logic: 1st³ + 1 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 26 : 17577

⇒ 26³ + 1

= 17576 + 1 = 17577.

For, 37 : 50654

⇒ 37³ + 1

= 50653 + 1 = 50654.

For, 14 : ?

⇒ 14³ + 1

= 2744 + 1 = 2745.

Thus, 14 : 2745.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic here is that the first letter is shifted forward by +2, and the second letter is shifted forward by +1.

For (ZO, BP, DQ)

For (GR, IS, KT)

Option 1) (AR, DS, FT)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 2) (WC, YD, BE)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 3) (EP, GQ, IR)

This group consistently follows the same logic

Option 4) (HV, KW, MX)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Therefore, the group (EP, GQ, IR) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For (GF, CB, YX)

For (BO, XK, TG)

Option 1) (LT, GP, CL)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 2) (UW, QS, LO)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 3) (FC, BY, XT)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 4) (QN, MJ, IF)

follows the same logic,

Therefore, the group (QN, MJ, IF) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 99.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding symbols for Family Tree:

According to the given information Family Tree Representation:

B is the son of C, so B is male. A is the mother of B, and B is the son of C. This means A and C are a married couple. C must be male.

D is the sister of E, so D is female. C is the brother of D, so C is male. E is the husband of F, so E is male, and F is female.

The female members of the family are A, D, and F.

The total count of female members is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic followed in the given number pairs is:

Logic: The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 2 and then subtracting 1.

Now,

For, 151 : 301

⇒ 151 × 2 - 1

= 302 - 1 = 301.

For, 37 : 73

⇒ 37 × 2 - 1

= 74 - 1 = 73.

Applying the same logic for the first pair:

For, 166 : ?

⇒ 166 × 2 - 1

= 332 - 1 = 331.

Thus, 166 : 331.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

The numbers are 256, 147, 741, 258, 852.

The first number from the left is 256.

The tens digit of the first number (256) is 5.

The cube of the tens digit is calculated as:

5^3 = 5 ×  5 × 5 = 125

The cube of the tens digit of the first number is 125.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Decoding symbols for Family Tree:

According to the given information Family Tree Representation:

A is the mother of B. B is the father of C. C is the brother of D. 

D is the husband of E.

The father of one's husband is the Husband's father (Father-in-law).

Thus, B is the Husband’s father of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The given code language:

Thus, the code for 'X' is 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed is:

For ‘LEARN’ to ‘NHCUP’:

For ‘BOOK’ to ‘DRQN’:

Similarly,

For 'NEXT':

Therefore, 'NEXT' is coded as PHZW.

This matches Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number² - 2nd number² ) × 2 = Number.

14 % 4 = 360 

= (142 - 42 ) × 2 

= (196 - 16) × 2 

= (180) × 2 

= 360 

For, 6 % 5 = 22

= (62 - 52 ) × 2 

= (36 - 25) × 2 

= (11) × 2 

= 22.

Similarly,

 5 % 2 = ? 

= (52 - 22 ) × 2 

= (25 - 4) × 2 

= (21) × 2 

= 42.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given :

T U T U T U U 3 7 3 T U T T T 7 3 U 3 U T T U 3 7

There are three '7's in the original string.

There are eight 'U's in the original string.

When each 'U' is replaced by a '7', the total number of '7's will be:

Total '7's = (Number of original '7's) + (Number of 'U's)

= 3 + 8 = 11.

The total number of '7's in the newly formed string is 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

​Thus, the missing term in the series is 1793.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st² + 2nd²) ÷ 2 = Number.

6 e 8 = 50

= (6² + 8²) ÷ 2

= (36 + 64) ÷ 2

= 100 ÷ 2

= 50

20 e 8 = 232

= (202 + 82) ÷ 2

= (400 + 64) ÷ 2

= 464 ÷ 2

= 232.

Similarly,

9 e 3 = ? 

= (92 + 32) ÷ 2

= (81 + 9) ÷ 2

= 90 ÷ 2

= 45.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For NAH to KXE

For AGJ to XDG

The common pattern is a consistent letter shift of -3 for each successive letter.

Option 1) DAH to AYG

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are -3, -2, -2.

Option 2) NDI to KAF

This pair follows the same logic.

Option 3) FRS to IOV

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +3, -3, +3.

Option 4) NRT to QUW

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +3, -3, +3.

Thus, the pair NDI : KAF follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct dictionary order is:

1 (Indifference)

2 (Indigenous)

3 (Indigent)

5 (Indignity)

4 (Indigo) 

Thus, the correct order is 12354.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed in the given number pairs is:

Logic: The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 3 and then adding 1.

Now,

For, 38 : 115

⇒ 38 × 3 + 1

= 114 + 1 = 115.

For, 171 : 514

⇒ 171 × 3 + 1

= 513 + 1 = 514.

Similarly,

For, 77 : ?

⇒ 77 × 3 + 1

= 231 + 1 = 232.

Thus, 77 : 232.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic is +9 to letters.

‘FORENSIC’ is written as ‘LRBWNAXO’

Similarly,

‘GASOLINE’ is written as

Thus, ‘GASOLINE’ is written as NWRUXBJP.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is QK.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2";

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some R are S → True (As, Some S are R. so, Some R are S holds true)

II. Some Q are P → True (As,  All P are Q. so, Some Q are P holds true)

III. Some S are not Q → False ( As, there is no direct relation S and Q)

Thus, Both conclusions I and II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given figure embedded in:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Five friends P, B, C, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

B is sitting to the immediate left of C.

G and H are not the immediate neighbour of C.

H is sitting second to the right of P.

Thus, G is sitting second to the left of B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For (SW, UA, WE)

For (CT, EX, GB)

Option 1) (KX, MB, OF)

This group consistently follows the same logic.

Option 2) (PJ, RO, TS)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 3) (HO, JS, MX)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Option 4) (MD, OI, QL)

The logic is not consistently followed here

Therefore, the group (KX, MB, OF) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Eight women A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing opposite to the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

B is second to the left of H. A is third to the left of B.

D is to immediate right of H.

G is second to the right of H. 

F is fourth to the left of D.

C is the immediate neighbour of H and B.

Thus, A is sitting fourth to the right of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing letter-cluster in the series is IA.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. No M is N → True (As, No N is M.so, No M is N holds true)

II. No P is M → False (As, there is no direct relation between P and M)

III. No L is N → True (As, All L are M, No N is M. So, No L is N holds true)

Thus, Both conclusions I and III follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Total students in the row = 100.

Ashok's position = 37th from the bottom.

Suresh is 27 places ahead of Ashok.

Rank from Top = Total students - (Rank from Bottom) + 1

Ashok's rank from top = 100 - 37 + 1

= 63 + 1

= 64th.

Suresh's position from the top.

Being "27 places ahead" means that Suresh has a rank 27 numbers lower than Ashok's rank when counting from the same end (the top).

Suresh's rank from the top = (Ashok's rank from top) - 27

= 64 - 27

= 37th.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusion:

I. No D is F → False ( As, there is no direct relation between D and F)

II. Some D are G → False ( As, there is no direct relation between D and G)

III. All F are G → False ( As, Some F are G. so, All F are G is a possibility not definite)

Thus, Neither conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option (1): MNR

Option (2): EFJ

Option (3): DCY

Option (4): JKO

MNR, EFJ, and JKO all follow the same pattern (+1, +4), while DCY follows a different pattern (-1, -4).

The odd letter-cluster is: DCY.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

1. LP - HU

The first letter H is not the alphabetical opposite of L (Opposite of L is O). This pair does not follow the rule.

2. GS - TW

This pair follows the logic. G(7) and T(20) are opposites.

3. RA - IE

\

This pair follows the logic. R(18) and I(9) are opposites.

4. QI - JM

This pair follows the logic. Q(17) and J(10) are opposites.

Therefore, it is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Option (1): SUQ

Option (2): EGC

Option (3): CFB

Option (4): ZBX

SUQ, EGC, and ZBX all follow the same pattern (+2, -4), while CFB follows a different pattern (+3, -4).

The odd letter-cluster is: CFB.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option (1): HGD

Option (2): BDG

Option (3): CEH

Option (4): VXA

BDG, CEH, and VXA all follow the same pattern (+2, +3), while HGD follows a different pattern (-1, -3).

The odd letter-cluster is: HGD.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

5 persons M, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

R is to the immediate left of P. Q is second to the right of M. 

If P is to the left of Q,

Thus, 2 persons sit to the right of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

There are 5 boxes kept below B6.

1. Given: 6 boxes B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 are kept one above the other. The lowermost box is numbered 1 and the topmost is numbered 6.

2. B4 kept at second place from top.

3. Only two boxes are kept below B1.

4. Only B5 is kept below B2.

This means B2 is on Position 2, and B5 is on Position 1.

5. B6 is kept above B3.

The remaining empty positions are 6 and 4. The remaining boxes are B6 and B3. Since B6 is above B3, B6 is on Position 6, and B3 is on Position 4.

Therefore, there are 5 boxes kept below B6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Eight persons live on separate floors of an eight-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, and the topmost is numbered 8.

1. John lives on the floor numbered five.

2. Only two people live between John and Michael.

3. Michael lives above John.

4. Kanye lives immediately above Justin.

5. Kanye lives above Robert.

6. Only one person lives between Kanye and Robert.

7. Ben lives immediately above Kim.

8. Lebron lives on an odd-numbered floor.

Thus, Lebron lives on Floor 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given figure embedded in:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Inside and outside figures are the same.

Option 4)

Both figures are the same.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is LJ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1";

The correct answer is Calcium Hydroxyapatite.

Key Points

• Tooth enamel is primarily composed of Calcium Hydroxyapatite (Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2), which is a crystalline form of calcium phosphate.
• Calcium Hydroxyapatite is the hardest substance in the human body, providing enamel its durability and protective characteristics.
• Enamel covers the outer surface of teeth and acts as a barrier to protect against physical and chemical damage.
• It is non-living tissue and cannot regenerate once damaged, emphasizing the importance of oral hygiene.
• The high mineral content (approximately 96%) of enamel contributes to its hardness and resistance to wear.

Additional Information

• Calcium Hydroxyapatite: It is a naturally occurring mineral in bones and teeth, playing a key role in their structure and strength.
• Dental Caries: Tooth decay occurs when enamel is demineralized by acids produced by bacteria that metabolize sugar.
• Fluoride: Fluoride treatments can strengthen enamel by incorporating into the hydroxyapatite structure, making it more resistant to acid attack.
• Enamel Erosion: Excessive consumption of acidic foods and beverages can lead to enamel erosion, reducing its protective ability.
• Enamel Repair: While enamel cannot regenerate, remineralization can occur through proper oral care and the use of fluoride-based products.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Paruveta Utsavam is a unique festival celebrated at Ahobilam, located in Andhra Pradesh.
• Ahobilam is famous for its temples dedicated to Lord Narasimha, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
• This festival involves a symbolic hunting expedition, which signifies the divine hunt of Lord Narasimha.
• Paruveta Utsavam usually takes place during the annual Brahmotsavam celebrations at Ahobilam.
• The event attracts devotees and pilgrims from across the country, emphasizing cultural and religious significance.

Additional Information

• Ahobilam: A holy site in Andhra Pradesh, known as the abode of Lord Narasimha and considered an important pilgrimage destination.
• Lord Narasimha: The fourth avatar of Lord Vishnu, depicted as a half-lion and half-human, symbolizing protection and divine justice.
• Brahmotsavam: A grand annual festival celebrated in many South Indian temples, including Ahobilam, involving rituals, processions, and cultural events.
• Vaishnavism: A major tradition within Hinduism that worships Lord Vishnu and his avatars, with Ahobilam being a significant center for this sect.
• Cultural Significance: Paruveta Utsavam highlights ancient traditions and spiritual practices, fostering community participation and devotion among followers.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Kerala's drug control department launched Operation Amrith in January 2024 to curb the misuse of antibiotics.
• The initiative aims to ensure stricter regulation and monitoring of antibiotic sales and usage, especially without proper prescriptions.
• Under Operation Amrith, inspections are being conducted across pharmacies and healthcare facilities to identify and address violations.
• The program highlights the state's commitment to combating antimicrobial resistance, which has become a global health concern.
• Kerala has been at the forefront of healthcare innovations and initiatives, often pioneering efforts to tackle public health challenges.

Additional Information

• Antibiotics misuse: The unnecessary and overuse of antibiotics can lead to antimicrobial resistance, making infections harder to treat.
• Antimicrobial resistance (AMR): A major global health threat where microorganisms evolve and become resistant to drugs designed to kill them.
• Role of Drug Control Departments: These departments enforce pharmaceutical regulations, ensuring the safe and ethical distribution of medicines.
• Prescription requirement: Indian law mandates that certain drugs, including antibiotics, can only be sold with a valid prescription from a licensed medical practitioner.
• Kerala's healthcare model: Known for its robust healthcare system, Kerala often leads in implementing innovative health programs and addressing public health concerns effectively.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT) initiative was launched by the Government of Gujarat in 2003.
• SWAGAT is a grievance redressal system aimed at addressing the concerns of citizens directly with the involvement of the Chief Minister.
• It operates on a fourth Thursday of every month where citizens can present their grievances directly to the Chief Minister through video conferencing.
• This system leverages technology to provide a transparent and efficient platform for resolving issues faced by the public.
• In 2010, SWAGAT received the United Nations Public Service Award for improving transparency, accountability, and responsiveness in public service delivery.

Additional Information

• Background of SWAGAT:
• The initiative was launched under the leadership of then Chief Minister of Gujarat, Shri Narendra Modi.
• It integrates technology with governance to ensure faster and effective grievance redressal.
• Operational Framework:
• SWAGAT functions at three levels: State, District, and Taluka, ensuring participation from multiple administrative levels.
• Citizens submit their grievances online, and the concerned officials are required to provide solutions within a stipulated time.
• Achievements:
• Over the last 20 years, SWAGAT has resolved thousands of grievances effectively, earning global recognition.
• The system has improved citizen trust in governance by promoting transparency and accountability.
• Significance of UN Public Service Award:
• The award is one of the most prestigious recognitions for excellence in public service delivery globally.
• SWAGAT's win highlighted India's efforts in leveraging ICT (Information and Communication Technology) for citizen welfare.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is located in the state of Tamil Nadu, India.
• It was added to the Ramsar list of wetlands in 2024, recognizing its international importance.
• The sanctuary is an ecologically significant wetland that attracts numerous migratory bird species annually.
• It is situated in the Ariyalur district of Tamil Nadu and spans an area of approximately 454 hectares.
• Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the important bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu, supporting rich biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Ramsar Convention:
• An international treaty signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, aimed at the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
• Wetlands designated under this convention are termed Ramsar sites, highlighting their global ecological significance.
• Tamil Nadu Wetlands:
• Tamil Nadu is home to numerous wetlands and bird sanctuaries, such as Vedanthangal, Point Calimere, and Karaivetti.
• These wetlands serve as crucial habitats for migratory birds and play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.
• Importance of Wetlands:
• Wetlands act as natural water filters, improving water quality.
• They provide habitat for diverse flora and fauna, including endangered species.
• Wetlands help in flood control, groundwater recharge, and carbon sequestration.
• Biodiversity in Karaivetti:
• The sanctuary hosts over 140 species of birds, including migratory waterfowl like teals, storks, and herons.
• It is also an important breeding ground for several bird species.

The correct answer is 1896.

Key Points

• The first book in the Mizo language, titled 'Mizo Zir Tir Bu', was published in the year 1896.
• This book was written by Rev. J.H. Lorrain, a Welsh missionary who played a pivotal role in the development of the Mizo language and script.
• Rev. J.H. Lorrain and his colleague Rev. F.W. Savidge introduced the Roman script for the Mizo language, which remains in use to this day.
• The publication of 'Mizo Zir Tir Bu' marked an important milestone in the literacy and cultural preservation of the Mizo people.
• The book served as a foundational educational tool, helping Mizo people learn their language and script systematically.

Additional Information

• Rev. J.H. Lorrain and Rev. F.W. Savidge: These two missionaries arrived in Mizoram in 1894 and were instrumental in creating the Mizo alphabet using the Roman script.
• Mizo Alphabet: The Roman script introduced by the missionaries replaced the indigenous oral tradition, making it easier for the Mizo people to learn and document their language.
• Historical Significance: The publication of 'Mizo Zir Tir Bu' is considered a cornerstone in the cultural and linguistic development of Mizoram, fostering education and literacy.
• Language Development: The efforts of missionaries led to the translation of the Bible into the Mizo language, further enriching the literary heritage of Mizoram.
• Mizo Literature Today: The Mizo language continues to thrive, with numerous publications, including newspapers, books, and digital content, contributing to the preservation of the language and culture.

The correct answer is Javier Milei.

Key Points

• Javier Milei, an economist and libertarian leader, was elected as the President of Argentina in November 2023.
• Milei, representing the political coalition La Libertad Avanza (Freedom Advances), won the presidential election by defeating Sergio Massa, the candidate of the ruling Peronist coalition.
• He is known for his radical economic proposals, including the dollarization of the Argentine economy and the elimination of the central bank.
• The election took place amidst a backdrop of severe economic challenges, including soaring inflation and a debt crisis in Argentina.
• This victory marked a significant political shift in Argentina, as Milei campaigned against the traditional political establishment and promised sweeping reforms.

Additional Information

• La Libertad Avanza: A political coalition led by Javier Milei that emphasizes free-market policies, individual liberty, and reduced government intervention in the economy.
• Dollarization: One of Milei's most controversial proposals involves replacing the Argentine peso with the US dollar to tackle hyperinflation and stabilize the economy.
• Economic Crisis in Argentina: Argentina has been grappling with economic instability, including an inflation rate exceeding 100%, a devalued peso, and significant foreign debt.
• Political Context: Milei's rise to power reflects widespread dissatisfaction with traditional political parties in Argentina, as voters sought radical alternatives to address the nation's challenges.
• Previous Career: Before entering politics, Javier Milei was an economist, author, and television personality, known for his outspoken and unconventional views on economic policy.

The correct answer is Edward Jenner.

Key Points

• Edward Jenner is widely recognized as the pioneer of the world's first successful vaccine, which was developed against smallpox in 1796.
• He observed that milkmaids who had contracted cowpox (a mild disease) did not get infected with smallpox, leading to the concept of vaccination.
• The term "vaccine" is derived from the Latin word "vacca," meaning cow, reflecting its origin from cowpox material.
• Jenner's first successful trial involved inoculating an eight-year-old boy, James Phipps, with material taken from cowpox lesions, which provided immunity against smallpox.
• This groundbreaking discovery laid the foundation for modern immunology and the development of vaccines against numerous infectious diseases.

Additional Information

• Smallpox:
• Smallpox was a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by the variola virus, characterized by fever and pustular skin rash.
• It was eradicated globally in 1980 following a worldwide vaccination campaign led by the World Health Organization (WHO).
• Immunization:
• Immunization is the process by which an individual is made immune to an infectious disease, typically by the administration of a vaccine.
• Vaccines stimulate the body's immune system to recognize and combat pathogens such as bacteria or viruses.
• Modern Vaccines:
• Currently, vaccines are available for a wide range of diseases, including measles, polio, hepatitis, and COVID-19.
• Advances in genetic engineering have enabled the development of mRNA vaccines, such as those used for COVID-19 (e.g., Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna).
• Herd Immunity:
• This occurs when a significant portion of a population becomes immune to a disease, reducing its spread and protecting those who are not immune.
• Vaccination programs aim to achieve herd immunity for many infectious diseases.
• Historical Impact:
• Edward Jenner's work marked the beginning of the end for smallpox, saving countless lives worldwide and influencing future research in disease prevention.
• The eradication of smallpox is considered one of the greatest achievements in public health.

The correct answer is Arjun Munda.

Key Points

• Arjun Munda, the Union Minister of Tribal Affairs, launched the "Marketing and Logistics Development for Promotion of Tribal Products from North-Eastern Region (PTP-NER)" scheme in Manipur in April 2023.
• The scheme aims to enhance the market access and logistical support for tribal products, particularly from the North-Eastern region of India.
• It focuses on the development of infrastructure to facilitate the marketing, branding, and distribution of tribal products.
• The initiative is part of the Government of India's broader strategy to promote tribal welfare and boost the economic development of tribal communities.
• This scheme will enable tribal artisans and producers to connect with a larger consumer base, thus improving their livelihoods.

Additional Information

• PTP-NER Scheme Overview:
• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India.
• It is designed to strengthen the value chain of tribal products by providing necessary support for production, branding, and marketing.
• Tribal Artisans and Economy:
• Tribal communities in India are known for their unique craftsmanship and traditional skills.
• Empowering tribal artisans through such schemes not only preserves their cultural heritage but also contributes to their socio-economic upliftment.
• Ministry of Tribal Affairs Initiatives:
• The Ministry has been implementing various schemes, such as Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, to support tribal entrepreneurship.
• Efforts are also being made to integrate technology and e-commerce platforms to expand the reach of tribal products globally.
• North-Eastern Region Development:
• The North-Eastern region is a priority area for the Government due to its diverse tribal population and untapped economic potential.
• Schemes like PTP-NER are critical for bridging the development gap and fostering inclusive growth in the region.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Mopin Festival is a significant agricultural festival celebrated by the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The festival is observed to ensure prosperity, good harvest, and the well-being of the community, with rituals to appease the goddess Ane Mopin.
• It is celebrated annually during the month of April, marking the beginning of the sowing season for crops.
• The festival is characterized by traditional dances like the Popir dance, where participants dress in traditional attire and perform to folk songs.
• During the celebrations, a rice beer called Apong and local delicacies like rice cakes are prepared and consumed.

Additional Information

• Galo Tribe: The Galo tribe is one of the prominent ethnic communities in Arunachal Pradesh, known for their unique cultural heritage and agrarian lifestyle.
• Ane Mopin: Ane Mopin is the goddess of prosperity and fertility, worshipped during the festival to seek blessings for a bountiful harvest and the protection of crops.
• Popir Dance: This traditional dance form is performed by women during the Mopin festival, showcasing the vibrant culture and traditions of the Galo tribe.
• Rice Beer (Apong): Apong is a traditional drink made from fermented rice, millet, or barley, and plays a central role in the rituals and festivities.
• Arunachal Pradesh: Known as the "Land of the Rising Sun," Arunachal Pradesh is a northeastern state of India famous for its diverse tribal cultures, scenic beauty, and festivals.

The correct answer is Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL).

Key Points

• In June 2023, Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) became the first oil marketing company in India to launch a pilot study on E27 fuel and ethanol-blended diesel fuel.
• E27 fuel refers to a blend of 27% ethanol and 73% petrol, aimed at reducing carbon emissions and boosting energy security.
• The pilot initiative aligns with India's ambitious Ethanol Blending Roadmap, which aims to achieve 20% ethanol blending by 2025.
• HPCL's pilot study is part of the Indian government's broader strategy to promote biofuels under the National Bio-Energy Mission.
• With this initiative, HPCL is contributing towards India's commitment to sustainability and reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.

Additional Information

• Ethanol Blending in India
• Ethanol is a renewable fuel made from various plant materials, commonly sugarcane and grains.
• Blending ethanol with petrol reduces dependency on fossil fuels and cuts carbon emissions.
• India's Ethanol Blending Program (EBP) has set a target of achieving E20 (20% ethanol blending) by 2025.
• Benefits of Ethanol-Blended Fuels
• Reduction in air pollution by lowering harmful emissions like carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
• Improved energy security by reducing crude oil imports.
• Boost to the agricultural sector by providing an additional revenue stream for farmers.
• National Bio-Energy Mission
• Launched by the Indian government to promote the use of biofuels, including ethanol and biodiesel.
• Aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and support a circular economy.
• Other Initiatives in Ethanol Blending
• Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) are also actively involved in ethanol-blending initiatives.
• The government has introduced incentives for the establishment of ethanol production plants.
• India's ethanol production capacity has significantly increased in recent years, supporting the blending targets.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• In May 2023, the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, launched the 'Addiction Free Odisha' campaign to address issues related to drug and substance abuse in the state.
• The campaign was initiated under the aegis of the National Service Scheme (NSS) and aims to involve students and youth in awareness programs.
• Odisha has witnessed a significant rise in substance abuse cases, prompting authorities to take proactive measures for addiction prevention and rehabilitation.
• The campaign focuses on education, community involvement, and rehabilitation efforts to create a drug-free environment across the state.
• Efforts are being coordinated with various departments, including education, health, and law enforcement, to ensure the campaign's success.

Additional Information

• Substance Abuse: Substance abuse refers to the harmful or hazardous use of psychoactive substances, including alcohol and illicit drugs, which can lead to addiction and severe health issues.
• National Service Scheme (NSS): NSS is a government-sponsored public service program aimed at involving students in social service and community engagement activities.
• President's Role: The President of India often advocates for social campaigns and initiatives to address pressing issues in society, leveraging their position to inspire collective action.
• Rehabilitation Programs: Rehabilitation initiatives focus on helping individuals recover from addiction through counseling, medical support, and skill development.
• Community Awareness: Campaigns like 'Addiction Free Odisha' emphasize the importance of community participation in spreading awareness and reducing stigma associated with substance abuse.

The correct answer is Critically Endangered.

Key Points

• The Kottigehar dancing frog is a species endemic to the Western Ghats of India, known scientifically as Micrixalus kottigeharensis.
• It is categorized as Critically Endangered on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List due to habitat loss and declining population.
• The major threats to this species include deforestation, habitat degradation, and water pollution, primarily caused by human activities such as agriculture and urbanization.
• This amphibian is known for its unique courtship behavior, where males perform leg kicks resembling dancing to attract females.
• The Western Ghats, recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity globally, making conservation efforts crucial for species like the Kottigehar frog.

Additional Information

• IUCN Red List Categories:
• The IUCN Red List categorizes species based on their risk of extinction, ranging from Least Concern to Critically Endangered, and includes categories like Vulnerable and Endangered.
• Critically Endangered species are those facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
• Western Ghats:
• A biodiversity hotspot located in India, stretching across states like Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu.
• It is home to many endemic species, including amphibians, reptiles, and plants.
• Amphibian Conservation:
• Amphibians are highly sensitive to environmental changes, making them important indicators of ecosystem health.
• Conservation efforts for amphibians include habitat restoration, pollution control, and monitoring populations.
• Micrixalus Genus:
• The genus Micrixalus, commonly referred to as "dancing frogs," consists of 24 species found primarily in the Western Ghats.
• These frogs are known for their unique breeding behavior, which includes "foot-flagging" displays.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Konkani is recognized as one of the 22 scheduled languages under the Indian Constitution.
• It is the official language of Goa as per the Goa, Daman, and Diu Official Language Act, 1987.
• Konkani is spoken widely in Goa and by communities in nearby states such as Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Kerala.
• The language is written in multiple scripts including Devanagari, Roman, Kannada, and Malayalam scripts, depending on the region.
• Konkani has a rich literary tradition and is known for its unique cultural expressions, including folk songs and theater.

Additional Information

• Scheduled Languages: India recognizes 22 languages in its Eighth Schedule, ensuring government support for their preservation and growth.
• Goa's Official Language Act: Enacted in 1987, this act declared Konkani in the Devanagari script as the official language of Goa.
• Multilingual Nature: Konkani is a unique language spoken across several states, showcasing India's linguistic diversity.
• Goan Culture: Konkani is integral to Goa’s identity, influencing its music, literature, and festivals like Carnival and Shigmo.
• Scripts: The use of different scripts for Konkani reflects the adaptability and inclusiveness of the language in various regions.

The correct answer is Insulin.

Key Points

• Insulin is a hormone produced by the beta cells in the pancreas, specifically in the Islets of Langerhans.
• It plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, primarily muscle and fat cells.
• Insulin helps store excess glucose as glycogen in the liver, ensuring the body maintains a stable blood sugar level.
• Its secretion is triggered when blood glucose levels rise, such as after eating.
• A deficiency or resistance to insulin leads to diabetes mellitus, a chronic condition affecting glucose metabolism.

Additional Information

• Diabetes Mellitus: A condition caused by insufficient insulin production or action, leading to high blood sugar levels. It is categorized into Type 1 (autoimmune destruction of beta cells) and Type 2 (insulin resistance).
• Glucagon: Another hormone produced by the pancreas that works opposite to insulin, increasing blood glucose levels by breaking down glycogen in the liver.
• Pancreas: An organ located behind the stomach that performs both endocrine functions (hormone production like insulin and glucagon) and exocrine functions (digestive enzyme secretion).
• Hyperglycemia: A condition characterized by abnormally high blood glucose levels, often seen in uncontrolled diabetes.
• Hypoglycemia: A condition where blood glucose levels drop below normal, which can occur due to excessive insulin or insufficient food intake.

The correct answer is Badminton.

Key Points

• Satwiksairaj Rankireddy is a prominent Indian badminton player specializing in doubles events.
• He set the Guinness World Record in July 2023 for the fastest badminton smash, achieving a speed of 565 km/h.
• Rankireddy, along with his doubles partner Chirag Shetty, has been instrumental in elevating India's status in international badminton.
• He has won several accolades, including gold medals at tournaments like the Commonwealth Games and prestigious BWF events.
• Rankireddy and Shetty became the first Indian men’s doubles pair to win the Thomas Cup in 2022, showcasing their exceptional skills.

Additional Information

• Badminton Smash: A smash is a powerful overhead shot hit downward into the opponent's court, often considered the fastest stroke in badminton.
• Guinness World Record: The Guinness World Records is a global authority on record-breaking achievements across various domains, including sports.
• Badminton World Federation (BWF): The governing body for badminton worldwide, responsible for regulating tournaments and rankings.
• Thomas Cup: It is the world’s premier men’s badminton team championship, held biennially by the BWF.
• Indian Badminton Achievements: India has seen a surge in badminton success in recent years, with players like PV Sindhu, Saina Nehwal, and Rankireddy making significant contributions to the sport.

The correct answer is Munda.

Key Points

• Munda is a language belonging to the Austric family, which is primarily spoken by the Munda tribal communities in India.
• The Austric family is one of the oldest linguistic families in India, predominantly associated with the tribal populations of central and eastern India.
• Munda languages are part of the larger group known as the Austroasiatic languages, which also includes languages like Khmer and Vietnamese spoken in Southeast Asia.
• Munda-speaking populations are mainly concentrated in states like Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and West Bengal.
• Munda languages are known for their distinctive phonetic and grammatical structures, setting them apart from Indo-Aryan and Dravidian languages spoken in India.

Additional Information

• Austric Language Family: The Austric language family includes two major branches: Austroasiatic and Austronesian languages.
• Austroasiatic Languages in India: Besides Munda, other Austroasiatic languages spoken in India include Santali, Ho, and Khasi.
• Tribal Communities: Munda-speaking tribes are traditionally engaged in agriculture and forest-based livelihoods, with rich cultural heritage and folklore.
• Distinctiveness: Munda languages feature unique characteristics like vowel harmony and inflectional suffixes, which differ significantly from Indo-Aryan and Dravidian languages.
• Preservation Efforts: Various governmental and non-governmental organizations are working to preserve Munda and other tribal languages through documentation and education programs.

The correct answer is March 2024.

Key Points

• Samarth is a demand-driven and placement-oriented skill development scheme implemented by the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India.
• The scheme aims to provide skill development and capacity building programs for workers in the textile sector, covering various segments such as apparel, handlooms, handicrafts, and sericulture.
• The implementation period of the Samarth scheme was extended until March 2024 to achieve its objectives and ensure better outcomes.
• It focuses on providing industry-relevant skills to improve employability and enhance livelihoods in the unorganized textile and allied sectors.
• Samarth targets marginalized groups, including women, SC/ST, and minorities, to promote inclusive growth in the textile sector.

Additional Information

• Skill Development in Textiles:
• India's textile sector is the second-largest employer after agriculture, contributing significantly to GDP and exports.
• Skill development programs like Samarth aim to bridge the skill gap in the workforce and meet the industry's evolving demands.
• The scheme supports both organized and unorganized sectors by offering training in modern techniques and traditional crafts.
• Implementation Mechanism:
• The scheme is implemented through state governments, industry partners, and sectoral organizations.
• Training centers are equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure and certified trainers to ensure quality education.
• Post-training, candidates are provided with placement opportunities or assistance in setting up their own enterprises.
• Focus on Marginalized Groups:
• Special emphasis is placed on women workers, who constitute a significant portion of the textile workforce.
• The scheme also prioritizes economically weaker sections (EWS) and socially disadvantaged groups.
• Monitoring and Evaluation:
• A robust monitoring and evaluation framework ensures transparency and accountability in the implementation of the scheme.
• Technology-driven tools like the Samarth portal are used to track progress and outcomes in real-time.
• Global Competitiveness:
• By enhancing the skills of its workforce, India aims to strengthen its position as a global leader in textiles.
• The scheme supports the government's Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives.

The correct answer is Diabetes.

Key Points

• Diabetes is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels and is primarily associated with genetic, lifestyle, and dietary factors.
• It is not linked to the transmission of diseases caused by contaminated water or poor sanitation, unlike diseases such as typhoid, hepatitis A, or polio.
• Diabetes is categorized into two main types: Type 1 diabetes (autoimmune condition) and Type 2 diabetes (related to insulin resistance and lifestyle factors).
• Contaminated water and poor sanitation primarily contribute to the spread of infectious diseases, whereas diabetes is a non-communicable disease.
• Management of diabetes includes lifestyle modifications, medications, and insulin therapy, but its transmission is not affected by environmental sanitation or water contamination.

Additional Information

• Hepatitis A: A viral disease spread through contaminated food and water, often linked to poor sanitation. It affects the liver and is preventable through vaccination.
• Polio: A viral infection transmitted through contaminated water or food. It can cause paralysis and is preventable through polio vaccines.
• Typhoid: A bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi, transmitted through contaminated water and food. It can lead to severe fever and intestinal issues.
• Waterborne Diseases: Diseases such as cholera, dysentery, and giardiasis are primarily transmitted through contaminated water and poor sanitation, emphasizing the importance of clean water access and hygiene.
• Non-Communicable Diseases: These include diabetes, heart disease, and cancer, which are not caused by infectious agents and do not spread through environmental factors like water or sanitation.

The correct answer is Panini.

Key Points

• Panini was an ancient Sanskrit grammarian and the author of the grammatical treatise "Ashtadhyayi."
• The "Ashtadhyayi" is a foundational text of Sanskrit grammar, consisting of eight chapters and nearly 4,000 sutras (aphoristic rules).
• Panini's work is considered one of the most advanced linguistic analyses in human history, influencing both Indian and Western linguistics.
• The "Ashtadhyayi" is written in a highly concise and algorithmic style, making it a masterpiece of ancient linguistic scholarship.
• He lived during the 6th–4th century BCE, and his contributions have had a lasting impact on the study of language and linguistics.

Additional Information

• "Ashtadhyayi" Structure: The treatise is organized into eight chapters, each divided into four sections (padas), covering all aspects of Sanskrit grammar.
• Significance in Linguistics: Panini's work introduced concepts such as phonetics, morphology, and syntax, forming the basis for modern computational linguistics.
• Panini's Influence: His grammatical framework has been widely studied by scholars and has influenced later Indian philosophers like Patanjali and Katyayana.
• Technical Terminology: Panini used technical terms such as "Dhatu" (root), "Pratyaya" (suffix), and "Samasa" (compound), which are still studied in Sanskrit grammar today.
• Legacy: Panini's work is considered a timeless contribution to the intellectual heritage of India and a landmark in the global history of language and literature.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu does not have a bicameral legislature; it operates under a unicameral system with only a Legislative Assembly.
• States with bicameral legislatures in India include Bihar, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
• A bicameral legislature consists of two houses: the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• In contrast, Tamil Nadu has abolished its Legislative Council, making its legislature unicameral.
• The Legislative Councils in some states were abolished to reduce redundancy and cost, with Tamil Nadu abolishing its Council in 1986.

Additional Information

• Unicameral Legislature: A single legislative house system, common in most Indian states, such as Tamil Nadu, Punjab, and Haryana.
• Bicameral Legislature: Consists of two houses: Legislative Assembly (lower house) and Legislative Council (upper house). It is established under Article 169 of the Indian Constitution.
• Legislative Councils: Members of the Legislative Council (MLCs) are either elected by members of the Legislative Assembly, graduates, teachers, or nominated by the Governor.
• Article 169: Allows the Parliament to create or abolish Legislative Councils in states based on a resolution passed by the concerned state's Legislative Assembly with a two-thirds majority.
• Current States with Bicameral Legislature: As of now, only six Indian states have bicameral legislatures: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution addresses the Right to Equality under Articles 14 to 18.
• Article 14: Ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 16: Guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 17: Abolishes "untouchability" and forbids its practice in any form.
• Article 18: Prohibits the State from conferring titles except for military and academic distinctions.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights: The Right to Equality is part of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• Scope: These articles ensure that no person is treated unfairly based on discriminatory practices, promoting inclusivity and justice.
• Equality Before Law: A concept derived from the British legal system, Article 14 emphasizes that all individuals are equal in the eyes of the law.
• Prohibition of Titles: Article 18 aims to prevent the creation of hierarchical distinctions in society by banning titles like "Sir" or "Raj Bahadur" unless they are academic or military honors.
• Judicial Enforcement: Fundamental Rights, including the Right to Equality, are enforceable by the courts, making them a critical component of India's democratic framework.

The correct answer is Gymnosperms.

Key Points

• Gymnosperms are seed-producing plants where ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall, unlike angiosperms.
• The seeds of gymnosperms are often exposed and develop on the surface of scales or leaves, often forming cones.
• The term "gymnosperm" is derived from the Greek words "gymnos" (naked) and "sperma" (seed), indicating that their seeds are not enclosed.
• Examples of gymnosperms include conifers like pine, fir, spruce, and cycads.
• Gymnosperms are primarily woody plants and are adapted to a wide range of climatic conditions, including temperate and cold environments.

Additional Information

• Angiosperms: These are flowering plants where seeds are enclosed within a fruit. The ovules are protected by an ovary wall, which later develops into the fruit.
• Bryophytes: Non-vascular plants like mosses and liverworts that do not produce seeds. They reproduce via spores and require water for fertilization.
• Pteridophytes: Seedless vascular plants, such as ferns, that also reproduce via spores. They have well-developed vascular tissues (xylem and phloem).
• Seed Structure in Gymnosperms: In gymnosperms, seeds are directly visible on the cone scales, unlike angiosperms where seeds are hidden within fruits.
• Ecological Importance: Gymnosperms play a vital role in ecosystems by providing habitat, preventing soil erosion, and serving as a source of timber and resin.

The correct answer is Special Majority.

Key Points

• A motion containing charges against a judge must be passed with a Special Majority in both Houses of Parliament as per Article 124(4) and Article 218 of the Indian Constitution.
• Special Majority refers to a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.
• This is required during the process of impeachment of a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court.
• The process is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which lays down the detailed procedure for investigation and subsequent voting.
• The Special Majority requirement ensures a high threshold for removal, safeguarding judicial independence from political influence.

Additional Information

• Absolute Majority: Refers to more than 50% of the total membership of the House, regardless of attendance.
• Effective Majority: Refers to more than 50% of the effective strength of the House (excluding vacant seats).
• Simple Majority: Refers to more than 50% of members present and voting on a motion or bill.
• Special Majority: As mandated by Articles 124(4) and 368, requires support from two-thirds of members present and voting, as well as a majority of the total membership of the House in certain situations.
• Judicial independence in India is a cornerstone of democracy, and the impeachment process ensures accountability while avoiding undue political interference.

The correct answer is Habeas Corpus.

Key Points

• Habeas Corpus is a writ that protects an individual's fundamental right to personal liberty under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Indian Constitution.
• It literally translates to "You may have the body" and ensures that a detained person is brought before the court.
• The primary purpose of this writ is to prevent unlawful detention and secure a person's release if the detention is found illegal.
• The court investigates the legality of the detention and ensures that the detainee is either released or provided with legal justification for detention.
• This writ acts as a safeguard against arbitrary arrests by any authority, ensuring judicial oversight in matters of personal liberty.

Additional Information

• Certiorari: A writ issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to transfer a case for review or to quash an order that exceeds jurisdiction.
• Mandamus: A writ issued to a public official or body directing them to perform a duty that they are obligated to do under the law.
• Prohibition: A writ issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the law.
• Fundamental Rights: Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution empower individuals to seek remedies through writ petitions for the enforcement of their fundamental rights.
• Judicial Oversight: Writs like Habeas Corpus are vital for maintaining the rule of law and ensuring that executive authorities do not misuse their powers.

The correct answer is Subsidies.

Key Points

• Subsidies are classified as revenue expenditure and not capital expenditure.
• Capital expenditure is incurred to acquire or create assets that provide long-term benefits, such as land, buildings, machinery, etc.
• Subsidies involve financial support provided by the government to individuals or entities to reduce the cost of products or services, and they do not result in the creation of tangible assets.
• Examples of subsidies include agricultural subsidies, fuel subsidies, and food subsidies provided to support specific sectors or groups in the economy.

Additional Information

• Capital Expenditure: Refers to spending that leads to the creation of assets or infrastructure, contributing to the long-term growth of the economy.
• Revenue Expenditure: Refers to spending incurred for the day-to-day operations of the government, including salaries, interest payments, and subsidies.
• Examples of Capital Expenditure: Acquisition of land, construction of buildings, investment in machinery, and loans to state governments for asset creation.
• Budget Classification: Government budgets classify expenditures into capital and revenue expenditures to ensure proper allocation and economic planning.
• Impact of Subsidies: While subsidies provide immediate relief to beneficiaries, excessive reliance on them can strain government finances and reduce funds available for capital expenditure projects.

The correct answer is 50.6.

Key Points

• As per the Census of India 2011, the adult literacy rate for women in rural areas was recorded at 50.6%.
• This figure highlights the gender disparity in literacy rates, especially in rural India, where educational opportunities for women are limited.
• The overall literacy rate in India, as per the Census 2011, was 74.04%, with male literacy at 82.14% and female literacy at 65.46%.
• The lower literacy rate among rural women underscores the need for targeted educational policies and programs.
• Government initiatives like Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao and Saakshar Bharat aim to address this gap by promoting the education of girls and women in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Literacy Rate: Literacy rate is the percentage of people aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• Census 2011: The Census of India 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country and provided comprehensive data on population, literacy, and other demographic indicators.
• Challenges in Rural Areas: Factors like poverty, cultural norms, gender bias, and lack of infrastructure have contributed to lower literacy rates among rural women.
• Government Schemes: Initiatives like Saakshar Bharat Mission, focused on adult literacy, and Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao, aimed at improving the education of girl children, have been instrumental in addressing this issue.
• UNESCO's Role: Global organizations like UNESCO have also highlighted the importance of women's education as a means of achieving gender equality and sustainable development.

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda.

Key Points

• Swami Vivekananda represented India and Hinduism at the World Parliament of Religions held in Chicago in 1893.
• His speech began with the famous greeting, "Sisters and Brothers of America," which garnered a standing ovation for its inclusiveness and universal appeal.
• Vivekananda emphasized the principles of religious tolerance, universal acceptance, and harmony among different faiths during his address.
• The event marked a historic moment for India, as Vivekananda introduced the richness of Indian spirituality and culture to a global audience.
• He was a disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and played a significant role in spreading Vedantic philosophy worldwide.

Additional Information

• World Parliament of Religions:
• The first World Parliament of Religions was held in Chicago, USA, in 1893 as part of the World's Columbian Exposition.
• It aimed to foster interfaith dialogue and understanding among representatives of different religions across the world.
• Swami Vivekananda’s Legacy:
• He founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to carry forward the teachings of his guru Sri Ramakrishna and serve humanity.
• His works, including "Lectures from Colombo to Almora," continue to inspire individuals globally.
• Vedanta Philosophy:
• Vedanta is a spiritual philosophy rooted in the Upanishads, emphasizing the unity of all existence and self-realization.
• Swami Vivekananda was instrumental in popularizing Vedanta in the West.
• Universal Acceptance:
• Vivekananda’s message aligned with the idea of "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" (the world is one family), promoting global harmony.
• His teachings continue to be relevant in modern interfaith and multicultural contexts.

The correct answer is Garo Hills, Khasi Hills and Jaintia Hills.

Key Points

• The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills are located in the Indian state of Meghalaya, in the northeastern region of India.
• These hills are arranged geographically from west to east, with the Garo Hills in the west, followed by the Khasi Hills in the center, and the Jaintia Hills in the east.
• The Garo Hills are known for their dense forests, rich biodiversity, and being home to the Garo tribe.
• The Khasi Hills are famous for the capital city of Meghalaya, Shillong, which is situated within this region.
• The Jaintia Hills are known for their limestone deposits, with a significant contribution to the cement industry in Meghalaya.

Additional Information

• Garo Hills:
• The Garo Hills are part of the Patkai mountain range and are predominantly inhabited by the Garo tribe.
• They feature several protected areas such as the Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, which is a UNESCO-listed site.
• Famous festivals of the region include the Wangala Festival, celebrated by the Garo people.
• Khasi Hills:
• They are home to the Khasi tribe, known for their matrilineal society, where lineage and inheritance are traced through women.
• Popular tourist attractions in the Khasi Hills include Elephant Falls and Living Root Bridges.
• The area is also known for its temperate climate, earning Shillong the nickname "Scotland of the East."
• Jaintia Hills:
• The Jaintia Hills are known for their cave systems, such as the Siju Cave and Liat Prah Cave, which attract tourists and researchers.
• The region is rich in natural resources, particularly limestone and coal.
• The Jaintia tribe, which inhabits the area, has a rich cultural heritage and follows unique traditional practices.
• Meghalaya as a State:
• Meghalaya was formed in 1972 as a separate state carved out of Assam.
• The name "Meghalaya" translates to "Abode of Clouds."
• The state is known for its high rainfall, with places like Mawsynram and Cherrapunji being among the wettest locations on Earth.

The correct answer is Firuz Shah Tughluq.

Key Points

• Firuz Shah Tughluq ruled Delhi from 1351 to 1388, succeeding his cousin Muhammad bin Tughluq.
• He was known for his administrative reforms, including the establishment of several public works such as canals, roads, and bridges.
• Firuz Shah Tughluq introduced multiple welfare schemes for his subjects and was known for his patronage of scholars and artisans.
• He built several important structures, including the Firuz Shah Kotla in Delhi and repaired historical monuments like the Qutub Minar.
• Firuz Shah Tughluq is remembered for his efforts to stabilize the economy and for being a relatively benevolent ruler compared to his predecessors.

Additional Information

• Tughluq Dynasty: The Tughluq dynasty was founded by Ghiyasuddin Tughluq in 1320 and is known for its administrative innovations and architectural contributions.
• Firuz Shah Kotla: A fortified citadel built by Firuz Shah Tughluq in Delhi, housing a famous Ashokan pillar brought from Topra.
• Economic Policies: Firuz Shah Tughluq implemented policies to reduce taxation and introduced new revenue systems aimed at benefiting the peasantry.
• Religious Tolerance: Although a devout Muslim, Firuz Shah Tughluq is noted for his relative tolerance towards other religions compared to some of his predecessors.
• Succession and Decline: Firuz Shah Tughluq's successors were unable to maintain the stability of the empire, leading to the eventual decline of the Tughluq dynasty.

The correct answer is Bardoli Chheerha.

Key Points

• Bardoli Chheerha is the local name for the pre-monsoon thunderstorms that occur in Assam during the hot weather season.
• These storms are characterized by strong winds, heavy rainfall, and often accompanied by hail.
• Such weather phenomena are localized and short-lived but can cause significant damage to crops and property.
• The term "Bardoli Chheerha" is unique to the region and highlights the localized naming of weather events in India.
• These storms typically occur between March and May, marking the transition from the hot weather season to the monsoon.

Additional Information

• Other Localized Weather Phenomena in India:
• Loo: A hot, dry wind that blows across northern India during the summer season, leading to extreme heat conditions.
• Mango Showers: Pre-monsoon showers in Kerala and Karnataka, beneficial for the ripening of mangoes.
• Kalbaisakhi: Localized thunderstorms in West Bengal and Odisha during the summer, often accompanied by rain and hail.
• Blossom Showers: Pre-monsoon rains in Kerala that aid in the flowering of coffee plants.
• Importance of Pre-Monsoon Storms:
• They help in cooling down temperatures before the onset of the monsoon.
• Provide relief to farmers by replenishing soil moisture and aiding in the growth of certain crops.
• However, they can also cause destruction due to strong winds and hail, affecting agriculture and infrastructure.
• Climatic Transition in India:
• India experiences distinct weather transitions, such as the pre-monsoon phase, marked by varying localized weather phenomena.
• The transition is influenced by factors like latitude, topography, and the proximity of the region to water bodies.
• Significance of Regional Terminologies:
• Regional names for weather phenomena reflect the cultural and geographical uniqueness of different parts of India.
• These names are often rooted in the experiences and observations of the local population over generations.

The correct answer is It originates from two branches near Govindgarh.

Key Points

• The Luni River does not originate from two branches near Govindgarh; this statement is factually incorrect.
• The Luni originates from the western slopes of the Aravalli Hills near Ajmer in Rajasthan.
• Its primary source is the Naga Hills, and the river is formed by the confluence of two tributaries—Saraswati and Sagarmati.
• The Luni River is ephemeral, meaning it flows only during the monsoon season.
• It is the largest river system in the arid region of Rajasthan west of the Aravalli range.

Additional Information

• Ephemeral Rivers: These are rivers that flow only during certain periods of the year, typically in response to rainfall. The Luni River is one such river.
• Aravalli Range: One of the oldest mountain ranges in the world, the Aravalli Hills play a significant role in influencing the hydrography of Rajasthan.
• Saraswati and Sagarmati Tributaries: The Luni River is formed by the confluence of these two streams near the Ajmer region.
• Drainage Basin: The Luni River flows through the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, eventually dissipating into the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
• Sabarmati River: This is a distinct river system in Gujarat and is not connected to the Luni River, correcting the common misconception.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The headquarters of Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) is located in New Delhi, India.
• IFFCO was established in 1967 and is one of the largest cooperative societies in the world.
• The organization primarily focuses on the production and distribution of fertilizers to support Indian agriculture.
• IFFCO operates under the cooperative model, with the aim of benefiting Indian farmers by providing affordable and high-quality agricultural inputs.
• It has a network of plants, regional offices, and distribution centers spread across India to ensure efficient delivery of its products.

Additional Information

• IFFCO's Mission: The organization works to enhance agricultural productivity and improve the livelihoods of farmers through its cooperative model.
• Products: IFFCO produces a range of fertilizers including urea, DAP (Diammonium Phosphate), NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium), and biofertilizers.
• Global Reach: While primarily serving Indian farmers, IFFCO also exports its products internationally to promote sustainable farming practices.
• Research and Development: IFFCO invests in R&D to develop eco-friendly fertilizers and innovative agricultural solutions to support sustainable farming.
• Farmer-Centric Initiatives: IFFCO undertakes various schemes and programs to educate farmers about modern farming techniques and improve their overall well-being.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• James Watson and Francis Crick are credited with proposing the double-helix model for the structure of DNA in 1953.
• Their discovery was based on X-ray diffraction images produced by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.
• The double-helix model revealed that DNA consists of two strands that coil around each other, forming a helical structure.
• This discovery was published in the scientific journal Nature in April 1953, revolutionizing the field of molecular biology.
• Watson, Crick, and Wilkins were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1962 for their contributions to understanding the molecular structure of nucleic acids.

Additional Information

• DNA Structure: DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is composed of nucleotides, each consisting of a sugar molecule (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine).
• Base Pairing: Watson and Crick described the complementary base pairing mechanism in DNA: adenine pairs with thymine (A-T) and cytosine pairs with guanine (C-G) through hydrogen bonds.
• X-ray Crystallography: Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction images were crucial in determining the helical structure of DNA, though her contributions were underappreciated during her lifetime.
• Central Dogma of Molecular Biology: The discovery of the DNA structure laid the foundation for understanding the flow of genetic information: DNA → RNA → Protein.
• Significance: The double-helix model helped explain how genetic information is stored, replicated, and transmitted, leading to advancements in genetics, biotechnology, and medicine.

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

• The Mahananda River is a significant tributary of the Ganga River, flowing through eastern India and Nepal.
• It originates from the Mahaldiram hills in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal, India.
• The river flows through the Indian states of West Bengal, Bihar, and Jharkhand, as well as parts of Nepal.
• It joins the Ganga near Kahalgaon in Bihar, contributing to the Ganga's overall water system.
• The Mahananda River plays an important role in irrigation and sustains agriculture in its basin areas.

Additional Information

• Ganga River System:
• The Ganga is the longest river in India, spanning approximately 2,525 km.
• It is formed by the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers at Devprayag in Uttarakhand.
• Major tributaries of the Ganga include the Yamuna, Son, Gandak, Kosi, and Ghaghara rivers.
• The Ganga river basin is one of the most fertile regions in India, supporting agriculture and population density.
• Mahananda River Basin:
• The Mahananda basin covers an area of approximately 20,600 square kilometers.
• It is an important agricultural area, producing crops such as rice, jute, and maize.
• The river also supports diverse ecosystems and is home to various fish species.
• Tributaries of Mahananda:
• Important tributaries of the Mahananda include the Balason, Mechi, and Kankai rivers.
• These tributaries contribute significantly to the water volume and agriculture in the region.
• Environmental Concerns:
• Like other rivers in India, the Mahananda faces challenges such as pollution, deforestation, and reduced water flow.
• Efforts are being made to ensure sustainable management and conservation of the river.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

• The nationalization of 14 major commercial banks in India occurred on 19th July 1969.
• The decision was taken under the leadership of then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to bring banking to rural areas and ensure credit availability for agriculture, small industries, and exports.
• These banks controlled 85% of the total deposits in the country at the time of nationalization.
• The move aimed to align the banking sector with the socialistic pattern of governance and promote financial inclusion.
• The 14 banks included prominent names like Punjab National Bank, Bank of Baroda, Canara Bank, Bank of India, and Central Bank of India.

Additional Information

• Nationalization Concept: Nationalization refers to the government taking control of private sector assets or industries to ensure public ownership and equitable distribution of resources.
• Banking Before Nationalization: Prior to 1969, the banking sector primarily served urban elites and large industrialists, leaving rural areas and small-scale sectors underserved.
• Second Wave of Nationalization: In 1980, six more banks were nationalized, further expanding the public sector's control over the banking system.
• Impact of Nationalization: The move significantly increased the number of bank branches, especially in rural areas, and helped channel credit into priority sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries.
• Legal Framework: The nationalization was carried out under the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969, which later became an Act of Parliament.

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

• Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the state legislature.
• This power is exercised when the Governor is satisfied that immediate action is required and the legislature is not in session.
• An ordinance promulgated under Article 213 has the same force and effect as a law passed by the legislature but must be approved by the legislature within six weeks of its reassembly.
• The Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance if it contains provisions that would require the President's prior consent or if it conflicts with the Constitution.
• The ordinance-making power is intended to address urgent legislative needs but has been subject to judicial scrutiny to prevent misuse.

Additional Information

• Legislature Recess: Recess refers to the period when the legislative assembly or council is not in session, making it impossible to pass laws.
• Ordinance: An ordinance is a temporary law enacted by the executive authority (Governor or President) to address urgent situations.
• Judicial Oversight: The Supreme Court of India has ruled that the ordinance-making power should not be misused and must adhere to constitutional principles.
• Article 123: Similar to Article 213, Article 123 empowers the President of India to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
• Limitations: Ordinances cannot override fundamental rights, and their validity is subject to legislative approval within a specified timeframe.

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

• Age-specific sex ratios in India were first computed during the 1961 Census, marking the beginning of detailed demographic analysis on gender disparities.
• The computation of age-specific sex ratios provides data on the number of females per 1,000 males across different age groups.
• It was introduced to understand gender imbalances and their impact on demographic trends and social structures.
• This initiative was part of broader efforts to enhance the quality of census data and better inform public policy.
• The 1961 Census was a milestone in Indian demographic studies, introducing several new statistical measures.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio: Refers to the number of females per 1,000 males in a population, often used as a key demographic indicator.
• Age-Specific Sex Ratio: Provides sex ratio data within specific age groups, helping identify disparities in mortality, birth rates, and migration patterns.
• 1961 Census Highlights: This census included significant advancements in data collection, such as age-specific analyses and urban-rural classifications.
• Significance of Age-Specific Ratios: These ratios are crucial for understanding child mortality, gender inequality, and societal preferences that may influence demographic trends.
• India's Census System: Conducted every 10 years, the Indian Census is one of the largest and most comprehensive population surveys globally, managed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.

The correct answer is Kanauj.

Key Points

• The Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta, and Pala dynasties were part of a tripartite struggle for control over Kanauj, a strategically and economically important region in northern India.
• This conflict, known as the Tripartite Struggle, spanned the 8th to 10th centuries CE and was pivotal in medieval Indian politics.
• Kanauj's location made it a center for trade, culture, and administration, making it highly desirable for these dynasties to assert dominance over it.
• The Pratiharas controlled Kanauj for the longest period, using it as their imperial capital, while the Palas and Rashtrakutas also sought its control to enhance their influence in northern India.
• The struggle for Kanauj significantly influenced the political map of early medieval India, with frequent alliances and wars among the three dynasties.

Additional Information

• Kanauj:
• Kanauj, also spelled as Kannauj, is an ancient city located in present-day Uttar Pradesh, India.
• It was historically significant as a center of political and cultural power during the early medieval period.
• Kanauj was known for its wealth, trade routes, and fertile lands, making it a prime target for control.
• Tripartite Struggle:
• This term refers to the prolonged conflict among the Gurjara-Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas, and Palas for dominance over Kanauj.
• The struggle weakened all three empires, eventually paving the way for regional powers to rise.
• Gurjara-Pratiharas:
• A Rajput dynasty that established a powerful kingdom in northern India, with Kanauj as its capital for a significant period.
• They played a crucial role in defending India from Arab invasions during their reign.
• Rashtrakutas:
• A powerful dynasty from the Deccan region, known for their patronage of art and architecture, including the famous Ellora caves.
• They sought control over Kanauj to expand their influence into northern India.
• Pala Dynasty:
• Rulers of Bengal and Bihar who were known for their patronage of Buddhism and the establishment of universities like Nalanda and Vikramashila.
• The Palas sought Kanauj to extend their dominion into north-central India.

The correct answer is Badruddin Tyabji.

Key Points

• Badruddin Tyabji was the third President of the Indian National Congress and served as President in the year 1887.
• He was the first Muslim to preside over the Indian National Congress, symbolizing its broad-based appeal to all communities.
• As a social reformer and legal luminary, he was also known for his advocacy of women's education and rights.
• Badruddin Tyabji played a pivotal role in promoting communal harmony and unity among Indians during the early phase of India's independence movement.
• His presidency marked a significant step in bridging cultural and religious divides within the Congress.

Additional Information

• Indian National Congress (INC):
• Founded in 1885, the INC was the first major political party in India to work towards independence.
• The first session of the Congress was presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• The INC initially focused on political dialogue and reforms under British rule before evolving into a mass movement for complete independence.
• Key Objectives of Early INC Sessions:
• To create a platform for civil and political dialogue among Indians.
• To articulate demands for political and economic reforms to the British government.
• To promote unity across different regions, communities, and classes in India.
• Communal Harmony in Early INC:
• The INC was committed to fostering unity among Hindus, Muslims, Christians, and other communities.
• Leaders like Badruddin Tyabji emphasized the importance of secularism and inclusivity in the freedom movement.
• Role of Presidents in Early INC:
• Each session of the INC was presided over by a different leader, showcasing diversity and collective leadership.
• Presidents such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, and Badruddin Tyabji played critical roles in shaping the early objectives of the party.

Given:

Number = 5252

Formula used:

The unit digit of a number is determined by the unit digit of the base number raised to the power of the exponent.

Calculation:

Unit digit of 5252 = Unit digit of 2⁵²

The powers of 2 repeat in a cycle of 4 for their unit digits:

2¹ = 2 (unit digit = 2)

2² = 4 (unit digit = 4)

2³ = 8 (unit digit = 8)

2⁴ = 16 (unit digit = 6)

From here, the unit digits repeat in the order: 2, 4, 8, 6.

⇒ To find the unit digit of 2⁵², divide 52 by 4 and check the remainder.

⇒ 52 ÷ 4 = 13 remainder 0

⇒ When the remainder is 0, the unit digit corresponds to 2⁴, which is 6.

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Number of trucks crossed border on day D1 = 2800

Number of trucks crossed border on day D4 = 3200

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part / Whole) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage = (2800 / 3200) × 100

⇒ Percentage = 87.5%

∴ Number of trucks crossed border on day D1 is 87.5% of the number of trucks on day D4.

Given:

Three successive discounts: 7%, 5%, and 10%

Formula used:

Net discount percentage = $[1 - (1-\frac{d_1}{100})(1-\frac{d_2}{100})(1-\frac{d_3}{100})] \times 100$

Where, $d_1, d_2, d_3$ are the successive discounts.

Calculation:

⇒ Net discount percentage = $[1 - (1-\frac{7}{100})(1-\frac{5}{100})(1-\frac{10}{100})] \times 100$

⇒ Net discount percentage = $[1 - (0.93)(0.95)(0.90)] \times 100$

⇒ Net discount percentage = $[1 - 0.79515] \times 100$

⇒ Net discount percentage = $[0.20485 \times 100]$ = 20.485%

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

$\frac{3}{11}$ of 44 percent of a number = 480

Calculation:

$\dfrac{3}{11} \times \dfrac{44}{100} \times \text{Number} = 480$

⇒ $\text{Number} = \dfrac{480 \times 11}{3 \times \dfrac{44}{100}}$

⇒ $\text{Number} = \dfrac{480 \times 11 \times 100}{3 \times 44}$

⇒ $\text{Number} = 4000$

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Find: 11³ + 12³ + 13³ + ... + 20³

Formula used:

Sum of the cubes of n natural numbers $= \left(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right)^2$

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of the cubes of first 20 natural numbers ⇒ S₂₀ = $\left(\frac{20\times21}{2}\right)^2$ = (210)² = 44100

⇒ Sum of the cubes of first 10 natural numbers ⇒ S₁₀ = $\left(\frac{10\times11}{2}\right)^2$ = (55)² = 3025

⇒ Required sum = S₂₀ - S₁₀ = 44100 - 3025 = 41075

∴ The value is 41075.

Given:

Number of watches sold by A in 2020 = 620

Number of watches sold by B in 2020 = 280

Formula used:

Average = (A + B) / 2

Calculations:

⇒ Average = (620 + 280) / 2

⇒ Average = 900 / 2

⇒ Average = 450

∴ The average number of watches sold by shops A and B in 2020 = 450.

Given:

Total trucks = 1800

Angles: D = 150°, F = 46°, G = 22°, I = 67°

Formula used:

Trucks by company = $\dfrac{\text{Angle}}{360} × 1800$

Required % = $\dfrac{\text{Trucks manufactured by (D+F)}}{\text{Trucks manufactured by (G+I)}} × 100$

Calculation:

Trucks manufactured by D = (150/360) × 1800 = 750

Trucks manufactured by F = (46/360) × 1800 = 230

⇒ Trucks manufactured by (D + F) = 750 + 230 = 980

Trucks manufactured by G = (22/360) × 1800 = 110

Trucks manufactured by I = (67/360) × 1800 = 335

⇒ Trucks manufactured by (G + I) = 110 + 335 = 445

Required % = (980/445) × 100 = 220.22%

∴ The correct answer is approximately 220.22%.

Given:

(72 ÷ 9 × 7 + 3) - (36 ÷ 6 × 2 - 4) + (13 × 2 + 6)

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders (powers and roots), Division and Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Calculation:

(72 ÷ 9 × 7 + 3) - (36 ÷ 6 × 2 - 4) + (13 × 2 + 6)

⇒ (8 × 7 + 3) - (6 × 2 - 4) + (26 + 6)

⇒ (56 + 3) - (12 - 4) + (26 + 6)

⇒ 59 - 8 + 32

⇒ 83

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

The value of 6 × 0.5 + 4.5 × 0.8 + 7.5 × 0.2

Calculation:

6 x 0.5 + 4.5 x 0.8 + 7.5 x 0.2

⇒ 3 + 3.6 + 1.5

⇒ 8.1

∴ The correct answer is option (2).