DSSSB Assistant Superintendent Official Paper (Held On: 20 Jul, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given series: 

(Left) 176 267 753 159 258 (Right)

Unit digits of all the numbers: 6, 7, 3, 9, 8

Sum of these unit digits = 6 + 7 + 3 + 9 + 8 = 33

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

NPT : KMQ 

HKO : EHL 

Similarly,

Option (2) BDE : YAB

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: Second Number = First Number × 4

41 : 164

41 × 4 = 164

35 : 140

35 × 4 = 140

Similarly,

? : 208

? × 4 = 208

? = 208/4

? = 52

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: **{(**First **number) - (**Second number)} × 11 = RHS

13 g 9 = 44

13 - 9 = 4 × 11 = 44 = RHS

15 g 7 = 88

15 - 7 = 8 × 11 = 88 = RHS

Similarly,

19 g 17 = ?

19 - 17 = 2  × 11 = 22 = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic = (First Number)³ - 1 = RHS

9 : 728

9³ - 1 = 729 - 1 = 728 = RHS

11 : 1330

(11)³ - 1 = 1331 - 1 = 1330 = RHS

Similarly,

22 : ? 

(22)³ - 1 = 10648 - 1 = 10647 = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

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Pattern followed here is,

NRS : LPQ

EHK : CFI

Similarly,

Option (3) BGH : ZEF 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,​

$\frac{(First\ number)^2 + (Second\ number)^2}{Third\ number}$

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7 P 9 S 4 = 32.5

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$\frac{(7)^2 + (9)^2}{4}$ = $\frac{49 + 81}{4}$ = 130/4 = 32.5

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6 P 10 S 2 = 68

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$\frac{(6)^2 + (10)^2}{2}$ = $\frac{36 + 100}{2}$ = 136/2 = 68

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Similarly,

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$\frac{(8)^2 + (12)^2}{4}$ = $\frac{64 + 144}{4}$ = 208/4 = 52

 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

(23 × 1) + 1 = 24

(24 × 2) + 2 = 50

(50 × 3) + 3 = 153

(153 × 4) + 4 = 616

(616 × 5) + 5 = 3085

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: First Number × 4 = 304 = LHS

304 : 76 

76 × 4 = 304 = LHS

 156 : 39

39 × 4 = 156 = LHS

Similarly,

248 : ? 

? × 4 = 248

? = 248/4 

? = 62

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

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N – M ÷ P × Q ÷ K, then how is K related to N.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

 

K is the father of N.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Dictionary order of the given words:

2. Daily
3. Daintly
4. Dairy
5. Dais 
   

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4. Daisy

Hence, the correct sequence is "23154".

Dictionary order of given words,

3. Verve
4. Very
5. Vest
6. Vetch
7. Vex

Word which come on third position is "Vest".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series: (Left) 424 251 576 196 841 (Right)

Hundredth digits of the given numbers: 4, 2, 5, 1, 8

Sum of hundredth digit of the given three digit numbers = 4 + 2 + 5 + 1 + 8 = 20

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Family Chart:

According to the given information,

As we can see that C is sister of B and A is Mother of B.

So, A is mother of C also.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the signs are interchanged as follows:

Now,

Option (1): 10 H 5 J 8 I 4 K 3 = 29

After putting all the symbols in the given equation,

10 ÷ 5 + 8 × 4 - 3 = 29

2 + 8 × 4 - 3 = 29

2 + 32 - 3 = 29

34 - 3 = 29

31 $\neq$ 29

Option (2): 100 J 90 H 30 K 3 I 40 = 17

After putting all the symbols in the given equation,

100 + 90 ÷ 30 - 3 × 40 = 17

100 + 3 - 3 × 40 = 17

100 + 3 - 120 = 17

103 - 120 = 17

-17 $\neq$ 17

Option (3): 100 H 50 I 30 J 40 K 20 = 80 

After putting all the symbols in the given equation,

100 ÷ 50 × 30 + 40 - 20 = 80 

2 × 30 + 40 - 20 = 80 

60 + 40 - 20 = 80

100 - 20 = 80

80 = 80

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

‘HOUSED’ is written as ‘JAUAKJ’. 

Similarly,

‘JUNGLE’  is written as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

 ‘WEST’ is coded as ‘XFTU’

‘EAST’ is coded as ‘FBTU’

Similarly,

‘RIGHT’ be coded 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

‘TEST’ is coded as ‘RCQR’

‘APPLE’ is coded as ‘YNNJC’

Similarly,

LIGHT’ be coded 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

RST : UVW

GHJ : JKM

Similarly,

Option (1) BTC : EWF 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

222 - 8 = 214

214 - 8 = 206

206 - 8 = 198

198 - 8 = 190

190 - 8 = 182

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The total number of students in the row is 40. Preeti's position from the bottom is 15th.

The formula for finding the position from the opposite end is:

$\text{Position from Top} = \text{Total Students} - \text{Position from Bottom} + 1$

Preeti's position form top = 40 - 15 + 1

Preeti's position form top = 26th

Sonal is 16 places ahead of Preeti in the row of 40 students.

Sonal's position from top = Preeti's position form top - 16

Sonal's position from top = 26 - 16

Sonal's position from top = 10th

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusion:

I. Some J are G → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between J and G)

II. Some H are G → Does not follow (As given No G is H. so, some H are G is never follow)

III. No J is F → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between J and F)

Here, Neither conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Raman’s position is 11th from top and 21th from bottom in a row of people.

Total person = Rank from top + rank from bottom - 1

Total person = 11 + 21 - 1

Total person = 31

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series: PK, MI, JG, GE, ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusion:

I. I. Some X are J → Follow (All W are X and some W are J. so, some X are definitely J)

II. Some W are not N → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between W and N.so, it is possible but not definite)

III. Some N are not X → Does not follow (Some N are X. so some N are Not X is possible not definite)

Here, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

7 boys A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing towards north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only two boys are sitting to the left of B. 2. Five boys are sitting between A and C. 

3. G is fifth to the left of C.

4. E is the immediate neighbour of D and F.

If D's position is in the center of row. then, 3 boys be there to the left of D.

If D's position is 2nd to the right end. then, 5 boys be there to the left of D.

Maximum 5 boys be there to the left of D.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

(1) HLK

H + 4 = L

L - 1 = K

(2) POK

P + 1 = O

O - 4 = K

(3) DHG

D + 4 = H

H - 1 = G

(4) BFE

B + 4 = F

F - 1 = E

Here, POK is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

(1) PCB – TGW 

(2) WON – DRM

(3) MLA – NOZ 

(4) JIT – QLG 

Here, PCB – TGW  is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

 → 

 → 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

(1) BDF

B + 2 = D;  D + 2 = F

(2) MOQ

M + 2 = O;  O + 2 = Q

(3) DFH

D + 2 = F;  F + 2 = H

(4) QOL

Q - 2 = O;  O - 3 = L

Here, QOL is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

(1) FHK

F + 2 = H;   H + 3 = K

(2) RTW

R + 2 = T;    T + 3 = W

(3) TVY

T + 2 = V;    V + 3 = Y

(4) FCA

F - 3 = C;   C - 2 = A

Here, FCA is different from others.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

+ 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

6 boys D, E, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre. 

1. E is fourth to the right of F. 2. G is to the immediate right of E. 3. D is the immediate neighbour of E and J.

H is third to the right of E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Five friends P, B, C, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre. 

1. B is second to the left of H. 2. G is the neighbour of B and H. 3. C is not the neighbour of B.

C is sitting second to the right of G.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Least Possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some N are not S → Follow (Some N are M and No M are S. so, Some N are not S is true)

II. Some M are N → Follow (Some N are M. so, some M are definitely N)

III. Some M are P → Follow (Some P are M. so, some M are definitely P)

Here, All conclusion follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

(RU, PQ, NM)

(NV, LR, JN) 

Similarly,

Option (2):  (ZO, XK, VG)

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic follows here is,

The given figures have two concentrated​ shapes.

→ Given figures have two concentrated shapes and the inner shape is smaller than outer one. 

The same logic is followed by option (1).

Option(2)

This figure has two concentrated shape and the inner shape is smaller than outer one. 

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

1. C1 lives on a floor numbered four.  2. No one lives below C7.

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3.  Number of persons who live between C6 and C1 are same as the number of persons who live between C1 and C5.

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4. C2 lives four floor above C4. C6 lives above C4, but Not immediately. 

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5. Only one friend lives between C3 and C2. 

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C5 lives in between C7 and C4.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The Correct answer is Pench Tiger Reserve.

Key Points

• Pench Tiger Reserve has been declared as India's first Dark Sky Park, providing an ideal location for stargazing and astrophotography due to its pristine night skies free of light pollution.
• The initiative aims to promote astro-tourism and raise awareness about light pollution and its adverse effects on the environment and biodiversity.
• Pench Tiger Reserve is located in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, making it a unique transboundary reserve.
• The park is named after the Pench River, which flows through the reserve, dividing it into two parts.
• Pench Tiger Reserve is famous for its rich biodiversity, including several species such as Bengal tigers, leopards, wild dogs, and Indian bison.
• The area inspired the setting for Rudyard Kipling's "The Jungle Book", making it culturally significant.
• The declaration of Pench Tiger Reserve as a Dark Sky Park highlights India's efforts to integrate conservation, sustainable tourism, and scientific education.

 Additional Information

• Orang Tiger Reserve
• Located in Assam, Orang Tiger Reserve is also known as the Mini Kaziranga due to its similar rich flora and fauna.
• It is home to several species, including Royal Bengal tigers, rhinoceroses, elephants, and pygmy hogs.
• Namdapha Tiger Reserve
• Situated in Arunachal Pradesh, Namdapha Tiger Reserve is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalayas.
• It is known for its diverse habitats ranging from tropical rainforests to alpine meadows.
• The reserve is home to rare species such as the clouded leopard and red panda.
• Kamlang Tiger Reserve
• Also located in Arunachal Pradesh, Kamlang Tiger Reserve is known for its lush landscapes and rich biodiversity.
• The reserve is named after the Kamlang River, which flows through it.

The Correct answer is Gajendra Singh Shekhawat.

Key Points

• Gajendra Singh Shekhawat is the Union Minister for Jal Shakti in the Government of India.
• He released the Manual for Disaster Management Plan (DMP) in July 2023, aimed at addressing disaster preparedness, mitigation, and response strategies.
• The manual is an important step in strengthening disaster management efforts under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• It provides guidelines for managing disasters related to water resources, including floods, droughts, and other water-related calamities.
• The initiative aligns with the government's focus on improving disaster resilience and ensuring sustainable water resource management across the country.
• As the minister heading the Jal Shakti Ministry, Gajendra Singh Shekhawat plays a key role in implementing policies related to water conservation, river rejuvenation, and disaster management.

 Additional Information

• Bhupender Yadav
• Bhupender Yadav is the Union Minister for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change in India.
• He is responsible for implementing policies related to environmental protection, wildlife conservation, and climate change mitigation.
• Arjun Munda
• Arjun Munda serves as the Union Minister of Tribal Affairs.
• He focuses on the development and welfare of tribal communities across India.
• Dharmendra Pradhan
• Dharmendra Pradhan is the Union Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
• He oversees education policies and programs aimed at improving skill development among India's workforce.

The Correct answer is Stand-Up India.

Key Points

• The Stand-Up India Scheme was launched on 5 April 2016 by the Government of India.
• It aims to promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women entrepreneurs at the grassroots level.
• The scheme focuses on economic empowerment and job creation.
• Under the scheme, each branch of a scheduled commercial bank is required to provide loans of between ₹10 lakh to ₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST borrower and one woman borrower for setting up a greenfield enterprise.
• The greenfield enterprise should be in the sectors of manufacturing, services, or trading.
• The scheme has been extended till the year 2025 to further boost entrepreneurship among marginalized communities.
• The scheme also facilitates handholding support to borrowers, including guidance for preparation of project plans and training in financial literacy.

 Additional Information

• Udan Scheme
• The Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN) Scheme is a regional connectivity scheme launched in 2017 under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• It aims to make air travel affordable and improve regional connectivity by subsidizing airfares for underserved and unserved airports across India.
• The scheme is focused on aviation infrastructure development rather than entrepreneurship.
• Startup India
• The Startup India Initiative was launched on 16 January 2016 by the Government of India.
• It aims to foster innovation, support startups, and create an enabling ecosystem for entrepreneurship in India.
• While it promotes entrepreneurship, it is broader in scope and not specifically targeted at marginalized communities like the Stand-Up India Scheme.
• MUDRA Yojana
• The Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Yojana was launched in April 2015.
• It provides financial support to micro and small enterprises through loans under three categories: Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishor (₹50,001 to ₹5 lakh), and Tarun (₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh).
• While it supports entrepreneurship, it does not focus specifically on SC/ST or women entrepreneurs like Stand-Up India.

The Correct answer is Ao.

Key Points

• The Ao language is primarily spoken by the Ao Naga tribe, which is indigenous to the northeastern state of Nagaland, India.
• This language belongs to the Tibeto-Burman language family.
• The Nilgiri region, located in the southern state of Tamil Nadu, is home to different tribal communities, but the Ao language is not associated with this region.
• The tribal languages spoken in the Nilgiri region include Toda, Irula, and Kota, which are native to the Dravidian language family.
• The Ao language is geographically and culturally distinct from the Nilgiri region and is associated with the northeastern part of India, not the southern region.

 Additional Information

• Toda
• Toda is a Dravidian language spoken by the Toda tribal community in the Nilgiri hills of Tamil Nadu.
• The Toda people are known for their distinctive culture, dress, and traditional dairy farming practices.
• The Toda language is one of the smallest and most endangered languages in India.
• Irula
• The Irula language is spoken by the Irula tribal community in the Nilgiri region and other parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• It is part of the Dravidian language family and is closely related to Tamil and Kannada.
• The Irula people are traditionally known for their expertise in snake-catching and herbal medicine.
• Kota
• The Kota language is another Dravidian language spoken by the Kota tribal community in the Nilgiri hills.
• Kota people are known for their musical traditions and pottery-making skills.
• The Kota tribe is one of the smallest tribal groups in India, and their language is considered endangered.

The Correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for implementing the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) and managing India's flagship health insurance scheme, Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body that regulates and promotes the insurance and reinsurance industries in India.
• In November 2023, the NHA and IRDAI collaborated to operationalize the National Health Claim Exchange (NHCX).
• The NHCX is a digital platform designed to streamline and expedite the health insurance claims process, ensuring transparency and efficiency.
• This initiative aligns with the goals of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) to create a unified digital health ecosystem in India.
• The partnership aims to digitize and simplify the interaction between insurers, healthcare providers, and policyholders.
• By leveraging technology, the NHCX seeks to minimize fraud, reduce processing time, and enhance customer satisfaction.

 Additional Information

• National Health Authority (NHA)
• The NHA is an autonomous entity under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• It was established to implement the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY), which provides health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
• The NHA also leads the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), which aims to digitize healthcare services in India.
• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
• The IRDAI was formed under the IRDA Act, 1999, and is headquartered in Hyderabad, India.
• Its primary function is to regulate and promote the insurance and reinsurance sectors, ensuring the protection of policyholders' interests.
• The IRDAI also works towards fostering the growth of the insurance market while maintaining financial stability.

The Correct answer is London.

Key Points

• The headquarters of the International Sugar Organization (ISO) are located in London, United Kingdom.
• The ISO is an intergovernmental organization established in 1968 and focuses on the global sugar industry.
• The organization's primary aim is to ensure the transparency and sustainability of the global sugar market.
• ISO members consist of both sugar-exporting and sugar-importing countries, promoting international cooperation in this industry.
• It provides important data, analysis, and reports on the sugar market and advocates for the interests of its member countries.
• The ISO also organizes events and conferences related to the sugar industry, fostering collaboration and knowledge exchange.
• London, being a global financial and business hub, offers strategic advantages for the headquarters of an organization with international scope.

 Additional Information

• Manila
• Manila is the capital city of the Philippines.
• It is known for its historical landmarks, including Intramuros, and serves as the economic, political, and cultural center of the country.
• The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) are located in Manila.
• Tokyo
• Tokyo is the capital city of Japan and one of the most populous metropolitan areas in the world.
• Tokyo is a global center for finance, technology, and culture.
• It is the headquarters for several international organizations, such as the United Nations University (UNU).
• Paris
• Paris is the capital city of France.
• The city is known for its status as a hub for art, fashion, and culture.
• Paris is home to major international organizations such as the UNESCO headquarters and the OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development).

The Correct answer is 2021.

Key Points

• The first-ever malaria vaccine, named RTS, S (also known as Mosquirix), was recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2021.
• This vaccine is specifically designed to combat Plasmodium falciparum, the most deadly malaria parasite and the most prevalent in Africa.
• The RTS, S vaccine was developed by GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) in partnership with PATH Malaria Vaccine Initiative and received support from the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.
• It is the first vaccine to show partial protection against malaria in young children, who are the most vulnerable group affected by the disease.
• The vaccine was tested in a pilot program in three African countries: Ghana, Kenya, and Malawi. The program began in 2019 and involved over 800,000 children.
• WHO's recommendation in October 2021 followed positive results from the pilot program, which demonstrated the vaccine's safety, feasibility, and effectiveness.
• RTS, S works by triggering the immune system to defend against the Plasmodium falciparum parasite before it enters the liver and develops into the disease.
• This recommendation marked a historic milestone in the fight against malaria, which remains a significant public health challenge globally, causing over 400,000 deaths annually, primarily among young children in sub-Saharan Africa.
• The RTS, S vaccine is administered in a series of four doses to achieve maximum effectiveness.

The Correct answer is Bioinformatics.

Key Points

• Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology, computer science, and information technology to analyze and interpret biological data.
• The Human Genome Project (HGP), an international scientific research initiative, focused on mapping and understanding all the genes of human beings, heavily relied on bioinformatics tools for analyzing the vast amount of genomic data.
• It involves the use of algorithms, databases, and computational tools to organize and interpret data obtained from biological experiments.
• The role of bioinformatics in the HGP was critical in sequencing the human genome, identifying genes, and understanding their functions.
• Applications of bioinformatics include genomics, proteomics, drug discovery, and personalized medicine.
• The development of bioinformatics has led to significant advancements in molecular biology and the understanding of complex biological systems.

 Additional Information

• Biomagnification
• Biomagnification refers to the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic substances, such as pesticides or heavy metals, as they move up the food chain.
• It is a concept in environmental science and not directly related to the Human Genome Project.
• Examples include the accumulation of mercury in fish or DDT in birds.
• Bioaccumulation
• Bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of toxic substances in the tissues of living organisms over time.
• It differs from biomagnification, as it occurs within an individual organism rather than across trophic levels.
• This term is more relevant to environmental studies than to the HGP.
• Biodiversity
• Biodiversity refers to the variety of life forms, including plants, animals, and microorganisms, in a given ecosystem.
• While important in biological research, it is not closely linked with the bioinformatics focus of the HGP.
• It is a key concept in the study of ecology and conservation biology.

The correct answer is Garo.

Key Points

• The Wangala Festival, also known as the Hundred Drums Festival, is a harvest festival celebrated by the Garo tribe in the state of Meghalaya.
• This festival is held annually to mark the end of the agricultural season and to honor Saljong, the Sun God, for a bountiful harvest.
• It is one of the most important and colorful festivals for the Garo community, celebrated with traditional music, dance, and rituals.
• The festival typically includes the beating of drums, blowing of buffalo horns, and performing traditional dances such as the Wangala Dance, which symbolizes the unity and spirit of the community.
• The highlight of the festival is the participation of men and women in their traditional attire, showcasing the rich cultural heritage of the Garo tribe.
• The Wangala Festival plays a significant role in preserving and promoting the indigenous traditions of the Garo people.

 Additional Information

• Jaintia
• The Jaintia tribe primarily resides in the Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya.
• They celebrate festivals such as Behdienkhlam, which is a major agricultural festival aimed at driving away evil spirits and invoking blessings for a good harvest.
• The Jaintias are known for their rich cultural traditions and unique religious practices.
• Khasi
• The Khasi tribe is one of the major tribes of Meghalaya, known for their matrilineal society.
• They celebrate festivals like Shad Suk Mynsiem, which is a thanksgiving dance festival.
• The Khasis are also known for their unique clan system and sacred groves.
• Riang
• The Riang tribe, also known as the Reang, primarily resides in the state of Tripura and some parts of Assam and Mizoram.
• They are known for their vibrant festivals such as Hojagiri, which involves traditional dance and rituals.
• The Riangs are recognized as one of the oldest tribes in the Northeastern region of India.

The Correct answer is Tomb of Sand.

Key Points

• Tomb of Sand is a novel written by Geetanjali Shree, originally in Hindi.
• The book was translated into English by Daisy Rockwell.
• It became the first book in any Indian language to win the prestigious International Booker Prize in 2022.
• The novel explores themes such as grief, partition, feminism, and identity.
• Tomb of Sand tells the story of an 80-year-old woman who overcomes depression after the death of her husband and embarks on a journey of self-discovery.
• It is known for its unique narrative style and the blending of humor and serious themes.
• The award highlights the global recognition of Indian literature and its contribution to world literature.

 Additional Information

• The Blue Umbrella
• Written by Ruskin Bond, this is a popular children's novel set in a small Indian village.
• The story revolves around a young girl named Binya and her prized possession, a beautiful blue umbrella.
• It is celebrated for its simple storytelling and depiction of rural Indian life.
• The Room on the Roof
• This book was Ruskin Bond's first novel, written at the age of seventeen.
• It is a coming-of-age story that explores themes of loneliness, friendship, and self-discovery.
• The book is set in Dehradun, India.
• A Flight of Pigeons
• This novel is also authored by Ruskin Bond.
• It is based on historical events during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• The story is about a British family caught in the upheaval of the rebellion.

The Correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• The Bonalu festival is a significant and vibrant festival celebrated in the Indian state of Telangana.
• It is primarily dedicated to the Goddess Mahakali and is celebrated to express gratitude and seek blessings from the goddess.
• The festival usually takes place in the month of Ashada (July-August) as per the Hindu calendar.
• Hyderabad, the capital city of Telangana, is famous for its grand celebrations of the Bonalu festival.
• The name "Bonalu" is derived from the word "Bhojanalu," meaning meals or offerings to the goddess.
• As part of the celebration, women carry decorated pots on their heads containing rice, jaggery, curd, and other items as an offering to the goddess.
• The festival includes traditional dances, cultural performances, and processions that add a unique charm to the celebration.
• It is believed that the festival originated in the 18th century when a deadly plague broke out in Hyderabad, and people prayed to the goddess for relief.
• Bonalu is now recognized as a state festival of Telangana, showcasing the region's rich cultural heritage.

 Additional Information

• Goa
• Goa is famous for its vibrant festivals like Carnival and Shigmo but not for Bonalu.
• The Carnival festival in Goa is a Christian celebration with grand processions and parades.
• Shigmo is a spring festival that includes traditional dances and celebrations by the Hindu community.
• Sikkim
• Sikkim is known for its Buddhist festivals such as Losar and Saga Dawa.
• Losar marks the Tibetan New Year, and Saga Dawa is a celebration of Buddha's life.
• Assam
• Assam celebrates the famous Bihu festival, which marks the Assamese New Year and the harvest season.
• Bihu is celebrated in three forms: Bohag Bihu (spring festival), Magh Bihu (harvest festival), and Kati Bihu (associated with agriculture).

The Correct answer is IIT-Madras.

Key Points

• Researchers from IIT-Madras developed a new type of electrolyte using pyrylium salts, a class of organic chemicals.
• This innovation is aimed at enhancing the performance of lithium-ion batteries, which are widely used in various applications such as electric vehicles, electronics, and energy storage systems.
• Pyrylium salts are known for their ability to stabilize ions and improve battery performance by allowing better conductivity and reducing degradation over time.
• The research focuses on improving the energy density, stability, and safety of batteries.
• IIT-Madras is a premier institution in India, recognized for its advanced research in engineering, science, and technology.
• This development is expected to contribute significantly to the growing demand for efficient and sustainable energy solutions globally.
• The research aligns with India's push for self-reliance in battery technology and fostering innovation in green energy systems.

 Additional Information

• IIT-Mumbai
• IIT-Mumbai is renowned for its research and innovation in fields such as engineering, computer science, and environmental technology.
• It is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and consistently ranks among the top institutions in India.
• While IIT-Mumbai is actively involved in energy-related research, the specific development of pyrylium salts was not attributed to this institution.
• IISc Bengaluru
• IISc Bengaluru is one of India's leading institutes for advanced scientific research and higher education.
• It specializes in areas such as material science, computational research, and sustainable technology.
• Although IISc conducts significant research in energy storage systems, the innovation in pyrylium salts is not linked to this institution.
• IIT-Guwahati
• IIT-Guwahati is known for its contributions to nanotechnology, renewable energy, and environmental engineering.
• Located in Assam, it plays a vital role in advancing technology in Northeast India.
• This institute is also engaged in battery-related research, but the specific development of pyrylium salts was not conducted here.

The Correct answer is Geetanjali Shree.

Key Points

• Geetanjali Shree is the author of the celebrated novel "Ret Samadhi", which was originally written in Hindi.
• The novel was translated into English as "Tomb of Sand" by Daisy Rockwell.
• "Tomb of Sand" became the first book written in any Indian language to win the prestigious International Booker Prize in 2022.
• The book explores themes such as grief, family dynamics, gender issues, and India's partition, making it a literary masterpiece.
• Geetanjali Shree is a renowned Indian author who has written several novels and short stories, gaining recognition for her distinctive narrative style.
• The novel's global recognition highlights the richness of Indian literature and its ability to resonate with audiences worldwide.

 Additional Information

• Deepti Kapoor
• Deepti Kapoor is an Indian author known for her novel "A Bad Character", which explores themes of love and rebellion in urban India.
• She also wrote "Age of Vice", a crime thriller set in modern India that examines corruption, power, and ambition.
• Arundhati Roy
• Arundhati Roy is an internationally acclaimed Indian author, best known for her novel "The God of Small Things", which won the Man Booker Prize in 1997.
• She is also a political activist and has written extensively on environmental issues, human rights, and social justice.
• Mahadevi Verma
• Mahadevi Verma was a prominent Indian poet and writer, widely regarded as one of the leading figures of the Chhayavad movement in Hindi literature.
• Her notable works include "Yama" and "Shrinkhla ki Kadiyan", which earned her accolades such as the Padma Bhushan and Jnanpith Award.

The Correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Malayalam is the official language of the Indian state of Kerala and is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India.
• It is primarily spoken by people in Kerala and the Lakshadweep Islands.
• Malayalam is a member of the Dravidian language family, which includes Tamil, Kannada, and Telugu.
• The language has a rich literary tradition, with many works of poetry, novels, and plays written in Malayalam.
• Thunchath Ezhuthachan is considered the father of Malayalam literature.
• Kerala is known for its high literacy rate, and the widespread usage of Malayalam is a testament to the state's focus on education.
• The Malayalam script is derived from the Grantha script, which evolved from the Brahmi script.
• Famous festivals such as Onam and Vishu are celebrated in Kerala, and the literature and language play an integral role in these cultural events.

 Additional Information

• Karnataka
• Kannada is the official language of Karnataka and is also a member of the Dravidian language family.
• Karnataka is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical monuments, including Hampi and Mysore Palace.
• Goa
• Konkani is the official language of Goa.
• Goa is famous for its beaches, Portuguese heritage, and tourism industry.
• Andhra Pradesh
• Telugu is the official language of Andhra Pradesh.
• Telugu is one of the classical languages of India, recognized for its rich literature and historical significance.

The Correct answer is Pune.

Key Points

• The National Institute of Virology (NIV) is located in Pune, Maharashtra, India.
• It is one of the major virology research institutes under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
• The institute was established in 1952 and was earlier known as the Virus Research Centre.
• It was set up in collaboration with the Rockefeller Foundation to conduct research on arthropod-borne viruses.
• The NIV is involved in the research, surveillance, and prevention of viral diseases, including emerging and re-emerging infections.
• The institute has played a crucial role in the identification and management of viruses like Japanese Encephalitis, Zika Virus, Dengue, and SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19).
• It houses a high-containment laboratory (BSL-4) for advanced research on highly infectious and dangerous viruses.
• The NIV works closely with national and international organizations to strengthen virology research and improve public health.

 Additional Information

• Noida
• Noida, located in Uttar Pradesh, is a prominent city in the National Capital Region (NCR) of India.
• It is known for its industrial and IT hubs but does not house the National Institute of Virology.
• Nasik
• Nasik is a city in Maharashtra and is renowned for its religious significance, being one of the sites of the Kumbh Mela.
• It is also known for its wine production, but it is not associated with virology research.
• Bhopal
• Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh and is home to the National Institute for Research in Environmental Health (NIREH).
• It is not the location of the National Institute of Virology.

The Correct answer is Chlorella.

Key Points

• According to NCERT Class 11 Biology (Chapter 3: Plant Kingdom), certain unicellular algae are exceptionally high in nutritional value:
• Protein Content: Chlorella is a unicellular green alga that contains about 50% protein, along with essential vitamins and minerals.
• Space Travel: Because it grows rapidly and provides a dense source of nutrition in a compact form, it is used as a food supplement by space travellers to maintain their nutritional requirements during long missions.
• Oxygen Production: Besides being a food source, it is also studied for its ability to recycle carbon dioxide into oxygen through photosynthesis in closed environments.

 Additional Information

• Dictyota: This is a brown alga (Phaeophyceae) primarily found in marine environments. While it has ecological importance, it is not used as a high-protein space food.
• Fucus: Another brown alga, commonly known as rockweed. It is rich in iodine and alginates but is not the specific supplement associated with space travel.
• Porphyra (Porphyra/Porphyridium): While Porphyra is an edible red alga used extensively in traditional foods like Japanese Nori, it is a multicellular seaweed rather than the specific unicellular protein supplement (Chlorella) highlighted for astronauts.

The Correct answer is Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary.

Key Points

• The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is situated on the northern boundary of Mandsaur and Neemuch districts of Madhya Pradesh, near the Chambal River.
• This sanctuary has been chosen as the second home for cheetahs in India under the ambitious cheetah reintroduction project.
• India has been working to reintroduce cheetahs into the country after they were declared extinct in the nation in 1952.
• The project aims to establish a viable population of cheetahs in suitable habitats, with the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary being one of these locations.
• The sanctuary offers a unique landscape of dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and wetlands, making it a suitable habitat for cheetahs and other wildlife species.
• The sanctuary is also known for its population of leopards, sloth bears, nilgai, chinkara, and Indian gazelle.
• The Chambal River, which flows through the sanctuary, adds ecological diversity and supports aquatic life.
• This initiative is part of India’s commitment to global wildlife conservation efforts and biodiversity restoration.

 Additional Information

• Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
• The Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Kerala, near the Periyar River.
• It is famous for its population of Asian elephants and tigers.
• This sanctuary is part of the Western Ghats, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• It is not associated with the cheetah reintroduction project.
• Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
• The Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Karnataka.
• It is part of the Bhadra Tiger Reserve and is known for its rich biodiversity.
• The sanctuary is not involved in the cheetah reintroduction project.
• Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary
• The Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan.
• It is famous for its Bengal tiger population and is part of the Sariska Tiger Reserve.
• While it was initially proposed as a potential site for cheetah reintroduction, it has not been finalized as the second home for cheetahs.

The Correct answer is Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID).

Key Points

• Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) is the implementing agency for the Green Energy Corridor (GEC) Phase-II – Inter-State Transmission System (ISTS).
• The project involves the development of a 13 GW renewable energy transmission system in Ladakh.
• POWERGRID is a Maharatna Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
• It is responsible for the planning, coordination, supervision, and control of inter-state transmission systems and national grid management.
• The Green Energy Corridor is a significant project to facilitate the integration of renewable energy into the national grid, reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainable energy.
• The project in Ladakh will help harness the region's immense renewable energy potential, particularly solar and wind energy, and transmit it to other parts of India.
• This initiative aligns with India’s commitment to achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030 as part of its climate goals.

 Additional Information

• National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) Limited
• NTPC Limited is India’s largest energy conglomerate with a focus on power generation and allied activities.
• It primarily deals with thermal, hydro, and renewable energy production.
• While NTPC plays a crucial role in the energy sector, it is not the implementing agency for the Green Energy Corridor (GEC) Phase-II.
• National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) Limited
• NHPC Limited specializes in hydropower development and operates several hydropower plants across India.
• Although NHPC is a leading player in hydropower, the responsibility for the GEC Phase-II does not lie with this organization.
• North Eastern Electric Power Corporation (NEEPCO)
• NEEPCO focuses on power generation in the northeastern region of India and works on hydro, thermal, and renewable energy projects.
• It is not associated with the implementation of the Green Energy Corridor (GEC) Phase-II.

The Correct answer is John Logie Baird

Key Points

• John Logie Baird was a Scottish engineer and inventor, and he is widely recognized as the inventor of the television.
• He successfully demonstrated the first working television system in 1925, showing moving images to the public for the first time.
• In 1926, Baird gave the world's first public demonstration of a fully electronic television system in London.
• He developed the first color television and also contributed to the development of stereoscopic (3D) television.
• Baird's work laid the foundation for modern television technology, revolutionizing the way information and entertainment were delivered to households worldwide.
• His invention had a significant impact on communication, media, and culture, shaping the modern world.

 Additional Information

• Theodore Case
• Theodore Case was an American scientist and inventor, known for his contribution to sound-on-film technology.
• He did not invent the television but played a major role in the development of synchronized sound for motion pictures.
• J. J. Thomson
• J. J. Thomson was a British physicist who discovered the electron and proposed the plum pudding model of the atom.
• His work was related to atomic physics and not the invention of the television.
• Blaise Pascal
• Blaise Pascal was a French mathematician, physicist, and inventor known for contributions to fluid mechanics, probability theory, and the invention of the mechanical calculator.
• He lived in the 17th century, long before the invention of the television.

The Correct answer is Railways.

Key Points

• Ashutosh Sharma achieved the record-breaking feat while playing for the Railways team in a T20 match.
• He broke the 16-year-old record held by former Indian cricketer Yuvraj Singh for the fastest half-century scored by an Indian batsman in T20 cricket.
• Yuvraj Singh's record was set during the 2007 ICC T20 World Cup, where he famously hit six sixes in an over against England's Stuart Broad.
• This new achievement by Ashutosh Sharma highlights the rising talent in the domestic cricket circuit.
• The Railways team has a history of nurturing cricketing talent, contributing significantly to Indian cricket.
• Such performances in domestic cricket are crucial for players aiming to secure a place in the national team.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan
• The Rajasthan cricket team represents the state of Rajasthan in Indian domestic cricket tournaments such as the Ranji Trophy and Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy.
• It has produced talented players like Deepak Chahar, who has represented India in international cricket.
• Punjab
• The Punjab cricket team represents the state of Punjab in domestic tournaments.
• Notable players from Punjab include Harbhajan Singh and Yuvraj Singh, both of whom have had illustrious careers in international cricket.
• Uttar Pradesh
• The Uttar Pradesh cricket team represents the state in domestic cricket and has produced players like Suresh Raina and Bhuvneshwar Kumar.
• It has been a competitive team in domestic tournaments, contributing significantly to Indian cricket.

The Correct answer is Cellulose.

Key Points

• Cellulose is a type of complex carbohydrate or polysaccharide that is found in the cell walls of plants.
• Humans cannot digest cellulose because their digestive system lacks the necessary enzyme called cellulase to break down cellulose into glucose.
• In herbivores like cows and termites, cellulose digestion is possible because of the presence of symbiotic microorganisms in their digestive tract that produce cellulase.
• Although cellulose cannot be digested, it is an important part of the human diet as dietary fiber (or roughage), which aids in the proper functioning of the digestive system.
• Dietary fiber from cellulose helps in preventing constipation, maintaining gut health, and regulating blood sugar levels.
• Foods rich in cellulose include vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and legumes.

 Additional Information

• Proteins
• Proteins are large biomolecules made of amino acids and are essential for various bodily functions such as growth, repair, and enzyme formation.
• The human digestive system can break down proteins using enzymes like pepsin and trypsin into amino acids, which are then absorbed in the intestine.
• Fats
• Fats are broken down in the human digestive system by the enzyme lipase, which is secreted by the pancreas.
• The breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol provides the body with energy and plays a role in the absorption of certain vitamins.
• Vitamins
• Vitamins are organic compounds required in small amounts for various metabolic processes and overall health.
• Vitamins are not digested but absorbed directly in the intestine. Examples include Vitamin A, B-complex, C, D, E, and K.

The Correct answer is Thymine.

Key Points

• In the double-helix structure of human DNA, the nitrogenous bases pair together through hydrogen bonds.
• The base Adenine (A) pairs specifically with Thymine (T) in DNA.
• Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine, ensuring the stability of the DNA structure.
• This complementary base pairing is a crucial aspect of the Watson-Crick model of DNA.
• The pairing rule, known as the Chargaff's rule, states that the amount of Adenine is equal to Thymine, and the amount of Guanine is equal to Cytosine in a DNA molecule.
• The base pairing between Adenine and Thymine occurs due to their specific chemical structures and the ability to form two hydrogen bonds.
• This pairing is essential for DNA replication, ensuring accurate copying of genetic information during cell division.
• In RNA, however, Thymine is replaced by Uracil (U), which pairs with Adenine.

 Additional Information

• Guanine
• Guanine pairs with Cytosine in DNA through three hydrogen bonds.
• This pairing contributes to the overall stability of the DNA double-helix structure.
• Cytosine
• Cytosine is a pyrimidine base that pairs with Guanine via three hydrogen bonds.
• This strong bonding ensures the integrity of the DNA molecule.
• Histone
• Histones are proteins, not nitrogenous bases, and are involved in the packaging of DNA into chromatin.
• They help in the regulation of gene expression and the structural organization of DNA.

The correct answer is Barakar.

Key Points

• The Barakar River is the largest tributary of the Damodar River.
• It originates from the Hazaribagh Plateau in the state of Jharkhand.
• The river flows through Jharkhand and West Bengal before merging with the Damodar River.
• It plays an important role in the Damodar Valley Project as two major dams, Tilaiya and Maithon, are built on this river.
• The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) utilizes the Barakar River for purposes like power generation, irrigation, and flood control.
• The Barakar River basin is known for its rich deposits of coal and minerals, making it an economically significant region in eastern India.

 Additional Information

• Barak River
• The Barak River is one of the major rivers in northeastern India.
• It originates from the Manipur hills and flows through the Indian states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Assam.
• The Barak River later bifurcates into the Surma and Kushiyara rivers in Assam and enters Bangladesh.
• It is a part of the Brahmaputra River system.
• Arun River
• The Arun River originates from the Tibetan Plateau and flows through Nepal before joining the Sapt Koshi River.
• It is one of the major tributaries of the Koshi River.
• The Arun River is known for its high altitude and swift currents, making it significant for hydroelectric power generation in Nepal.
• Sankosh River
• The Sankosh River originates in Bhutan and flows through India before joining the Brahmaputra River.
• It is also known as the Gadadhar River in its lower course.
• The river is important for irrigation and hydropower projects in the region.

The Correct answer is Six years.

Key Points

• The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, or CAG, is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
• The CAG shall hold office for a term of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the State Governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
• The position of CAG is considered critical for ensuring transparency and accountability in the use of public funds.
• The CAG has the authority to audit accounts of government companies as per the provisions under the Companies Act, 2013.
• The appointment of the CAG is made by the President of India and the removal process is similar to that of a Supreme Court Judge, ensuring independence from executive interference.
• The CAG’s reports are submitted to the President or Governor, who then lays them before the respective legislature.

The Correct answer is Jyotirao Phule.

Key Points

• Jyotirao Phule was an Indian social reformer, thinker, and writer who worked for the welfare of marginalized communities.
• He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 in Pune, Maharashtra, to promote equality and fight against the caste system and social injustice.
• The organization aimed to provide education and social justice to the oppressed classes, including Dalits and women.
• Jyotirao Phule is also known for his work in advocating for education for women and improving the conditions of farmers.
• He and his wife, Savitribai Phule, established India's first school for girls.
• Phule's efforts contributed significantly to the development of social reform movements in India during the 19th century.
• The Satyashodhak Samaj also opposed priestly dominance and Brahmanical rituals, promoting an egalitarian society.
• Jyotirao Phule's writings, such as "Gulamgiri", highlighted the oppression faced by lower castes and emphasized the importance of social justice.

 Additional Information

• Dr B.R. Ambedkar
• Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was a key figure in India's struggle for social justice and was the architect of the Indian Constitution.
• He led movements for the upliftment of Dalits and fought against untouchability.
• Dr. Ambedkar founded the Scheduled Caste Federation and later the Republican Party of India.
• Shri Narayana Guru
• Shri Narayana Guru was a saint and social reformer from Kerala, who worked to eliminate caste discrimination.
• He preached the philosophy of "One caste, one religion, one God for humanity."
• He established the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP), a socio-religious organization in Kerala.
• E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
• E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar, was a social activist and founder of the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu.
• He opposed caste-based hierarchies and worked for the rights of Dravidian communities.
• Periyar advocated for rationalism and atheism as part of his reformist agenda.

The Correct answer is Flora.

Key Points

• The term Flora is used to refer to the plants of a particular region, period, or environment.
• Flora encompasses all plant species including trees, shrubs, herbs, grasses, mosses, ferns, and algae that grow in a specific geographic area.
• The word Flora has its origin in Roman mythology, where Flora was the goddess of flowers and spring.
• The study of Flora is important for understanding ecological systems, as plants play crucial roles in producing oxygen, providing food, and supporting biodiversity.
• Examples of Flora include the tropical rainforests of the Amazon, the Alpine vegetation, or the desert plants of the Sahara.
• Flora is often categorized based on the specific geographic location, such as native flora, agricultural flora, or horticultural flora.
• Botanical studies and surveys help researchers catalog the diverse plant species of a region and identify any endangered or rare species.

 Additional Information

• Biodiversity
• Biodiversity refers to the variety of life forms in a particular area, including plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms.
• This term encompasses the entire ecological complex and is broader than Flora, which specifically refers to plants.
• Biodiversity is essential for maintaining ecosystem balance and supporting human life through services such as pollination, climate regulation, and nutrient cycling.
• Ecosystem
• An Ecosystem is a community of living organisms (plants, animals, and microorganisms) interacting with their non-living environment such as air, water, and soil.
• The term describes the functional unit of nature, which includes both biotic and abiotic components.
• Examples of ecosystems include forests, deserts, wetlands, and coral reefs.
• Fauna
• Fauna refers to the animals of a specific region, period, or environment.
• The term is complementary to Flora, which refers to plant species.
• Examples of fauna include the wildlife of the Sundarbans, the marine life of the Great Barrier Reef, or the desert animals of the Thar Desert.

The Correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Corporation Tax is a type of direct tax imposed on the income or profits of corporations and businesses.
• It is levied directly on companies by the government, and cannot be shifted to others, unlike indirect taxes.
• In India, corporation tax is governed under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• It is applicable to both domestic companies (registered in India) and foreign companies earning income in India.
• The rate of corporation tax is determined by factors like type of company, income level, and whether a company opts for certain exemptions or concessions.
• The revenue collected from corporation tax is used by the government for , infrastructure, and other public welfare schemes.
• This tax is considered a direct tax because the burden of payment falls directly on corporations, and they cannot pass it on to consumers.

 Additional Information

• Service Tax
• Service Tax was a type of indirect tax levied on services provided in India.
• It was introduced under the Finance Act, 1994.
• However, after the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in July 2017, service tax was subsumed under GST.
• It was collected by service providers and passed on to the government, making it an indirect tax.
• Direct Tax vs. Indirect Tax
• Direct Taxes: Taxes where the liability to pay falls directly on the individual or entity, e.g., Income Tax, Corporation Tax, etc.
• Indirect Taxes: Taxes where the liability can be shifted to others, e.g., GST, Custom Duty, etc.
• Direct taxes are progressive in nature, whereas indirect taxes are often regressive.

The correct answer is 1976.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• These duties are enshrined under Article 51A of Part IV-A of the Constitution.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the USSR.
• The Fundamental Duties were added based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was constituted by the Indian government.
• The Fundamental Duties serve as a reminder to citizens about their responsibilities towards the nation.
• Initially, there were 10 Fundamental Duties. Later, the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added one more duty, making it a total of 11 Fundamental Duties.
• These duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts but hold moral and ethical importance.

The Correct answer is Article 330.

Key Points

• Article 330 of the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Lok Sabha.
• It ensures representation for these communities to promote their political participation and address their socio-economic challenges.
• The provision is based on the principles of social justice and equality enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
• The reservation is determined in proportion to the population of SCs and STs in each state, as per the latest census data.
• These reservations are part of the larger framework for affirmative action to uplift marginalized communities.
• This provision is reviewed periodically and included in every constitutional amendment related to elections and representation.
• The aim of this reservation is to ensure that SCs and STs have adequate political representation to voice their concerns and participate in governance.

 Additional Information

• Article 148
• Article 148 deals with the appointment and duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditure of the Union and State governments and ensuring financial accountability.
• Article 280
• Article 280 provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States.
• The Finance Commission is constituted every five years by the President of India.
• Article 213
• Article 213 relates to the power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances during recesses of the State Legislature.
• This power is exercised under circumstances requiring immediate legislative action.

The Correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Distance from sea plays a crucial role in determining the climate of India. Coastal areas experience a more moderate climate due to proximity to large water bodies, while inland regions often have more extreme temperatures.
• Distribution of land and water greatly influences climatic conditions. The presence of vast water bodies like the Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea, and Bay of Bengal helps regulate temperature and brings moisture-laden winds, leading to monsoon rainfall.
• India's climate is characterized by a tropical monsoon climate, which is heavily impacted by its geographical features, including its distance from the sea and land-water distribution.
• The interplay between land and water affects seasonal wind patterns, such as the Southwest Monsoon and the Northeast Monsoon, which are critical for agriculture and water resources in the country.
• Regions closer to the sea, such as the Western Ghats and Eastern Coastal Plains, experience higher humidity and stable temperatures compared to areas farther inland, like the Deccan Plateau or the Northwestern desert regions.
• The Himalayas act as a barrier, blocking cold winds from Central Asia and influencing the climatic dynamics of the Indian subcontinent.
• India's extensive coastline (over 7,500 km) ensures that maritime influences significantly impact the climate, particularly in terms of precipitation and temperature regulation.

The Correct answer is Hindan.

Key Points

• The Hindan River is a left bank tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It originates from the Upper Shivalik ranges in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The river flows through the regions of Meerut, Ghaziabad, and Greater Noida before merging with the Yamuna.
• The Hindan is approximately 400 km long and is an important water source for the areas it traverses.
• It is primarily a rain-fed river and does not have any significant glaciers as its source.
• The Hindan plays a vital role in agriculture and other local water needs in the regions it flows through.

 Additional Information

• Chambal River
• The Chambal River is a right bank tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It originates from the Vindhyan range near Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.
• The river flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh before joining the Yamuna.
• It is famous for its deep gorges and ravines, and is home to the National Chambal Sanctuary, which protects species like the Gharial and Gangetic Dolphin.
• Ken River
• The Ken River is another right bank tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It originates from the Kaimur Hills in Madhya Pradesh.
• The river is known for the Panna Tiger Reserve, through which it flows.
• The Ken-Betwa River Linking Project is an important initiative associated with this river.
• Betwa River
• The Betwa River is also a right bank tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It originates from the Vindhyan range in Madhya Pradesh.
• The river flows through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• It is known for projects like the Rajghat Dam and Matatila Dam.

The Correct answer is M3.

Key Points

• M3 is also known as Broad Money, representing the aggregate monetary resources of an economy.
• It is a comprehensive measure of the money supply, incorporating various forms of money that are readily available for spending and investment.
• M3 includes M1 (currency with the public + demand deposits with banks + other deposits with RBI) and M2 (M1 + savings deposits with post office savings banks).
• Additionally, M3 comprises time deposits held with commercial banks, making it a broader indicator of monetary resources.
• It is widely used by economists and policymakers to understand the liquidity and financial stability in an economy.
• The inclusion of time deposits in M3 provides a more accurate picture of the overall monetary resources available for economic activities.
• In India, RBI (Reserve Bank of India) monitors M3 as a key indicator for assessing economic growth and inflation.

 Additional Information

• M1
• M1 is the most liquid form of money, also referred to as Narrow Money.
• It consists of currency in circulation, demand deposits with banks, and other deposits with the RBI.
• It is primarily used for daily transactions and is the smallest measure of money supply.
• M2
• M2 includes all components of M1 along with savings deposits with post office savings banks.
• This measure is slightly broader than M1 but does not incorporate time deposits.
• M4
• M4 is the broadest measure of money supply, including M3 along with all deposits with post office savings banks (excluding National Savings Certificates).
• It represents the most comprehensive view of monetary resources in the economy.

The Correct answer is Only I​.

Key Points

• The Consolidated Fund of India is one of the most significant accounts of the Government of India.
• It comprises all revenues (tax and non-tax) received by the Government of India, all loans raised, and all money received by repayment of loans.
• Expenses related to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), including salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to members and employees, are charged on this fund.
• Being a charged expenditure, these expenses are not subject to the vote of Parliament. This ensures the independence and autonomy of UPSC.
• The provision for charging these expenses is made under Article 322 of the Indian Constitution.
• This constitutional safeguard reinforces the importance of UPSC in maintaining a fair and transparent recruitment process for civil services.

 Additional Information

• Contingency Fund of India
• The Contingency Fund of India is used for meeting urgent, unforeseen expenditures that cannot wait for approval by Parliament.
• It is placed at the disposal of the President of India, who can authorize the expenditure from the fund to address emergencies.
• The amount spent from this fund must later be authorized by Parliament and replenished.
• Unlike the Consolidated Fund of India, this fund is not used for regular expenses like those of UPSC.

The Correct answer is 76 per cent.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, the adult (15+ years) literacy rate in India was recorded at 76 per cent.
• The literacy rate is a key indicator of a nation's educational development and is vital for assessing its socio-economic progress.
• The Census 2011 data highlights substantial improvement in the literacy rate compared to previous census reports.
• Literacy in India is classified into male literacy and female literacy. Male literacy rate stood at 82.14%, whereas female literacy rate was at 65.46%.
• Government initiatives such as the Saakshar Bharat Programme, Right to Education Act (2009), and Mid-Day Meal Scheme have contributed to improving literacy rates in India.
• The literacy rate varies across states and regions, with states like Kerala achieving higher literacy levels, while states like Bihar show lower levels of literacy.
• The increase in literacy rate reflects the growing awareness and emphasis on education among the population.

The Correct answer is Right against exploitation.

Key Points

• The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution.
• This right prohibits practices such as human trafficking, forced labor, and child labor.
• Article 23 explicitly prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labor without payment), and other forms of exploitation.
• Article 24 forbids the employment of children below the age of 14 years in hazardous jobs such as factories and mines.
• The purpose of this right is to ensure dignity, freedom, and safety of individuals, especially those vulnerable to exploitation.
• Violation of this fundamental right often occurs in cases involving child labor, bonded labor, human trafficking, and exploitation of marginalized communities.
• Governments and organizations actively work to combat such violations through legal measures, awareness campaigns, and rehabilitation programs.

 Additional Information

• Right to Freedom of Religion
• Enshrined in Articles 25–28 of the Indian Constitution.
• Provides the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate any religion.
• It includes the right to establish and maintain religious institutions and manage their affairs.
• Prohibits discrimination on the basis of religion in public places and educational institutions.
• Right to Life and Personal Liberty
• Guaranteed under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
• It ensures the protection of life and personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• It has been interpreted to include various rights like the right to privacy, right to a clean environment, and right to education.
• Right to Equality
• Enshrined in Articles 14–18 of the Indian Constitution.
• Ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• Prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Includes the abolition of untouchability and titles.

The correct answer is Richard Wellesley.

Key Points

• Richard Wellesley served as the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805.
• During his tenure, the Subsidiary Alliance system was introduced, which became a key strategy for the expansion of British influence in India.
• In 1801, under the pretext of the Subsidiary Alliance, the Nawab of Awadh was forced to cede over half of his territory to the East India Company.
• This move was justified as a means to cover the expenses of maintaining the British subsidiary forces stationed in Awadh.
• The cession of Awadh's territory was part of Wellesley’s broader policy of expansionism and consolidation of British control in India.
• Wellesley’s governance is often associated with aggressive policies aimed at strengthening British dominance in the Indian subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Warren Hastings
• Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General of Bengal from 1773 to 1785.
• He is known for laying the foundation of British administration in India and implementing the Regulating Act of 1773.
• Hastings focused on reforming revenue collection and judicial systems but did not engage in policies like the Subsidiary Alliance.
• Charles Cornwallis
• Charles Cornwallis served as the Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793.
• He is known for introducing the Permanent Settlement of Bengal, which aimed to streamline revenue collection.
• Cornwallis also reorganized the British civil and military administration in India.
• Robert Clive
• Robert Clive, also known as Clive of India, played a significant role in the Battle of Plassey (1757), which marked the beginning of British political dominance in India.
• He served as the Governor of Bengal during different periods but was not the Governor-General of India.
• Clive’s efforts focused on establishing British supremacy in Bengal rather than implementing policies like the Subsidiary Alliance.

The Correct answer is 101st Constitution Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 101st Constitution Amendment Act is related to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) reform in India.
• It was enacted on 8th September 2016 and paved the way for the introduction of GST, which is a comprehensive indirect tax on the supply of goods and services.
• This amendment added a new Article, Article 246A, to the Constitution, which empowers both the Union and the State governments to legislate on GST.
• The amendment introduced changes to several Articles of the Constitution, such as Article 269A, which deals with the apportionment of GST revenue between the Union and the States.
• The GST Council, formed under Article 279A, was established as a constitutional body to recommend on matters related to GST rates, exemptions, and other policy decisions.
• GST replaced multiple indirect taxes like VAT, Service Tax, Excise Duty, and others, creating a unified tax structure across the country.
• The reform aimed to eliminate the cascading effect of taxes and boost the ease of doing business by simplifying the tax regime.

 Additional Information

• 86th Constitution Amendment Act
• The 86th Amendment Act, enacted in 2002, made education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years by inserting Article 21A.
• It also introduced changes to Article 45 and added Clause (k) to Article 51A, imposing a duty on parents and guardians to provide education to their children.
• 105th Constitution Amendment Act
• The 105th Amendment Act, passed in 2021, restored the power of states to identify and notify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).
• It amended Article 342A, enabling states to maintain their own lists of SEBCs distinct from the central list.
• 93rd Constitution Amendment Act
• The 93rd Amendment Act, enacted in 2005, inserted Clause (5) in Article 15, allowing the state to make provisions for the advancement of Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in educational institutions.
• This amendment facilitated reservations in private educational institutions, except minority institutions.

The correct answer is 25.51%.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, the workforce participation rate for women at the all-India level was recorded at 25.51%.
• The workforce participation rate represents the proportion of the population that is actively engaged in the labor market, either by working or seeking employment.
• In India, the participation of women in the workforce has been traditionally low due to factors such as social norms, gender roles, lack of opportunities, education levels, and access to resources.
• The Census data helps policymakers design targeted interventions to improve women's participation in the workforce, addressing issues such as skill development, gender equality, and employment creation.
• Improving the workforce participation rate for women is crucial for achieving sustainable economic growth and gender equity in India.
• Various government initiatives, such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, Skill India Mission, and Women Empowerment Programs, have been launched to increase women's participation in the workforce.

 Additional Information

• Workforce participation rate
• The workforce participation rate is a key indicator for assessing the economic engagement of a population.
• In India, workforce participation is influenced by factors such as gender, literacy levels, rural-urban divide, and cultural practices.
• While the rate for men is significantly higher, the female workforce participation rate remains low compared to global averages.
• Women Empowerment Initiatives
• Programs such as Mahila E-Haat and MUDRA Yojana aim to promote entrepreneurship among women.
• The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) encourages women to participate in self-help groups and enhance their livelihood opportunities.
• Educational programs under initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao focus on improving literacy and skill development to empower women economically.

The Correct answer is 1565.

Key Points

• The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi, also known as the Battle of Talikota, was fought in the year 1565.
• It was a decisive battle between the Vijayanagara Empire and the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates, including Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, and Golconda.
• Rama Raya, the chief minister of the Vijayanagara Empire, led the army into the battle.
• The battle resulted in the defeat of the Vijayanagara forces, leading to the eventual decline of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• The Deccan Sultanates' alliance was a temporary one, formed to counter the growing power of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• The battle is considered one of the most important in Indian history as it marked the end of the dominance of the Vijayanagara Empire in South India.
• The city of Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, was extensively plundered and destroyed after the battle.

 Additional Information

• About Vijayanagara Empire
• The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I.
• The empire is known for its contributions to art, architecture, and culture, especially in South India.
• The capital city, Hampi, is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• About the Deccan Sultanates
• The Deccan Sultanates were five Muslim-ruled kingdoms: Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, and Berar.
• These sultanates were known for their distinct architectural styles and cultural contributions.
• The rivalry among these sultanates occasionally led to alliances, as seen in the Battle of Talikota.
• Impact of the Battle of Talikota
• The destruction of Hampi and the defeat of the Vijayanagara forces led to the fragmentation of the empire.
• The battle marked the beginning of the decline of Hindu kingdoms in the Deccan region.
• The Deccan Sultanates retained control over the region, but internal conflicts and later invasions weakened them over time.

The Correct answer is Shamsuddin Iltutmish.

Key Points

• Shamsuddin Iltutmish was the ruler of Delhi during the period 1210–1236.
• He is considered one of the greatest rulers of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Iltutmish was the third ruler of the Mamluk Dynasty, also known as the Slave Dynasty.
• He succeeded Qutbuddin Aibak and consolidated the Sultanate's rule in northern India.
• He introduced the Iqta system, a land revenue system that became the basis of administrative reforms in the Sultanate.
• Iltutmish completed the construction of the Qutub Minar, which was started by his predecessor, Qutbuddin Aibak.
• He was known for his strong administrative capabilities and military prowess.
• He was the first ruler to introduce a purely silver currency, the Tanka, and a copper currency, the Jital.
• He also established Delhi as the capital of the Sultanate, replacing Lahore.
• Shamsuddin Iltutmish faced challenges from internal rebellions and external invasions, such as the incursions of the Mongols, but successfully defended his kingdom.

 Additional Information

• Ghiyasuddin Balban
• Ghiyasuddin Balban was a ruler of the Slave Dynasty but reigned later, from 1266 to 1287.
• He is known for introducing a strong centralized monarchy and emphasizing the divine right of kings.
• Balban implemented strict laws and was renowned for his policy of suppressing rebellion and maintaining law and order.
• Qutbuddin Aibak
• Qutbuddin Aibak was the founder of the Slave Dynasty and ruled Delhi from 1206 to 1210.
• He laid the foundation for Muslim rule in India and initiated the construction of the Qutub Minar.
• Aibak is known for his generosity and was nicknamed Lakh Baksh (Giver of Lakhs).
• Jalaluddin Khalji
• Jalaluddin Khalji was the founder of the Khalji Dynasty, ruling from 1290 to 1296.
• He focused on strengthening the Sultanate's administration and implementing reforms to reduce corruption.
• He was known for his mild and lenient governance compared to other rulers of the Sultanate.

Given:

We need the digit in the units' place of the number 4242.

Formula Used:

The digit in the units' place of a number raised to a power can be determined by observing the cyclicity of the units' digit of the base.

Calculation:

Units' digit of 42 = 2

The powers of 2 and their units' digits follow a cycle:

2¹ = 2 (units' digit = 2)

2² = 4 (units' digit = 4)

2³ = 8 (units' digit = 8)

2⁴ = 16 (units' digit = 6)

Cycle repeats: 2, 4, 8, 6.

Now, find the position of 4242 in the cycle. Divide 4242 by 4 (cycle length):

4242 ÷ 4 = 1060 remainder 2

The remainder is 2, so the units' digit corresponds to the second value in the cycle, which is 4.

The digit in the units' place of 4242 is 4.

Given:

Time taken by A to complete one round = 15 seconds.

Time taken by B to complete one round = 30 seconds.

Time taken by C to complete one round = 40 seconds.

Formula Used:

Time after which all will meet at the starting point = LCM (Time taken by A, B, and C).

Calculation:

LCM of 15, 30, and 40:

Prime factorization:

15 = 3 × 5

30 = 2 × 3 × 5

40 = 2³ × 5

LCM = Product of highest powers of all prime factors = 2³ × 3 × 5

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 5 = 120 seconds

Convert seconds into minutes:

120 seconds = 120 / 60 = 2 minutes

The time after which A, B, and C will again be at the starting point is 2 minutes.

Given:

$\frac{2}{B} + \frac{1}{B} + \frac{1}{B} = 96$

Formula Used:

Combine like terms to simplify the equation and solve for B.

Calculation:

$\frac{2}{B} + \frac{1}{B} + \frac{1}{B} = 96$

⇒ $\frac{2 + 1 + 1}{B} = 96$

⇒ $\frac{4}{B} = 96$

⇒ B = $\frac{4}{96}$

⇒ B = $\frac{1}{24}$

The value of B is $\frac{1}{24}$ .

Given:

Rahul's income = 240% of Rohan's income

Rahul's expenditure = 125% of Rohan's expenditure

Rahul's income = 600% of Rohan's expenditure

Formula Used:

Savings = Income - Expenditure

Ratio of savings = Rahul's savings : Rohan's savings

Calculation:

Let Rohan's income = 100, and Rohan's expenditure = x.

Rahul's income = 240% of Rohan's income = 240

Rahul's expenditure = 125% of Rohan's expenditure = 1.25x

Rahul's income = 600% of Rohan's expenditure

⇒ 240 = 6x

⇒ x = 40

Rohan's expenditure = x = 40

Rohan's savings = Income - Expenditure = 100 - 40 = 60

Rahul's expenditure = 1.25x = 1.25 × 40 = 50

Rahul's savings = Income - Expenditure = 240 - 50 = 190

Ratio of Rahul's savings : Rohan's savings = 190 : 60 = 19 : 6

The respective ratio of Rahul's savings and Rohan's savings is 19 : 6.