Delhi Forest Guard Previous Year Paper (Held on: 4 March 2021 Shift 1)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Composite and Prime numbers.

Checking the options:

Option 1) 224

224 = 7×32

Option 2) 149

149 x 1

Option 3) 273

273 = 3×91

Option 4) 196

196 = 14²

224, 273 and 196 are all composite numbers, whereas 149 is a prime. 

Thus, 149 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

For, NOISE is coded as 28-45-18-57-10

N = 14 × 2 = 28

O = 15 × 3 = 45

I = 9 × 2 = 18

S = 19 × 3 = 57

E = 5 × 2 = 10

Similarly, for TRUMP

T(20)×2 = 40

R(18)×3 = 54

U(21)×2 = 42

M(13)×3 = 39

P(16)×2 = 32

So, TRUMP will be related to 40-54-42-39-32

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, KQW: INS

K(11) −2 → I(9)

Q(17) −3 → N(14)

W(23) −4 → S(19)

Similarly, for TGA: ? 

T(20) −2 → R(18)

G(7) −3 → D(4)

A(1) −4 → wrap around → W(23)

So,  TGA will be related to RDW

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: the right-hand number = left³ − 3.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 7-340

7³= 343, 343−3=340343−3=340 343 - 3 = 340

Option 2) 6-213

63=21663=216 6^3 = 216

, 216−3=213216−3=213 216 - 3 = 213

Option 3) 5-122

53=12553=125 5^3 = 125

, 125−3=122125−3=122 125 - 3 = 122

Option 4) 9-727

93 - 729 - 3 = 726**, not 727**

Thus, 9-727 is odd one from the others.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "48" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given

1. MADRID
   
2. MADRAS
   
3. MAGNET
   
4. MAGGOT 

Dictionary order:

MADRAS (2), MADRID (1), MAGGOT (4), MAGNET (3)

Thus, the dictionary order is 2, 1, 4, 3.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 162 ÷ 3 - 9 × 8 + 37 = 515 

Now, checking the options, then:

Option 1) -, +

⇒ 162 ÷ 3 + 9 × 8 −37

⇒ 162 ÷ 3 = 54

⇒ 54 + 72 − 37 = 89

Option 2) -, ×

⇒ 162÷3×9−8+37

⇒ 162÷3=54

⇒ 54×9=486

⇒ 486−8+37=515

Option 3) ÷, -

⇒ 162−3÷9×8+37

⇒ 3÷9 = 31​

⇒ 31​×8 = 38​

⇒ 162−38​+37=515

Option 4) ÷, +

⇒ 162+3−9×8÷37

⇒ 162+3−72÷37

⇒ 162+3−72÷37

⇒ 162+3−1.945

⇒ 165−1.945 = 163.05

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Given: 

"My sister's husband" ⇒ This is Manish's Brother-in-law.

"Mother-in-law of my sister's husband" ⇒ A man's mother-in-law is his wife's mother.

"You (Drishti) are my sister's mother" ⇒ If Drishti is Manish's sister's mother, she must also be Manish's Mother.

So, Drishti is the mother of Manish.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given:

Sanjana has a total of ₹640 in 1-rupee coins, 5-rupee coins, and 10-rupee coins.

The number of coins is the same for all denominations.

Assuming, Sanjana has:

x coins of ₹1

x coins of ₹5

x coins of ₹10

Total money: 1x + 5x + 10x = 16x

Given total = ₹640

16x=640  Where,  x=40

Total number of coins = 3x= 3× 40= 120

Thus, She have 120 coins does she have in total.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: Wasim, Ekta, Darsh, Imran, Usha and Zeba are sitting in a circle, facing the center.

1. Usha is facing Ekta, who is to the right of Zeba.

2. Wasim is next to neither Darsh nor Imran.

3. Zeba is not in front of Imran.

4. Imran is sitting immediately next to Darsh.

Here, Darsh is to the left of Usha.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

Reflection/Reversal of the arrows' direction while maintaining the horizontal orientation.

90⁰ Rotation of the entire line of arrows.

So, 

 is odd from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'IKM' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) MOH

Option 2) TWQ

Option 3) EHB

Option 4) UXR

So, 'MOH' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

GIVEN:

Rajni is six years older than Bhim.

Let's baseline everyone's age by comparing them directly to Rajni

• Charlie is older than Rajni (+2 years).
• Bhim is younger than Rajni (-6 years).
• Vaishali is even younger than Rajni (-7 years).
• Lalita is 3 years younger than Vaishali, which means she is a whopping 10 years younger than Rajni (-10 years).

Charlie > Rajni > Bhim > Vaishali > Lalita 

Since Lalita has the lowest relative age, Lalita is undeniably the youngest friend in the group."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 7 × 14 × 5 + 8 - 14 = 4 

Now, checking the options, then:

⇒ 7 × 14 × 5 + 8 - 14 = 4 

Now,

Option 1) 8 and 5

7 × 14 × 8 + 5 - 14 = 4 

7×14 = 98

98×8 = 784

784 + 5 = 789

789 – 14 = 775 ≠ 4

Option 2) 4 and 7

4× 14 × 5 + 8 - 14 = 7

4×14 = 56

56×5 = 280

280 + 8 = 288

288 – 14 = 274, not 7

Option 3) 5 and 4

7 × 14 × 4 + 8 - 14 = 5

7×14 = 98

98×4 = 392

392 + 8 = 400

400 – 14 = 386, not 5

Option 4) 7 and 5

5 × 14 × 7 + 8 - 14 = 4 

5×14 = 70

70×7 = 490

490 + 8 = 498

498 – 14 = 484, not 4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given

1. SALIENT
   
2. SAILORS
   
3. SALAMON
   
4. SALVAGE
   
5. SAIDEST

Dictionary order:

5 (SAIDEST), 2 (SAILORS), 3 (SALAMON), 1 (SALIENT), 4 (SALVAGE)

Thus, the dictionary order is 5,2,3,1,4.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The code equals

3 \times (\text{number of letters})^23 × (number of letters)².

For, SAINT = 75:

SAINT:

3×5²=3×25=75.

For, FEATURE = 147:

FEATURE: 3\times7^2=3\times49=147

3 × 7²= 3 × 49 = 147.

Similarly, AIRCRAFT:

AIRCRAFT (8 letters): 3\times8^2=3\times64=192

3 × 8²=3 × 64 = 192.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "322" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The combination of a central closed polygon with a fixed external element (a fan-like symbol).

So, 

 is different from others as it have only 4 lines in the outer fan like structure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So,  X11B will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) OQM 

Option 2) JLH

Option 3) VXT

Option 4) FHC

So, 'FHC' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second term = first term × (first term + 1)

For, 17:306

⇒ 17×10=170

⇒ 17×8=136

Add: 170+136=306.

So, 17×18=306.

Similarly, for 23:? 

⇒ 23×20=460

⇒ 23×4=92

Add: 460+92=552.

So, 23×24=552.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For, CABLE is coded as HFGQJ

Similarly, for JOINT

So, JOINT will be related to OTNSY

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 

Meena rides 12 km north, then turns to her left and rides 10 km.

Nina rides 22 km west,

then turns north and rides 8 km,

then turns east and rides 5 km,

then turns to her left and rides 4 km.

So, Meena is now 7 km, East  in relation to Nina.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given:

Men : Women = 1 : 11

Total parts = 1 + 11 = 12

Total people = 1320

Each part = 1320 ÷ 12 = 110

Thus,  Men = 1 part = 110

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: it relates a profession to what that profession produces or creates.

For, Carpenter : Furniture 

Carpenter : Furniture — a carpenter’s job is to make (produce) furniture. “Furniture” is the product/output created by a carpenter.

Now, Checking the Options:

Water — this is a resource farmers use (for irrigation), not the primary product they produce.

Plough — that’s a tool used by farmers, not their product.

Crop — crops (wheat, rice, vegetables, etc.) are exactly what farmers grow and produce. 

Game — unrelated; “game” refers to wild animals or sport and is not the typical product of farming.

Similarly, Farmer : ?

Therefore, the correct parallel is Farmer : Crop

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "38" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 168 x 8 ÷ 4 + 12 - 27 = 69 

Now, checking the options, then:

Option 1) +, -

⇒ 168 × 8 ÷ 4 − 12 + 27

168 × 8 = 1344

1344 ÷ 4 = 336

336 − 12 = 324

324 + 27 = 351

LHS = 351 ≠ 69

Option 2) ÷, +

⇒  168 × 8 + 4 ÷ 12 − 27

168 × 8 = 1344

4 ÷ 12 ≈ 0.333

1344 + 0.333 ≈ 1344.333

1344.333 − 27 ≈ 1317.333

LHS ≈ 1317 ≠ 69

Option 3) ×, ÷

⇒ 168 x 8 ÷ 4 + 12 - 27 = 69 

⇒ 168 ÷ 8 ×  4 + 12 - 27 = 69  

⇒ 84 +12 - 27 = 69

⇒96 - 27 = 69

⇒69 = 69

Option 4) ÷, -

⇒ 168 × 8 − 4 + 12 ÷ 27

168 × 8 = 1344

1344 − 4 = 1340

12 ÷ 27 ≈ 0.444

1340 + 0.444 ≈ 1340.444

LHS ≈ 1340.444 ≠ 69

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 

Aman jogs 3 km west,

then turns 45 degrees to his left and jogs 2 km,

then turns 90 degrees to his left and jogs 3 km,

then turns 180 degrees to his right.

So, He facing North-West.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a $ b = 5 × ( a + b)

Given:

For, 19$3 = 110

19 + 3 = 22 → 22 × 5 = 110

For, 21$6 = 135

21 + 6 = 27 → 27 × 5 = 135

Similarly, 28$2 =?

⇒ 28+2=30

⇒ 30×5=150

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second number=(First number×4)−6

For, 94: 370

⇒ 94 × 4 − 6 = 376 − 6 = 370

Similarly, for 47:?

⇒ 47 × 4 − 6 = 188 − 6 = 182

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 125 + 256 ÷ 8 × 16 - 39 = 214 

Now, checking the options, then:

Option 1) 8, 16

⇒ 125+256÷16×8−39

256÷16=16

16×8=128

125 + 128 = 253125+128=253

253−39=214

Option 2) 256, 16

⇒  256 ↔ 16 → 16 ÷ 8 × 256 → huge number → ≠ 214

Option 3) 125, 39

⇒ 125 ↔ 39 → 39 + 256 ÷ 8 × 16 - 125 → 39 + 512 - 125 = 426 → ≠ 214​

Option 4) 16,39

⇒ 16 ↔ 39 → 125 + 256 ÷ 8 × 39 -16 → 125 + 128 × 39 -16 → way too large → ≠ 214

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The position of the letters A and B surrounding the inner rectangular box, which indicates the vertical and horizontal movement (translation) of the symbols inside the box from one figure to the next.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Synonyms: similar  meaning words.

Given:

Unprecedented means “never done or known before.”

Unrivalled means “having no equal; unmatched,” which is closest in meaning.

Now, checking other options:

Unsparing → not merciful or generous

Prodigal → wastefully extravagant

Parallel → side by side; similar

So, the synonym is Unrivalled.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: R = N x (N-1)

For, 29: 812

⇒ 29 x 28 = 812 (Multiplier = 28)

Similarly, for ? 

⇒ 19:342 19 x 18 = 342. (Multiplier = 18)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The alternation of symbol types and the rotation/flipping of the flag symbol in a six-step cycle, with a 2 x 2 alternating structure between the flag and the symbol group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 48÷3 × 4 + 16 - 15 = 37

Now, checking the options, then:

Option 1) 4, 16

⇒  48 ÷ 3 × 16 + 4 − 15

48 ÷ 3 = 16

16 × 16 = 256

256 + 4 = 260

260 − 15 = 245

Option 2) 16, 15

⇒  48 ÷ 3 × 4 + 15 − 16

48 ÷ 3 = 16

16 × 4 = 64

64 + 15 = 79

79 − 16 = 63

Option 3) 3, 4

⇒ 48 ÷ 4 × 3 + 16 - 15

48 ÷ 4 = 12

12 × 3 = 36

36 + 16 = 52

52 - 15 = 37​

Option 4) 48, 15

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 × 4 + 16 − 48

15 ÷ 3 = 5

5 × 4 = 20

20 + 16 = 36

36 − 48 = −12

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: second term = first term +4, −4, +4

For, FMS: JIW

Now, Checking the Options:

Option 1) BMS: DPZ

Option 2) BOP: EQX

Option 3) BNS: FJW

Option 4) CMT: GKY

Thus, BNS: FJW follows the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "85" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "23" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

The correct answer is 1528.

Key Points

• The Battle of Chanderi was fought on January 29, 1528, during the reign of Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire in India.
• This battle was fought between Babur and the Rajput forces led by Medini Rai, the ruler of Chanderi.
• The battle was part of Babur's strategy to consolidate his empire after his victory in the First Battle of Panipat (1526) and the Battle of Khanwa (1527).
• Babur sought to capture Chanderi, a strategically significant stronghold, to weaken the Rajput resistance in Central India.
• After the battle, Chanderi fell to Babur, and Medini Rai's forces were defeated. Medini Rai and his soldiers reportedly chose Jauhar (self-immolation) to avoid capture.

Additional Information

• Babur's Campaigns:
• Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was a descendant of Tamerlane and Genghis Khan.
• He fought the First Battle of Panipat (1526), defeating Ibrahim Lodi to establish the Mughal Empire in India.
• The Battle of Khanwa (1527) was fought against Rana Sanga of Mewar to secure his dominance in North India.
• Chanderi's Strategic Importance:
• Chanderi was a key stronghold in Central India, controlled by Medini Rai, a prominent Rajput leader allied with Rana Sanga.
• Its capture was crucial for Babur to weaken the Rajput confederacy resisting Mughal expansion.
• Rajput Resistance:
• The Rajputs, led by figures like Rana Sanga and Medini Rai, fiercely resisted Babur's invasions.
• The Battle of Khanwa and Battle of Chanderi were significant confrontations in this resistance.
• Medini Rai:
• Medini Rai was a Rajput chieftain who ruled Chanderi and allied with Rana Sanga against Babur.
• Despite his bravery, he was defeated in the Battle of Chanderi, and his forces chose Jauhar to avoid surrender.

The correct answer is Universal Postal Union.

Key Points

• The Universal Postal Union (UPU) is a specialized agency of the United Nations established to coordinate and promote international postal services.
• It was founded on 9 October 1874 through the signing of the Treaty of Bern.
• The UPU headquarters is located in Bern, Switzerland.
• The organization sets standards for international postal services and promotes cooperation among member countries.
• The UPU consists of 192 member countries (as of 2023) and works to ensure universal access to postal services across the globe.

Additional Information

• Structure:
• The UPU has four main components: the Congress, the Council of Administration, the Postal Operations Council, and the International Bureau.
• The Congress is the supreme authority where member countries meet to decide on postal policies and strategies.
• The International Bureau serves as the secretariat and headquarters of the UPU.
• Other Postal Organizations:
• In addition to the UPU, regional postal organizations like the Asia-Pacific Postal Union (APPU) and the European Committee for Postal Regulation (CERP) contribute to the development of postal services.
• These organizations focus on regional cooperation and address specific challenges faced by postal services in their respective areas.

Important Points

• Celebration of World Post Day:
• World Post Day is celebrated annually on 9 October to commemorate the establishment of the UPU.
• The day highlights the importance of postal services in connecting people and businesses globally.

The correct answer is Achanta Sharath Kamal and Janasekaran Sathian.

Key Points

• Achanta Sharath Kamal and Janasekaran Sathian won the silver medal in the men's doubles category at the International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) World Tour Hungary Open, held in Budapest in 2020.
• The pair reached the finals but were defeated by the German duo Benedikt Duda and Patrick Franziska, who secured the gold medal.
• This achievement by Sharath Kamal and Sathian marked a significant milestone for Indian table tennis on the global stage.
• Achanta Sharath Kamal is one of India's most celebrated table tennis players, with several accolades to his name, including multiple Commonwealth Games medals.
• Janasekaran Sathian, also a prominent player, has consistently represented India in international tournaments, contributing to the nation’s growing prominence in table tennis.

Additional Information

• Achanta Sharath Kamal:
• He is an Indian professional table tennis player, born on 12 July 1982, and has represented India in numerous international tournaments.
• Sharath Kamal has won multiple Commonwealth Games medals, including gold medals in both singles and doubles events.
• He is known for his strong forehand and excellent technique, making him a key figure in Indian table tennis.
• Sharath Kamal was awarded the prestigious Padma Shri in 2019 for his contributions to Indian sports.
• Janasekaran Sathian:
• Janasekaran Sathian is an accomplished Indian table tennis player who has represented India in several international tournaments.
• He has played a crucial role in India's rise in the sport by partnering with Sharath Kamal in doubles events and securing podium finishes.
• Sathian is known for his agility and sharp gameplay, which complements his doubles partner in tournaments.
• International Table Tennis Federation (ITTF) World Tour Hungary Open 2020:
• The tournament was held in Budapest, Hungary, and featured players from across the globe competing in various categories.
• The doubles final saw Achanta Sharath Kamal and Janasekaran Sathian lose to Benedikt Duda and Patrick Franziska, but their silver medal was a proud achievement for India.

The correct answer is Philippines.

Key Points

• Typhoon Phanfone made landfall in the Philippines on December 19, 2019, and caused severe devastation across several regions of the country.
• The typhoon, also locally known as Ursula, affected areas like Eastern Visayas, Western Visayas, and Central Visayas, resulting in massive damage to infrastructure, homes, and livelihoods.
• Typhoon Phanfone was classified as a Category 2 typhoon with sustained winds of up to 155 km/h (96 mph) and gusts reaching 190 km/h (118 mph).
• The typhoon led to the displacement of hundreds of thousands of people and caused widespread power outages, particularly in rural and coastal regions.
• The Philippines is particularly vulnerable to typhoons due to its geographical location in the Pacific Typhoon Belt, experiencing an average of 20 typhoons annually.

Additional Information

• Disaster Preparedness in the Philippines:
• The Philippine government has implemented disaster risk reduction programs through agencies like the National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC).
• Early warning systems and evacuation protocols are crucial components of the country's disaster management strategy.
• However, challenges such as inadequate infrastructure and limited resources often hinder response and recovery efforts.
• Typhoon Naming System:
• Typhoon Phanfone was named by the Japan Meteorological Agency, while its local name, Ursula, was assigned by the Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical, and Astronomical Services Administration (PAGASA).
• Typhoon names are typically selected from a pre-determined list and retired if the storm causes significant loss of life or damage.

The correct answer is Rani Rampal.

Key Points

• Rani Rampal became the first hockey player in the world to win the prestigious 'World Games Athlete of the Year' award in January 2020.
• She was recognized for her outstanding performance in hockey and her contribution to India's success in various international tournaments.
• The award is presented by the International World Games Association (IWGA), which acknowledges athletes across different sports for their exceptional achievements.
• Rani Rampal played a pivotal role in helping the Indian women's hockey team secure qualification for the 2020 Tokyo Olympics by leading the team with her exemplary skills and leadership.
• She was chosen for the award after receiving the highest number of votes in an online poll conducted globally by the IWGA.

Additional Information

• Other Notable Indian Women Hockey Players:
• Navjot Kaur: Known for her attacking skills, she has been a crucial forward player for the Indian women's hockey team.
• Vandana Kataria: A talented forward, she became the first Indian woman to score a hat-trick in the Olympics during the Tokyo 2020 Games.
• Nikki Pradhan: She is the first female hockey player from Jharkhand to represent India at the Olympics, known for her defensive capabilities.

The correct answer is Laterite.

Key Points

• Laterite soil is formed due to the process of intense leaching caused by heavy rainfall and high temperatures, which result in the removal of silica and bases, leaving behind iron and aluminum oxides.
• This soil is generally poor in organic matter and nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium due to the destruction of humus by bacteria in hot and humid conditions.
• Laterite soils are commonly found in regions with tropical monsoon climates, such as India, where the rainfall is high and the temperatures are elevated.
• These soils are typically acidic in nature and are unsuitable for most crops unless treated with fertilizers and lime to improve their fertility.
• Laterite soils are majorly used for growing crops like tea, coffee, cashew, and coconut in regions such as the Western Ghats, parts of Odisha, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• Alluvial Soil:
• Alluvial soils are deposited by rivers and are mostly found in river basins like the Indo-Gangetic Plain in India.
• They are rich in potash and lime but deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus.
• These soils are highly fertile and suitable for growing crops like rice, wheat, sugarcane, and pulses.
• Red Soil:
• Red soils are formed by the weathering of ancient crystalline rocks.
• Their red color is due to the high content of iron oxides.
• They are found in areas like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh and are suitable for crops like millets, pulses, and groundnuts.
• Saline Soil:
• Saline soils contain a high percentage of soluble salts, making them unsuitable for most crops.
• These soils are commonly found in arid and semi-arid regions, such as parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
• They require reclamation measures like leaching and gypsum application to improve fertility.
• Laterite Soil Features:
• Color: Reddish-brown due to high iron oxide content.
• Texture: Sandy and clayey texture, porous in nature.
• Fertility: Poor in fertility due to leaching, but can be improved with fertilizers and organic manure.
• Found in regions with high rainfall and tropical climates.

The correct answer is 11.

Key Points

• The Brazil Para Badminton International Championships 2020 was a major event for para badminton athletes worldwide, showcasing competitive talent and skill.
• India achieved remarkable success, winning a total of 11 medals at the championship, demonstrating the growing prominence of Indian athletes in international para sports.
• The medals included 4 golds, 2 silvers, and 5 bronze, which highlighted the diverse strength of the Indian contingent across different categories.
• Indian para badminton players such as Pramod Bhagat and Manasi Joshi were among the key contributors to this triumph, earning accolades in their respective events.
• The event underscored India's commitment to promoting and supporting para sports, which aligns with initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) by the Indian government.

Additional Information

• Para Badminton:
• Para Badminton is a variant of badminton designed for athletes with physical impairments, recognized by the Badminton World Federation (BWF).
• The sport includes different categories based on the nature of the impairment, such as wheelchair, standing, and short stature classifications.
• It became a part of the Paralympic Games for the first time in Tokyo 2020, further raising its global profile.
• India's Achievements in Para Sports:
• India has been making significant strides in para sports, supported by initiatives like the Paralympic Committee of India and government schemes such as TOPS and Khelo India.
• Prominent para athletes like Pramod Bhagat, Manasi Joshi, and Devendra Jhajharia have brought laurels to the country, inspiring future generations.
• The government provides financial assistance, specialized training, and international exposure to para athletes to enhance their performance.

The correct answer is IX.

Key Points

• Part IX of the Indian Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj system, which is essential for decentralized governance in India.
• Articles 243 to 243-O under Part IX provide the framework for the establishment, composition, powers, and functions of Panchayats.
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 introduced Part IX to the Constitution, making provisions for a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
• This Act mandates the organization of Panchayats in every state, ensuring grassroots democracy and decentralized planning and administration.
• Part IX emphasizes the importance of Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) as the foundation for democratic functioning at the village level.

Additional Information

• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• This amendment was enacted to strengthen grassroots democracy and decentralize power to local self-government institutions.
• It added Part IX to the Constitution and introduced the concept of Panchayati Raj institutions.
• It provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in Panchayats to ensure inclusivity.
• The Act also mandates the establishment of the State Election Commission for conducting elections to Panchayats.
• Three-tier Panchayati Raj System:
• This system consists of three levels of governance: Gram Panchayat (village level), Block Panchayat (intermediate level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• The structure ensures decentralized decision-making and planning at the local level.
• Each tier has distinct responsibilities and functions, with financial and administrative powers delegated by the state government.

The correct answer is Sovereign.

Key Points

• The term "Sovereign" in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution signifies that India is free from external control by any foreign power and has the autonomy to govern itself internally.
• It means that the Indian state has complete authority over its territory and is free to take decisions on internal and external matters without interference.
• The term also highlights the supreme power of the Indian Constitution, which governs all laws and decisions in the country.
• India's sovereignty ensures that the government is directly accountable to the people, as the government is chosen through elections.
• This concept safeguards India’s ability to conduct foreign relations independently and maintain its territorial integrity.

Additional Information

• Other Terms in the Preamble:
• Republic: Indicates that the head of state is an elected individual, not a hereditary monarch.
• Secular: Implies that the state does not have an official religion and treats all religions equally.
• Democratic: Refers to a system of government where people elect their representatives.
• Relevance of Sovereignty in India:
• The sovereignty of India was achieved after independence in 1947 and came into full effect with the adoption of the Constitution on January 26, 1950.
• India’s sovereignty is protected by its armed forces, diplomatic policies, and economic strategies.
• The sovereignty allows India to frame its laws, policies, and governance structure without external interference.

The correct answer is Biogas.

Key Points

• Biogas is a renewable source of energy produced by the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter, such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, and sewage.
• It is considered renewable because its production relies on the decomposition of organic matter, which can be replenished continuously.
• Biogas primarily consists of methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2), making it suitable for use as a fuel for cooking, heating, and even electricity generation.
• Unlike fossil fuels like coal and petroleum, biogas is more environmentally friendly as it reduces the emission of greenhouse gases.
• Biogas plants are commonly used in rural areas where organic waste like animal dung and agricultural residues are readily available. This contributes to sustainable waste management and energy production.

Additional Information

• Natural Gas:
• Natural gas is a non-renewable energy source found in underground rock formations. It is primarily composed of methane.
• Although cleaner than coal or oil, natural gas is still a fossil fuel and contributes to greenhouse gas emissions when burned.
• It is used for electricity generation, heating, and as an industrial fuel.
• Petroleum (Shilarus):
• Petroleum is also a non-renewable fossil fuel, formed over millions of years from the remains of ancient marine organisms.
• It is extensively used in transportation, manufacturing of plastics, and other industries.
• The burning of petroleum products releases significant amounts of carbon dioxide, contributing to global warming.
• Coal:
• Coal is a non-renewable source of energy formed from the remains of ancient plants subjected to heat and pressure over millions of years.
• It is the most abundant fossil fuel and is widely used for electricity generation and industrial applications.
• Coal combustion releases large quantities of carbon dioxide and other pollutants, making it one of the dirtiest energy sources.

The correct answer is 1/R.

Key Points

• The money multiplier is a concept in economics that determines the total amount of money that banks can generate in the banking system for a given level of reserves.
• The formula for the money multiplier is 1/R, where R represents the reserve requirement ratio. This is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to keep in reserves.
• If the reserve requirement (R) is 10% or 0.1, the money multiplier would be 1/0.1 = 10. This means that for every unit of reserve, the banking system can create 10 units of money.
• The higher the reserve requirement (R), the lower the money multiplier. Conversely, the lower the reserve requirement, the higher the money multiplier.
• This multiplier effect is a key mechanism in fractional reserve banking, where banks lend out a portion of their deposits while keeping a fraction as reserves. Hence, the correct answer is 1/R.

Additional Information

• Reserve Requirement:
• The reserve requirement is the percentage of total deposits that banks must hold as reserves, as mandated by the central bank (e.g., Reserve Bank of India or Federal Reserve).
• It ensures liquidity in the banking system and prevents banks from overextending themselves by lending too much.
• For instance, if the reserve requirement is 10%, banks must keep Rs. 10 as reserves for every Rs. 100 of deposits.
• Fractional Reserve Banking:
• Under this system, banks are allowed to lend out most of their deposits while keeping only a fraction as reserves.
• This creates new money in the economy, as the deposited money is loaned out and redeposited, multiplying the money supply.

The correct answer is Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana.

Key Points

• The Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 11 October 2014, the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan.
• The scheme aims to develop model villages through the implementation of existing schemes and the creation of new initiatives to ensure holistic development.
• Under the scheme, Members of Parliament (MPs) are responsible for choosing one village from their constituency to develop into a model village by 2016, and two more by 2019.
• The focus of SAGY is on improving the quality of life in villages through social, cultural, and economic development, thereby promoting self-reliance.
• The scheme encourages community participation and emphasizes the importance of sustainable development in rural areas by addressing issues like sanitation, education, health, and livelihoods.

Additional Information

• Other Schemes Mentioned:
• Kisan Vikas Patra: A savings certificate scheme launched by the Government of India to encourage long-term savings among citizens.
• Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan: Launched to strengthen the Panchayati Raj system and capacity-building of panchayats for effective governance and service delivery.
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana: A life insurance  scheme launched in 2015 for individuals aged 18-50 years, offering a life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs at an annual premium of Rs. 436.

The correct answer is 1948.

Key Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO) was officially established on 7 April 1948, a date now celebrated annually as World Health Day.
• WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) responsible for international public health.
• The organization was established to coordinate global health activities and address health-related issues worldwide.
• Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
• WHO's constitution was signed by 61 countries on 22 July 1946 and came into force on 7 April 1948.

Additional Information

• Governance of WHO:
• WHO is governed by the World Health Assembly, which comprises representatives from its 194 member states.
• The organization's policy and work are overseen by the Executive Board, consisting of 34 technically qualified members elected for three-year terms.
• Important Initiatives by WHO:
• The Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) to eliminate polio worldwide.
• The Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC) to combat tobacco consumption.
• Programs addressing mental health, maternal health, and child health.

The correct answer is Mixed Economy.

Key Points

• An economy is classified as a Mixed Economy when it incorporates elements of both capitalism (market-driven economy) and socialism (state intervention and regulation).
• The Indian Economy is considered a mixed economy because it has private enterprises operating alongside government-controlled industries such as railways, defense, and public utilities.
• It offers a balance of free-market dynamics and government intervention in areas like social welfare, infrastructure, and resource allocation.
• Examples of industries reflecting mixed economy principles include privately-run IT companies and government-led initiatives like public healthcare and education.
• This framework ensures that the economic benefits are distributed across various sections of society, promoting both individual growth and social welfare.

Additional Information

• Capitalism:
• A capitalist economy is driven by market forces where private individuals and corporations own the means of production.
• Examples include the economies of the United States and Singapore.
• Key features include minimal government interference, profit-driven motives, and competitive markets.
• While it fosters innovation and growth, capitalism can lead to income inequality and lack of social safety nets.
• Socialism:
• A socialist economy is characterized by government ownership of resources and industries to ensure equitable distribution.
• Countries like Cuba and North Korea follow socialist economic principles.
• It focuses on reducing inequality and providing essential services like healthcare, education, and housing.
• However, excessive state control can stifle innovation and economic efficiency.

Important Points

• The idea of mixed economy in India was influenced by the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, which emphasized the coexistence of public and private sectors.
• Key government initiatives include Maharatna companies (like ONGC and Coal India) and private sector contributions in industries like IT (e.g., Infosys and Tata Consultancy Services).
• The mixed economy model has been pivotal in enabling India to achieve sustainable economic growth and address socio-economic challenges effectively.

The correct answer is Consumer's income.

Key Points

• Consumer's income is a factor that affects demand, not supply. Higher consumer income generally increases the demand for products, as consumers have more purchasing power. Conversely, lower income reduces demand. However, it does not directly influence the supply of goods. Hence, this statement is not correct.
• Government Policies directly impact supply as regulations, subsidies, and taxes can alter production costs and the willingness of producers to supply goods. For example, subsidies might increase supply, while taxes might reduce it. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Production Cost is a critical factor affecting supply. Higher production costs reduce profitability, discouraging producers from supplying goods, whereas lower costs encourage higher supply levels. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Product Price influences supply because producers tend to increase production when prices rise to maximize profits, and reduce production when prices fall. This is a direct relationship described in economic theory. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Important Economic Concepts:
• Law of Supply: States that supply increases with a price increase and decreases with a price reduction, assuming other factors remain constant.
• Law of Demand: States that demand decreases as prices rise and increases as prices fall, assuming other factors remain constant.
• Equilibrium Price: The price at which the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded, ensuring market stability.

Important Points

• Economic Indicators:
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP): Represents the total value of goods and services produced in a country. It impacts both demand and supply.
• Inflation Rate: Affects purchasing power and production costs, influencing demand and supply dynamics.
• Employment Levels: Higher employment increases income levels, boosting demand, while unemployment has the opposite effect.

The correct answer is Qutb-ud-din Aibak.

Key Points

• Qutb-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the Mamluk dynasty, also known as the Slave Dynasty, in Delhi.
• He ruled from 1206 to 1210, establishing the first Muslim dynasty in India.
• Aibak was originally a slave who rose to prominence under Mohammad Ghori. After Ghori's assassination in 1206, Aibak declared himself the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate.
• During his reign, Aibak constructed significant architectural structures such as the Qutb Minar in Delhi (though it was completed by his successor Iltutmish).
• Aibak is often remembered for his generosity and was nicknamed Lakh Baksh (the giver of lakhs).
• He ruled only for four years and died in 1210 due to an accident while playing polo.

Additional Information

• Other Prominent Rulers of the Mamluk Dynasty:
• Shams-ud-din Iltutmish: Succeeded Aibak and consolidated the Delhi Sultanate. He introduced the Iqtadari system and completed the construction of the Qutb Minar.
• Razia Sultana: The first and only woman ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, known for her intelligence and administrative skills.
• Ghiyasuddin Balban: Strengthened the administration and military, established a centralized government, and implemented strict policies to maintain law and order.
• Other Options Explained:
• Shams-ud-din Iltutmish: He was the third ruler of the Mamluk dynasty and not its founder. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Nasir-ud-din Mahmud: He was a later ruler of the Mamluk dynasty and not its founder. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Aaramshah: He was the son of Qutb-ud-din Aibak and briefly ruled after Aibak's death but was overthrown by Iltutmish. Hence, this option is incorrect.

The correct answer is Coulomb.

Key Points

• The SI unit of electric charge is the Coulomb (C).
• One coulomb is defined as the amount of electric charge transported by a current of 1 ampere in 1 second.
• This unit is named after the French physicist Charles-Augustin de Coulomb, who is known for his work on electricity and magnetism.
• Electric charge is a fundamental property of matter and can be positive or negative. It is the basic property responsible for the electromagnetic force.
• SI base units for Coulomb: 1 C = 1 A × 1 s, where A is the ampere (unit of electric current) and s is the second (unit of time).

Additional Information

• Weber:
• The Weber (Wb) is the SI unit of magnetic flux.
• One Weber is defined as the magnetic flux that, linking a circuit of one turn, produces an electromotive force of 1 volt as it is uniformly reduced to zero within 1 second.
• It is named after the German physicist Wilhelm Eduard Weber.
• Tesla:
• The Tesla (T) is the SI unit of magnetic flux density or magnetic induction.
• One Tesla is defined as one Weber per square meter.
• This unit is named after the Serbian-American inventor Nikola Tesla.
• Henry:
• The Henry (H) is the SI unit of inductance.
• One Henry is defined as the inductance of a circuit in which an electromotive force of 1 volt is produced when the current changes at the rate of 1 ampere per second.
• This unit is named after the American scientist Joseph Henry.
• Electric Charge:
• Electric charge is a scalar quantity and can be positive or negative.
• The elementary charge is carried by a single proton (+1.6 × 10^-19 C) or electron (-1.6 × 10^-19 C).
• Electric charges interact through the electromagnetic force, which is one of the four fundamental forces in nature.

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• The concept of freedom of trade and commerce in the Indian Constitution was derived from Australia's Constitution, which emphasizes free trade and commerce among states.
• In the Indian Constitution, Part XIII (Articles 301 to 307) deals with trade, commerce, and intercourse within the country.
• Article 301 of the Constitution of India provides that trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free, which is inspired by the similar provision in the Australian Constitution.
• The Australian Constitution ensures freedom of trade and commerce between its states under Section 92, which states that trade and commerce among states shall be "absolutely free."
• This principle was adopted in India to ensure economic unity and integration within the country, allowing free movement of goods, services, and people across states.

Additional Information

• Freedom of Trade and Commerce in the Indian Constitution:
• Article 301: Ensures freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout India.
• Article 302: Allows Parliament to impose restrictions on trade and commerce for the public interest.
• Article 303: Prohibits discrimination between states in matters of trade and commerce.
• Article 304: Enables states to impose reasonable restrictions on trade, commerce, and intercourse within the state, provided it is non-discriminatory and in the public interest.
• Article 307: Empowers Parliament to appoint an authority to ensure smooth functioning of inter-state trade and commerce.
• Other Influences on the Indian Constitution:
• United States of America: Inspired provisions like the fundamental rights and the concept of federalism.
• Canada: Borrowed the idea of a strong central government with a federal structure.
• France: Inspired ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity.

The correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

• The 6th Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV-6), named "VAJRA", was launched on February 27, 2020, at Larsen & Toubro Shipyard, Chennai.
• The vessel is a part of the Indian Coast Guard’s initiative to strengthen maritime safety and security.
• "VAJRA" is equipped with state-of-the-art navigation and communication systems, including advanced sensors and machinery.
• The Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) are designed for patrolling, search and rescue operations, and surveillance in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
• The launch of "VAJRA" underscores India's commitment to bolstering its coastal and maritime capabilities for national security and disaster management.

Additional Information

• Indian Coast Guard and Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs):
• The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence and is tasked with ensuring maritime safety and security.
• Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) are long-range ships equipped for patrolling, law enforcement, and environmental protection in maritime zones.
• They are vital for conducting anti-smuggling, anti-piracy, and search-and-rescue operations.
• Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ):
• The EEZ is a sea zone prescribed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), over which a state has special rights regarding exploration and resource utilization.
• India's EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles from its coast, and OPVs are crucial for safeguarding this area.
• Features of OPV "VAJRA":
• "VAJRA" is equipped with modern equipment like Integrated Bridge Systems (IBS), advanced engines, and navigation systems.
• The vessel has high endurance and speed, making it suitable for long-range patrolling and emergency operations.
• Its design includes provisions for helicopter operations and the deployment of high-speed boats.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The headquarters of the General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC) is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, which is often regarded as the financial capital of India.
• GIC was established in 1972 under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972, to control and operate the general insurance business in India.
• Mumbai is home to several major financial institutions, insurance companies, and regulatory bodies, making it a key hub for India's insurance and financial sectors.
• GIC is a reinsurance company and works as the designated reinsurer in the Indian market, providing support to other insurance companies by covering their risks.
• The location of GIC's headquarters in Mumbai ensures proximity to other financial institutions, facilitating efficient operations and collaborations within the financial ecosystem.

Additional Information

• General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC):
• It was established under the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972, and commenced operations on 1 January 1973.
• Initially, GIC was set up as a holding company to oversee and control four subsidiaries: National Insurance Company, New India Assurance Company, Oriental Insurance Company, and United India Insurance Company.
• In 2000, these subsidiaries were restructured as independent companies, and GIC was converted into a reinsurance company.
• GIC is the only reinsurance company in India that plays a vital role in supporting the domestic insurance market and providing reinsurance services globally.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• Online payment processor Worldline India reported that Bengaluru accounted for the highest number of digital transactions in India in 2019. This makes Bengaluru a leader in adopting digital payment technologies.
• The report highlights that Bengaluru surpassed other major cities such as Mumbai, Kolkata, and Chennai in terms of the volume of digital transactions.
• Factors contributing to Bengaluru’s lead include its status as the IT capital of India, with a highly tech-savvy population, and widespread adoption of digital platforms for financial transactions.
• The report by Worldline India focuses on the growing trend of digital payments across various segments such as e-commerce, utilities, and retail payments in the country.
• This trend reflects the broader growth of digital payment systems in India, spurred by government initiatives like the Digital India campaign and the increasing availability of internet and mobile devices.

Additional Information

• Digital Payment Trends in India:
• India has seen a significant rise in digital payments due to government initiatives like the Digital India campaign and the launch of the UPI platform by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
• In 2019, digital transactions in India witnessed exponential growth, driven by increasing smartphone penetration, affordable data plans, and government policies promoting cashless payments.
• Worldline India:
• Worldline India is a leading payment processor that provides insights into payment trends and transaction volumes in the Indian market.
• The company’s reports analyze data across sectors and regions, helping to identify key cities and industries driving digital payment adoption.
• Other Leading Cities:
• Mumbai: Known as the financial capital of India, Mumbai also contributes significantly to digital transactions, especially in banking and corporate sectors.
• Kolkata: The city has been witnessing steady growth in digital payments, especially in retail and small businesses.
• Chennai: With its strong industrial base, Chennai has seen increasing adoption of digital payments, particularly in services and manufacturing.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was established in the year 1969 by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, known as the father of the Indian space program.
• ISRO was formed to harness space technology for national development and to pursue space science research and planetary exploration.
• The organization operates under the Department of Space, which comes directly under the Prime Minister of India.
• ISRO replaced its precursor, the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), which was set up in 1962.
• The establishment of ISRO marked a significant milestone in India's journey to becoming a major spacefaring nation.

Additional Information

• Key Achievements of ISRO:
• ISRO launched its first satellite, Aryabhata, in 1975, marking India's entry into the space age.
• India's first lunar mission, Chandrayaan-1, was launched in 2008 and discovered water molecules on the moon.
• The successful launch of Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) in 2013 made India the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit and the first country globally to do so in its maiden attempt.
• ISRO launched a record 104 satellites in a single mission in 2017, a global record.
• In 2023, ISRO achieved a remarkable feat with the successful landing of the Chandrayaan-3 mission near the moon's south pole, making India the first country to achieve this.
• Key Figures in ISRO's History:
• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai: Known as the father of the Indian space program, he was instrumental in establishing ISRO.
• Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam: Played a significant role in developing India's first satellite launch vehicle (SLV-3) and was also known as the "Missile Man of India."
• Important Milestones:
• The PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle), first launched in 1993, became a workhorse for launching satellites into orbit.
• The GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle), with its indigenous cryogenic engine, marked a major technological advancement for ISRO.
• The NavIC system, India's regional satellite navigation system, enhances India's capabilities in positioning and navigation.

The correct answer is Red, Violet.

Key Points

• When white light passes through a prism, it splits into its constituent seven colours due to the phenomenon of dispersion of light. This is because different colours of light have different wavelengths.
• Red light bends the least because it has the longest wavelength (approximately 700 nm) among the visible spectrum. Longer wavelengths are refracted less by the prism.
• Violet light bends the most because it has the shortest wavelength (approximately 400 nm) in the visible spectrum. Shorter wavelengths experience greater refraction.
• The sequence of the colours observed after dispersion follows the order: Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red, commonly remembered by the acronym VIBGYOR.
• This phenomenon demonstrates how the refractive index of a material varies with wavelength. The refractive index is higher for shorter wavelengths, causing violet light to bend more than red light.

Additional Information

• Dispersion of Light:
• Dispersion occurs because different wavelengths of light travel at different speeds when passing through a medium like a prism.
• This phenomenon was first studied by Isaac Newton in the 17th century using a glass prism.
• The visible spectrum ranges from 400 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red).
• Refractive Index and Wavelength:
• The refractive index determines how much a light ray bends when entering a medium. It is inversely proportional to the wavelength of light.
• Shorter wavelengths (violet and blue) have higher refractive indices, leading to greater bending.
• Wavelengths of Visible Light:
• Violet: 380–450 nm
• Indigo: 450–495 nm
• Blue: 495–570 nm
• Green: 570–590 nm
• Yellow: 590–620 nm
• Orange: 620–750 nm
• Red: 750–800 nm

The correct answer is Bhakra Nangal Dam.

Key Points

• Bhakra Nangal Dam is one of the largest multipurpose river valley projects in India, built on the Sutlej River in the state of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
• It was completed in 1963 and has been instrumental in providing water for irrigation, drinking water supply, and electricity generation.
• The dam's reservoir, known as the Gobind Sagar Reservoir, is the second-largest reservoir in India.
• The Bhakra Nangal Dam plays a crucial role in controlling floods, generating hydroelectric power, and providing water for irrigation to states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
• It has a height of 226 meters, making it one of the tallest dams in India and a significant engineering marvel of the country.

Additional Information

• Hirakud Dam:
• Hirakud Dam is built on the Mahanadi River in the state of Odisha.
• It was inaugurated in 1957 and is one of the longest dams in the world.
• The dam serves purposes such as irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.
• Tehri Dam:
• Tehri Dam is located on the Bhagirathi River in the state of Uttarakhand.
• It is the tallest dam in India, with a height of 260.5 meters.
• The dam is primarily used for irrigation, hydroelectricity, and municipal water supply.
• Nagarjuna Sagar Dam:
• Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on the Krishna River in the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• It was completed in 1967 and is one of the largest masonry dams in the world.
• The dam provides irrigation and drinking water to large parts of the region and also generates hydroelectric power.

The correct answer is Narasimhavarman I.

Key Points

• Narasimhavarman I, a prominent Pallava king, was also known as Mamalla, which means "great wrestler" in Sanskrit. This title reflects his prowess and skills in martial arts.
• He ruled from approximately 630 CE to 668 CE and is renowned for his military achievements, especially his victory over the Chalukya king, Pulakesin II, in the famous Battle of Vatapi.
• Narasimhavarman I significantly contributed to the development of architecture during the Pallava dynasty. He is credited with the construction of magnificent structures at Mahabalipuram, including the famous rock-cut temples and sculptures.
• The name Mamalla is closely associated with Mahabalipuram, which is believed to be named after him (Mamalla-puram). This site is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its exceptional architectural and historical importance.
• His reign marked the pinnacle of the Pallava dynasty, both in terms of territorial expansion and cultural achievements, making him one of the most celebrated rulers of South India.

Additional Information

• Pallava Dynasty:
• The Pallavas were a powerful South Indian dynasty that ruled parts of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka from the 3rd century CE to the 9th century CE.
• The dynasty is famous for its contributions to Dravidian architecture, including rock-cut temples and monolithic sculptures.
• Prominent rulers include Mahendravarman I, Narasimhavarman I, and Nandivarman II.
• Pulakesin II:
• Pulakesin II was a Chalukya king who ruled from 610 CE to 642 CE. He was a formidable adversary of Narasimhavarman I.
• His defeat at the hands of Narasimhavarman I in the Battle of Vatapi marked a significant turning point in South Indian history.
• Other Pallava Kings:
• Mahendravarman I: Known for his contributions to art and architecture, including the introduction of rock-cut temples.
• Parameshvarman I: Played a key role in consolidating the Pallava empire and continuing its architectural legacy.
• Simhavishnu: Credited with founding the Pallava dynasty and expanding its influence in South India.

The correct answer is Brita dance.

Key Points

• Brita dance is a traditional folk dance performed by women in the region of Bengal.
• It is performed as a ritualistic expression of gratitude to the local deities after recovering from an infectious disease, such as smallpox or chickenpox.
• Traditionally, women who have been afflicted with such ailments offer their thanks to the deity through this dance performance, seeking blessings and protection.
• The dance is usually performed within the temple premises, reflecting its religious and cultural significance.
• The act of the Brita dance is considered a form of devotional prayer, symbolizing the recovery and well-being of the performer.

Additional Information

• Alkap dance:
• A popular folk dance from the Rajmahal Hills region, performed during festivals and social events.
• It is characterized by its satirical and comedic elements, often performed by male dancers dressed as women.
• Unlike Brita dance, Alkap is not associated with temple rituals or religious gratitude.
• Gambhira dance:
• This dance is native to Malda in West Bengal and is performed during the Gajan festival.
• It is known for its thematic social messages, often centered around Lord Shiva and societal issues.
• While it has religious undertones, it is not performed as a gratitude ritual for recovery from illnesses.
• Domani dance:
• It is a folk dance form native to regions of Bengal, performed during festivals and celebrations.
• It does not have any specific connection to religious rituals or recovery from diseases.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Nyulu is a traditional song deeply rooted in the culture of Nagaland, a state in northeast India.
• The song is primarily associated with legends and myths, showcasing the oral storytelling tradition of the Naga tribes.
• It is a part of the rich folklore and oral tradition of the tribes of Nagaland, passed down across generations.
• Nyulu often reflects themes of heroism, spirituality, and the connection between humans and nature, which are central to the Naga way of life.
• This cultural practice serves as a medium to preserve the ancestral knowledge and history of the tribal communities in Nagaland.

Additional Information

• Other States Mentioned in Options:
• Manipur: Known for its classical dance form Ras Leela and the famous Loktak Lake.
• Rajasthan: Famous for its folk music and dance forms like Ghoomar and Kalbelia.
• Maharashtra: Renowned for Lavani, a traditional dance form, and its rich Maratha history.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• On 27 February 2020, the Bihar State Assembly unanimously passed a resolution demanding a caste-based census to be conducted in 2021.
• The resolution was aimed at ensuring accurate data on caste demographics, which could help formulate targeted welfare policies and programs for underprivileged communities.
• Caste-based census has been a significant demand in Bihar due to its diverse social fabric and history of caste-based politics.
• The decision was supported by all political parties in the Bihar Assembly, reflecting a consensus on the need for such a census.
• This move aligns with Bihar's long-standing demand for caste data to address inequalities and ensure equitable distribution of resources.

Additional Information

• Historical Background of Caste Census:
• The last caste-based census conducted in India was in 1931 during British rule. Post-independence, caste data collection was discontinued in the census process.
• In recent years, several states, including Bihar, have demanded caste-based census to address socio-economic disparities.
• Other States and Caste Census:
• Several states, including Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal, have also advocated for caste-based census for policy formulation and resource allocation.
• The issue of caste census has been debated at the national level, with differing opinions among political parties and experts.

The correct answer is Eastern Ghats.

Key Points

• Deomali is the highest peak in Odisha, located in the Koraput district.
• It is situated in the Eastern Ghats mountain range, which extends along the eastern coast of India.
• The elevation of Deomali is approximately 1672 meters (5486 feet), making it the tallest peak in the state of Odisha.
• The Eastern Ghats are characterized by discontinuous hills and mountains, spanning states like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.
• Deomali is popular among trekkers and nature lovers for its scenic beauty and biodiversity. Hence, Deomali is located in the Eastern Ghats.

Additional Information

• Other Mountain Ranges in India:
• Satpura Range: Located in central India, spanning Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh. It is known for dense forests and the Pench Tiger Reserve.
• Aravalli Range: One of the oldest mountain ranges, running across Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat. It is famous for Mount Abu and its rich mineral resources.
• Western Ghats: Known as the Sahyadri Hills, these mountains stretch along the western coast of India, covering states like Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for their biodiversity.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Government of India in the year 2002.
• This act was introduced to meet the obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), which India signed in 1992 during the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
• The objective of the act is to conserve biological diversity, promote the sustainable use of its components, and ensure equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources.
• The act provides for the establishment of a National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level to implement its provisions.
• It focuses on preserving India's rich biological heritage, which includes a wide variety of ecosystems, species, and genetic resources.

Additional Information

• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
• The CBD is an international treaty aimed at conserving biodiversity, promoting the sustainable use of its components, and ensuring fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
• It was signed at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit, in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
• India is a party to the CBD and enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, to fulfill its obligations under the treaty.
• National Biodiversity Authority (NBA):
• The NBA was established in 2003 under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India.
• The NBA is tasked with regulating access to biological resources and ensuring equitable sharing of benefits with local communities.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Sabarmati River originates from the Rajasthan state, specifically from the Aravalli Hills near the village of Tepur in Udaipur district.
• It flows in a southwest direction into the state of Gujarat and passes through the cities of Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar before draining into the Arabian Sea.
• The river's total length is approximately 371 kilometers, with the majority of its basin located within Gujarat.
• It is one of the west-flowing rivers of India and is considered an essential water resource for both agriculture and urban use in the regions it traverses.
• The Dharoi Dam, constructed on the Sabarmati River, plays a critical role in controlling floods and providing irrigation facilities in its basin areas.

Additional Information

• Aravalli Hills:
• The Aravalli Hills are the oldest fold mountains in India and act as the source of several rivers, including the Sabarmati.
• The hills extend from Rajasthan to Haryana and are known for their unique geological formations.
• They play a crucial role in the climatic and hydrological systems of the region.
• Dharoi Dam:
• The Dharoi Dam is located in Gujarat and was built on the Sabarmati River for irrigation and water management.
• The dam helps in flood control and facilitates water supply for urban areas.
• It is a key infrastructure project that supports the economic activities of the region.
• Other West-Flowing Rivers:
• India has several west-flowing rivers apart from Sabarmati, including the Narmada, Tapi, and Mahi.
• These rivers drain into the Arabian Sea and are significant for irrigation and hydroelectricity projects.

The correct answer is 97th Amendment.

Key Points

• The 97th Constitutional Amendment, enacted in 2011, added a new Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 43B, focusing on the promotion of co-operative societies.
• This amendment provided a constitutional status to co-operative societies and emphasized their importance in fostering economic democracy and self-reliance.
• It inserted Part IXB in the Constitution of India, explicitly dealing with the functioning and regulation of co-operative societies.
• The amendment aimed to ensure autonomy, democratic functioning, and accountability of co-operatives, thereby fostering their growth and efficiency.
• It mandated provisions for the formation, operation, and election of cooperative societies, ensuring transparency and reducing political interference.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
• DPSPs are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution and serve as guidelines for the government to frame policies aimed at achieving socio-economic justice.
• These principles are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts, but they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• Examples include provisions for the welfare of workers, promotion of village panchayats, equitable distribution of wealth, and environmental protection.
• Other Constitutional Amendments:
• 92nd Amendment: It added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
• 86th Amendment: Enacted in 2002, it made education a fundamental right under Article 21A and inserted a new DPSP under Article 45 for early childhood care.
• 79th Amendment: It dealt with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Parliament and State Legislatures.

The correct answer is Thermosphere.

Key Points

• The Thermosphere is the atmospheric layer located above the Mesosphere and below the Exosphere. It extends from approximately 85 km to 600 km above Earth's surface.
• This layer absorbs high-energy X-rays and UV radiation from the Sun, causing the temperature to rise significantly, sometimes reaching up to 2,500°C.
• Solar activity greatly influences the Thermosphere's temperature, as it increases during periods of high solar activity. Hence, the statement in the question is correct.
• The Thermosphere contains the Ionosphere, which is a region filled with charged particles and plays a crucial role in enabling radio communication by reflecting radio waves back to Earth.
• Despite high temperatures, the Thermosphere feels cold to humans because the density of air molecules is extremely low, making heat transfer negligible.

Additional Information

• Stratosphere:
• The Stratosphere lies above the Troposphere, extending from approximately 10 km to 50 km above Earth.
• This layer contains the ozone layer, which absorbs harmful UV radiation and protects life on Earth.
• The Stratosphere is characterized by a temperature increase with altitude due to the absorption of UV radiation by ozone.
• It is relatively stable and is used by commercial aircraft to avoid turbulence.
• Troposphere:
• The Troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface to about 10 km.
• It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and nearly all weather phenomena occur here.
• Temperature decreases with altitude in the Troposphere, making it the coldest at its top.
• It is crucial for human and biological life, as it contains breathable air composed primarily of nitrogen and oxygen.
• Mesosphere:
• The Mesosphere lies between the Stratosphere and Thermosphere, extending from 50 km to 85 km.
• It is the layer where meteors burn up upon entering Earth's atmosphere due to friction and heating.
• Temperatures decrease with altitude, making it the coldest atmospheric layer, reaching as low as -90°C.
• Exosphere:
• The Exosphere is the outermost layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from around 600 km to 10,000 km.
• It is where atmospheric particles escape into space due to extremely low gravitational pull.
• This layer contains very sparse particles, primarily composed of hydrogen and helium.
• The Exosphere transitions into outer space and serves as the boundary between Earth's atmosphere and space.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• Ra'ad-1 is an air-launched cruise missile developed by Pakistan.
• The missile was successfully test-fired by Pakistan’s military, showcasing its indigenous defense capabilities.
• Ra'ad-1 is capable of carrying both nuclear and conventional warheads and has a range of over 350 kilometers.
• The missile enables Pakistan to achieve a strategic edge by increasing its air combat capabilities and deterrence potential.
• The test is part of Pakistan’s effort to enhance its defense systems amidst regional security concerns.

Additional Information

• Ra'ad-1 Missile:
• The Ra'ad-1 missile is specifically designed for airborne launch.
• It has high precision in targeting and is part of Pakistan’s efforts to strengthen its air combat and deterrence capabilities.
• The missile is equipped with advanced guidance and navigation systems to ensure high accuracy.
• Its ability to carry nuclear warheads makes it an important strategic asset for Pakistan.
• Pakistan’s Missile Program:
• Pakistan has developed a comprehensive missile program which includes ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, and other advanced weaponry.
• Key missiles include Shaheen, Ghauri, Babur, and Ra'ad.
• The program is aimed at deterring regional threats and ensuring national security.

The correct answer is Shah Jahan.

Key Points

• Sheesh Mahal of Agra, meaning "Palace of Mirrors," was built by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan.
• The structure is located inside the Agra Fort, which was a major imperial residence during Shah Jahan’s reign.
• The Sheesh Mahal is known for its intricate mirror work and stunning architecture, symbolizing the opulence of the Mughal era.
• It was primarily used as a private royal bathing chamber and was part of the palace designed for the Mughal emperor’s personal use.
• The walls and ceilings of Sheesh Mahal are decorated with tiny mirrors and colored glass, reflecting light beautifully when illuminated.

Additional Information

• Agra Fort:
• Agra Fort is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, originally built by Akbar in the 16th century and later renovated by his grandson Shah Jahan.
• It was the main residence of the Mughal emperors before the capital shifted to Delhi.
• The fort houses various architectural marvels, including Diwan-i-Aam, Diwan-i-Khas, Musamman Burj, and Sheesh Mahal.
• Mughal Architecture:
• Mughal architecture is characterized by its grandeur, symmetry, and use of detailed ornamentation.
• Shah Jahan is particularly famous for commissioning iconic structures like the Taj Mahal, Red Fort, and Jama Masjid.
• He used materials like white marble and incorporated Persian, Islamic, and Indian styles into his designs.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The headquarters of the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) is situated in New Delhi, India.
• Indian Oil Corporation Limited is one of the largest public sector companies in India, operating in the field of oil and gas refining, distribution, and marketing.
• Established in 1959, IOCL has grown into a Fortune Global 500 company and plays a crucial role in meeting the energy demands of the country.
• The company's headquarters in New Delhi serves as the central hub for its administrative, planning, and strategic operations.
• It is a major contributor to India's energy security and operates through a vast network of refineries, pipelines, and distribution outlets across the nation.

Additional Information

• Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL):
• IOCL was established in 1959, and its headquarters is located in New Delhi, India.
• It is one of the largest integrated oil companies in India, engaged in the business of refining crude oil, marketing petroleum products, and producing petrochemicals.
• Indian Oil is ranked among the Fortune Global 500 companies, reflecting its massive scale of operations and contribution to the global energy sector.
• Other Locations of Key Energy Companies in India:
• Chennai: Headquarters of Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL).
• Mumbai: Headquarters of Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL).
• Hyderabad: Known for its IT and business hubs but not a key location for major oil corporations' headquarters.

The correct answer is Pteridophyta.

Key Points

• Ferns belong to the Pteridophyta division, which is one of the oldest groups of vascular plants.
• Pteridophytes are characterized by having a well-developed vascular system, which includes xylem and phloem for the conduction of water and nutrients.
• Ferns reproduce through spores, not seeds or flowers, which distinguishes them from gymnosperms and angiosperms.
• Pteridophytes show an alternation of generations, where the dominant phase is the sporophyte, which is diploid (2n).
• Ferns are mostly found in moist and shady environments, as they require water for reproduction (for the movement of male gametes).

Additional Information

• Thallophyta:
• Thallophyta includes simple, primitive plants like algae.
• They lack a well-differentiated body structure and vascular tissues.
• Examples: Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas, Ulva.
• Gymnosperms:
• Gymnosperms are vascular plants that produce seeds but do not produce flowers or fruits.
• The seeds are "naked," meaning they are not enclosed in an ovary.
• Examples: Pine, Cycas, Ginkgo.
• Pteridophyta:
• They are vascular plants that reproduce via spores, as discussed above.
• Examples: Ferns, Equisetum, Selaginella.
• Angiosperms:
• Angiosperms are flowering plants that produce seeds enclosed within a fruit.
• They dominate the plant kingdom and are found in almost all terrestrial habitats.
• Examples: Rose, Neem, Mango.

The correct answer is Ugadi.

Key Points

• Ugadi is the New Year celebration for the people of the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka. It is also celebrated in Maharashtra as Gudi Padwa.
• Ugadi marks the beginning of the Hindu lunisolar calendar and is celebrated on the first day of the Chaitra month, which usually falls in March or April.
• The name "Ugadi" is derived from the Sanskrit words "Yuga" (age) and "Adi" (beginning), symbolizing the start of a new age or year.
• The festival is celebrated with rituals such as house cleaning, decoration with mango leaves and rangoli, wearing new clothes, and preparing festive dishes like Ugadi Pachadi (a traditional dish made with six tastes).
• Ugadi is considered an auspicious day to begin new ventures, seek blessings, and reflect on the past year while embracing the possibilities of the coming year.

Additional Information

• Pongal:
• Pongal is a harvest festival celebrated in the state of Tamil Nadu. It is dedicated to the Sun God and marks the beginning of the Tamil month of Thai (mid-January).
• The festival spans four days, with celebrations including Bhogi, Thai Pongal, Mattu Pongal, and Kaanum Pongal.
• Traditional dishes like Sakkarai Pongal are prepared using freshly harvested rice, jaggery, and milk.
• Nabanna:
• Nabanna is a harvest festival celebrated in West Bengal, marking the end of the harvesting season.
• The festival is associated with offering the first harvest to the Goddess Lakshmi and involves traditional music, dance, and feasts.
• Vishu:
• Vishu is the New Year festival celebrated in the state of Kerala and among Malayali communities worldwide.
• The day is marked by the preparation of a traditional arrangement called the Vishukkani, consisting of auspicious items like rice, fruits, flowers, and a mirror placed in front of an idol of Lord Krishna.
• It usually falls in April and symbolizes prosperity and good fortune for the coming year.
• Ugadi Pachadi:
• A significant aspect of Ugadi is the preparation of Ugadi Pachadi, a dish made with six tastes: sweet (jaggery), sour (tamarind), salty (salt), bitter (neem flowers), spicy (green chilies), and tangy (raw mango).
• This dish symbolizes the different experiences of life, teaching people to embrace all emotions with equanimity.

The correct answer is Lord Cornwallis.

Key Points

• Lord Cornwallis introduced the Zamindari system, also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal, in 1793.
• The system was implemented primarily in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of northern Madras to organize land revenue collection.
• Under the Zamindari system, Zamindars (landlords) were made hereditary owners of land and were responsible for collecting land revenue from peasants.
• It aimed to stabilize the revenue collection process and ensured a fixed annual income for the British East India Company.
• The Zamindars were required to pay a fixed amount of revenue to the British government annually, irrespective of agricultural yield.

Additional Information

• Permanent Settlement:
• The Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793 and was primarily implemented in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and parts of Madras.
• The system aimed to ensure a steady revenue for the British government while reducing administrative expenses.
• Other Revenue Systems:
• Ryotwari System: Introduced by Thomas Munro in Madras and Bombay Presidencies, it recognized individual farmers (ryots) as owners of the land.
• Mahalwari System: Introduced during the British rule in northern and central India, it involved village communities (mahals) in revenue collection.
• Both systems were introduced after the Zamindari system to address some of its shortcomings.

The correct answer is Sofia Kenin.

Key Points

• Sofia Kenin won the Australian Open 2020 Women's Singles title.
• She defeated Garbine Muguruza in the finals on February 1, 2020, to claim her first-ever Grand Slam title.
• The final match was held at the Rod Laver Arena in Melbourne, Australia, with a scoreline of 4-6, 6-2, 6-2 in favor of Sofia Kenin.
• With this victory, Sofia Kenin became the youngest American woman to win a Grand Slam since Serena Williams in 2002.
• Garbine Muguruza, who was a two-time Grand Slam champion before this match, was unseeded in the tournament, making the final even more competitive and exciting.

Additional Information

• Garbine Muguruza:
• Garbine Muguruza is a Spanish-Venezuelan tennis player born on October 8, 1993.
• She has won two Grand Slam singles titles: the French Open in 2016 and Wimbledon in 2017.
• Muguruza is known for her aggressive playing style and has achieved a career-high WTA singles ranking of World No. 1 in 2017.
• Australian Open:
• The Australian Open is one of the four prestigious Grand Slam tournaments, alongside Wimbledon, the French Open, and the US Open.
• It is held annually in Melbourne, Australia, during the last two weeks of January.
• The tournament is played on hard courts, and it was the first Grand Slam to feature indoor play during extreme weather conditions.
• Other 2020 Grand Slam Winners (Women's Singles):
• French Open 2020: Iga Swiatek
• US Open 2020: Naomi Osaka
• Wimbledon 2020: Not held due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

Given:

A:B:C = 16 : 20 : 25

Calculation:

A : B : C = 16 : 20 : 25

Compute B/A, C/B, and A/C

B/A = 20/16 = 5/4

C/B = 25/20 = 5/4

A/C = 16/25

Combine the ratios

Proportional equivalent of B/A : C/B : A/C = 5/4 : 5/4 : 16/25

⇒ LCM of denominators (4, 4, 25) = 100

B/A = (5/4) × 25 = 125/100

C/B = (5/4) × 25 = 125/100

A/C = (16/25) × 4 = 64/100

Proportional equivalent = 125 : 125 : 64

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

The average age of a family of 6 members = 43 years

The average age of the parents = 42 years

The average age of the grandparents = 65 years

Formula Used:

Total Age = Average Age × Number of Members

Calculation:

Total age of the family = 43 × 6 = 258

Total age of the parents = 42 × 2 = 84

Total age of the grandparents = 65 × 2 = 130

Total age of the children = Total age of the family - (Total age of the parents + Total age of the grandparents)

⇒ Total age of the children = 258 - (84 + 130)

⇒ Total age of the children = 258 - 214

⇒ Total age of the children = 44

Average age of the children = Total age of the children / Number of children

⇒ Average age of the children = 44 / 2

⇒ Average age of the children = 22

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Total mixture = 100 liters

Milk : Water = 3 : 2

Required ratio = 2 : 3

Formula used:

Ratio method

Calculation:

Milk = 3/5 × 100 = 60 liters

Water = 2/5 × 100 = 40 liters

Let water added = x liters

New water = 40 + x

⇒ Milk : Water = 2 : 3

⇒ 60 / (40 + x) = 2 / 3

⇒ 60 × 3 = 2 × (40 + x)

⇒ 180 = 80 + 2x

⇒ 2x = 100

⇒ x = 50

∴ Water to be added = 50 liters.

Given:

Number of sets = 18

Fruits per set = 20

Total cost price = ₹5400

Selling price = ₹240 per dozen

Formula used:

Profit% % = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Total fruits = 18 × 20 = 360

1 dozen = 12 fruits

⇒ Number of dozens = 360 / 12 = 30

Selling price = 30 × 240 = ₹7200

Cost price = ₹5400

⇒ Profit = 7200 − 5400 = ₹1800

⇒ Profit % = (1800 / 5400) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 1/3 × 100

⇒ Profit % = 33.33%

∴ The profit percentage is 33.33%.

Given:

3600 can be expressed as a product of prime factors.

Formula used:

Prime factorization of a number involves breaking it down into prime numbers such that their product equals the given number.

Calculation:

Start with 3600:

⇒ 3600 ÷ 2 = 1800

⇒ 1800 ÷ 2 = 900

⇒ 900 ÷ 2 = 450

⇒ 450 ÷ 2 = 225

⇒ 225 ÷ 3 = 75

⇒ 75 ÷ 3 = 25

⇒ 25 ÷ 5 = 5

⇒ 5 ÷ 5 = 1

Prime factors of 3600: 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Total bottles = 4000

Water irrigation cost = ₹8000

Water irrigation = 2% (from pie chart)

Profit (margin) = 8% (from pie chart)

Formula used:

Total cost = Part value / Percentage

Profit per bottle = (Profit % × Cost per bottle)

Calculation:

⇒ 2% cost = ₹8000

⇒ Total cost = 8000 / 2 × 100

⇒ Total cost = ₹400000

⇒ Cost per bottle = 400000 / 4000 = ₹100

⇒ Profit per bottle = 8% of 100

⇒ Profit per bottle = 8/100 × 100

⇒ Profit per bottle = ₹8

∴ The company’s margin on one bottle is ₹8.

Given:

Ratio of numbers = 2 : 3 : 4

LCM = 600

Formula used:

If numbers are 2x, 3x, 4x then LCM = LCM(2,3,4) × x

Calculation:

Let the numbers be: 2x, 3x, 4x

LCM(2,3,4) = 12

⇒ 12 × x = 600

⇒ x = 600 / 12 = 50

Numbers are:

⇒ 2x = 2 × 50 = 100

⇒ 3x = 3 × 50 = 150

⇒ 4x = 4 × 50 = 200

Highest number = 200

Lowest number = 100

⇒ Difference = 200 − 100 = 100

∴ The difference between the highest and lowest numbers is 100.

Given:

Selling price 1 = ₹3000 (profit)

Selling price 2 = ₹2000 (loss)

Profit % = Loss %

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100

Loss % = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100

Calculation:

Let cost price = x

⇒ (3000 − x) ÷ x = (x − 2000) ÷ x

⇒ 3000 − x = x − 2000

⇒ 3000 + 2000 = x + x

⇒ 5000 = 2x

⇒ x = 2500

Cost price = ₹2500

⇒ For 40% profit

⇒ Required SP = 2500 × (1 + 40/100)

⇒ Required SP = 2500 × 1.4

⇒ Required SP = ₹3500

∴ The gift should be sold for ₹3500 to make 40% profit.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹6000

Amount (A) = ₹7260

Time = 1 year (Compounded semiannually)

Formula Used:

A = P × (1 + r/200)²

Calculation:

7260 = 6000 × (1 + r/200)²

⇒ 7260 ÷ 6000 = (1 + r/200)²

⇒ 1.21 = (1 + r/200)²

⇒ √1.21 = 1 + r/200

⇒ 1.1 = 1 + r/200

⇒ r/200 = 0.1

⇒ r = 20

∴ The annual rate of interest is 20%.