DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 24 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Family chart:

Family tree,

H is W's brother's daughter.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘queen strong chess’ → ‘mh pa fo’

‘exercise muscle strong’ → ‘pa ti ze’

Therefore, strong → pa

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

‘lights guide travelers’ → ‘mk jv rt’

‘make him guide’ → ‘as rt zf’

Therefore, guide → rt

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: (Left) ? / 5 * 5 + 8 \ 1 + 3 @ 3 4 2 1 % (Right)

Required condition: Symbol - Number - Symbol.

(Left) ? / 5 * 5 + 8 \ 1 + 3 @ 3 4 2 1 % (Right)

Thus, five numbers satisfy the condition.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven people J, K, L, M, P, Q and R are sitting in a straight line facing north.

1. Only five people sit between L and Q.
2. R sits to the immediate left of Q.
3. Only two people sit between L and P.
4. M sits at some place to the left of K, but at some place to the right of J. 

M sits third from the left end of the line.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

M, N, O, P, Q, and R live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. O lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the lowermost floor.
2. Only two people live between O and P.
3. Only one person lives between P and M.
4. N is immediately above M.
5. Q is immediately above R, but Q does not live on the top floor. 

Final Arrangement :

From the above table, we can see that N lives on floor number 5.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Six boxes F, G, H, I, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only two boxes are kept below G.
2. Only two boxes are kept between G and F.
3. F is kept immediately above R.
4. Q is kept at some place below H and at some place above I.

The final arrangement from top to bottom is:

Two boxes are kept between I and H.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series: (Left) 8 3 6 8 9 5 4 2 3 3 4 4 7 4 2 5 4 6 5 5 1 8 (Right)

Here, we look for the pattern: Odd Digit — Odd Digit — Odd Digit

Now,

(Left) 8 3 6 8 9 5 4 2 3 3 4 4 7 4 2 5 4 6 5 5 1 8 (Right)

So, valid occurrences = 1

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: (Left) 9 € # $ # $ 6 @ 9 # © 8 7 & 3 * © 4 9 $ £ 4 (Right)

Now,

Symbols, which are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number.

So, Needed pattern is: Number - Symbol - Number.

(Left) 9 € # $ # $ 6 @ 9 # © 8 7 & 3 * © 4 9 $ £ 4 (Right)

Thus, two symbols satisfy the condition.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Given word: CLINGER

The new group of letters formed is: B, K, J, M, F, F, Q.

The letter F is the only letter that appears exactly twice in the new sequence.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: F % T # O @ Q & Z

It means: F is the father of T, T is the daughter of O, O is the mother of Q, and Q is the wife of Z.

F is related to Z as wife's father.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given

Statement:

W > X ≤ Y > Z = D

Conclusions:

I: Y < W → False (From the given statement, W > X and Y > X, but no definite relationship can be established between W and Y.)

II: D < Y → True (Since Y > Z and Z = D, therefore Y > D, i.e., D < Y.)

Therefore, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Six boxes F, G, H, I, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only two boxes are kept above F.
2. Only two boxes are kept between F and R.
3. Only three boxes are kept between R and G.
4. I is kept at some place above F.
5. Q is kept at one of the places above H.

Three boxes are kept between H and I.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Eight persons, Lata, Meena, Nayan, Om, Prakash, Iqbal, Rohit and Shyam, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. They all are having a discussion on an important topic.

1. Nayan is an immediate neighbour of both Lata and Rohit.
2. Rohit is an immediate neighbour of Prakash.
3. Prakash sits second to the left of Nayan.
4. Only two persons sit between Prakash and Shyam.
5. Meena is an immediate neighbour of Om.
6. Only one person sits between Meena and Iqbal. 

Shyam is an immediate neighbour of Meena and Iqbal.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given

Statement:

W > X < Y < Z = D

Combined

Statement:

W > X < Y < Z = D

Conclusions:

I: W < Y → False (From the combined statement, both W and Y are greater than X, but no definite relationship can be established between W and Y.)

II: D < W → False (From the combined statement, D = Z and Y < Z, but no definite relationship can be established between D and W.)

Therefore, neither I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) 6 1 2 1 5 7 5 9 7 9 1 2 6 1 9 2 2 2 8 5 2 2 9 1 6 9 3 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Odd digit ← Odd digit → Odd digit

Checking the series:

1. (1 5 7)
2. (5 7 5)
3. (7 5 9)
4. (5 9 7)
5. (9 7 9)
6. (7 9 1)

Hence, there are six such odd digits in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

**Given

Statements:

**

All plates are saucers.

All saucers are cups.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some cups are saucers → Follow  (Since all saucers are cups, it is definitely true that the part of cups overlapping with saucers represents 'some cups are saucers'.)

II. All plates are cups → Follow  (Because plates are entirely inside saucers and saucers are entirely inside cups, plates are also entirely inside cups.)

So, both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The letters are: E, N, V, I, R, O, N, M, E, N, T

Reverse Alphabetical Order: V, T, R, O, N, N, N, M, I, E, E

Step 3: Compare the original positions with the new positions.

Therefore, the position(s) of two letters remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘TAIL’ → ‘5376’

‘LATE’ → ‘2537’

Therefore, E → 2

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Neha ranked 14^th from the top.

Neha ranked 38^th from the bottom.

The formula for total students in the class is:

Total Students = (Rank from Top) + (Rank from Bottom) - 1

Number of students in the class = 14 + 38 - 1

= 52 - 1

= 51 students.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern is,

 + 

= 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The pattern observed is: (Second Number × Third Number) = First Number.

For the set (156, 13, 12):

13 × 12 = 156

For the set (56, 7, 8)

7 × 8 = 56

Similarly, let's check the options:

Option (3): (66, 11, 6)

11 × 6 = 66

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 316 − 31 ÷ 6 + 120 × 12 − 180 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 316 + 31 × 6 - 120 ÷ 12 + 180 = ?

⇒ 316 + 31 × 6 - 120 ÷ 12 + 180 = ?

⇒ 316 + 186 - 120 ÷ 12 + 180 = ?

⇒ 316 + 186 - 10 + 180 = ?

⇒ 316 + 186 - 10 + 180 = ?

⇒ 502 - 10 + 180 = ?

⇒ 492 + 180 = ?

⇒ 672.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (2^nd number × 3) − 10 = 1^st number.

For, (146, 52)

⇒ (52 × 3) − 10

⇒ 156 − 10

⇒ 146.

For, (89, 33)

⇒ (33 × 3) − 10

⇒ 99 − 10

⇒ 89.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) (120, 45)

⇒ (120 × 3) − 10

⇒ 360 − 10

⇒ 350.

Option 2) (60, 25)

⇒ (60 × 3) − 10

⇒ 180 − 10

⇒ 170.

Option 3) (83, 31)

⇒ (31 × 3) − 10

⇒ 93 − 10

⇒ 83.

Option 4) (46, 18)

⇒ (46 × 3) − 10

⇒ 138 − 10

⇒ 128.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

Given number: 1386534

Now,

Now, the new number formed is: 2, 4, 6, 4, 6, 4, 2

Second digit from the left = 4

Third digit from the right = 6

Sum = 4 + 6 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

1) For SX − RW:

2) For CH − AF: 

3) For MR − KP: 

4) For OT − MR:

Therefore, SX − RW is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

50 + 1² = 50 + 1 = 51

51 + 2² = 51 + 4 = 55

55 + 3² = 55 + 9 = 64

64 + 4² = 64 + 16 = 80

80 + 5² = 80 + 25 = 105

105 + 6² = 105 + 36 = 141

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 7 × 2 + 9 = ?

Interchanging the symbols and numbers:

× ↔ + and 7 ↔ 9

⇒ 9 + 2 × 7 = ?

⇒ 2 × 7 + 9 = ?

⇒ 14 + 9 = ?

⇒ 14 + 9 = ?

⇒ 23

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number ÷ Second number = Third number.

For, (205, 5, 41)

⇒ 205 ÷ 5

⇒ 41

For, (165, 15, 11)

⇒ 165 ÷ 15

⇒ 11

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) (108, 8, 12)

⇒ 108 ÷ 8

⇒ 13.5 ≠ 12

Option 2) (132, 13, 12)

⇒ 132 ÷ 13

⇒ 10.15… ≠ 12

Option 3) (182, 12, 14)

⇒ 182 ÷ 12

⇒ 15.16… ≠ 14

Option 4) (120, 15, 8)

⇒ 120 ÷ 15

⇒ 8

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is,

3 × 2 = 6

6 × 3 = 18

18 × 4 = 72

72 × 5 = 360

360 × 6 = 2160

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here  is,

99 -1 = 98

98 - 3 = 95

95 - 5 = 90

90 - 7 = 83

83 - 9 = 74

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 41 - 15 ÷ 17 + 297 × 11 + 18 - 93 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 41 + 15 × 17 - 297 ÷ 11 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 41 + 15 × 17 - 297 ÷ 11 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 41 + 255 - 297 ÷ 11 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 41 + 255 - 27 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 41 + 255 - 27 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 296 - 27 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 269 - 18 + 93 = ?

⇒ 251 + 93 = ?

⇒ 344.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 8 B 2 D 24 A 6 C 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 8 × 2 - 24 ÷ 6 + 4 = ?

⇒ 8 × 2 - 24 ÷ 6 + 4 = ?

⇒ 16 - 24 ÷ 6 + 4 = ?

⇒ 16 - 24 ÷ 6 + 4 = ?

⇒ 16 - 4 + 4 = ?

⇒ 16 - 4 + 4 = ?

⇒ 12 + 4 = ?

⇒ 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, PS 13 → QR 20

For, CF 41 → DE 48

Now, applying the same logic for VY 62:

So, VY 62 → WX 69

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

**Given

Statements:

**

All utensils are glasses.

All utensils are cutleries.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some glasses are cutleries → Follow  (Since all utensils are glasses and all utensils are cutleries, the utensils form a common intersection between glasses and cutleries, making this conclusion definitely true.)

II. All cutleries are utensils → Does not follow (All utensils are cutleries is given, but we cannot definitely conclude that all cutleries are utensils.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

Here, CITE → CIET → CTIE

and PORE → POER → PROE

Now check options:

Option 1: SUNK → SUKN → SNUK

Option 2: FERN → RFEN → RENF

Option 3: MYTH → TYMH → HTMY

Option 4: VICE → ECIV → EVIC

So, SUNK → SUKN → SNUK matches the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

For, BEAT → DGBU

For, STOP → UVPQ

Now, applying the same logic for LEND:

So, LEND → NGOE

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Barrackpore.

Key Points

• Mangal Pandey was a soldier in the 34^th Bengal Native Infantry (BNI) regiment of the British East India Company stationed at the Barrackpore cantonment near Calcutta.
• On March 29, 1857, he revolted against his British superiors, specifically attacking Adjutant Lieutenant Baugh and Sergeant-Major Hewson.
• The primary cause of his defiance was the introduction of the Enfield P-53 Rifle, which required soldiers to bite off the ends of greased cartridges rumored to be coated with cow and pig fat.
• His refusal to use these cartridges was a matter of religious sanctity, as cows are sacred to Hindus and pigs are considered unclean by Muslims.
• After a brief struggle and an attempted suicide, he was arrested, court-martialed, and subsequently executed by hanging on April 8, 1857.
• This event is widely regarded as the immediate spark that led to the Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Indian Independence.

 Additional Information

• Disbanding of the Regiment:
• The 34^th BNI was disbanded in May 1857 because the other sepoys failed to intervene or arrest Mangal Pandey during the incident.
• Spread of the Rebellion:
• While the first blood was shed at Barrackpore, the full-scale organized rebellion broke out on May 10, 1857, in Meerut.
• Other Locations:
• Panihati, Haldia, and Malda are significant geographic and administrative regions in West Bengal, but they did not serve as the primary site for the initial 1857 military mutiny involving Mangal Pandey.

सही उत्तर वीरेंद्र प्रसाद वैश्य है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• वीरेंद्र प्रसाद वैश्य को जून 2025 (प्रश्न के अनुसार) में असम से राज्यसभा के सदस्य के रूप में निर्विरोध चुना गया था।
• वे असम गण परिषद (AGP) के एक वरिष्ठ नेता हैं और उन्होंने राज्य के विकास और राजनीतिक स्थिरता में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई है।
• उनका निर्वाचन राज्यसभा की उन सीटों को भरने के लिए हुआ था जो कार्यकाल की समाप्ति या अन्य रिक्तियों के कारण खाली हुई थीं।
• चूंकि उनके विरुद्ध कोई अन्य उम्मीदवार मैदान में नहीं था, इसलिए चुनाव अधिकारी ने उन्हें निर्विरोध विजेता घोषित किया।
• असम गण परिषद वर्तमान में भारतीय जनता पार्टी (BJP) के नेतृत्व वाले गठबंधन का एक प्रमुख हिस्सा है, जिसने उनके नामांकन का पूर्ण समर्थन किया था।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• असम गण परिषद (AGP):
• यह असम का एक प्रभावशाली क्षेत्रीय राजनीतिक दल है जिसकी स्थापना 1985 में असम समझौते के बाद हुई थी।
• इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य राज्य की क्षेत्रीय पहचान और स्थानीय मुद्दों को राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर उठाना है।
• राज्यसभा और असम:
• असम राज्य को राज्यसभा में कुल 7 सीटों का प्रतिनिधित्व दिया गया है।
• राज्यसभा के सदस्यों का चुनाव राज्य विधानसभा के निर्वाचित सदस्यों द्वारा एकल संक्रमणीय मत प्रणाली के माध्यम से किया जाता है।
• अन्य विकल्प:
• रंजन दास: वे भी इसी चुनावी प्रक्रिया के दौरान भारतीय जनता पार्टी (BJP) के उम्मीदवार के रूप में निर्विरोध चुने गए थे।
• सिराज उद्दीन अजमल: ये ऑल इंडिया यूनाइटेड डेमोक्रेटिक फ्रंट (AIUDF) से संबंधित एक प्रमुख राजनेता और व्यवसायी हैं।

The correct answer is A combination of all three methods is used.

Key Points

• The measurement of National Income in India is the primary responsibility of the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• India utilizes a combination of three methods—the Product Method, the Income Method, and the Expenditure Method—to ensure a comprehensive and accurate representation of different sectors of the economy.
• The Product Method (also known as the Value Added Method) is predominantly used for sectors such as Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, Mining, and Manufacturing, where physical output is easily quantifiable.
• The Income Method is applied to the Services sector, including Banking, Insurance, Transport, and Communication, by aggregating the payments made to the factors of production.
• The Expenditure Method is utilized to measure the total spending on final goods and services, particularly focusing on Government Final Consumption and Capital Formation.

 Additional Information

• Product Method (Output Method):
• Calculates national income by finding the difference between the Value of Output and Intermediate Consumption across various industrial categories.
• Income Method:
• Involves summing up Compensation of Employees, Operating Surplus (rent, interest, and profit), and Mixed Income of the self-employed within the domestic territory.
• Expenditure Method Formula:
• Represented as GDP = C + I + G + (X − M), where C is private consumption, I is investment, G is government spending, and (X − M) denotes Net Exports.
• Institutional Changes:
• In 2019, the Government of India merged the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) to form the unified National Statistical Office (NSO) to strengthen the statistical database.
• The base year for the current series of National Accounts was revised to 2011−2012 to better reflect modern economic activities.

The correct answer is Astra Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile.

Key Points

• The Astra is India's first indigenously developed Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air Missile (AAM), designed to destroy highly maneuverable supersonic aerial targets.
• On 11 July 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted a successful flight test to validate its performance under complex combat scenarios and electronic interference.
• The missile is powered by a solid-fuel rocket motor, enabling it to reach speeds of over Mach 4.5 and engage targets at varying altitudes, from sea level up to 20 km.
• It features an advanced active radar seeker for terminal guidance and Electronic Counter-Countermeasures (ECCM) to maintain precision in high-clutter environments.
• The Astra missile is integrated into premier fighter platforms including the Sukhoi-30 MKI, LCA Tejas, and MiG-29K, significantly reducing dependence on foreign missile systems like the R-77 or MICA.

 Additional Information

• Nirbhay Long-Range Cruise Missile:
• It is an indigenous subsonic cruise missile capable of carrying nuclear and conventional warheads with a strike range of 1,000 to 1,500 km.
• It utilizes a terrain-hugging capability to fly at extremely low altitudes, making it difficult for enemy radar systems to detect.
• Prithvi-II Short Range Ballistic Missile:
• Developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP), this surface-to-surface missile has a range of 250-350 km.
• It is a single-stage liquid-fueled missile capable of carrying payloads between 500 kg and 1,000 kg.
• Agni-V Intercontinental Ballistic Missile:
• This is a three-stage solid-fueled missile with a range exceeding 5,000 km, placing it in the ICBM category.
• It is the backbone of India's nuclear deterrence and features Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology.

The correct answer is Coimbatore.

Key Points

• The first round of the MRF MMSC FMSCI Indian National Car Racing Championship 2025 was held at the Kari Motor Speedway, located in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
• The Madras Motor Sports Club (MMSC) is the primary organizer of this prestigious national event, which serves as a platform for elite and aspiring racers in India.
• The championship consists of various competitive categories, including the Formula LGB 1300, Indian Touring Cars (ITC), Indian Junior Touring Cars (IJTC), and Super Stock.
• The event is sanctioned by the Federation of Motor Sports Clubs of India (FMSCI), the national governing body for motorsports recognized by the Government of India and the FIA.
• MRF Tyres acts as the title sponsor and sole tire supplier, providing high-performance slick and wet-weather tires specifically engineered for the rigors of track racing.

 Additional Information

• Kari Motor Speedway:
• Situated in Chettipalayam, it is a 2.1 km long technical circuit named after the legendary Indian racer and designer Sundaram Karivardhan.
• It is known for its challenging corners and short straights, which test the technical precision and handling skills of the drivers.
• FMSCI (Federation of Motor Sports Clubs of India):
• Established in 1971 and headquartered in Chennai, it regulates all forms of motor sports, including racing, rallying, and karting.
• It ensures that all national championships adhere to the safety and sporting codes mandated by the Federation Internationale de l’Automobile (FIA).
• Madras Motor Sports Club (MMSC):
• Founded in 1953, it is one of the oldest clubs in India and also manages the Madras International Circuit (MIC) in Irungattukottai.
• The club has been instrumental in producing several international-level drivers through its structured grassroot programs and national series.

सही उत्तर रमन अनुसंधान संस्थान (RRI) है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• जुलाई 2025 में, रमन अनुसंधान संस्थान (RRI), बेंगलुरु के वैज्ञानिकों ने एक अभूतपूर्व अध्ययन प्रकाशित किया, जिसमें यह दिखाया गया कि क्वांटम रव (Quantum Noise) का उपयोग प्रणालियों के प्रदर्शन को बेहतर बनाने के लिए किया जा सकता है।
• पारंपरिक रूप से, क्वांटम भौतिकी में शोर या रव को एक बाधा ��ाना जाता है जो सूचना के संचरण में त्रुटियां पैदा करता है, लेकिन इस शोध ने यह सिद्ध किया कि नियंत्रित परिस्थितियों में यह सिग्नल पहचान को सुदृढ़ कर सकता है।
• शोधकर्ताओं ने स्टोकेस्टिक रेजोनेंस (Stochastic Resonance) के सिद्धांत का उपयोग किया, जहाँ शोर का एक इष्टतम स्तर कमजोर सिग्नलों को अधिक स्पष्ट बनाने में मदद करता है, जिससे क्वांटम सेंसिंग उपकरणों की संवेदनशीलता बढ़ जाती है।
• यह खोज भविष्य के क्वांटम कंप्यूटर और क्वांटम नेटवर्क के विकास के लिए अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण ��ै, क्योंकि यह अशांत वातावरण में भी प्रभावी सूचना प्रसंस्करण का मार्ग प्रशस्त करती है।
• इस प्रयोग ने जटिल क्वांटम प्रणालियों में अव्यवस्था (Disorder) और सुसंगतता (Coherence) के बीच के सूक्ष्म संतुलन को समझने में एक नया आयाम जोड़ा है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• रमन अनुसंधान संस्थान (RRI):
• यह बेंगलुरु में स्थित एक प्रमुख राष्ट्रीय अनुसंधान केंद्र है, जिसकी स्थापना 1948 में नोबेल पुरस्कार विजेता सर सी. वी. रमन ने की थी।
• यह संस्थान खगोल विज्ञान, प्रकाशिकी (Optics) और संघनित पदार्थ भौतिकी में अपने विश्वस्तरीय शोध के लिए जाना जाता है।
• यह भारत सरकार के विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी विभाग (DST) के तहत एक स्वायत्त संस्थान के रूप में कार्य करता है।
• विकल्पों में उल्लेखित अन्य संस्थान:
• भारतीय विज्ञान संस्थान (IISc): 1909 में स्थापित, यह संस्थान विज्ञान और इंजीनियरिंग अनुसंधान में भारत का सर्वोच्च स्थान रखता है।
• टाटा इंस्टीट्यूट ऑफ फंडामेंटल रिसर्च (TIFR): 1945 में होमी जे. भाभा द्वारा स्थापित, यह परमाणु ऊर्जा विभाग के अंतर्गत एक प्रतिष्ठित डिम्ड विश्वविद्यालय है।
• भारतीय प्रौद्योगिकी संस्थान (IIT), दिल्ली: यह भारत के प्रमुख इंजीनियरिंग संस्थानों में से एक है, जिसकी स्थापना 1961 में हुई थी।

The correct answer is Petitions, prayers, and speeches.

Key Points

• The period between 1885 and 1905 is known as the Moderate Phase of the Indian National Congress (INC).
• Early nationalist leaders, referred to as Moderates, believed in Constitutional Agitation and the 3P formula: Prayers, Petitions, and Protests.
• They aimed to influence the British Government by submitting Memorandums, delivering Speeches, and organizing Public Meetings to highlight Indian grievances.
• These leaders held a deep-seated faith in the British sense of justice and believed that the British Parliament would address their issues if they were presented rationally and peacefully.
• The Moderates focused on Administrative Reforms, such as the Indianization of Services and the expansion of Legislative Councils, rather than demanding immediate Swaraj or complete independence.

 Additional Information

• Prominent Moderate Leaders:
• Dadabhai Naoroji: Often called the Grand Old Man of India, he formulated the Drain of Wealth theory to explain how the British were siphoning India’s resources.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale: A key advocate for Political Reforms and the mentor to Mahatma Gandhi.
• Surendranath Banerjea: Known for his role in organizing the Indian National Association before the INC was formed in 1885.
• Other Historical Methods:
• Boycott of British Goods: This method gained prominence during the Swadeshi Movement starting in 1905 as a response to the Partition of Bengal.
• Revolutionary Violence: Methods like Assassinations and Armed Insurgency were adopted by radical groups such as the Anushilan Samiti and the Hindustan Republican Association.
• Armed Struggle: This strategy was later championed by the Ghadar Party and Subhash Chandra Bose with the formation of the Indian National Army (INA).

The correct answer is World Heritage Site.

Key Points

• The Maratha Military Landscapes of India is a network of fortifications representing the military ideology of the Maratha rulers between the 17^th and 19^th centuries.
• India officially nominated this ensemble for inclusion in the UNESCO World Heritage List for the 2024-25 cycle under the Cultural category.
• The nomination comprises 12 specific components, including Salher, Shivneri, Lohagad, Khanderi, Raigad, Rajgad, Pratapgad, Suvarnadurg, Panhala, Vijaydurg, and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, and Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu.
• These sites illustrate a sophisticated integration of military strategy with the natural landscape, utilizing the Sahyadri mountain range, Konkan Coast, and Deccan Plateau.
• The landscapes demonstrate the Maratha's pioneering use of guerrilla warfare and their mastery over hill-top, coastal, and island fortifications.

 Additional Information

• Biosphere Reserve:
• Designated under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) program.
• Focuses on the conservation of biodiversity and sustainable use of natural resources.
• Creative City Network:
• Established in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities identifying creativity as a strategic factor for development.
• Covers seven fields: Crafts and Folk Art, Media Arts, Film, Design, Gastronomy, Literature, and Music.
• Global Geopark:
• Recognizes areas with geological heritage of international significance.
• Managed with a holistic concept of protection, education, and sustainable development.

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Key Points

• Lala Lajpat Rai was a premier leader of the Extremist faction within the Indian National Congress, forming the famous Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate alongside Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal.
• The Extremists emerged as a distinct group due to their dissatisfaction with the Moderate methods of Constitutional Agitation and instead advocated for Swaraj (Self-rule) through Boycott, Swadeshi, and Passive Resistance.
• Popularly known as Punjab Kesari or the Lion of Punjab, Lala Lajpat Rai played a significant role in mobilizing the masses against the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• He presided over the Special Session of the Congress in Calcutta in 1920, where the resolution for the Non-Cooperation Movement was initially adopted.
• His ideological stance was centered on Self-Reliance and National Education, and he was a key figure in the Arya Samaj movement in Punjab.

 Additional Information

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
• A prominent Moderate leader and the political mentor of Mahatma Gandhi.
• He founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to train Indians for social service and national causes.
• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Known as the Grand Old Man of India, he was a staunch Moderate and three-time President of the INC.
• He is famous for the Drain of Wealth Theory, which he detailed in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.
• W.C. Bonnerjee:
• He was a distinguished lawyer and the first President of the Indian National Congress during its inaugural session at Bombay in 1885.
• He belonged to the early Moderate phase of the national movement.

The correct answer is Farm laborers.

Key Points

• Seasonal unemployment is a phenomenon where people are unable to find jobs during certain months of the year when the demand for labor is low.
• In India, this is most commonly observed in the agricultural sector, which follows a biological cycle dependent on monsoons and specific cropping seasons.
• Farm laborers are landless workers who are hired for specific activities such as sowing, weeding, and harvesting. During the period between the Kharif and Rabi seasons, there is a significant lack of work in rural areas.
• According to NSSO (National Sample Survey Office) data, workers in the Primary Sector are vulnerable to this as they often lack alternative skills to transition to the Secondary or Tertiary sectors during the agricultural off-season.
• To address this issue, the Government of India enacted the MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) in 2005, which provides 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural households, primarily during the lean agricultural months.

 Additional Information

• Professional Categories and Unemployment:
• IT Professionals: They are part of the Tertiary Sector. They typically face Structural Unemployment due to rapid technological changes or Frictional Unemployment during job transitions, but their work is not dictated by weather-based cycles.
• Construction Engineers: While monsoon rains can temporarily halt Secondary Sector activities, construction is generally considered a cyclical or perennial industry rather than a strictly seasonal one.
• Chartered Accountants: These professionals experience workload fluctuations during tax audit seasons (e.g., September/October), but they are rarely unemployed during other months as financial consultancy is a year-round requirement.
• Related Concept - Disguised Unemployment:
• Frequently occurring alongside seasonal unemployment in Indian agriculture, this occurs when more people are working on a farm than are actually needed, meaning the marginal productivity of the extra labor is zero.

The correct answer is Mumbai Indians (MI).

Key Points

• The Tata Women's Premier League (WPL) 2025 was the third edition of the premier T20 cricket league for women in India, organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• Mumbai Indians (MI) emerged as the champions of the 2025 season, securing their second title in the history of the tournament.
• The team was led by Harmanpreet Kaur, who also captained the side to victory in the inaugural edition held in 2023.
• In the final match, Mumbai Indians defeated Delhi Capitals to lift the trophy, showcasing dominance in both the batting and bowling departments.
• The tournament featured high-intensity matches played across major venues like the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru and the Arun Jaitley Stadium in Delhi.

 Additional Information

• Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB):
• Led by Smriti Mandhana, they were the defending champions entering the 2025 season, having won the WPL 2024 title.
• Gujarat Giants (GG):
• Managed by Adani Sportsline, the team features prominent international stars and focuses on building a strong domestic talent pool.
• UP Warriorz (UPW):
• Owned by Capri Global, this franchise represents the state of Uttar Pradesh and has been led by Australian wicketkeeper-batter Alyssa Healy.
• WPL Format:
• The league follows a round-robin format followed by an eliminator and a final, providing a massive platform for emerging Indian players to showcase their skills alongside global icons.

The correct answer is 10-year.

Key Points

• The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) scheme was launched in October 2016 as a flagship initiative under the National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP) to stimulate regional air connectivity.
• It was conceptualized with a long-term 10-year vision to facilitate affordable flying for the masses while ensuring the sustainability of airline operations in smaller regions.
• The primary objective is to connect unserved and underserved airports of the country through the revival of existing air-strips and airports in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
• The scheme is unique for its market-driven approach where airlines bid for routes, supported by Viability Gap Funding (VGF) and various concessions from Central and State governments.

 Additional Information

• Viability Gap Funding (VGF):
• A financial subsidy mechanism where the Ministry of Civil Aviation provides support to airlines to cover the cost-revenue gap for 50 percent of the seats on a regional flight.
• The funds are generated through a small levy on departures of scheduled flights on major domestic routes, creating a self-sustaining cross-subsidy model.
• Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF):
• A dedicated fund established under NCAP 2016 to provide the necessary VGF to the selected airline operators under the UDAN scheme.
• Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik (UDAN):
• The scheme caps the airfare for a one-hour journey (approximately 500 km) at Rs. 2,500, making air travel accessible to a larger segment of the population.
• Since its inception, it has progressed through various versions like UDAN 4.0 and UDAN 5.0, specifically focusing on Northeast India, hilly states, and remote islands to ensure inclusive growth.

The correct answer is इसके द्वारा भारतीय शासन व्यवस्था ब्रिटिश क्राउन के अधीन एकीकृत की गई.

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1858, जिसे 'भारत के बेहतर शासन के लिए अधिनियम' के रूप में भी जाना जाता है, ने ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी के शासन को समाप्त कर दिया और भारतीय क्षेत्रों का प्रशासन सीधे ब्रिटिश क्राउन (महारानी विक्टोरिया) को हस्तांतरित कर दिया। अतः, कथन 3 सही है।
• इस अधिनियम ने भारत में ब्रिटिश शासन को समाप्त नहीं किया, बल्कि सत्ता का हस्तांतरण कंपनी से क्राउन को कर दिया, जिससे ब्रिटिश औपनिवेशिक नियंत्रण और अधिक औपचारिक हो गया। अतः, कथन 1 गलत है।
• हालांकि इस अधिनियम ने घोषणा की कि राजाओं के साथ की गई संधियों का सम्मान किया जाएगा, लेकिन इसने भारतीय शासकों को कोई नया या अतिरिक्त अधिकार प्रदान नहीं किया, बल्कि क्राउन की संप्रभुता को सर्वोच्च बना दिया। अतः, कथन 2 गलत है।
• यह अधिनियम भारत में कंपनी के शासन का अंत था, न कि प्रारंभ; कंपनी का शासन 1773 के रेगुलेटिंग एक्ट से प्रभावी रूप से शुरू हुआ था और 1858 में समाप्त हुआ। अतः, कथन 4 गलत है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• प्रशासनिक परिवर्तन:
• भारत का वायसराय: भारत के गवर्नर-जनरल के पदनाम को बदलकर भारत का वायसराय कर दिया गया। लॉर्ड कैनिंग भारत के पहले वायसराय बने।
• भारत सचिव (Secretary of State for India): एक नया पद बनाया गया जो ब्रिटिश कैबिनेट का सदस्य होता था और ब्रिटिश संसद के प्रति उत्तरदायी था।
• द्वैध शासन का अंत: पिट्स इंडिया एक्ट द्वारा स्थापित नियंत्रण बोर्ड (Board of Control) और निदेशक मंडल (Court of Directors) को समाप्त कर दिया गया।
• परामर्शदात्री परिषद: भारत सचिव की सहायता के लिए 15 सदस्यीय भारतीय परिषद का गठन किया गया।
• ऐतिहासिक संदर्भ: यह अधिनियम 1857 के विद्रोह के तत्काल बाद पारित किया गया था ताकि शासन की कमियों को दूर किया जा सके।

The correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was originally constituted on April 12, 1988, as a non-statutory body through an administrative resolution of the Government of India.
• It was officially granted statutory status on January 30, 1992, following the enactment of the SEBI Act, 1992 by the Indian Parliament, which provided it with legal powers to regulate the market.
• The formation of SEBI as a powerful regulator was largely influenced by the need to prevent securities scams and to promote transparency within the Indian capital markets during the liberalization era.
• SEBI replaced the office of the Controller of Capital Issues (CCI), which had been the regulatory authority under the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947.
• The organization is headquartered in the business district of Bandra Kurla Complex in Mumbai, with regional offices established in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Ahmedabad.

 Additional Information

• Organizational Structure:
• The board consists of a Chairman appointed by the Central Government, two members from the Union Finance Ministry, and one member from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• In 2022, Madhabi Puri Buch was appointed as the first woman Chairperson of SEBI.
• Core Functions:
• Protective Functions: Prohibiting insider trading, checking price rigging, and promoting fair practices to protect investor interests.
• Developmental Functions: Promoting the training of intermediaries and conducting research to facilitate the growth of electronic trading.
• Regulatory Functions: Registering and regulating the working of stockbrokers, sub-brokers, merchant bankers, and mutual funds.
• Powers:
• SEBI functions as a quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial, and quasi-executive body, meaning it can draft regulations, conduct investigations, and pass rulings/penalties.

The correct answer is Average propensity to save.

Key Points

• Average Propensity to Save (APS) is an economic term that refers to the proportion of total income that is saved by individuals or a collective economy rather than spent on goods and services.
• The mathematical formula for calculating APS is Total Savings (S) divided by Total Income (Y), represented as APS = S / Y.
• The value of APS can be negative when consumption exceeds income, which occurs at very low income levels; this phenomenon is technically termed as dissaving.
• A fundamental identity in Keynesian economics is that the sum of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS) is always equal to 1 (APC + APS = 1).
• As the National Income of a country increases, the APS typically tends to rise because households generally increase their savings after satisfying their basic consumption needs.

 Additional Information

• Related Economic Concepts:
• Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS): This represents the ratio of the change in savings to the change in income (ΔS / ΔY). While APS looks at absolute levels, MPS focuses on incremental changes.
• Break-even Point: This is the specific income level where Consumption equals Income, resulting in an APS value of zero.
• Determinants of APS: Factors such as interest rates, fiscal policy, inflation, and demographic shifts significantly influence how much a population chooses to save relative to their income.
• Propensity: In economics, this term denotes a natural tendency or inclination of consumers to allocate their disposable income between spending and saving.

सही उत्तर भारतीय सैनिकों को पशुओं की चर्बी वाले कारतूस देना है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• 1857 के विद्रोह का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण तात्कालिक कारण ब्रिटिश सेना में नई एनफील्ड राइफल (Enfield Rifle) का शामिल किया जाना था।
• इन राइफलों में उपयोग होने वाले कारतूसों पर एक चिकनी परत थी, जिसके बारे में यह अफवाह फैल गई कि वह गाय और सूअर की चर्बी से बनी है।
• सैनिकों को इन कारतूसों को राइफल में लोड करने से पहले अपने दांतों से काटना पड़ता था, जो हिंदू और मुस्लिम दोनों समुदायों की धार्मिक मान्यताओं के विरुद्ध था।
• विद्रोह की पहली चिंगारी 29 मार्च, 1857 को जली, जब मंगल पांडे ने बैरकपुर में इन कारतूसों का उपयोग करने से इनकार कर दिया और अपने अधिकारियों पर हमला कर दिया।
• इस घटना ने सैनिकों के बीच गहरे असंतोष को जन्म दिया, जो अंततः 10 मई, 1857 को मेरठ से शुरू हुए एक व्यापक सैन्य विद्रोह में बदल गया।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• अवध का विलय
• 1856 में लॉर्ड डलहौजी ने 'कुशासन' के आधार पर अवध का विलय किया था, जो विद्रोह का एक प्रमुख राजनीतिक कारण था।
• उच्च भू-राजस्व कर
• अंग्रेजों की स्थायी बंदोबस्त और महालवाड़ी जैसी कठोर राजस्व प्रणालियों ने किसानों को कर्ज में डुबो दिया था, जो विद्रोह का आर्थिक कारण बना।
• पदोन्नति में भेदभाव
• भारतीय सैनिकों को ब्रिटिश सैनिकों की तुलना में कम वेतन मिलता था और उन्हें सूबेदार से उच्च पदों पर पदोन्नति नहीं दी जाती थी, जो एक सैन्य कारण था।

The correct answer is Underemployment.

Key Points

• Underemployment is a socio-economic situation where individuals are working in jobs that do not fully utilize their skills, education, or availability.
• It primarily occurs when people are employed less than their potential, either by working fewer hours than desired (part-time instead of full-time) or by working in positions that require lower qualifications than they possess.
• In the context of the Indian economy, this phenomenon is widely observed in the agricultural sector, where it is often referred to as Disguised Unemployment. In this case, more people are engaged in work than are actually required, and their marginal productivity is virtually zero.
• Underemployment reflects an inefficient allocation of human resources, as the actual economic output of the workforce is significantly lower than its productive capacity.
• Unlike open unemployment, underemployed individuals are counted as employed in official statistics, which can mask the true state of the labor market distress.

 Additional Information

• Seasonal Unemployment:
• Occurs when people are without work during specific periods of the year because labor demand fluctuates with the seasons.
• It is most prevalent in agriculture, agro-based industries, and the tourism sector.
• Frictional Unemployment:
• A temporary form of unemployment that arises when workers are in the process of switching jobs or searching for new ones.
• It represents the time lag between leaving one position and finding another, and is generally considered voluntary.
• Structural Unemployment:
• Results from a fundamental mismatch between the skills possessed by the workforce and the requirements of the available jobs.
• It is often caused by technological changes, automation, or shifts in the industrial structure of the economy that render certain skill sets obsolete.

The correct answer is Gyanendra Pratap Singh.

Key Points

• Gyanendra Pratap Singh, a senior IPS officer of the 1991 batch belonging to the Assam-Meghalaya cadre, has been appointed as the Director General (DG) of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in January 2025.
• The appointment was formally approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), which is the highest body responsible for senior-level bureaucratic and security appointments in the Government of India.
• Prior to this national elevation, he served as the Director General of Police (DGP) of Assam, where he gained significant experience in handling insurgency, border security, and law and order challenges in the Northeast region.
• As the head of the CRPF, he leads the largest paramilitary force in the world, overseeing approximately 3.25 lakh personnel dedicated to maintaining internal security across the country.

 Additional Information

• Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF):
• Functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and was originally established as the Crown Representative's Police in 1939.
• It plays a vital role in anti-Naxal operations, counter-terrorism in Jammu and Kashmir, and assisting state governments in managing civil disturbances.
• Other Options Explained:
• Rajwinder Singh Bhatti: A 1990-batch IPS officer who has served as the Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), focusing on the security of critical infrastructure and airports.
• Rahul Rasgotra: A 1989-batch IPS officer who was appointed as the Director General of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), responsible for guarding the Sino-Indian border.
• Daljit Singh Chaudhary: A 1990-batch IPS officer who has held the position of Director General for the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) and was later assigned additional charge of the Border Security Force (BSF).

The correct answer is Doha Diamond League.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra is India's most celebrated track and field athlete, who specializes in the javelin throw and has consistently set new benchmarks for Indian sports.
• The Doha Diamond League is a premier international athletics event held annually at the Qatar SC Stadium in Doha, serving as a critical leg of the World Athletics Diamond League series.
• By recording a distance of 90.23 m, Neeraj Chopra successfully breached the 90-meter barrier, a milestone that distinguishes the top tier of javelin throwers globally.
• This achievement made him the first Indian to record a throw over 90 m in an international meet, further solidifying his position as a world leader in the discipline.

 Additional Information

• Indian Open:
• This refers to national-level competitions like the Indian Open Athletics Championships or the National Open, organized by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• While these events are vital for domestic rankings and Olympic qualification, they are categorized differently from the elite global Diamond League circuit.
• Diamond League Series:
• It is an elite circuit of 15 meetings held across various countries, where athletes compete for points to qualify for the Diamond League Final.
• Neeraj Chopra made history in 2022 by becoming the first Indian to win the Diamond League Trophy in Zurich.
• Career Highlights:
• Neeraj Chopra won the Gold Medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics with a throw of 87.58 m and a Gold Medal at the 2023 World Athletics Championships in Budapest.
• He is also a recipient of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honor.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Puthandu, also celebrated as Puthuvarusham, marks the first day of the year on the Tamil calendar and is observed as a public holiday in the state of Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• The festival follows the solar cycle of the lunisolar Hindu calendar, specifically falling on the first day of the Tamil month Chithirai.
• It typically occurs on or around April 14^th every year in the Gregorian calendar, coinciding with the vernal equinox when the sun enters the zodiac sign of Aries (Mesha).
• A core tradition involves the preparation of Mangai-pachadi, a dish made with raw mango, jaggery, neem flowers, red chillies, and salt, representing the six tastes (Arusuvai) and the various emotions of human life.
• The day is marked by families cleaning their houses, creating elaborate Kolams (rice flour patterns) at entrances, and offering prayers in temples to seek blessings for a prosperous year ahead.

 Additional Information

• Vishu (Kerala):
• Observed in Kerala on the same day as Puthandu, following the solar calendar.
• The most significant ritual is Vishukkani, where auspicious items like gold, fruits, and Kani Konna flowers are viewed first thing in the morning.
• Ugadi (Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka):
• Celebrated as the New Year in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
• Unlike Puthandu, it follows the lunar-solar calendar, falling on the first day of the month of Chaitra.
• In Karnataka, it is often referred to as Yugadi, and the ritualistic food Bevu Bella is consumed.
• Other Regional New Years:
• Baisakhi is the harvest festival and New Year celebrated in Punjab.
• Poila Baisakh marks the traditional New Year for the Bengali community.
• Bohag Bihu or Rongali Bihu is the national festival and New Year of Assam.

The correct answer is Eastern and Western Ghats.

Key Points

• The Nilgiri Hills, often referred to as the Blue Mountains, are located at the physical convergence point of the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mountain ranges in southern India.
• Geographically, these hills are situated at the tri-junction of three Indian states: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• The range features Doddabetta Peak as its highest point, reaching an elevation of 2,637 meters above sea level.
• The area is home to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which was the first of its kind established in India in 1986 to protect the unique Shola-grassland ecosystem.
• It is inhabited by indigenous communities, most notably the Toda tribe, and supports endangered species like the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed Macaque.

 Additional Information

• Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal
• These are major mountain ranges belonging to the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal Range), primarily located in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir.
• Karakoram and Zanskar
• These are part of the Trans-Himalayan region in the union territory of Ladakh; the Karakoram houses K2, the world’s second-highest peak.
• Vindhya and Aravalli
• The Aravalli Range is one of the world's oldest fold mountains located in Rajasthan, while the Vindhya Range acts as a primary divide between North India and South India.
• Western and Eastern Ghats Comparison
• The Western Ghats are continuous and receive high orographic rainfall, while the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and eroded by rivers like the Godavari and Krishna.

The correct answer is Karla.

Key Points

• The Karla Caves, located in Karli near Lonavala, Maharashtra, house the most famous and largest rock-cut chaitya hall in India, dating back to approximately the 2^nd century BC.
• This Grand Chaitya (Cave 8) was constructed during the Hinayana phase of Buddhism, which focused on symbolic representation rather than idol worship.
• The architecture features a massive horse-shoe shaped entrance and a large sun-window (ribbed with wood) designed to direct light towards the stupa at the rear of the hall.
• The interior consists of 37 octagonal pillars, where those behind the stupa are plain, while those in the nave are topped with sculpted capitals featuring kneeling elephants and horses with riders.
• The Chaitya is remarkably well-preserved, showcasing 2,000-year-old teak wood ribs on its vaulted ceiling, which is a rare survival in ancient Indian architecture.
• Funding for this magnificent structure came from diverse donors, including merchants and Satavahana rulers, as evidenced by various Brahmi inscriptions found on site.

 Additional Information

• Ajanta Caves:
• Located in the Aurangabad district, this site contains 29 caves. While Caves 9 and 10 are very early Chaityas (2^nd century BC), Karla is more renowned for the sheer scale and architectural perfection of the early period.
• Kanheri Caves:
• Situated within the Sanjay Gandhi National Park in Mumbai, Cave 3 is a large Chaitya hall built in the 2^nd century AD, heavily inspired by the design of the Karla Chaitya.
• Ellora Caves:
• This complex features 34 caves representing Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism. It dates from 600 AD to 1000 AD, making it significantly later than the early rock-cut traditions of Karla.
• Chaitya vs. Vihara:
• A Chaitya is a prayer or assembly hall centered around a stupa, whereas a Vihara serves as the residential quarters or monastery for Buddhist monks.

The correct answer is It is the third tier.

Key Points

• The Panchayati Raj System (PRS) is a decentralized form of government in India, where each district is divided into smaller administrative units to ensure local participation and rural development.
• Based on the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, India adopted a three-tier system of local self-government.
• The Zila Parishad is the highest level of this structure, functioning at the district level. It serves as the apex body that coordinates the activities of all Panchayat Samitis within the district.
• The three tiers consist of the Gram Panchayat at the village level (base), the Panchayat Samiti at the block level (intermediate), and the Zila Parishad at the district level (top).
• The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, provided a constitutional mandate for this three-tier structure across India, ensuring regular elections every five years.

 Additional Information

• Structure and Evolution of Panchayati Raj:
• 73^rd Amendment Act: Inserted Part IX to the Constitution, titled The Panchayats, and added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 functional items.
• Gram Panchayat: It is the lowest tier where the Gram Sabha acts as the foundation, consisting of all registered voters in a village.
• Panchayat Samiti: The intermediate tier that works at the Tehsil or Block level, acting as a link between the village and the district administration.
• Zila Parishad Functions: It oversees the implementation of development programs, manages District Planning Committees, and advises the State Government on matters related to the district.
• Article 40: A Directive Principle of State Policy which initially directed the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers.

The correct answer is Basaltic lava.

Key Points

• The Deccan Plateau is a massive upland located in Southern India, primarily composed of a geological formation known as the Deccan Traps.
• This region was formed during the Late Cretaceous Period, roughly 66 million years ago, through series of fissure eruptions where molten magma reached the surface.
• The plateau consists of multiple layers of solidified flood basalt, which is an extrusive igneous rock formed from the rapid cooling of basaltic lava.
• These lava flows covered an immense area of approximately 500,000 square kilometers, creating a step-like landscape (traps) that can reach a thickness of over 2,000 meters in the western region.
• The chemical composition of this basaltic rock is rich in iron and magnesium, which, upon weathering, produces the highly fertile Black Soil (also known as Regur Soil), essential for cotton cultivation in states like Maharashtra and Gujarat.

 Additional Information

• Granite and Gneiss:
• These are Archaean crystalline rocks that form the older foundation of the Indian peninsula. While basalt covers the north-western Deccan, Granite is more prevalent in the southern and eastern parts, such as the Karnataka Plateau and Telangana.
• Sandstone:
• This is a sedimentary rock typically associated with the Vindhyan and Gondwana formations. It is not the primary constituent of the volcanic Deccan landscape.
• Alluvial Soil:
• This soil type is formed by fluvial deposits and is characteristic of the Northern Plains and coastal deltas. In the Deccan region, it is restricted only to the narrow river valleys of the Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery.

The correct answer is Dominant trait.

Key Points

• In sexually reproducing organisms, every physical characteristic or trait is governed by a specific segment of DNA called a gene, which exists in two alternative forms known as alleles.
• When an individual inherits two different alleles for a particular gene, the condition is referred to as heterozygous.
• The Dominant trait is the specific version of a characteristic that is visible in the phenotype of the organism, effectively masking the presence of the other allele.
• This biological phenomenon is a core component of Mendelian inheritance, specifically defined by Gregor Mendel under the Law of Dominance.
• In genetic notation, dominant alleles are typically represented by uppercase letters (e.g., 'T' for tallness), while the trait itself is expressed even if only one such allele is present in the genotype.

 Additional Information

• Recessive trait:
• Refers to a genetic characteristic that is suppressed or masked in the presence of a dominant allele.
• It only manifests in the organism's physical appearance when the individual is homozygous recessive, meaning they carry two identical copies of the recessive gene.
• Co-dominant trait:
• A scenario in non-Mendelian genetics where both alleles in a heterozygous pair are fully and equally expressed.
• A classic example is the AB blood type in humans, where both 'A' and 'B' antigens are produced simultaneously on the surface of red blood cells.
• Inherited trait:
• A general term encompassing any feature, such as eye color or height, that is transmitted from parents to offspring through genetic information.
• Unlike acquired traits, these are encoded in the germ cells and can be passed down across generations.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Chapchar Kut is the most popular and oldest festival of the Mizo people, celebrated annually in the state of Mizoram.
• It is observed during the month of March, marking a transitional period after the completion of forest clearing for Jhum cultivation (shifting agriculture).
• The festival is believed to have originated between 1450 and 1700 A.D. in a village called Suaipui, and it was revived in modern times in 1962 in Aizawl.
• A central attraction of the celebration is the Cheraw dance, also known as the Bamboo Dance, where dancers step in and out of rhythmic bamboo staves.
• The festivities include traditional Mizo songs, gong performances, and vibrant local cuisines, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of the Northeast region.
• Participants wear traditional costumes such as the Puanchei, Kwolchai, and Ngotekherh, showcasing intricate tribal designs and weaving.

 Additional Information

• Manipur:
• Famous for the Sangai Festival, which promotes the state as a world-class tourism destination and protects the Sangai deer.
• Yaoshang is another major festival, often referred to as the Manipuri version of Holi.
• Nagaland:
• Celebrates the Hornbill Festival every year from December 1 to 10 at the Kisama Heritage Village.
• The festival is named after the Indian Hornbill, a bird deeply ingrained in the folklore of the Naga tribes.
• Meghalaya:
• Known for the Wangala Festival, also called the 100 Drums Festival, which is a harvest festival of the Garo tribe.
• The Nongkrem Dance Festival is an important religious event for the Khasi people to pray for a bountiful harvest.
• Other Mizo Festivals:
• Mim Kut: A maize festival dedicated to deceased ancestors, usually held in August or September.
• Pawl Kut: A major harvest festival celebrated in December after the completion of the grain harvest.

The correct answer is Mouth.

Key Points

• The mouth or oral cavity is the anatomical site where chemical digestion of carbohydrates is initiated through the secretion of saliva.
• Saliva is produced by three major pairs of salivary glands: the parotid (largest, near cheeks), submandibular (near jaw), and sublingual (below tongue) glands.
• The enzyme salivary amylase, historically referred to as ptyalin, is the primary biocatalyst found in saliva that specifically targets alpha-glycosidic bonds in carbohydrates.
• It performs the hydrolytic breakdown of starch (polysaccharides) into simpler disaccharides such as maltose and smaller polymers like dextrin.
• Approximately 30 percent of dietary starch is hydrolyzed in the oral cavity under an optimum pH of 6.8.
• The secretion and activity of this enzyme are crucial for the pre-digestion process before food is swallowed as a bolus.

 Additional Information

• Small Intestine:
• Receives pancreatic amylase from the pancreas to continue starch digestion.
• Produces intestinal juice (succus entericus) containing enzymes like maltase, lactase, and sucrase to finish carbohydrate breakdown.
• Stomach:
• Mainly secretes gastric juice containing pepsin for protein digestion and hydrochloric acid (HCl).
• The high acidity of the stomach (pH 1.5 to 2.5) denatures salivary amylase, halting its activity once the food reaches this organ.
• Liver:
• The largest gland in the body that secretes bile, which is stored in the gallbladder.
• Bile contains no enzymes but is essential for the emulsification of lipids (fats) to increase the surface area for lipase action.