Delhi Forest Guard Previous Year Paper (Held on: 7 March 2021 Shift 1)

Logic :

Position of first Alphabet of each group is increased by three to get first alphabet of next group.

Position of second letter of each group is increased by six to get second alphabet of next group.

Hence, BT is the correct answer

Sameer walks 30 km towards North. He turns right and walks 20 km.

He turns left at an angle of 45° and walks 50 km means now sameer is moving towards North east direction so, his final destination will be North east.

Hence starting point is South west of Final point.

All the group except VSRP has the same difference of two in between them.

Hence, VSRP is odd among all.

Given equation: 4 + 18 – 3 × 2 ÷ 6 = 10

1. Interchanging ÷ and –

= 4 + 18 ÷ 3 × 2 - 6 

= 4 + 6 × 2 - 6 

= 4 + 12 - 6

= 16 - 6

10 = 10

2.Interchanging × and +

= 4 × 18 – 3 + 2 ÷ 6 

= 4 × 18 – 3 + 0.3333

= 72 - 3 + 0.333

= 72.333 - 3 

69. 33 ≠ 10

3.Interchanging × and ÷

= 4 + 18 – 3 ÷ 2 × 6 

= 4 + 18 – 1.5 × 6 

= 4 + 18 – 9

= 22 - 9 

13 ≠ 10

4.Interchanging + and –

= 4 - 18 + 3 × 2 ÷ 6 

= 4 - 18 + 3 × 0.3333

= 4 - 18 + 1

= 4 - 17

• 13 ≠ 10

Hence, by interchanging "÷ and –" we get the correct answer.

The logic is:

2nd row: 1 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 6 + 2 = 30 = 3 + 0 = 3

3rd row: 1 + 3 + 5 + 2 + 4 + 0 = 15 = 1 + 5 = 6 

Here, we have to make the sum multiple of 3, which is possible in only one option.

Similarly,

1st row: 1 + 6 + 1 + 1 + (1 + 3) + 8 + 0 = 21 = 2 + 1 = 3

Hence, ‘13’ is the correct answer.

Interchanging positions of 1 and 9 all the options mentioned in the question we get

Option1.

1 ÷ 4 × 8 – 2 + 9 = 10

1 ÷ 4 × 8 – 2 + 9 

0.25 × 8  - 2 + 9

2 - 2 + 9

9 ≠ 10 

Option2.

7 ÷ 3 × 9 – 1 + 6 = 26

2.33 × 9 – 1 + 6

21 -1 + 6

26 = 26

Option3.

8 ÷ 2 × 7 – 9 + 1 = 20

4 × 7 – 9 + 1

28 - 9 + 1

20 = 20

Option4.

9 ÷ 2 × 8 – 1 + 7 = 42

4.5 × 8 –  1 + 7

36 - 1 + 7

42 = 42

Hence after changing positions of 1 and 9 option 1 will be incorrect.

BODMAS will be used to solve the question

1. Interchanging 4 and 3

4 + 6 ÷ 2 × 9 – 3

4 + 3 × 9 – 3

4+ 27 - 3

 28 ≠  2

2. Interchanging 3 and 6

6 + 3 ÷ 2 × 9 – 4

6 + 1.5 × 9 – 4

6 + 13.5 - 4

19.5 - 4

15.5 ≠  2

3.Interchanging 9 and 2

3 + 6 ÷ 9 × 2 – 4

3 + 6 ÷ 9 × 2 – 4

3 + 0.666 × 2 –  4

3 + 1.333 - 4

4.333 - 4

0.333 ≠ 2

4.Interchanging  2 and 6

3 + 2 ÷ 6 × 9 – 4

3 + 0.333 × 9 – 4

3 + 3 - 4 = 2

Hence by changing the position of 2 and 6 we get the final answer as 2.

The word "PRONUNCIATION" has the following letters in them which can be used to form different words

P, R, O, N, U, C, I, A, T

option 1) ​PIANOR ​​→ PRONUNCIATION (can be formed)

Option 2)NUPART → PRONUNCIATION ( can be formed)

Option 3)CREATO → PRONUNCIATION ( cannot be formed as there is no E)

Option 4) CITARO → PRONUNCIATION ( can be formed)

Hence CREATO cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.

Triangles given in horizontal axis and triangle given in vertical axis change their direction alternately. 

Hence, option 4) is the correct answer.

Logic:

Circles present at the top of the figure are decreasing by one in the consecutive figures.

Circles present at the bottom of the figure are increasing by one in the consecutive figure.

the figure formed by the square and the triangle at the centre follows the alternate pattern of fully shaded and partially shaded.

hence, option 1 is the correct figure which completes the question figure.

All except Architect – Design pair represent item and material from which it is made.

Furniture is made up of wood.

Shoes are made up of leather

Clothes are made up of fiber

Architect's profession is to design. 

Hence, "Architect – Design" is the correct answer.

Confusion Points

Cotton, flax, jute, hemp, modal and even banana and bamboo fibre are all used in clothing. Piña (pineapple fibre) and ramie are also fibres used in clothing, generally with a blend of other fibres such as cotton. Nettles have also been used to make a fibre and fabric very similar to hemp or flax.

1) R likes black colour shirt.

2. P does not like Blue and Green colour shirts.

3. T likes white colour shirt.

4. U does not like Green, Pink and Blue colour shirts.

5. Green colour shirt is not liked by S.

Only Q is will have Green colour shirt. S will have Blue colour shirt. P will have pink colour shirt.

Hence Blue shirt is liked by S is correct option.

Interchanging the options we get.

option 1. + and ×, 5 and 8

7 × 8 – 3 + 6 ÷ 5

7 × 8 – 3 + 1.2

56 – 3 + 1.2 = 54.3  ≠ 6

option 2. – and +, 8 and 6

7 - 5 + 3 × 8 ÷ 6

7 - 5 + 3 × 1.33333

7 - 5 + 4 = 6

option 3. – and ÷, 3 and 6

7 + 5 ÷ 6 × 3 - 8

7 + 0.8333 × 3 - 8

7 + 2.5 - 8

1.5  ≠ 6

option 4. ÷ and ×, 7 and 5

5 + 7 – 3 ÷  6 × 8

5 + 7 - 0.5  × 8

5 + 7 - 4

8  ≠ 6

Hence, "– and +, 8 and 6" is correct.

In both the above statement ' * ' common symbol and ' dance' is common word.

Hence, code for dance is ' * '.

Logic: 

The number present on the left side is the same as the number of figures present on the right.

In option 3 this logic is not followed as a number is 5 and the number of triangles on the right side is two.

Hence, Option 3 is the odd one out.

Logic:Number × 4 + 1 = Next number

Hence, the correct answer is "341".

Alternate Method

Difference between consecutive number is 16, 64, 256, .....

That is 4², 8², 16², 32².

5 + 4² → 21

21 + 8² → 85

85 + 16² → 341

341 + 32² → 1365

Hence 341 is missing number in the series.

Option 1. PROMOT → PROCRASTINATION (cannot be created as M is missing)

Option 2 . RUSTIN → PROCRASTINATION (Cannot be created as U is missing)

Option 3. CREATE → PROCRASTINATION  (cannot be created as E is missing)

Option 4. TRAINS → PROCRASTINATION  (Can be created)

Hence, "TRAINS" is correct.

Letters in the right are reverse of letters in the left as per the alphabetical series.

Hence DINERS : WRMVIH is the correct option.

First letter of each group is increased by two, second letter of each group is increased by three, third letter of each group is increased by four, four th letter of each group is increased by five

Hence VDFV is correct answer.

The logic is:

(84 - 39 - 56) + 19 = 8

(64 - 28 - 32) + 19 = 23

Similarly,

(22 - 13 - 21) + 19 = 7

Hence, ‘7’ is the correct answer.

6 F 7 E 4 = 764 and 9 E 2 F 6 = 296

We can conclude that number present between F and E is placed at hundredth place and remaining number are placed after that as it is.

8 F 3 E 4 = 384

Hence, "384" is right answer.

Letters at the top and bottom of both the side change there position alternatively.

Hence option 3 is right answer.

The logic is:

1st column: (6 × 9) – (6 × 7) = 54 – 42 = 12

3rd column: (18 × 3) – (2 × 24) = 54 – 48 = 6

Similarly,

Let the missing number be ‘a’.

2nd column: (8 × 4) – (5 × a) = 2

⇒ 32 – 5a = 2

⇒ -5a = 2 – 32

⇒ -5a = -30

⇒ a = 6

Hence, ‘6’ is the correct answer.

Double difference between number follow the pattern 6, 4, 2, 4, 6, ....

Hence -6 is correct option.

All except ACE has difference of three between position of alphabets in the group.

Hence ACE is odd one out.

Logic: Code = Sum of position value of alphabet + 1

‘AUGER' → 1 + 21 + 7 + 5 + 18 + 1 = 53

'SERGE’→ 19 + 5 + 18 + 7 + 5 + 1= 55

Similarly

‘CONIC’ → 3 + 15 + 14 + 9 + 3 +1 = 45 

Hence, "45" is the correct answer.

The Correct Answer is $ 2200.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu is the second largest state in India by GDP and is the most industrialized state in India.
• It has been ranked as the first most economically free state in India by the Economic Freedom Rankings for the States of India.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu, a South Indian state, is famed for its Dravidian-style Hindu temples.
• Tamil Nadu, being an industrialized and urbanized state, is among the top 3 states with respect to the generation of electricity.

94 @ 2 # 6 = 282 

13 # 56 @ 28 = 26,

It means # represent ' × ' and @ represent '÷'

 94 ÷ 2 × 6 = 282 

13 × 56 ÷ 28 = 26,

44 @ 4 # 8 can be replaced by 

44 ÷ 4 × 8 

11 × 8 = 88

Hence 88 is the correct option.

Similar,

Hence, "ZPMGSYSN" is the correct answer.

Logic:

The number on the left side is multiplied by four and subtracted by one to get the number on the right side.

33 × 4 - 1 = 131

29 × 4 - 1 = 115

Hence, 115 will come in the missing place.

LOGIC: the difference between them as a multiple of 9.

1. 34 - 43 difference is 9

2) 46 - 66 difference is 20

3. 79 - 97 difference is 18

4. 25 - 52 difference is 27

Hence, 46 - 66 is the odd one out.

Reverse the digit of First Number = Second Number

1. 34 ⇔ 43

2) 46 ⇔ 64 ≠ 66

3. 79 ⇔ 97

4. 25 ⇔ 52

Hence, "46 - 66" is the correct answer.

Difference between consecutive number is eight.

hence, 117 will be missing number.

Preparing the family tree using the following symbol:

According to the given information,

Expression: P + Q ? M – N > R and  P is the father of M

P is the father of Q. M is the mother of N. N is the son of R.

From the above we can conclude that Q is brother of M.

Hence, < is correct option.

Rohit walks towards North and Rahul walks towards West from point A.

Hence Rohit will be north east of Rahul.

Hence UFBN is correct answer the question.

1. C sits third to the left of F

2. One person is sitting between A and C.

3. D sits second to the right of A. 

The number of persons on the left of B are same as the number of persons on the right of D and B is towards the right of C. So, case 2 will be eliminated. Final arrangement will be 

Hence two persons are sitting between B and D.

Difference between 547 and 515 is 32.

547 : 515 →  547  -  515 = 32

Similarly, 

 378 : ? →  378 - 32 = 346

Hence, "346" is the correct answer

At 3: 30 minute hand is towards west as shown below 

At 12'O clock minute hand will be as shown below

Hence minute hand will be towards east.

Logic: Number : (Number - 2)²

11 : 81 → 11 : (11 - 2)² →  11 : 9² 

Similarly,

12: ? → 12 : (12 - 2)2 →  12 : 102 → 12 : 100

Hence, "100" is the correct answer

Logic: Profession name : Work combination is given

Chef prepare Food. 

Similarly,

Writers write story.

Hence, "Writer : Story" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Bacteria.

Key Points

• The cause of dysentery is usually the bacteria Shigella, in which case it is known as shigellosis, or the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Other causes may include certain chemicals, other bacteria, protozoa, or parasitic worms.
• Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica. It is transmitted in areas where poor sanitation allows contamination of drinking water and food with feces. In these areas, up to 40% of people with diarrhea may have amoebic dysentery.

Important Points

• Disease caused by Viruses:
• Chickenpox - It is caused by the Varicella-zoster virus
• Small Pox - It is caused by the Variola virus
• Common Cold -It is caused by Rhinovirus
• AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) - It is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
• Measles -It is caused by the Measles virus
• Mumps -It is caused by the Mumps virus
• Rabies - It is caused by the Rabies virus (Rhabdoviridae family)
• Dengue fever -It is caused by the Dengue virus
• Viral encephalitis - It is an inflammation of the brain. It is caused by the rabies virus, Herpes simplex, poliovirus, measles virus, and JC virus
• Disease caused by Bacteria:
• Whooping Cough - It is caused by a bacterium called Bordetella pertussis.
• Diphtheria - It is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
• Cholera - It is caused by Vibrio cholera
• Leprosy - It is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
• Pneumonia- It is caused by Streptococcus pneumonia
• Tetanus - It is caused by Clostridium tetani
• Typhoid - It is caused by Salmonella typhi
• Tuberculosis - It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• Plague - It is caused by Yersinia pestis
• Disease Caused by Protozoans: 
• Malaria is spread by Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria is neither a virus nor a bacteria
• Amoebic dysentery: It is caused by Entamoebahistolytica.
• Sleeping sickness:  It is caused by Trypanosomabrucei.
• Kala-azar It is caused by Leishmaniadonovani.
• Disease Caused by Worms
• Tapeworm: They are intestinal parasites. It cannot live on its own. It survives within the intestine of an animal including a human
• Filariasis: It is caused by a thread
• Pinworm: It is caused by a small, thin, white roundworm called Enterobiusvermicularis.

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• On February 22, 1854, India's first textile mill, the Bombay Spinning and Weaving Mill, was set up. One of the main industries in the Indian economy is the Indian textile industry. Cowasji Nanabhai Davar opened the first Indian cotton mill, 'The Bombay Spinning Mill', in 1854 in Bombay.
• Opposition from the Lancashire mill owners was eventually offset by the support of the British manufacturers of textile machinery.

Important Points

• Progress of Cotton Mills 
• In Bombay, about 84 mills were established by Parsi and Gujarati businessmen by 1900.
• The construction and development of mills in cities started and the first mill in Ahmedabad was started in 1861.
• The growth of cotton mills demanded manpower.
• Poor peasants, artisans, and agricultural labourers started working in the mills.
• The textile industry of India faced problems such as difficulty competing with the cheap textiles imported from Britain.
• In most countries, the government supported industrialization by applying and imposing heavy duties on imports which eliminated competition and protected infant industries.
• The first major spurt in the development of cotton factory production in India was during the First World War when textile imports from Britain were declined and Indian factories were called upon to produce cloth for military supplies.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Currently, the Constitution of India has 448 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules. There are 104 amendments that have been made in the Indian constitution up to January 25, 2020. The very first amendment in the Indian Constitution was made in 1950.
• The world's lengthiest written constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules at the time of commencement. Now the Constitution of India has 448 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules.
• There are 104 amendments (took place on 25th January 2020 to extend the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states assemblies) that have been made in the Indian constitution so far.
• The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, Mr. Thaawar Chand Gehlot on January 8, 2019. The Bill seeks to provide for the advancement of “economically weaker sections” of citizens.

The correct answer is Nominal to real GDP.

Key Points

• The GDP deflator is a measure of inflation which is calculated as the ratio of GDP at current prices to GDP at constant prices. GDP at current prices=price of the current yearquantity of the current year. GDP at constant prices=Prices of the base yearquantity of the current year.

Important Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) defines the economic worth of products and services manufactured in a country in a definite financial year. It also accounts for the revenue received by foreign citizens locally and the insufficient income earned by the country’s residents abroad. Whenever the measurement of GDP is at current values, it represents nominal GDP and the real GDP is evaluated at fixed prices.
• Both the GDP are financial tools for estimating a nation’s economic development and growth. However, there is still confusion on which GDP indicates the nation’s development better.
• Nominal GDP Meaning
• Nominal Gross Domestic Product is GDP evaluated at present market prices. GDP is the financial equivalent of all the complete products and services generated within a nation in a definite time. Nominal varies from real GDP, and it incorporates changes in cost prices due to an increase in the complete cost price. Generally, economists utilize a gross domestic factor to change nominal GDP to real GDP also known as current dollar GDP or chained dollar GDP.
• Real GDP Meaning
• Real GDP is an inflation-adjusted calculation that analyzes the rate of all commodities and services manufactured in a country for a fixed year. It is expressed in foundation year prices and is referred to as a fixed cost price. Inflation rectified GDP or fixed dollar GDP. Real GDP is regarded as a reliable indicator of a nation’s economic growth as it solely only considers production and free from currency fluctuations.
• Real GDP is regarded as a reliable indicator of a nation’s economic growth as it solely only considers production and free from currency fluctuations.

The correct answer is Lord's.

Key Points

• The 2019 Cricket World Cup Final was a Day International cricket match played at Lord's in London, England, on 14 July 2019 to determine the winner of the 2019 Cricket World Cup.
• There are 12 World Cup tournaments being held to date. Australia is the most successful country which won 5 World Cups. India & West Indies are the only two countries which have won the world cup 2 times each.
• India won the World Cup in 1983 and 2011, while West Indies won in 1975 and 1979. Pakistan and Sri Lanka are the other two countries that have won the World Cup in 1992 and 1996 respectively. England is the only country that lost 3 finals and hosted the world cup 5 times.
• World Cup 2019 Final
• Winner: England
• Runner Up: New Zealand
• Margin: Match tied (England won Super Over on boundary count)
• Venue: Lords, London
• Host Nation: England and Wales
• Man of the match: Ben Stokes
• Man of the series: Kane Williamson
• Upcoming World Cup Places

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

• The most important mica-bearing pegmatites occur in Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana. Occurrences of mica pegmatites are also reported from Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal.

Important Points

• Mica
• Mica is a naturally occurring non-metallic mineral that is based on a collection of silicates.
• Mica is a very good insulator that has a wide range of applications in the electrical and electronics industry.
• It can withstand high voltage and has a low power loss factor.
• It is used in toothpaste and cosmetics because of its glittery appearance. It also acts as a mild abrasive in toothpaste.
• India is one of the foremost suppliers of mica to the world. Mica-bearing igneous rocks occur in AP, Bihar, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Rajasthan.
• Mica Reserve in India
• Andhra Pradesh (41 percent)
• Rajasthan (21 percent)
• Odisha (20 percent)
• Maharashtra (15 percent)
• Bihar (2 percent)
• Jharkhand (Less than 1 percent)
• Table of Contents
• Mica
• Andhra Pradesh
• Rajasthan
• Jharkhand
• Limestone
• Madhya Pradesh
• Rajasthan
• Andhra Pradesh
• Gujarat
• Chhattisgarh
• Tamil Nadu
• Karnataka
• Dolomite
• Orissa
• Chhattisgarh
• Jharkhand
• Rajasthan
• Karnataka
• Kyanite
• Jharkhand
• Maharashtra
• Karnataka
• Non-Metallic Mineral Distribution in India – Mica, Limestone, Dolomite, Asbestos, Magnesite, Kyanite, Sillimanite and Gypsum.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• The space surrounding a magnet, in which magnetic force is exerted, is called a magnetic field. If a bar magnet is placed in such a field, it will experience magnetic forces. However, the field will continue to exist even if the magnet is removed. The direction of the magnetic field at a point is the direction of the resultant force acting on the hypothetical North Pole placed at that point. The direction of magnetic lines of force at any point gives the direction of the magnetic force on a north pole placed at that point. Since the direction of the magnetic line of force is the direction of the force on the North Pole, so the magnetic lines of force always begin on the N-pole of a magnet and end on the S-pole of the magnet. A small magnetic compass when moved along a line of force always sets itself along the line tangential to it. So, a line drawn from the South Pole of the compass to its the North Pole indicates the direction of the magnetic field.
• The magnetic lines of force are closed concentric circles and hence, the starting or ending point cannot be specified exactly except the direction. Therefore, the direction of magnetic field lines outside the magnet is from North Pole to the South Pole and the direction of magnetic field lines inside the magnet is from the south pole to the north pole. Start and end cannot be found. Hence First Statement is Incorrect

The correct answer is Bipin Rawat.

Key Points

• General Bipin Rawat will take over as India's first Chief of Defence Staff on Tuesday and head the newly created department of military affairs.
• General Bipin Rawat to take charge as India's first Chief of Defence Staff; A four-star general, Rawat will serve as the tri-services chief and also advice the Prime Minister-led nuclear command authority.
• Shri Mahesh Kumar Jain appointed as RBI Deputy Governor The Government of India, on June 4, 2018 has appointed him as the Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India for a period of three years from the date of assumption of charge or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
• Angad Vir Singh Bajwa is an Indian sport shooter who competes in the skeet discipline.

The correct answer is Mehrangarh Fort.

Key Points

• Mehrangarh, located in Jodhpur, Rajasthan, is one of the largest forts in India. Built around 1459 by Rao Jodha, the fort is situated 410 feet above the city and is enclosed by imposing thick walls. Inside its boundaries, there are several palaces known for their intricate carvings and expansive courtyards.
• Junagarh Fort
• is a fort in the city of Bikaner, Rajasthan, India. The fort was originally called Chintamani and was renamed Junagarh or "Old Fort" in the early 20th century when the ruling family moved to Lalgarh Palace outside the fort limits. Junagarh Fort Bikaner – Heritage Tourist Attraction In Bikaner. Built during the 16th century, Junagarh is a beautiful example of the historical marvels built by the royals of Rajasthan. It was initially built by the famous Raja Rai Singh in 1594.
• Jaisalmer Fort
• Also known as Sonar Quilla or Sone ka Quilla (golden fort) Jaisalmer fort stands high showcasing its beauty and elegance as it is one of the world’s largest forts located in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan. Sonar Quila is the second oldest fort in Rajasthan.
• Its extensive yellow sandstone walls are bright yellow during the day and fade to honey-gold as the sun sets and due to this, it is also called the Golden fort. This dessert beauty has seen many battles while standing amidst the sandy stretches of the great Thar Desert on Trikuta hill. Jaisalmer itself is known as the golden city and offers the cultural fusion of nomadic desert and royalty which will let you experience something different.
• Built by the Rajput ruler Rawal Jaisal in 1156 AD this UNESCO World Heritage site is the pride of the Thar desert and is a symbol of strength.
• Jaigarh Fort
• is situated on the promontory called the Cheel ka Teela of the Aravalli range; it overlooks the Amer Fort and the Maota Lake, near Amer in Jaipur, Rajasthan, India. The fort was built by Jai Singh II in 1726 to protect the Amer Fort and its palace complex and was named after him.

The correct answer is Eighth Schedule.

Key Points

• Languages Included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution | Department of Official Language | Ministry of Home Affairs
• There are 22 official languages in India and they are covered under the 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• There are a total of 12 Schedules in the Indian Constitution and each one is important. The Constitutional provisions relating to the 8th Schedule are in articles 344(1) and 351 of the Indian Constitution
• Initially, there were 14 official languages. Now, there are 22 official languages in the 8th schedule of the Indian constitution.

• Currently, the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains 22 languages-Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.

Additional Information

• Constitutional amendment related to language
• 21st CAA 1967-Sindhi was Added
• 71st CAA 1991- (Trick-MNK) Manipuri,Nepali and Konkani
• 92nd CAA 2003- (Trick-BODMAS) Bodo, Dongri,Maithili and Santhali

The correct answer is ​It expands and becomes lighter.

Key Points

• When air is heated, the molecules will start to vibrate and bump into each other Because each molecule uses more space for motion, the air expands and becomes less dense. Therefore, the air expands when heated. When the air becomes warm, its air rises, and when it rises it becomes cooler.

Important Points

• Heating and Cooling of Atmosphere
• There are various ways of heating and cooling the atmosphere.
• The earth after being warmed by insolation transfers the heat to the atmospheric layers in the long waveform.
• Conduction
• The air in interaction with the land gets heated gradually and the upper layers in touch with the lower layers also get heated. This process is called conduction.
• This process takes place when two bodies of uneven temperature are in contact with one another, there is a flow of energy from the warmer to the cooler body.
• The heat transfer continues until both the bodies reach the same temperature or the contact is interrupted.
• This process is significant in heating the lower layers of the atmosphere.
• Convection
• The air in contact with the earth upsurges vertically on heating in the form of currents and transfers the heat of the atmosphere.
• This vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection.
• The convective transfer of energy is limited only to the troposphere.
• Advection
• The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is called advection.
• The horizontal movement of the air is comparatively more significant than the vertical movement.
• Most of the diurnal variation in weather is caused by advection only in the middle latitudes.
• During summer in tropical regions predominantly in Northern India, local winds called ‘loo’ are the result of the advection process.

The correct answer is a bifocal lens.

Key Points

• An eye that suffers from myopia as well as from hypermetropia is said to suffer from presbyopia. A person with this defect cannot see objects distinctly placed at any distance from him. To correct this defect, a person is prescribed a bifocal lens that has both types of lenses convex and concave.
• The upper part of the bifocal lens is made up of a concave lens and the lower part of a small circular section is made up of the convex lens. Thus, spectacles made of such a lens help to see nearby as well as distant objects clearly.
• In Presbyopia defect both near and far object are not clearly visible i.e., far point is lesser than infinity and near point greater than 25 cm. This can be removed either by using two separate spectacles one for myopia and the other for hypermetropia or by using the bifocal lens. It is an old age disease. At old age, ciliary muscles lose their elasticity so they can not change the focal length of the eye lens effectively, and the eye losses its power of accommodation

Important Points

• The classification of a lens depends on how the light rays bend when they pass through the lens. The two main types of lenses are
• Convex Lens (Converging)
• Concave Lens (Diverging)
• Convex lenses are thick in the middle and thinner at the edges. A concave lens is flat in the middle and thicker at the edges. A convex lens is also known as the converging lens as the light rays bend inwards and converge at a point which is known as focal length. On the other hand, the concave lens is also known as a diverging lens because it bends the parallel light rays outward and diverges them at the focal point.
• Simple lens and compound lens are the two classifications of lenses. Simple lenses are different from compound lenses based on their surface of curvature. Following are the different types of simple lenses.
• Compound lenses are those constructed out of a combination of different simple lenses. The lens types used to build a compound lens may have different refractive indices and other properties. The placement of lenses is such that they lie on a single axis, and properties like focal length are calculated again for the new compound lens.
• Other Lens Types are:
• Cylindrical – curvature in one direction
• Fresnel – narrow ring-like surface
• Lenticular – a group of micro-lenses
• Gradient Index – flat surfaces but with varying refractive indices
• Axicon – conical surface

The correct answer is the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

Key Points

The International Union for Conservation of Nature

• IUCN is a membership Union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organizations.
• Created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
• It is headquartered in Switzerland.
• The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
• It uses a set of quantitative criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of species. These criteria are relevant to most species and all regions of the world.
• The IUCN Red List Categories define the extinction risk of species assessed. Nine categories extend from NE (Not Evaluated) to EX (Extinct). Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN), and Vulnerable (VU) species are considered to be threatened with extinction.
• It is recognized as the most authoritative guide to the status of biological diversity.
• It is also a key indicator for the SDGs and Aichi Targets.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Rocks are an aggregate of one or more minerals held together by chemical bonds.
• Feldspar and quartz are the most common minerals found in rocks.
• The scientific study of rocks is called petrology.
• Based on the mode of formation three major groups of rocks are defined
• Igneous Rocks — solidified from magma and lava.
• Sedimentary Rocks — the result of deposition of fragments of rocks.
• Metamorphic Rocks — formed out of existing rocks undergoing recrystallization.

​

Important Points 

• Igneous Rocks
• It is formed out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth.
• They are also known as primary rocks.
• When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into a solid form it is called igneous rock.
• Examples of igneous rocks
• Granite
• Gabbro
• Pegmatite
• Basalt
• Volcanic
• Breccia
• Tuff
• Sedimentary Rocks
• Rocks of the earth’s surface area exposed to denudation agents and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. These fragments are carried by various exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called lithification. In several sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits maintain their characteristics even after lithification. Sandstone, shale are some of the examples of Sedimentary Rocks.
• Eg: Sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess, etc.
• Metamorphic Rocks
• These rocks form under the action of volume, pressure, and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism happens when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are exposed to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks. The materials of rocks chemically modify and recrystallize due to thermal metamorphism. There are two types of thermal metamorphism

The correct answer is Vermi-processing toilet.

Key Points

• A composting toilet is a type of dry toilet that treats human waste by a biological process called composting. This process leads to the decomposition of organic matter and turns human waste into compost-like material, but does not destroy all pathogens.
• Vermi-processing toilets is a design of a toilet in which humans excreta is treated by earthworms. In this process, human excreta is completely converted to cake-like structures called vermin cakes by earthworms. Vermi cakes are used mostly in the soil as manure and fertilizers. The vermi-processing toilet is beneficial because It reduces diseases and increases soil fertility.
• The EcoSan toilet is a closed system that does not need water, so is an alternative to leach pit toilets in places where water is scarce or where the water table is high and the risk of groundwater contamination is increased.

Important Points

• What are Biotoilets?
• The environment-friendly bio-toilets for passenger coaches were developed jointly by the Indian Railways and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• In the bio-toilet fitted coaches, human waste is collected in biodigester tanks below the toilets and is decomposed by a consortium of anaerobic bacteria.
• By the process of hydrolysis, acetogenesis, acidogenesis, and methanogenesis, the anaerobic bacteria convert human faecal matter into water and a small amount of gases (including methane).

The correct answer is 76.

Key Points

• The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive. AG is the highest law officer in the country.
• Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG of India.
• Appointment and Eligibility:
• AG is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.
• S/he must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e. s/he must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.
• Term of the Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.
• Removal: Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the Constitution. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time).

Additional Information 

• Duties and Functions:
• To give advice to the Government of India (GoI) upon such legal matters, which are referred to her/him by the President.
• To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to her/him by the President.
• To appear on behalf of the GoI in all cases in the Supreme Court or in any case in any High Court in which the GoI is concerned.
• To represent the GoI in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court) of the Constitution.
• To discharge the functions conferred on her/him by the Constitution or any other law.
• Rights and Limitations:
• She has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which s/he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
• S/he enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
• S/he does not fall in the category of government servants. S/he is not debarred from private legal practice.
• However, s/he should not advise or hold a brief against the GoI.
• Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India assist the AG in fulfillment of the official responsibilities.
• Corresponding Office in the States: Advocate General (Article 165).

Important Points

• 1st AGI of India was M C Setalvad.
• The central government has extended the term of K.K. Venugopal as Attorney General (AG) for one year.
• Venugopal was appointed the 15th AG of India in 2017. He succeeded Mukul Rohatgi who was AG from 2014-2017.

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The period from 1206 A.D. to 1526 A.D. came to be known as the Delhi Sultanate period. This period witnessed many dynasties and various rulers.

• Tughlaq Dynasty:

Additional Information

• Trick For Delhi Sultunate
• Gul Khile Tho Sans Lo

The correct answer is only 1.

Key Points

• The International Organization for Standardization is an international standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards organizations.
• Founded on 23 February 1947, the organization promotes worldwide proprietary, industrial, and commercial standards.
• It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and works in 167 countries.
• It was one of the first organizations granted general consultative status with the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
• The three official languages of the ISO are English, French, and Russian.
• ISO is a voluntary organization whose members have recognized authorities on standards, each one representing one country. Members meet annually at a General Assembly to discuss the strategic objectives of ISO. The organization is coordinated by a central secretariat based in Geneva.

Source: https://www.iso.org/about-us.html

The Correct answer is Bhutan.

Key Points

• This MoU shall enable India and Bhutan to pursue cooperation in potential interest areas, such as remote sensing of the earth; satellite communication and satellite-based navigation; Space science and planetary exploration; use of spacecraft and space systems and ground system; and application of space technology,"

Important Points

Bhutan and India Relations - General Comparison

Physical Geographic Comparison of India & Bhutan

Additional Information

• Important Facts about Bhutan
• Bhutan is the first nation in the world to ban the sale of Tobacco.
• Bhutan is fully organic
• Around 75% of the Bhutanese population practices Buddhism and the remaining follow Hinduism.
• The word “Bhutan” means “Land of the Thunder Dragon.
• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), the World Bank, the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Bhutan measures the quality of its people’s lives through GNH. This initiative has been praised by the United Nations as well as many other countries.
• National Symbols of Bhutan:
• National Bird - Common Raven
• Bhutan's National Animals - Takin, a very rare mammal
• National Tree - Bhutanese Cypress
• Bhutan's National Sport - Archery

the correct answer is the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).

Key Points

• The policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target is decided by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). MPC is a six-member committee constituted by the Central Government (Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934). The MPC is required to meet at least four times a year.
• ​What Is Inflation Targeting?
• Inflation targeting is a central banking policy that revolves around adjusting monetary policy to achieve a specified annual rate of inflation. The principle of inflation targeting is based on the belief that long-term economic growth is best achieved by maintaining price stability, and price stability is achieved by controlling inflation.
• Inflation targeting is a central bank strategy of specifying an inflation rate as a goal and adjusting monetary policy to achieve that rate.
• Inflation targeting primarily focuses on maintaining price stability but is also believed by its proponents to support economic growth and stability.
• Inflation targeting can be contrasted to other possible policy goals of central banking, including the targeting of exchange rates, unemployment, or national income     .
• Six MPC members
• Ashima Goyal.
• Shashanka Bhide.
• Jayanth R. Varma.
• Shaktikanta Das.
• Mridul Saggar
• Jayanth R. Varma

Important Points

• What is Inflation?
• Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc.
• Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time.
• The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’.
• Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This could ultimately lead to a deceleration in economic growth.
• However, a moderate level of inflation is required in the economy to ensure that production is promoted.

The Correct Answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Sports Authority of India (SAI), a successor organization of the IXth Asian Games held in New Delhi in 1982, was set up as a Society registered of Societies Act, 1860 dated 25^th January 1984 of the Department of Sports, Govt. of India with the objective of promotion of Sports and Games as detailed in the Resolution.
• It is also entrusted with the responsibility of maintaining and utilizing, on the behalf of Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, the following Stadia in Delhi which were constructed/renovated for the IX Asian Games held in New Delhi in 1982:-
• Jawaharlal Nehru Sports Complex
• Indira Gandhi Sports Complex
• Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium
• Dr. Shyam Prasad Mookherjee Swimming Pool Complex
• Dr. Karni Singh Shooting Ranges
• Founder: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
• Founded: 1984
• Parent agency: Government of India
• Headquarters: Delhi

Additional Information

Important Organisations and their Headquarters in India

The Correct Answer is Jakarta - Palembang.

Key Points

• Asian Games, a multi-sport event for all Asian countries, is set to take place in the Indonesian cities of Jakarta and Palembang from August 18 to September 2, 2018. This is the 18th edition of the tournament, which first began in 1951 in New Delhi, and it is set to host around 10,000 athletes in 40 sports from 45 countries.
• Indonesia hosted the Asian Games for the second time, after the Jakarta Asian Games in 1962, it is the first time that the games are being hosted by two cities together.
• Mascot-Bhin Bhin—a greater bird-of-paradise, Atung—a Bawean deer, and Kaka—a Javan rhinoceros, representing the Eastern, Central, and Western regions of Indonesia.
• All About Asian Games 2018
• India competed at the 2018 Asian Games in Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia, from 18th August to 2nd September.
• Neeraj Chopra was the flag bearer for the opening ceremony while Rani Rampal was named as the flag bearer for the closing ceremony.
• India ranked 8th in the 2018 Asian Games Medal Table with 69 medals in total.
• China topped the medal tally with 132 Golds and a total of 289 Medals.
• Japanese swimmer Ikee Rikako has been named as the Most Valuable Player (MVP) of the recently-concluded 18th edition of the Asian Games.
• The 18-year-old, who bagged six gold and two silver medals in the tournament, became the first female athlete to win the MVP title.

Important Points

• Upcoming Asian Games
• 2022 Asian Games will be held in Hangzhou, Zhejiang, China.
• 2026 Asian Games will be held in Nagoya, Japan.

Additional Information

• India’s Medals in Asian Games 2018

The Correct Answer is the Melting of ice cubes.

Key Points

• Condensation 
• The transformation of water vapor into water is called condensation.
• Condensation is caused by the loss of heat (latent heat of condensation, opposite of latent heat of vaporization).
• When moist air is cooled, it may reach a level when its capacity to hold water vapor ceases (Saturation Point = 100% Relative Humidity = Dew Point reached). Then, the excess water vapor condenses into liquid form. If it directly condenses into solid form, it is known as sublimation.
• In free air, condensation results from cooling around very small particles termed hygroscopic condensation nuclei. Particles of dust, smoke, pollen, and salt from the ocean are particularly good nuclei because they absorb water.
• Condensation also takes place when the moist air comes in contact with some colder object and it may also take place when the temperature is close to the dew point.
• Condensation, therefore, depends upon the amount of cooling and the relative humidity of the air.

​Condensation takes place in certain cases:

• When the temperature of the air is reduced to dew point with its volume remaining constant (adiabatically),
• When both the volume and the temperature are reduced,
• When moisture is added to the air through evaporation,
• After condensation, the water vapor or the moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms, dew, frost, fog, and clouds.
• Condensation takes place when the dew point is lower than the freezing point as well as higher than the freezing point.

​CONCLUSION:

The correct answer is option 4. Melting of ice cubes.

The Correct Answer is Oligopoly.

Key Points

• In the ordinary sense, the term market refers to a place where buyers and sellers meet for exchange. However, the Market need not be the place of exchange.
• Types of Market Structure
• Perfect Competition:
• Participants are high both buyers and sellers.
• Products have many substitutes and no marketing or selling cost is incurred.
• Knowledge of participants for entering into the market is perfect.
• The seller is a Price taker, not a price maker.
• A buyer willing to buy all at a certain price but none at price higher. So he is a price maker.
• Monopoly:
• Buyers are many but the seller is one.
• Product has no substitute or no close substitute
• Other competitors cant enter the market due to laws or patents.
• Price discrimination is seen between poor and rich. Seller is a Price maker.
• Relative Price inelastic increase means demand decreases by less than X% for an X% increase in price.
• A natural monopoly is when there is an extremely high fixed cost of distribution e.g. gas, water, electricity.

Additional Information

• Monopolistic competition:
• Many buyers and sellers but each selling its differentiated version of good.
• Marketing selling cost is high. Goods are of different brands where brand loyalty is seen to a limit but many substitutes are available.
• Unrestricted and free entry.
• Seller is Price maker to a level.
• Price increases by x% but demand decreases by less than x% - relatively inelastic. But more elastic than monopoly.
• Oligopoly:
• Buyers many but sellers few with intense competition.
• Product has close substitutes and intense competition amongst sellers. If one seller introduces change others have to follow. High cost of marketing and selling.
• Entry of new sellers tough due to economies of scale.
• The seller is a price maker.
• Monopsony:
• The monopoly of the buyer but multiple sellers present.
• Entry closed for other buyers
• Seen where the government wants to make a defense-related purchase and multiple sellers are bidding for it.
• The Buyer is a price maker.

The Correct Answer is 1966.

Key Points

• The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966, which is headquartered in the Ortigas Center located in the city of Mandaluyong, Metro Manila, Philippines.

Important Points

About ADB:

• It is a regional development bank
• Established on 19 December 1966.
• Headquartered — Manila, Philippines.
• Official United Nations Observer.
• Membership: The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.
• Currently, it has 68 members.
• India was a founding member of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in 1966 and is now the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder and top borrower.
• As of 31 December 2019, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).

​

In news:

• ADB announced that it had appointed Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa as its vice president (V­P) for private sector operations and public­private partnerships.

The Correct Answer is Article 56.

Key Points

• Article 52 to 78 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the Union Executive. The union executive consists of the president, the vice president, the prime minister, the council of ministers, and the Attorney General of India.
• The president (article 52) is the head of the Indian state. He is head of all  Supreme Commander of all the armed forces.
• He is the first citizen of the country and acts as the symbol of the integrity and solidarity of the nation.
• Article 38-State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
• Article 36- Definition of State which is given in Article 12
• Article 56 -Term of office of President. (5 Years)

Important Points 

• Articles Related to President of India:

• Our planet earth is enveloped by a deep blanket of gases extending several thousands of kilometres above its surface which is known as the atmosphere.
• It surrounds the earth from all sides.
• Generally, it extends up to about 1600 kilometres from the earth’s surface.
• 97% of the total amount of weight of the atmosphere is limited up to the height of about 30 kilometres.
• The atmosphere can be divided into five layers according to the variation of temperature and density:
• Troposphere,
• Stratosphere,
• Mesosphere,
• Ionosphere and
• Exosphere

Key Points

Stratosphere:

• The stratosphere is the second major strata of air in the atmosphere.
• It extends above the tropopause to an altitude of about 30 miles (50 km) above the planet's surface.
• The air temperature in the stratosphere remains relatively constant up to an altitude of 15 miles (25 km).
• The temperature in Stratosphere is highest over the summer pole and lowest over the winter pole.

Thus, both statements I and II are true.

Atmosphere:

• Like land (lithosphere) and water (hydrosphere), the atmosphere is an integral part of the earth.
• Compared to the earth’s radius, the atmosphere appears to be only a very thin layer of gases.
• However, because of the force of gravity, it is inseparable from the earth.

Atmospheric pressure: 

• The air exerts pressure on the earth’s surface by virtue of its weight. T
• his pressure is called atmospheric pressure.
• Atmospheric pressure is the most important climatic element.
• The atmospheric pressure at sea level is 1034 gm per square centimeter.

Composition of Atmosphere:

• Tricks to remember the structure of the atmosphere
• TruSt Me In The Exam
• Tr -Troposphere
• St -Stratosphere
• Me- Mesosphere
• In - Ionosphere
• The **-**Thermosphere
• Ex - Exosphere

The Correct Answer is only 1.

Key Points

• In earthworms, the exchange of gases occurs through the moist skin.
• In fishes, respiration takes place through gills.
• In insects, respiration takes place through the tracheae**.**

Important Points

Earthworm -

• Earthworms have no special respiratory organs. Gases are exchanged through the moist skin and capillaries. Water, as well as salts, can also be moved through the skin by active transport.
• This type of respiration is termed "cutaneous respiration".

​Human -

• In humans, respiration is through the lungs and is termed "pulmonary respiration". The mechanism of pulmonary respiration includes breathing movement, exchange of gases in lungs, transport of gases by blood, and exchange of gases in tissues.

Prawn -

• In prawns, gills are the chief respiratory organs, which are enclosed in a gill chamber on each side of the cephalothorax and are covered by a carapace.
• Freshwater enters the gill chamber in the form of a current. The highly vascularised gill-plates are covered with permeable membrane for the passage of gases. The respiration through gills is called "branchial respiration".

Insects -

• The respiratory system of insects is a complex network of tubes called the "tracheal system", which delivers oxygen-containing air to every cell of the body.
• Air enters the insect's body through valve-like openings in the exoskeleton, called spiracles.
• After passing through a spiracle, air enters a longitudinal tracheal trunk, eventually diffusing throughout a complex, branching network of tracheal tubes, that subdivides into smaller and smaller diameters and reaches every part of the body.
• At the end of each tracheal branch, a special cell (the tracheole) provides a thin, moist interface for the exchange of gasses between atmospheric air and a living cell.

The Correct Answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The traditional folk dance ‘Gotipua’ belongs to Odisha.
• The dance is performed to praise Lord Jagannath and Lord Krishna.
• Kajal and bindi applied to dancer’s mouth are attracting features of this dance and the traditional dress dancer wears is known as ‘Kanchula’.
• This dance form has similar postures and gestures as in Tandava and Lasya dances.

Important Points

• Popular Dances of Odisha​ 
• CHHAU DANCE
• ​CHAITI GHODA
• MEDHA NACHA
• CHANGU DANCE
• KARMA DANCE
• ODISSI DANCE
• DANDA NATA

​

Additional Information 

• ​Popular Dances of Andhra Pradesh
• Kuchipudi, Vilasini Natyam, Andhra Natyam, Bhamakalpam, Veeranatyam, Dappu, Tappeta Gullu, Lambadi, Dhimsa, Kolattam, Butta Bommalu.
• Popular Dances of Manipur
• Dol Cholam, Thang-Ta, Lai Haraoba, Pung Cholom, Khamba Thaibi, Nupa Dance, Raslila, Khubak Ishei, Lhou  Sha.
• Popular Dances of Rajasthan
• Ghumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Jhulan Leela, Jhuma, Suisini, Ghapal, Kalbeliya.

The Correct Answer is Prakash Javadekar.

Key Points

• Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar today launched the India Climate Change Knowledge Portal. The portal will have all the major steps the Government is taking at both national and international levels to address the climate change issues.

Important Points

• About the portal:
• The portal will have all the major steps the Government is taking at both national and international levels to address the climate change issues.
• Portal will be a single-point information resource that provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various Line Ministries enabling users to access d status on these initiatives.
• This will be enabling users to access updated status on climate initiatives. Minister informed at the virtual event that India has practically achieved its Pre-2020 Climate Action targets.
• Though historically India is not responsible for emissions.
• India, under the dynamic leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, is leading the world on Climate Action.
• The portal captures sector-wise adaptation and mitigation actions by Ministries in one place including updated information on their implementation.
• MAJOR COMPONENTS
• ​India’s Climate Profile
• National Policy Framework
• India’s NDC goals
• Adaptation Actions
• Mitigation Actions
• Bilateral and Multilateral Cooperation
• International Climate Negotiations
• Reports & Publications​

Additional Information

• About UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change)
• The international environmental treaty that came into existence under the aegis of the UN.
• UNFCCC is negotiated at the Earth Summit 1992.
• It is signed in 1992, New York City.
• As of March 2019, UNFCCC has 197 parties.
• Role: UNFCCC provides a framework for negotiating specific international treaties (called “protocols”) that aim to set binding limits on greenhouse gases.
• The objective of UNFCCC: Stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous consequences.
• Legal Effect: Treaty is considered legally non-binding.
• The treaty itself sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries.
• Head Quarter-Bonn (Germany).

The Correct Answer is Australia.

Key Points

• The ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup is an international cricket tournament which is organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) contested by national under-19 teams. The 13th edition of the ICC Under 19 World was played in South Africa (17 January – 9 February 2020).
• Earlier the tournament was known by the name of Youth World Cup. The ICC U-19 World Cup is a biennial event and is organized after 2 years.
• The first edition of the tournament was played in 1988 in Australia and was called as Youth World Cup.
• India is the most successful team with 4 World Cup wins. India won the tournament in the year 2000, 2008, 2012, 2018 under the captaincies of Mohammed Kaif,  Virat Kohli,  Unmukt Chand, and Prithvi Shaw respectively.

​

Additional Information

• Some interesting facts and records of the Under 19 World Cup:
• Current England’s ODI captain Eoin Morgan holds the record of scoring max no. of runs (606). He scored them in the years 2004-06.
• Shikhar Dhawan holds the record of scoring the most runs in a single World Cup edition (2004).
• Moises Henriques (Australia) and Greg Thompson (Ireland) jointly share the record of taking the most wickets (27).
• Harshita Boyagoda of Sri Lanka holds the record of the highest individual score in an innings with 191.
• 480/6 (50 overs) by Australia against Kenya is the highest team total in the history of the U-19 World Cup.
• 22 runs by Scotland against Australia is the lowest team score.
• Enamul Haque of Bangladesh holds the record of taking the most wickets in a single tournament (22).

The Correct Answer is London.

Key Points

• It has been held since 1974. The tournament has been organized by the International Hockey Federation (FIH) since they merged with the International Federation of Women's Hockey Associations (IFWHA) in 1982.
• Since 1986, it has been held regularly once every four years.
• Of the fourteen tournaments held so far, only four teams have won the event.
• The Netherlands is by far the most successful team, having won the title eight times. Argentina, Germany, and Australia are joint second-best teams, having each won the title twice.
• So far, the Netherlands and Australia are the two champions able to defend their titles. At the end of the 2018 World Cup, fifteen nations had reached the semifinal of the tournament.
• The 2018 tournament was held in London, England from 21 July to 5 August, with the Netherlands winning a second consecutive title and a record eighth title after beating Ireland 6–0 in the final.
• Spain and the Netherlands will co-host the 2022 Hockey Women's World Cup and India has been chosen to stage the men's tournament in 2023.

Additional Information

• Upcoming Sports Events
• Asian Games
• 2018-Jakarta-palembanga, Indonesia
• 2022-Hangzhou, China
• 2026-Nagoya, Japan
• Commonwealth Games (CWG)
• 2018-Gold Coast, Australia
• 2022-Birmingham, England
• Olympics Games
• Summer Olympic:
• 2020 – Tokyo, Japan
• 2024 – Paris, France
• Winter Olympic:
• 2018 – Pyeongchang, South Korea.
• 2022 – Beijing, China
• 2026 – Italy’s Milan and Cortina d’Ampezzo
• ICC World Cup Cricket
• 2019 – England, Wales.
• 2023 – India.
• ICC World Cup T20
• 2016 – India
• 2020 – Australia
• ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup
• 2017 – England.
• 2021 – New Zealand.
• ICC Women’s World Cup T20
• 2016 – India.
• 2018 – West Indies
• 2020 – Australia
• Hockey Men’s World Cup
• 2018 – Bhubaneswar, India
• Hockey Women’s World Cup
• 2018 – London, England.
• FIFA (Football) World Cup
• 2018 – Russia
• 2022 – Qatar.
• 18th edition of FIFA U – 17 World Cup for the year 2019 – Brazil
• Nigeria set to host 2020 FIFA women U –  20 World Cup
• FIFA Women’s World Cup
• 2019 – France

The Correct Answer is Malayalam.

Key Points

• Akkitham is a famous writer in the Malayalam poetry world. He was born in 1926 and his full name is Akkitham Achuthan Namboodri.
• About Akkitham:-Akkitham is a famous writer in the Malayalam poetry world.
• He is popularly known as Akkitham. He was interested in literature and art since childhood. Apart from poetry, Akkitham has also written plays and novels.
• Most of the poetry works have a unique prophetic character. He predicts a range of socio-political developments in his poetry. Akkitham is famous for showing modernity through his poetry.

​

Important Points

• About Jnanpith Award
• The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary award given by the Indian Jnanpith Trust for Indian literature.
• Any citizen of India who writes in any of the 22 languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule is eligible for this award.
• An award of eleven lakh rupees, a citation, and a bronze statue of Vagdevi are given in the award.
• This award, which started in 1965 with prize money of Rs 1 lakh, has been increased to Rs 7 lakh in 2005, which have now been eleven lakh rupees.
• Hindi litterateur Kunwar Narayan, elected for 2005, was the first person to receive the Jnanpith Award of Rs 7 lakh.
• The first Jnanpith Award was presented to Malayalam writer G. Shankar Kurup in 1965
• Jnanpith Award has achieved the recognition of the highest literary award of the country.
• The Award is open for only Indian citizens and is given annually.
• English along with other Indian languages is considered for the Award.
• The winner is given a cash prize of Rs. 11 lakh and a bronze replica of Goddess Saraswati, the Hindu goddess of learning.
• The first recipient of the award was Malayalam writer G Sankara Kurup in 1965 for his novel ‘Odakkuzhal’ (The Bamboo Flute).
• The first woman writer to be awarded this award was Ashapoorna Devi, a Bengali writer, in 1976.
• The organization which presents this award was founded in 1944 by industrialist and philanthropist Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain.
• Jnanpith Award is sponsored by the cultural organization Bharatiya Jnanpith.
• The organization which presents this award was founded in 1944 by industrialist and philanthropist Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain.

The Correct Answer is only I.

Key Points

• The foreign exchange rate is the price of one currency in terms of another. Because the foreign exchange rate compares the currencies of 2 countries, the rate depends on the value of each currency and, thus, on the economies of both countries.
• There are 3 primary economic factors that affect the foreign exchange rate:
• the relative purchasing power of each currency;
• the investment opportunities and risks of each country, and
• the desirability of the goods and services of each country.

Important Points

• Key Factors that Affect Foreign Exchange Rates:
• Inflation Rates
• Interest Rates
• Country’s Current Account / Balance of Payments
• Government Debt
• Terms of Trade
• Political Stability & Performance
• Recession
• Speculation

Additional Information

• Exchange Rate
• The price of one currency in terms of the other is known as the exchange rate. A currency’s exchange rate vis-a-vis another currency reflects the relative demand among the holders of the two currencies.
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP): is a measure of economic activity in a country. It is the total value of a country’s annual output of goods and services. It gives the economic output from the consumers’ side.
• Gross Value Added (GVA): is the sum of a country’s GDP and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy. It provides the rupee value for the number of goods and services produced in an economy after deducting the cost of inputs and raw materials that have gone into the production of those goods and services.

The Correct Answer is India.

Key Points

• India, with a population of 1.426 billion, is the most populous country worldwide. India and China are by far the most populous countries and the only ones with more than one billion inhabitants. Together they account for about 36 percent of the total population and occupy nine percent of the habitable earth's surface. In April 2023, India replaced China as the country with the highest population to date. 
  

Important Points

• Most Populous Countries

• Least Populous Countries

Additional Information

• The World Population Prospects:
• According to ‘The World Population Prospects 2019’ published by the Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, India is projected to surpass China as the world’s most populous country by 2027.
• Through the end of the century (between 2019 and 2050) India (with an estimated population of 1.37 billion) is expected to remain the world’s most populous country, followed by China, Nigeria, the United States of America, and Pakistan.
• The global population is projected to increase by another 2 billion people by 2050.

The Correct Answer is Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Key Points

• Vande Mataram’ is the national song of India. It was written by Mr. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay to praise the "Mother India" on 7th November 1875, and was published in a Bengali fiction novel ‘Anandmath’.
• Vande Mataram' Meaning:-The title 'Vande Mataram or Bande Mataram' means "I praise thee, Mother" or "I praise to thee, Mother". The term "Mataram (माताराम)" in the first line means the motherland of India or the Bangamata (Mother Bengal) and Bharat Mata (Mother India). Vande Matram is the national song of India, which was composed by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, originally in Sanskrit & Bengali.

Important Points

• It was adopted on January 24, 1950, by providing its equal status with the national anthem Jana Gana Mana.
• It is taken from the novel Anand Math published in 1882.
• It was sung for the first time at the congress session at Calcutta in 1896.
• The original Vande Mataram comprises of 6 stanzas.
• It was translated in prose by Shri Aurobindo in Karmayogin on 20 November 1909.

Additional Information

• National Symbols
• The National Flag of India is known as ‘Tiranga’.
• National Anthem-The song “Jana-Gana-mana.
• National Calendar-Shaka calendar.
• National Song -Vande Mataram.
• National Emblem-The national emblem of India is a replica of the Lion at Sarnath, near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.
• National Fruit-The Mango (Mangifera indica).
• National River - The Ganges.
• National Animal-Royal Bengal Tiger.
• National Tree-The National Tree of India is The Banyan Tree.
• National Aquatic Animal-Ganges River Dolphin.
• National Bird-The Peacock, Pavo cristatus (Linnaeus).
• National Currency-Indian Rupee.
• National Reptile-King Cobra or Snake eater (Ophiophagus hannah).
• National Heritage Animal - elephants.
• National Flower-Lotus scientifically known as Nelumbo Nucifera is the National Flower of India.
• National Vegetable-Pumpkin.
• National Pledge-India is my country and all Indians are my brothers and sisters. I love my country and I am proud of its rich and varied heritage.
• Indian National Moto –Satyameva Jayate.
• National Holidays in India – Republic Day | Independence Day | Gandhi Jayanti & Ambedkar Jayanti.
• According to the Sports Ministry of India in 2012, we presently do not have any sport as “National Game“. But earlier field hockey was the national sport of India.
• There are 17 national symbols of India.

The correct answer is Starch Solution.

Key Points

• The Tyndall effect is the mechanism in which the particles in a colloid scatter the rays of light that are directed at them.
• All colloidal solutions and some very fine suspensions exhibit this effect.
• Therefore, it can be used to confirm if a given solution is a colloid.
• Scattered light intensity depends on the colloidal particle density as well as the incident light frequency.

Important Points

• Examples of the Tyndall effect
• Milk makes of a colloid comprising fat and protein globules. The light is spread when a beam of light is directed at a glass of milk. This is a perfect description of the Tyndall effect.
• The direction of the light becomes evident when a torch is turned on in a foggy atmosphere. The water droplets in the fog are accountable for the scattering of light in this case.
• Opalescent glass has a bluish appearance when viewed from the side. However, orange-colored light emerges when light is shined through the glass​

Additional Information

• Tyndall Effect Responsible for Blue Eye Colour
• The primary difference between blue, brown, and black colored irises is the amount of melanin in one of its layers. The layer in a blue iris has relatively lower amounts of melanin in it when compared to a black iris, making it translucent. When light is incident on this translucent layer, it is scattered due to the Tyndall effect.

The Correct Answer is  डॉ. बी. आर. अम्‍बेडकर.

Key Points

• ऑल इंडिया डिप्रेस्ड क्लास एसोसिएशन ”का आयोजन 8 अगस्त 1930 को नागपुर में डॉ। बी.आर अम्बेडकर द्वारा किया गया था।

Important Points

डॉ। अंबेडकर के बारे में

• डॉ। बी.आर. अंबेडकर का जन्म 14 अप्रैल 1891 को महू, मध्य प्रांत (अब मध्य प्रदेश) में हुआ था।
• उन्होंने बहिष्कृत हितकारिणी सभा की स्थापना (1923) में की।
• उन्होंने मार्च 1927 में हिंदुओं के प्रतिगामी रिवाजों को चुनौती देने के लिए महाद सत्याग्रह का नेतृत्व किया।
• 1932 में उन्होंने महात्मा गांधी के साथ पूना समझौते पर हस्ताक्षर किए।
• उन्होंने तीनों गोलमेज सम्मेलनों में भाग लिया।
• 1936 में, वह एक विधायक (MLA) के रूप में बॉम्बे विधान सभा के लिए चुने गए।
• 1947 में, डॉ। अम्बेडकर ने स्वतंत्र भारत के पहले मंत्रिमंडल में कानून मंत्री बनने के लिए पीएम नेहरू के निमंत्रण को स्वीकार किया।
• 29 अगस्त, 1947 को उन्हें नए संविधान के लिए मसौदा समिति का अध्यक्ष नियुक्त किया गया।
• हिंदू कोड बिल पर मतभेद को लेकर उन्होंने 1951 में कैबिनेट से इस्तीफा दे दिया।
• 1956 में, वह बौद्ध धर्म में परिवर्तित हो गए।
• 6 दिसंबर 1956 को उनका निधन हो गया।

Additional Information

• आजादी से पहले भारत में दलित आंदोलनो की सूची
• भारत में दलित आंदोलन की शुरूव फुले के नेतृत्व में हुई। इन्होने भारतीय समाज में दलितों को एक ऐसा पथ दिखाया था जिसपर आगे चलकर दलित समाज और अन्य समाज के लोगों ने चलकर आत ज्योतिराव गोविंदरादलितों के अधिकारों की कई लड़ाई लडी। यूं तो ज्योतिबा ने भारत में दलित आंदोलनों का सूत्रपात किया था लेकिन इसे समाज की मुख्यधारा से जोड़ने का काम बाबासाहेब भीमराव अम्बेडकर ने किया। दलित शब्द सबसे पहले ज्योतिराव फुले द्वारा दलित वर्गों या हिंदू के अस्पृश्य जातियों के लिए इस्तेमाल किया गया था। महात्मा गांधी ने इन्हें हरिजन कह कर संबोधित किया था जिसका मतलब है 'भगवान् के संतान**'।**
• नायर आंदोलन
• सी.वी रमन पिल्लई, के. राम कृष्ण पिल्लई और एम. पद्मनाभ पिल्लै के नेतृत्व में 1861 में शुरू हुआ।
• सत्यशोधक आंदोलन
• ज्योतिराव फुले के नेतृत्व में 1873 में शुरू हुआ।
• कैवर्तस आंदोलन
• कैवर्तस द्वारा शुरू किया गया
• 1897 में जाति निर्धारिणी सभा की नींव रखी गयी थी।
• 1901 में महिषा समिति की नींव रखी गयी थी।
• जस्टिस पार्टी मूवमेंट
• 1916 में डॉ. टी.एम. नायर, पी. टायगाराजा चेट्टी और सी एन मुदलायर के नेतृत्व में शुरू हुआ था।
• स्व-सम्मान आंदोलन
• 1925 में ई.वी रामास्वामी नायक या पेरियार के नेतृत्व में शुरू हुआ था।
• जाति व्यवस्था और पक्षपातपूर्ण दृष्टिकोण के खिलाफ ब्राह्मणों के खिलाफ किया गया आंदोलन था।
• कुड़ी अरासु पत्रिका 1910 में पेरियार द्वारा शुरू किया गया था।
• वंचित वर्ग आंदोलन (महार आंदोलन)
• 1924 में बी.आर अंबेडकर के नेतृत्व में शुरू हुआ था।
• कांग्रेस हरिजन आंदोलन
• निम्न और पिछड़े वर्गों की सामाजिक स्थिति को ऊपर उठाने के लिए किया गया आंदोलन था।
• 1932 में अखिल भारतीय अश्पृश्यता विरोधी संगठन की स्थापना की गयी थी।
• महात्मा गांधी ने 1933 में हरिजन नामक साप्ताहिक की शुरुवात की थी।

The Correct Answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Khasi, the majority tribe of Meghalaya, celebrates their indigenous festivals with traditional music and merry-making. Most of their music has sounds of nature like that of a waterfall, bird calls, insect sounds, hum of bees, and many more.
• Niam Khasi, the pre-Christian Khasi religion is monotheistic in nature. There are no fixed places of worship like a church, temple, or mosque. According to Niam Khasi, each element of nature has a god in it.
• No particular part can be held holier than the other**. Khasi people’s closeness to natur**e is evident by their belief that man should not desecrate mother nature by their actions.
• There are no fixed days of worship like Friday in Muslims or Sunday in Christians, rather a Khasi can worship in one’s own house or out in the open because God resides in every element of nature.
• After the arrival of Christianity through Welsh missionaries, almost 85% of Khasi people have adopted Christianity, but a sizeable minority still practices Niam Khasi.
• Bihula is a prominent festival of eastern Bihar and is especially famous in the district of Bhagalpur.
• During the festival, observed every August, devotees pray to Goddess Mansa for the welfare of their families.
• The festival patronizes the brilliant Manjusha art which stands on par with the other well-known folk arts of Bihar like the Jadopetiya of Santhal Parganas, and the Madhubani paintings of Mithilanchal.

Important Points

• State- Specific Festivals of India

The Correct Option is Only 1.

Key Points

• Garia Dance is performed by the Tripuri youths, especially during Garia Puja. The festival to celebrate the sowing of new crops and prayer for a good harvest during the month of Vaisakha. In the western calendar, the dancing occurs after the middle of April. Jhum (Shifting cultivation) has been the main cultural activity of the people in the hills. It reflects in their dances and songs as the focus of these have not only been on the rituals of Garia worship but also the different stages of Jhum cultivation.

Important Points

• At present officially there are 9 classical dances in India.
• Dance forms & their States
• Bharatanatyam, from Tamil Nadu.
• Kathak, from Uttar Pradesh.
• Kathakali, from Kerala.
• Kuchipudi, from Andhra Pradesh.
• Odissi, from Odisha.
• Sattriya, from Assam.
• Manipuri, from Manipur.
• Mohiniyattam, from Kerala.
• Chhau dance of Eastern India - Orissa, Jharkhand, and West Bengal

Additional Information

• The Indian States and Folk Dances
• Andhra Pradesh- Kuchipudi, Bhamakalpam, Lambadi, Dhimsa, Kolattam, Butta Bommalu.
• Assam- Bihu, Bichhua, Natpuja, Maharas, Kaligopal, Bagurumba, Naga dance, Khel Gopal, Tabal Chongli, Canoe, Jhumura Hobjanai
• Bihar- Jata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, Panwariya, Sama Chakwa, Bidesia.
• Gujarat- Garba, Dandiya Ras, Tippani Juriun, Bhavai.
• Haryana- Jhumar, Phag, Daph, Dhamal, Loor, Gugga, Khor, Gagor.
• Himachal Pradesh- Jhora, Jhali, Chharhi, Dhaman, Chhapeli, Mahasu, Nati, Dangi.
• Jammu and Kashmir- Rauf, Hikat, Mandjas, Kud Dandi Nach, Damali.
• Karnataka- Yakshagan, Huttari, Suggi, Kunitha, Karga, Lambi.
• Kerala- Kathakali (Classical), Ottamthullal, Mohiniattam, Kaikottikali.
• Maharashtra- Lavani, Nakata, Koli, Lezim, Gafa, Dahikala Dasavtar or Bohada.
• Odisha- Odissi (Classical), Savari, Ghumara, Painka, Munari, Chhau.
• West Bengal- Kathi, Gambhira, Dhali, Jatra, Baul, Marasia, Mahal, Keertan.
• Punjab- Bhangra, Giddha, Daff, Dhaman, Bhand, Naqual.
• Rajasthan- Ghumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Jhulan Leela, Jhuma, Suisini, Ghapal, Kalbeliya.
• Tamil Nadu- Bharatanatyam, Kumi, Kolattam, Kavadi.
• Uttar Pradesh- Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri, Jhora, Chappeli, Jaita.
• Uttarakhand- Garhwali, Kumayuni, Kajari, Jhora, Raslila, Chappeli.
• Goa- Tarangamel, Koli, Dekhni, Fugdi, Shigmo, Ghode, Modni, Samayi nrutya, Jagar, Ranmale, Gonph, Tonnya mell.
• Madhya Pradesh Jawara, Matki, Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati, Grida Dance, Selalarki, Selabhadoni, Maanch.
• Chhattisgarh Gaur Maria, Panthi, Raut Nacha, Pandwani, Vedamati, Kapalik, Bharthari Charit, Chandaini.
• Jharkhand Alkap, Karma Munda, Agni, Jhumar, Janani Jhumar, Mardana Jhumar, Paika, Phagua,Hunta Dance, Mundari Dance, Sarhul, Barao, Jhitka, Danga, Domkach, Ghora Naach.
• Arunachal Pradesh Buiya, Chalo, Wancho, Pasi Kongki, Ponung, Popir, Bardo Chham.
• Manipur Dol Cholam, Thang Ta, Lai Haraoba, Pung Cholom, Khamba Thaibi, Nupa Dance, Raslila, Khubak Ishei, Lhou  Sha.
• Meghalaya Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem, Nongkrem, Laho.
• Mizoram Cheraw Dance, Khuallam, Chailam, Sawlakin, Chawnglaizawn, Zangtalam, Par Lam, Sarlamkai/Solakia, Tlanglam.
• Nagaland Rangma, Bamboo Dance, Zeliang, Nsuirolians, Gethinglim, Temangnetin, Hetaleulee.
• Tripura Hojagiri.
• Sikkim Chu Faat Dance, Sikmari, Singhi Chaam or the Snow Lion Dance, Yak Chaam, Denzong Gnenha, Tashi Yangku Dance, Khukuri Naach, Chutkey Naach, Maruni Dance.

Given 

Cost price = 10% of selling price 

Formula used 

Profit% = (profit/cp) × 100 

Calculation

Cost price = (10/100) × selling price 

Cost price : Selling price = 1 : 10 

Profit = 10x - x = 9x 

Profit% = (9x/x) × = 900% 

∴ The profit percent is 900%

Given 

Total sum = Rs 4000 

Formula Used 

Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

Calculation 

Let the sum at 8% and 6% be x and (4000 -x) respectively 

Total interest = Interest from first part + interest from 2nd part

⇒ 280 = (x × 8 × 1)/100 + [(4000 - x) × 6 × 1/100]

⇒ 280 = 8x/100 - 6x/100 + 240 

⇒ 40 = 2x/100

⇒ x = 2000

So, Sum at 6% = 4000 - 2000 = Rs 2000 

∴ Sum is lent at 6% is Rs 2000

Given 

Principal = Rs 22000

Rate = 30% 

Formula Used 

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × time)/100

Amount = Principal + SI

Calculation 

Simple Interest = 22000 × 30 × 5/100 

⇒ Rs 33000 

Amount = 22000 + 33000 = Rs 55000 

∴ The total amount after 5 years is Rs 55000

Formula used 

Average = n/2 + 1