Previous Year Paper

DSSSB Assistant Superintendent Official Paper (Held On: 16 Jun, 2019 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

200 questions120 minutes
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General intelligence and Reasoning Ability 1 (20 questions)

Question 1

Identify the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Mirror image of the given figure is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 2

Five buses for five different cities Agra, Kanpur, Lucknow, Meerut and Varanasi depart from five bus terminals T-1 to T-5 but not necessarily in the same order. The Lucknow bus departs from T-2. The Varanasi bus does not depart from T-1 or T-4. The Meerut bus goes either from T-1 or T-5. The Agra bus does not leave from T-3 or T-1. The Kanpur bus leaves from T- 4. From which terminal does the bus for Agra leave?

  1. AOption (a)

    T-3 or T-5

  2. BOption (b)

    T-3

  3. COption (c)

    T-1

  4. DOption (d)

    T-5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

T-5

Why this answer is correct

Five buses for five different cities Agra, Kanpur, Lucknow, Meerut and Varanasi depart from five bus terminals T-1 to T-5 but not necessarily in the same order.

1. The Lucknow bus departs from T-2.  2. The Kanpur bus leaves from T- 4. 3. The Varanasi bus does not depart from T-1 or T-4. 4. The Meerut bus goes either from T-1 or T-5.  5. The Agra bus does not leave from T-3 or T-1. 

CityTerminal
AgraT-5
KanpurT-4
VaranasiT-3
LucknowT-2
MeerutT-1
<br>

From terminal T-5 the bus for Agra leave.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 3

Four figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are given below. Three of the given figures are similar in a certain manner while one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the other figures.

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3

Why this answer is correct

Here,

In figure 1, 2 and 4, shaded area having horizontal or vertical lines.

While,

In figure 3, shaded are having both horizontal and vertical line together crossing each other.

Hence, figure 3 is different from other.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 4

Identify the correct water image of the combination given below.​

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Water image of given combination,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 5

Select the word that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Court : Judgment :: Class : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Education

  2. BOption (b)

    College

  3. COption (c)

    School

  4. DOption (d)

    Teacher

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Education

Why this answer is correct

Court : Judgment 

  • A Court is the place where legal proceedings occur, and its ultimate product or outcome is a Judgment.

Similarly,

  • A Class is the place where teaching and learning occur, and its ultimate product or outcome is Education.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 6

Pick the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cuba

  2. BOption (b)

    Oslo

  3. COption (c)

    Kyat

  4. DOption (d)

    Fiji

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kyat

Why this answer is correct

Here,

  • Cuba is a country (in the Caribbean).
  • Fiji is a country (in Oceania).
  • Kyat is a currency (used in Myanmar).
  • Oslo is a city (the capital of Norway).

The other three are either a country or a city, while Kyat is currency.

Therefore, Kyat is odd from all.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 7

Select the term that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

BDF: 48:: FHJ:?

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    180

  3. COption (c)

    240

  4. DOption (d)

    480

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

480

Why this answer is correct

BDF: 48

B = 2

D = 4

F = 6

2 × 4 × 6 = 48

Similarly,

FHJ:?

F = 6

H = 8

J = 10

6 × 8 × 10 = 480

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 8

In the Venn diagram given below, the square represents 'boys', the circle represents 'tall persons", the pentagon represents 'North Indians and the rectangle represents 'food lovers". The numbers given in the diagram represents the number of persons of that particular category.

How many North Indian boys are tall persons but are NOT food lovers?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12

Why this answer is correct

North Indian boys are tall persons but are NOT food lovers

There are 12 North Indian boys are tall persons but are NOT food lovers.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 9

Vilas starts walking from his home and walks 30 m towards south; from there he turns left and walks 40 m. After that, he turns right and walks 45 m. Then, he turns left and walks 30 m. Then, he turns left and walks 50 m. Then, he finally turns left and walks 70 m. How far is he now from his home and in which direction with reference to his home?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 m, North

  2. BOption (b)

    25 m, South

  3. COption (c)

    5 m, North

  4. DOption (d)

    5 m, South

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25 m, South

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

He is in South direction with reference to his home.

Distance = (30 + 45) - 50 = 25 km

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 10

Select the number that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

8:128:10:?

  1. AOption (a)

    200

  2. BOption (b)

    128

  3. COption (c)

    228

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

200

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is,

8:128

82 × 2 = 64 × 2 = 128

Similarly,

10:?

(10)2 × 2 = 100 × 2 = 200

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 11

Which of the following option figures will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern of the figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The figure which complete the pattern of the figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 12

Six friends Gopal, Sheela, Reena, Senthil, Hina and Gaurav are standing in a row. There are two persons between Sheela and Hina. Reena is between Hina and Senthil. Only one person is standing before Gopal. Gaurav is between Gopal and Hina, who is third from the back end of the row. Which two persons are standing between Sheela and Hina?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gaurav and Senthil

  2. BOption (b)

    Senthil and Reena

  3. COption (c)

    Gopal and Reena

  4. DOption (d)

    Gopal and Gaurav

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gopal and Gaurav

Why this answer is correct

Six friends Gopal, Sheela, Reena, Senthil, Hina and Gaurav are standing in a row.

  1. Only one person is standing before Gopal.  
  2. Gaurav is between Gopal and Hina, who is third from the back end of the row. 3. There are two persons between Sheela and Hina.
  3. Reena is between Hina and Senthil. 

Gopal and Gaurav standing between Sheela and Hina.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 13

If the following figure is folded to form a cube, which number will appear on the face opposite the number "6"?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

When we see the opposite pairs,

Opposite pair:

3 ↔ 4

5 ↔ 6

2 ↔ 1

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 14

Select the letter cluster that is related to the third letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster.

DFH: WUS: KMO:?

  1. AOption (a)

    PNO

  2. BOption (b)

    HJL

  3. COption (c)

    WUT

  4. DOption (d)

    PNL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PNL

Why this answer is correct

<br> <br>

DFH: WUS

Similarly,

KMO:?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 15

At the time of sunrise, Lokesh is sitting facing a pole. If the shadow of the pole falls to his right, then which direction is Lokesh facing?

  1. AOption (a)

    South

  2. BOption (b)

    West

  3. COption (c)

    North

  4. DOption (d)

    East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

South

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Lokesh is facing South Direction.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 16

Pick the number that is different than the rest.

  1. AOption (a)

    29

  2. BOption (b)

    31

  3. COption (c)

    37

  4. DOption (d)

    33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

33

Why this answer is correct

Here, 

29, 31 and 37 are prime numbers.

While,

33 is a composite number.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 17

Three different positions of the same dice are shown below. Which number is on the face opposite to the face showing the number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4

Why this answer is correct

In the given figure,

In dice I and II, 2 is common.

Now, rotating clockwise from common side,

3 is opposite to 4

5 is opposite to 6.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 18

Select the figure that is related to the third figure in the same way as the second figure is related to the first figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Here, 

2nd figure is mirror image of 1st figure.

Similarly, 4th figure should be a mirror image of 3rd figure.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 19

Given here is a piece of transparent paper with some patterns on it. How will the sheet appear when it is folded along the dotted line?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The sheet appear when it is folded along the dotted line 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 20

Identify the odd triad from among the given number triads.

  1. AOption (a)

    2, 7,53

  2. BOption (b)

    4, 6, 52

  3. COption (c)

    3, 5, 34

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 4,18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2, 4,18

Why this answer is correct

Logic: (First number)2 + (Second number)2 = Third number

(1): 2, 7,53

22 + 72 = 4 + 49 = 53

(2): 4, 6, 50

42 + 62 = 16 + 36 = 52

(3): 3, 5, 34

32 + 52 = 9 + 25 = 34

(4): 2, 4,18

22 + 42 = 4 + 16 = 20 ≠ 18

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

General intelligence and Reasoning Ability 2 (20 questions)

Question 21

Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 22

In a code language, POSSIBLE is coded as 1615191992125. How would SERVICE be coded in the same language?

  1. AOption (a)

    1951822935

  2. BOption (b)

    1951822835

  3. COption (c)

    1951821935

  4. DOption (d)

    1951722935

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1951822935

Why this answer is correct

<br> <br>

POSSIBLE is coded as 1615191992125.

Similarly,

SERVICE be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 23

The following are the criteria set by a company for the post of Accounts Manager.

  1. The candidate must have a Master of Commerce (M.Com) degree in Accountancy.
  2. The candidate must have obtained more than 65% marks in the selection test and 70% marks in the interview.
  3. The age of candidate should not be less than 30 years and not more than 35 years as on I April 2019.
  4. The candidate must have at least five years work experience as an Accountant.

(a) If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 1 as given above, but has completed a Master of International Business (MIB) course, she/he must be sent to the Head (Accounts) for further interview.

(b) If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 2, but has more than six years of work experience as an Accountant, then the candidate must be sent to the Senior Accounts Manager for further interview.

The details of a candidate are given below. You have to take one of the following decisions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above. Do not assume anything other than the information provided in the question.

Rachana has completed an MIB degree with 54%. She has four years experience working as an Accountant. She was born on 2 June 1986. She obtained 66% marks in the written test and 70% marks in the interview.

  1. AOption (a)

    The candidate is to be sent to the Head (Accounts) for further interview.

  2. BOption (b)

    The candidate is to be selected.

  3. COption (c)

    The candidate is to be rejected.

  4. DOption (d)

    The candidate is to be sent to the Senior Accounts Manager for further interview.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The candidate is to be rejected.

Why this answer is correct

The criteria set by a company for the post of Accounts Manager.

S. No.Eligibility CriteriaFulfillment
1The candidate must have a Master of Commerce (M.Com) degree in Accountancy.Not Applicable
2The candidate must have obtained more than 65% marks in the selection test and 70% marks in the interview.Yes, She obtained 66% marks in the written test and 70% marks in the interview.
3The age of candidate should not be less than 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 1 April 2019.Yes, She was born on 2 June 1986.
4The candidate must have at least five years work experience as an Accountant.Not Applicable
(a)If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 1 as given above, but has completed a Master of International Business (MIB) course, she/he must be sent to the Head (Accounts) for further interview.Not applicable
(b)If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 2, but has more than six years of work experience as an Accountant, then the candidate must be sent to the Senior Accounts Manager for further interview.Not Applicable
<br>

Thus, Rachana is not applicable for the post of Accounts Manager.

The candidate is to be rejected.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 24

Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the information given in the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to real-world knowledge, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

  1. All officers are singers.
  2. Some singers are musicians.

Conclusions:

I. Some singers are officers.

II. No singer is an officer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Either conclusion I or II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion I follows

Why this answer is correct

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some singers are officers → Follow (All officers are singers. so, some singers are officers is definitely follow).

<br>

II. No singer is an officer → Does not follow (All officers are singers. so, it is not follow).

Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 25

Read the given information and answer the question that follows.

A + B means 'A is the father of B'

A - B means 'A is the husband of B'

A x B means 'A is the daughter of B'

A ÷ B means 'A is the sister of B'

If P + M ÷ Q × N × T - U, then how is P related to N?

  1. AOption (a)

    Husband

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother

  3. COption (c)

    Son

  4. DOption (d)

    Uncle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Husband

Why this answer is correct

A is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningFatherHusbandDaughterSister
of B

Given Expression:  P + M ÷ Q × N × T - U

P is Father of M, M is Sister of Q, Q is daughter of N, N is daughter of T and T is husband of U.

P is husband of N.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 26

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the given set of classes.

Men, Gynaecologist, Doctor

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between Men, Gynaecologist, Doctor is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 27

Jiva is the daughter of Kartik. Kartik has two sons. Adah is the daughter of Mridula, who is the wife of Kartik's son. Veenu is Prem's mother. Prem is the brother of Ashok, who is the father of Adah. How is Adah related to Veenu?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Grand-daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Grand-daughter

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Adah is Granddaughter of Veenu.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 28

Six symbol clusters are given below, two of which are the same. Find the two clusters that are exactly the same.

(A) &%$#%$%#&%$

(B) &%$&%$@#&%$

(C) &%@%@\%@#&%$

(D) &%$#%$@#%\%

(E) &%$#%$@#&%$

(F) &%$#%$@#&%$

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    A and D

  3. COption (c)

    C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    E and F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E and F

Why this answer is correct

Given symbols:

(A) &%$#%$%#&%$

(B) &%$&%$@#&%$

(C) &%@%@\%@#&%$

(D) &%$#%$@#%\%

(E) &%$#%$@#&%$

(F) &%$#%$@#&%$

(A)&%$#%$%#&%$
(B)&%$&%$@#&%$
(C)&%$@%$@#&%$
(D)&%$#%$@#$%$
(E)&%$#%$@#&%$
(F)&%$#%$@#&%$
<br>

Here E and F are exactly same.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 29

Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Assuming the information given in the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to real-world knowledge, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

  1. All girls are experts.
  2. Some experts are tourists.
  3. All tourists are foreigners.

Conclusions:

I. Some foreigners are experts.

II. Some foreigners are girls.

III. No foreigner is a girl.

IV. All tourists are experts.

  1. AOption (a)

    Conclusion I, II and IV follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Conclusion IV and either II or III follows

  3. COption (c)

    Conclusion I and either II or III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    All conclusions follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Conclusion I and either II or III follows

Why this answer is correct

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

<br>

I. Some foreigners are experts → Follow (Some tourists are expert and all tourists are foreigners. so, some foreigners are definitely expert).

<br>

II. Some foreigners are girls → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between foreigners and girls. so, it is possible not definite).

III. No foreigner is a girl → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between foreigners and girls. so, it is possible not definite).

IV. All tourists are experts → Does not follow (Some experts are tourists. All tourists are expert possible not definite)

Conclusion I and either II or III follows

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 30

Which of the addresses given as options is exactly the same as the address given below?

P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan

House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise

Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025

  1. AOption (a)

    P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan

    House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise

    Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025

  2. BOption (b)

    P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan

    House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise

    Kings Square, Nemasis Road,

    Thiruchirapalli - 562 025

  3. COption (c)

    P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan

    House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise

    Kings Square, Nemesis Road,

    Thiruchirapali - 562 025

  4. DOption (d)

    P Narsinh Kumar Raghawan

    House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise

    Kings Square, Nemesis Road,

    Thiruchirapalli - 562 025

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan

House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise

Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

OptionsOriginal AddressDifference
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
Exactly Same
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemasis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
“Nemasis” Spelling is different. there is"a" instead of "e".
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapali - 562 025
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
“Thiruchirapali” Spelling is different.
P Narsinh Kumar Raghawan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
P Narsinh Kumar Raghavan
House no. 5432/1, Silver Paradise
Kings Square, Nemesis Road, Thiruchirapalli - 562 025
“Raghawan” Spelling is different. there is "w" instead of "v".
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 31

The following are the criteria set by a company for the post of Accounts Manager.

  1. The candidate must have a Master of Commerce (M.Com) degree in Accountancy.
  2. The candidate must have obtained more than 65% marks in the selection test and 70% marks in the interview.
  3. The age of candidate should not be less than 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 1 April 2019.
  4. The candidate must have at least five years work experience as an Accountant.

(a) If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 1 as given above, but has completed a Master of International Business (MIB) course, she/he must be sent to the Head (Accounts) for further interview.

(b) If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 2, but has more than six years of work experience as an Accountant, then the candidate must be sent to the Senior Accounts Manager for further interview:

The details of a candidate are given below. You have to take one of the following decisions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above. Do not assume anything other than the information provided in the question.

Manav has completed his M.Com degree in Accountancy. He also has an MIB degree. He has five years' experience working as an Accountant. He was born on 13 May 1987. He obtained 66% marks in the written test and 70% marks in the interview.

  1. AOption (a)

    The candidate is to be rejected.

  2. BOption (b)

    The candidate is to be sent to the Head (Accounts) for further interview.

  3. COption (c)

    The candidate is to be sent to the Senior Accounts Manager for further interview.

  4. DOption (d)

    The candidate is to be selected.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The candidate is to be selected.

Why this answer is correct

The criteria set by a company for the post of Accounts Manager.

S. No.Eligibility CriteriaFulfillment
1The candidate must have a Master of Commerce (M.Com) degree in Accountancy.Yes, Manav has completed his M.Com degree in Accountancy.
2The candidate must have obtained more than 65% marks in the selection test and 70% marks in the interview.Yes, He obtained 66% marks in the written test and 70% marks in the interview.
3The age of candidate should not be less than 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 1 April 2019.Yes, He was born on 13 May 1987.
4The candidate must have at least five years work experience as an Accountant.Yes,  He has five years experience working as an Accountant.
(a)If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 1 as given above, but has completed a Master of International Business (MIB) course, she/he must be sent to the Head (Accounts) for further interview.Not applicable
(b)If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except criteria no. 2, but has more than six years of work experience as an Accountant, then the candidate must be sent to the Senior Accounts Manager for further interview.Not Applicable
<br>

Thus, Manav is applicable for the post of Accounts Manager.

The candidate is to be selected.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Question 32

Six numbers are given below, two of which are the same. Find the two numbers that are the same.

(A) 254879381     (B) 254879831

(C) 254897381     (D) 254897381

(E) 254897831     (F) 258497381

  1. AOption (a)

    C and D

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B

  3. COption (c)

    C and E

  4. DOption (d)

    E and F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C and D

Why this answer is correct

Given symbols:

(A) 254879381     (B) 254879831

(C) 254897381     (D) 254897381

(E) 254897831     (F) 258497381

(A)254879381
(C)254897381
(E)254897831
(B)254879831
(D)254897381
(F)258497381
<br>

C and D are same.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Question 33

There are five teachers named A, B, C, D and E. Each of them teaches one of five different subjects ie. Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and Mathematics. C does not teach Botany, Chemistry or Physics. A does not teach Botany or Zoology. Mathematics is taught by B. E does not teach Chemistry or Botany. Who teaches Physics?

  1. AOption (a)

    A or C

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    A or E

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

E

Why this answer is correct

There are five teachers named A, B, C, D and E. Each of them teaches one of five different subjects ie. Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and Mathematics.

  1. Mathematics is taught by B. 2. C does not teach Botany, Chemistry or Physics.

Which means C teach Zoology

  1. A does not teach Botany or Zoology.
  2. E does not teach Chemistry or Botany. 
TeacherSubject
AChemistry
BMathematics
CZoology
DBotany
EPhysics
<br>

E teaches physics.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 34

Select the letter cluster that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series.

FNV, CJQ, ZFL, ?, TXB

  1. AOption (a)

    VBG

  2. BOption (b)

    WBG

  3. COption (c)

    WCH

  4. DOption (d)

    WCG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

WBG

Why this answer is correct

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 35

If in a code language, MAGNIFICENT is written as JOHBNFUOFDJ. How would PROMISCUITY be written in the same language?

  1. AOption (a)

    JNSPQIZUJVD

  2. BOption (b)

    JNPSQJAUJVD

  3. COption (c)

    JNPSQSZUJVD

  4. DOption (d)

    JNPSQIJUZVD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

JNPSQSZUJVD

Why this answer is correct

<br> <br>

MAGNIFICENT is written as JOHBNFUOFDJ.

Similarly,

PROMISCUITY be written in the same language as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 36

How many triangles are present in the figure given below?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

22

Why this answer is correct

Triangles in the given figure,

There are 22 triangles present in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 37

Select the number that will come next in the following series.

40, 20, 20, 30, 60, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    130

  2. BOption (b)

    140

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    110

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

150

Why this answer is correct

Given series: 40, 20, 20, 30, 60, ?

40 × 0.5 = 20

20 × 1 = 20

20 × 1.5 = 30

30 × 2 = 60

60 × 2.5 = 150

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Question 38

The total of three numbers is 120. The second number is two times the first number. The third number is three times the first number. What is the third number?

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    80

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60

Why this answer is correct

Lets assume first number = a

Second number = 2a

Third number = 3a

The total of three numbers is 120. 

a + 2a + 3a = 120

6a = 120

a = 20

Second number = 2 × 20 = 40

Third number = 3 × 20 = 60 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 39

Select the number that will come next in the following series.

15, 19, 28, 44, 69, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    103

  2. BOption (b)

    105

  3. COption (c)

    100

  4. DOption (d)

    99

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

105

Why this answer is correct

Given series: 15, 19, 28, 44, 69, ?

15 + 22 = 15 + 4 = 19

19 + 32 = 19 + 9 = 28

28 + 42 = 28 + 16 = 44

44 + 52 = 44 + 25 = 69

69 + 62 = 69 + 36 = 105

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Question 40

There are five boxes: A, B, C, D and E. Box B is twice as heavy as box A. Box C is 20 kg heavier than box E. Box D is one-and-a-half times as heavy as box E, and box C is four times as heavy as box A. The weight of box E is 20 kg. Which of the boxes is the heaviest of them all and what is its weight?

  1. AOption (a)

    D, 40 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    D, 60 kg

  3. COption (c)

    C, 40 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    C, 60 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C, 40 kg

Why this answer is correct

There are five boxes: A, B, C, D and E. 

Box B is twice as heavy as box A. 

B = 2A

Box C is 20 kg heavier than box E. 

C = 20 + E

Box D is one-and-a-half times as heavy as box E.

D = 1.5 E

Box C is four times as heavy as box A.

C = 4A

The weight of box E is 20 kg.

Now,

Weight of C = 20 + 20 = 40 Kg

Weight of D = 1.5 × 20 = 30 

Weight of A = C/4 = 40 /4 = 10 Kg

Weight of B = 2 × 10 = 20 Kg

C is the heaviest among the all and its weight is 40 Kg.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

General Awareness 1 (20 questions)

Question 41

In the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2019 ranking, name the college that got the top ranking. This college completes a hat-trick in #1 ranking in 2019.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hindu College, Delhi University

  2. BOption (b)

    Lady Sri Ram College for Women, Delhi University

  3. COption (c)

    Miranda House, Delhi University

  4. DOption (d)

    St Stephens College, Delhi University

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Miranda House, Delhi University

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Miranda House, Delhi University.

Key Points

  • In the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2019, Miranda House, Delhi University, achieved the top rank in the college category.
  • This marked the third consecutive year of Miranda House securing the #1 position in the NIRF rankings, demonstrating its consistent academic excellence.
  • The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ranks institutions based on parameters such as teaching, learning, resources, research, graduation outcomes, outreach, and inclusivity.
  • Miranda House is renowned for its emphasis on academic rigor, co-curricular development, and providing a vibrant campus environment for its students.
  • Established in 1948, Miranda House has been one of the premier institutions under the University of Delhi, offering undergraduate and postgraduate programs in science, arts, and humanities.

Additional Information

  • Hindu College, Delhi University
  • Hindu College is one of the oldest and most prestigious colleges in India, established in 1899.
  • The college is known for its excellence in science, humanities, and commerce streams, with a strong focus on extracurricular activities.
  • It ranked among the top colleges in NIRF rankings consistently but did not secure the top spot in 2019.
  • Lady Shri Ram College for Women, Delhi University
  • Established in 1956, Lady Shri Ram College (LSR) is a premier women's institution under Delhi University.
  • It is famous for its programs in arts, commerce, and social sciences and is consistently ranked among the top colleges for women in India.
  • While LSR has performed exceptionally in various rankings, it was ranked below Miranda House in the NIRF 2019 rankings.
  • St. Stephen’s College, Delhi University
  • St. Stephen’s College, founded in 1881, is one of the most prestigious colleges under Delhi University, known for its academic excellence and heritage.
  • It offers undergraduate and postgraduate programs in science, humanities, and social sciences.
  • Despite its high reputation, St. Stephen’s ranked below Miranda House in the NIRF 2019 rankings.

Question 42

Of the following four pairs of Bollywood music directors, one pair is blood brothers. Name this sibling pair.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kalyanji-Anandji

  2. BOption (b)

    Shankar-Jaikishan

  3. COption (c)

    Nadeem- Shravana

  4. DOption (d)

    Laxmikant-Pyarelal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kalyanji-Anandji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kalyanji-Anandji.

Key Points

  • Kalyanji-Anandji were a renowned music director duo in Bollywood who were real-life blood brothers.
  • Kalyanji Virji Shah and Anandji Virji Shah were born in Gujarat, India, and became famous for their unique and melodious compositions in Hindi cinema.
  • They started their musical journey in the late 1950s and gained widespread popularity during the 1960s and 1970s.
  • The duo is credited with iconic works in movies such as Don (1978), Safar (1970), and Qurbani (1980), among others.
  • In 1992, they received the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, for their contribution to Indian music.

Additional Information

  • Shankar-Jaikishan
  • This legendary music director duo, comprising Shankar Singh Raghuvanshi and Jaikishan Dayabhai Panchal, were not blood-related but were close collaborators.
  • They dominated the Bollywood music scene in the 1950s and 1960s, producing evergreen songs in movies like Sangam (1964) and Junglee (1961).
  • Their style combined classical Indian music with Western influences, creating a unique sound.
  • Nadeem-Shravan
  • Nadeem Akhtar Saifi and Shravan Kumar Rathod were a popular music composer duo in the 1990s but were not siblings.
  • They are known for their romantic soundtracks in movies like Aashiqui (1990), Saajan (1991), and Raja Hindustani (1996).
  • Their music often featured soulful melodies and heartfelt lyrics.
  • Laxmikant-Pyarelal
  • Laxmikant Shantaram Kudalkar and Pyarelal Ramprasad Sharma formed another prominent music composer duo but were not related by blood.
  • They worked together on over 500 films, creating timeless tracks for movies like Bobby (1973) and Amar Akbar Anthony (1977).
  • Their contribution to Bollywood music remains unparalleled, earning them multiple Filmfare awards.

Question 43

Which of the following High Court Bench Court operates from Port Blair and is the highest judiciary body of Andaman and Nicobar?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madras High Court

  2. BOption (b)

    Telangana High Court

  3. COption (c)

    Calcutta High Court

  4. DOption (d)

    Patna High Court

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Calcutta High Court

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calcutta High Court.

Key Points

  • The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India, established in 1862 under the Indian High Courts Act of 1861.
  • The High Court operates a circuit bench in Port Blair, which serves as the highest judicial authority for the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • The jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court extends over the state of West Bengal and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • The Port Blair bench addresses cases from the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, ensuring justice for the residents of this remote territory.
  • The Chief Justice and other judges of the Calcutta High Court are appointed by the President of India under Article 217 of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Madras High Court
  • It is one of the oldest High Courts in India, established in 1862 along with the Bombay and Calcutta High Courts.
  • The Madras High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
  • It is known for its architectural grandeur and is one of the largest judicial complexes in the world.
  • Telangana High Court
  • The Telangana High Court was established on 1 January 2019 following the bifurcation of the Andhra Pradesh High Court.
  • It serves as the highest judicial authority for the state of Telangana.
  • The court is located in Hyderabad and addresses cases under its jurisdiction within the state.
  • Patna High Court
  • The Patna High Court was established on 3 February 1916 and serves as the High Court for the state of Bihar.
  • It is known for its historical significance and has played a critical role in shaping the legal framework of the state.
  • The Patna High Court has jurisdiction over civil, criminal, and constitutional cases arising within Bihar.

Question 44

John Dalton, the pioneering atomic theory scientist, was born in which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    England

  2. BOption (b)

    Netherlands

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    Austria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

England

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

  • John Dalton was born on September 6, 1766, in Eaglesfield, a small village in Cumberland, England.
  • He is renowned for introducing the Atomic Theory to modern chemistry, which stated that all matter is composed of indivisible atoms.
  • Dalton's work laid the foundation for the law of multiple proportions, which later became a cornerstone of chemical sciences.
  • He also conducted significant research in meteorology and color blindness, the latter of which is sometimes referred to as Daltonism in his honor.
  • Dalton was a member of the Royal Society and received several awards for his contributions to science, including the Royal Medal in 1826.

Additional Information

  • Netherlands
  • The Netherlands has a rich scientific history, with notable figures like Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, the "Father of Microbiology," who developed powerful microscopes and was the first to observe microorganisms.
  • Christiaan Huygens, another Dutch scientist, made significant contributions to physics, particularly in wave optics and the invention of the pendulum clock.
  • France
  • France is home to prominent scientists like Antoine Lavoisier, regarded as the "Father of Modern Chemistry," who established the law of conservation of mass.
  • Marie Curie, a French-Polish scientist, was a pioneer in the field of radioactivity and the first woman to win a Nobel Prize.
  • Austria
  • Austria has produced renowned scientists like Erwin Schrödinger, one of the fathers of quantum mechanics, known for his Schrödinger equation and thought experiment "Schrödinger's cat."
  • Gregor Mendel, an Austrian scientist, is known as the "Father of Genetics" for his groundbreaking experiments on pea plants that laid the foundation for modern genetics.
  • Atomic Theory
  • John Dalton's atomic theory proposed that atoms are indivisible particles, each element is made of identical atoms, and chemical reactions involve the rearrangement of these atoms.
  • Modern atomic theory has refined Dalton's ideas, incorporating concepts like subatomic particles (protons, neutrons, and electrons) and quantum mechanics.

Question 45

The city of Strasbourg is the official seat of the European Parliament. Strasbourg is located in which European country?

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Austria

  3. COption (c)

    Switzerland

  4. DOption (d)

    Belgium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

France

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

  • Strasbourg is located in the eastern part of France, near its border with Germany, in the historical region of Alsace.
  • It is renowned as the official seat of the European Parliament, one of the key institutions of the European Union (EU).
  • The city hosts important European institutions like the European Court of Human Rights and the Council of Europe.
  • Strasbourg is famous for its architectural landmarks such as the Strasbourg Cathedral, a Gothic masterpiece that dates back to 1015.
  • The city embodies a mix of French and German heritage due to its strategic geographical location and history.

Additional Information

  • Austria:
  • Austria is a landlocked country in Central Europe, known for its cultural heritage, music, and alpine landscapes.
  • Vienna, the capital city, is famous for being a center of classical music and home to composers like Mozart and Beethoven.
  • Austria is not the seat of the European Parliament but is a member of the European Union.
  • Switzerland:
  • Switzerland is a landlocked country in Europe known for its neutrality, banking sector, and beautiful mountainous regions like the Alps.
  • It is not a member of the European Union and does not host the European Parliament.
  • Important international organizations like the World Health Organization (WHO) and the International Red Cross are headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Belgium:
  • Belgium is a founding member of the European Union and is home to Brussels, the de facto capital of the EU.
  • Brussels hosts key EU institutions, including the European Commission and the European Council, but it is not the seat of the European Parliament.
  • The city of Bruges, known for its medieval architecture, attracts millions of tourists annually.

Question 46

The condition called leucoderma affects which of these human body parts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Blood

  2. BOption (b)

    Nervous system

  3. COption (c)

    Heart

  4. DOption (d)

    Skin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Skin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Skin.

Key Points

  • Leucoderma, also known as vitiligo, is a skin condition characterized by the loss of pigmentation, leading to white patches appearing on the skin.
  • The condition occurs due to the destruction or malfunction of melanocytes, the cells responsible for producing melanin (pigment that gives skin its color).
  • Leucoderma does not cause physical pain but can lead to psychological distress due to its visible nature.
  • The exact cause of leucoderma is not fully understood; however, it is believed to be linked to autoimmune disorders where the body attacks its own melanocytes.
  • Treatment options include topical creams, light therapies, and in some cases, surgical procedures like skin grafting or melanocyte transplants.

Additional Information

  • Blood:
  • Blood is the fluid in the circulatory system that carries oxygen, nutrients, and waste products to and from cells in the body.
  • Common conditions related to blood include anemia, leukemia, and clotting disorders like hemophilia.
  • Leucoderma does not affect the blood as it is primarily a skin-related disorder.
  • Nervous System:
  • The nervous system is responsible for coordinating and controlling body activities through nerve signals.
  • Diseases affecting the nervous system include Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, and multiple sclerosis.
  • Leucoderma does not interfere with the functioning of the nervous system.
  • Heart:
  • The heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body via the circulatory system.
  • Heart-related conditions include coronary artery disease, arrhythmia, and heart attacks.
  • Leucoderma does not have any direct impact on the heart or its functioning.

Question 47

If you see a sign '5T' while driving on an Indian road, what does that road sign mean?

  1. AOption (a)

    A signal with 5 roads branching out is coming ahead

  2. BOption (b)

    5 km is the speed limit of the road ahead

  3. COption (c)

    There are 5 turns ahead of the road

  4. DOption (d)

    Vehicles weighing more than 5 tonnes should not use the road

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vehicles weighing more than 5 tonnes should not use the road

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vehicles weighing more than 5 tonnes should not use the road.

Key Points

  • The road sign "5T" indicates that vehicles weighing more than 5 tonnes are prohibited from using the road.
  • It is a mandatory road sign as per the traffic regulations in India.
  • This restriction ensures that roads not designed to handle heavy loads are protected from damage.
  • The sign is commonly found near bridges, narrow roads, or areas with weak road infrastructure.
  • Violating this restriction can result in fines or penalties as per the Motor Vehicles Act.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Road Signs
  • Road signs are critical for maintaining safety and order on roads. They provide essential information to drivers and other road users.
  • Mandatory signs, like the "5T" sign, are enforceable by law and must be adhered to ensure smooth traffic flow and infrastructure preservation.
  • Other categories of road signs include cautionary signs (e.g., sharp turn ahead) and informatory signs (e.g., hospital ahead).

Question 48

Which of these instruments is NOT a woodwind musical instrument?

  1. AOption (a)

    Flute

  2. BOption (b)

    Clarinet

  3. COption (c)

    Sarod

  4. DOption (d)

    Oboe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sarod

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarod.

Key Points

  • The Sarod is a stringed musical instrument used in Indian classical music and is known for its deep, resonant sound.
  • Unlike woodwind instruments, the Sarod is a plucked lute and does not involve blowing air to produce sound.
  • It has a fretless metal fingerboard, allowing artists to play sliding notes (meend) typical of Indian classical music.
  • The Sarod’s body is made of wood, but it is not classified as a woodwind instrument as it does not require air to generate sound.
  • It is traditionally associated with North Indian (Hindustani) classical music and is considered one of the most prominent stringed instruments in Indian music.

Additional Information

  • Flute
  • The flute is a woodwind instrument that produces sound when air is directed across the edge of an opening, causing the air within the tube to vibrate.
  • It is one of the oldest musical instruments, made traditionally from wood, bamboo, or metal.
  • The modern concert flute is typically made of metal but is still classified as a woodwind instrument due to its history and playing technique.
  • Flutes are commonly used in various musical genres, including classical, jazz, and traditional music worldwide.
  • Clarinet
  • The clarinet is a single-reed woodwind instrument with a cylindrical bore and is commonly made of wood or plastic.
  • It produces sound by vibrating a single reed attached to its mouthpiece when air is blown into it.
  • Clarinets are versatile instruments used in classical orchestras, jazz ensembles, and various folk music traditions.
  • Its range and unique tone make it a popular choice for both solo and ensemble performances.
  • Oboe
  • The oboe is a double-reed woodwind instrument known for its distinctively piercing and expressive sound.
  • It is used extensively in classical and chamber music and often plays the role of carrying the main melody in orchestral compositions.
  • Players produce sound by blowing air through the double reed, causing it to vibrate and generate musical tones.
  • The oboe is traditionally made of wood, which contributes to its warm, rich sound.

Question 49

The ever popular antiseptic product called Dettol is a brand owned by which of these companies?

  1. AOption (a)

    Marico Group

  2. BOption (b)

    ITC Group

  3. COption (c)

    Reckitt Benckiser Group

  4. DOption (d)

    Jyothi Laboratories

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Reckitt Benckiser Group

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reckitt Benckiser Group.

Key Points

  • Dettol is owned by Reckitt Benckiser Group, a British multinational consumer goods company headquartered in Slough, England.
  • Reckitt Benckiser specializes in health, hygiene, and home products, and Dettol is one of its most popular and trusted brands globally.
  • Dettol was first introduced in the 1930s as an antiseptic liquid to prevent infections during surgeries and childbirth.
  • The brand has expanded its product range, including soaps, handwash, disinfectants, and surface cleaners, maintaining its reputation for germ protection.
  • Reckitt Benckiser operates in over 190 countries and is committed to improving hygiene and health standards worldwide through innovative products.

Additional Information

  • Marico Group
  • Marico Limited is an Indian multinational consumer goods company headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • It specializes in beauty and wellness products, particularly hair care and edible oils.
  • Popular brands under Marico include Parachute (hair oil), Saffola (edible oil), and Livon (hair serum).
  • Marico does not manufacture antiseptic products like Dettol; its focus is primarily on lifestyle and personal care products.
  • ITC Group
  • ITC Limited is an Indian conglomerate headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • The company operates in sectors such as FMCG, hotels, paperboards, packaging, agri-business, and IT.
  • Popular products include Aashirvaad atta, Sunfeast biscuits, and Fiama personal care products.
  • ITC does not own Dettol or produce antiseptic solutions.
  • Jyothi Laboratories
  • Jyothi Laboratories is an Indian company specializing in home care and personal care products.
  • Its popular brands include Ujala (fabric whitener), Exo (dishwashing products), and Maxo (mosquito repellents).
  • It does not manufacture antiseptic or healthcare products like Dettol.

Question 50

On which day does the Christian festival of Easter always fall?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wednesday

  2. BOption (b)

    Friday

  3. COption (c)

    Sunday

  4. DOption (d)

    Thursday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sunday

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sunday.

Key Points

  • The Christian festival of Easter always falls on a Sunday.
  • Easter Sunday commemorates the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, as described in the New Testament of the Bible.
  • The date of Easter Sunday varies each year as it is observed on the first Sunday following the first full moon after the vernal equinox (March 21).
  • This method of calculating Easter was established by the First Council of Nicaea in 325 AD.
  • Easter Sunday is the culmination of the Holy Week, which begins with Palm Sunday and includes Good Friday, marking the crucifixion of Jesus.

Additional Information

  • Wednesday
  • Wednesday is known as Spy Wednesday during Holy Week in Christian tradition, commemorating Judas Iscariot's betrayal of Jesus to the religious authorities.
  • However, Easter Sunday never falls on a Wednesday.
  • Friday
  • Good Friday, which precedes Easter Sunday, marks the day of Jesus Christ's crucifixion and death.
  • It is observed as a solemn day of mourning in Christianity.
  • While Good Friday is an integral part of Easter celebrations, it is not the day of the resurrection.
  • Thursday
  • Maundy Thursday, also known as Holy Thursday, is observed during Holy Week to commemorate the Last Supper of Jesus Christ with his disciples.
  • This day also signifies the institution of the Eucharist (Holy Communion) by Jesus.
  • However, Easter Sunday does not occur on this day.

Question 51

What is the name of the visa that enables you to travel to 23 European countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Europe Visa

  2. BOption (b)

    Baltic Visa

  3. COption (c)

    Euro Visa

  4. DOption (d)

    Schengen Visa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Schengen Visa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Schengen Visa.

Key Points

  • The Schengen Visa is a short-term visa that allows individuals to travel within 23 European Union (EU) countries and 4 non-EU Schengen Area countries without border checks.
  • It is one of the most widely accepted visas in the world, enabling travel to 27 member countries, including popular destinations such as France, Germany, Italy, and Spain.
  • The visa is valid for up to 90 days within a 180-day period for purposes such as tourism, business, or family visits.
  • Applicants must provide valid travel insurance, proof of accommodation, financial means, and a clear travel itinerary to obtain a Schengen Visa.
  • The Schengen Agreement, signed in 1985, aims to abolish internal border controls among its member countries, promoting seamless travel and strengthening cooperation.

Additional Information

  • No visa officially named "Europe Visa", "Baltic Visa" , "Euro Visa" exists.
  • Schengen Area
  • The Schengen Area is a group of European countries that have abolished border controls at mutual borders, functioning as a single jurisdiction for international travel purposes.
  • Countries outside the Schengen Area, such as the UK and Ireland, have their own visa policies and are not part of this agreement.
  • The primary objective of the Schengen Agreement is to enhance freedom of movement, simplify travel, and foster unity among European nations.

Question 52

In which part of India did the Ahom Kingdom develop in the 13th century?

  1. AOption (a)

    Southern India

  2. BOption (b)

    Eastern India

  3. COption (c)

    Northern India

  4. DOption (d)

    Western India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Eastern India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Eastern India.

Key Points

  • The Ahom Kingdom was established in the 13th century in the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam, located in Eastern India.
  • It was founded by Sukaphaa, a Tai prince, in 1228 AD after his migration from present-day Yunnan Province (China).
  • The Ahom rulers successfully unified smaller tribes and kingdoms under their administration, contributing to the cultural and political consolidation of Assam.
  • The kingdom played a significant role in resisting Mughal expansion in the region, most notably in the Battle of Saraighat (1671), where the Ahoms under Lachit Borphukan defeated the Mughal forces.
  • The Ahom Dynasty ruled for nearly 600 years, leaving a lasting legacy in the region, particularly in terms of culture, language, and governance systems.

Additional Information

  • Southern India:
  • Southern India was home to several prominent kingdoms during the medieval period, including the Chola, Chera, Pandya, and Vijayanagara Empires.
  • The Chola Empire (9th–13th centuries) is particularly noted for its naval strength, temple architecture, and administrative systems.
  • The Vijayanagara Empire (14th–17th centuries) played a key role in resisting invasions by the Delhi Sultanate and promoting Hindu culture.
  • Northern India:
  • Northern India during the 13th century saw the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate by the Ghurid forces, marking the beginning of Islamic rule in the region.
  • The region was politically fragmented before the rise of the Sultanate, with Rajput kingdoms like Mewar and Kannauj holding significant influence.
  • Western India:
  • Western India during this period was dominated by the Rajput kingdoms and smaller states such as the Gujarat Sultanate.
  • The region was a hub of trade and commerce, with ports like Khambhat facilitating international trade.

Question 53

In which year did the devastating Latur earthquake (Maharashtra) occur?

  1. AOption (a)

    1989

  2. BOption (b)

    1999

  3. COption (c)

    1993

  4. DOption (d)

    2004

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1993

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1993.

Key Points

  • The Latur earthquake occurred on September 30, 1993, in the state of Maharashtra, India.
  • It measured a magnitude of 6.2 on the Richter scale and caused severe damage to the Killari and surrounding villages.
  • The epicenter of the earthquake was near Killari village in Latur District, and it was classified as an intraplate earthquake—unusual for the region.
  • Approximately 10,000 people lost their lives, and thousands were injured, making it one of the deadliest earthquakes in Indian history.
  • The earthquake highlighted the need for improved disaster preparedness and the importance of seismological studies in regions previously considered low-risk.

Additional Information

  • 1989:
  • The year 1989 witnessed the Loma Prieta earthquake in California, USA, which occurred on October 17, 1989.
  • It had a magnitude of 6.9 and caused significant damage in the San Francisco Bay Area, including the collapse of a section of the Bay Bridge.
  • This earthquake is unrelated to the seismic activity in India.
  • 1999:
  • India experienced the Chamoli earthquake in Uttarakhand on March 29, 1999, with a magnitude of 6.8.
  • It caused significant destruction and loss of lives in the Himalayan region but occurred six years after the Latur earthquake.
  • Additionally, Turkey experienced the Izmit earthquake in 1999, which killed thousands.
  • 2004:
  • On December 26, 2004, a massive undersea earthquake near Sumatra triggered the Indian Ocean tsunami, which affected multiple countries, including India.
  • The earthquake had a magnitude of 9.1–9.3, making it one of the strongest ever recorded.
  • This event was unrelated to the Latur earthquake, which occurred over a decade earlier.

Question 54

Bolivia's Salar de Uyuni salt desert is believed to be home to 50-70% of the reserves of which of the following materials?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thorium

  2. BOption (b)

    Silver

  3. COption (c)

    Lithium

  4. DOption (d)

    Uranium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lithium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lithium.

Key Points

  • The Salar de Uyuni salt flats, located in Bolivia, contain the largest known reserves of lithium, estimated to house nearly 50-70% of the world’s total lithium reserves.
  • Lithium is a critical element used in the manufacturing of rechargeable batteries for electric vehicles (EVs), smartphones, laptops, and other electronic devices.
  • Bolivia's lithium reserves are primarily found in the brine beneath the salt flats, which are extracted and processed for industrial use.
  • The increasing demand for lithium is driven by the global shift towards renewable energy and the electrification of the automobile industry.
  • Due to its vast reserves, Bolivia is often referred to as part of the "Lithium Triangle," along with Argentina and Chile, which together dominate global lithium production.

Additional Information

  • Thorium
  • Thorium is a radioactive element primarily used as a nuclear fuel in experimental reactors.
  • It is abundant in the Earth's crust and has potential as an alternative to uranium in nuclear energy production.
  • India has large reserves of thorium, but its commercial use is still in developmental stages.
  • Silver
  • Silver is a precious metal extensively used in jewelry, industrial applications, and electronics due to its excellent conductivity.
  • Major producers of silver include Mexico, Peru, and China, but Bolivia also has significant silver reserves, though not as abundant as lithium.
  • Uranium
  • Uranium is a heavy metal used as a primary fuel for nuclear power plants and weapons.
  • Significant uranium deposits are found in countries like Kazakhstan, Canada, and Australia.
  • Bolivia is not a major producer or reserve holder of uranium.

Important Points

  • Bolivia’s Salar de Uyuni
  • It is the largest salt flat in the world, spanning over 10,000 square kilometers.
  • Besides lithium, the region is a significant tourist destination due to its stunning landscapes and unique salt formations.

Question 55

SGS1 is a geostationary satellite launched from French Guiana on behalf of another country. The SGS1 satellite belongs to which of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Singapore

  2. BOption (b)

    South Africa

  3. COption (c)

    Saudi Arabia

  4. DOption (d)

    South Korea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Saudi Arabia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia.

Key Points

  • SGS1 (Saudi Geostationary Satellite 1) is a geostationary communications satellite that belongs to Saudi Arabia.
  • The satellite was developed by the King Abdulaziz City for Science and Technology (KACST) in collaboration with Lockheed Martin, a US aerospace company.
  • The satellite was launched on February 5, 2019, from the Guiana Space Center in French Guiana using an Ariane 5 rocket.
  • SGS1 is designed to enhance telecommunications, internet connectivity, and secure satellite communications for Saudi Arabia and neighboring regions.
  • The satellite is part of Saudi Arabia’s Vision 2030 initiative, which aims to diversify its economy and develop technological capabilities in the space sector.

Additional Information

  • Singapore:
  • Singapore has advanced technological capabilities in satellite research and development, primarily focused on small satellites and space applications.
  • It launched its first satellite, X-SAT, in 2011, developed by Nanyang Technological University (NTU).
  • Singapore Space and Technology Ltd (SSTL) is actively involved in fostering the country's space industry.
  • South Africa:
  • South Africa’s space program is spearheaded by the South African National Space Agency (SANSA).
  • The country focuses on Earth observation, space science, and satellite technology.
  • South Africa launched its first indigenous satellite, SunSat, in 1999, and later developed ZA-Cube nanosatellites.
  • South Korea:
  • South Korea has an advanced space program led by the Korea Aerospace Research Institute (KARI).
  • It successfully launched its first indigenous satellite, KITSAT-1, in 1992.
  • The country has developed several satellites for communications, Earth observation, and scientific research, including the Arirang series.
  • South Korea is also working on developing its own launch vehicles, such as the KSLV-II Nuri, to boost its space exploration capabilities.

Question 56

The Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) has got its own Security Paper Mill that produces the paper for bank notes. Where is the Security Paper Mill located? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Nashik, Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Dewas, Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata, West Bengal

  4. DOption (d)

    Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Security Paper Mill (SPM) is located in Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh.
  • It was established in 1968 and is one of the key units under the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL).
  • The mill manufactures high-quality security paper used for printing currency notes and other government documents such as passports.
  • SPM Hoshangabad ensures the production of security paper with advanced anti-counterfeiting features, contributing to the integrity of India's financial systems.
  • It plays a vital role in producing paper for printing Indian Rupee notes, particularly for denominations like ₹10, ₹20, ₹50, ₹100, ₹200, ₹500, and ₹2000.

Additional Information

  • Nashik, Maharashtra:
  • Nashik houses one of the India Security Press (ISP), another unit under SPMCIL.
  • The ISP is responsible for printing non-judicial stamps, postal stamps, and other security products.
  • Dewas, Madhya Pradesh:
  • Dewas has the Bank Note Press (BNP), which is a major facility for printing Indian currency notes.
  • Kolkata, West Bengal:
  • Kolkata is home to the India Government Mint, which is responsible for coin production, medals, and other metallic items.

Important Points

  • Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL):
  • SPMCIL is a government-owned corporation that was established in 2006.
  • It manages nine production units, including four mints, two banknote presses, two security presses, and one security paper mill.
  • Its primary goal is to produce banknotes, coins, passports, and other security documents required by the Government of India.

Question 57

The Bombay High Court has three bench courts. Which of the 4 cities listed below is NOT one of the benches- 

  1. AOption (a)

    Pune

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagpur

  3. COption (c)

    Aurangabad

  4. DOption (d)

    Panaji

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pune

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pune.

Key Points

  • The Bombay High Court has its principal seat in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and three additional bench courts.
  • The three bench courts of the Bombay High Court are located in Nagpur, Aurangabad, and Panaji (Goa).
  • Pune does not have a bench of the Bombay High Court, making it the correct answer to the question.
  • The Nagpur Bench was established in 1936, Aurangabad Bench in 1984, and the Panaji (Goa) Bench was established in 1982.
  • These benches were established to cater to the legal needs of people in different regions and to reduce the burden on the principal seat in Mumbai.

Additional Information

  • Nagpur Bench:
  • Located in Vidarbha region of Maharashtra, the Nagpur Bench serves the eastern part of the state.
  • It was established in 1936 and caters to legal cases from districts like Nagpur, Akola, Amravati, and others.
  • Aurangabad Bench:
  • Located in Marathwada region of Maharashtra, the Aurangabad Bench was established in 1984.
  • It serves districts like Aurangabad, Jalna, Beed, and Nanded.
  • Panaji Bench:
  • The Panaji Bench serves the Union Territory of Goa, Daman, and Diu.
  • It was established in 1982 and handles legal matters specific to the region.
  • Bombay High Court:
  • Established in 1862, it is one of the oldest High Courts in India.
  • It has jurisdiction over Maharashtra, Goa, and the Union Territories of Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Question 58

This institute was founded in 1878 as the British Imperial Forest School. It is now called the Forest Research Institute (FRI). Where is it located? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Dehradun

  2. BOption (b)

    Nainital

  3. COption (c)

    Rishikesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Darjeeling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dehradun

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dehradun.

Key Points

  • The Forest Research Institute (FRI) is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, and is renowned as a premier institution in the field of forestry research in India.
  • It was originally established in 1878 as the British Imperial Forest School and later transformed into the Forest Research Institute in 1906.
  • The FRI campus is spread across 450 hectares and is noted for its colonial and Greco-Roman architectural style, housing one of the world’s largest forestry libraries.
  • The institute operates under the aegis of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), which functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
  • The FRI is not only a center for forestry research but also a popular tourist destination, owing to its stunning architecture and serene surroundings.

Additional Information

  • Nainital:
  • Nainital is a popular hill station in Uttarakhand, known for its picturesque lakes and scenic beauty.
  • It is also home to the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), a prominent astronomical observatory in India.
  • Rishikesh:
  • Rishikesh, also located in Uttarakhand, is known as the ‘Yoga Capital of the World’ and is a hub for spiritual and adventure tourism.
  • The town is situated on the banks of the Ganges River and serves as a gateway to the Himalayas.
  • Darjeeling:
  • Darjeeling is a town in West Bengal, famous for its tea gardens, scenic landscapes, and the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, a UNESCO World Heritage site.
  • It is also known for its biodiversity and is home to the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park and the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute.

Question 59

Which of the following Tamil Nadu freedom fighters earned the title of Kappalottiya Tamilan (a Tamil Nadu resident who ran a shipping company)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Subramaniya Siva

  2. BOption (b)

    Dheeran Chinnamalai

  3. COption (c)

    V.O. Chidambaram Pillai

  4. DOption (d)

    Veerpandia Kattboman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

V.O. Chidambaram Pillai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is V.O. Chidambaram Pillai.

Key Points

  • V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, popularly known as "Kappalottiya Tamilan," was a prominent freedom fighter and visionary from Tamil Nadu.
  • He founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to challenge the British monopoly in the shipping industry and promote indigenous enterprise.
  • His company operated two steamships, S.S. Gallia and S.S. Lawoe, between Tuticorin (India) and Colombo (Sri Lanka), providing an alternative to the British shipping services.
  • Chidambaram Pillai was an ardent supporter of the Swadeshi Movement and encouraged the use of indigenous goods and services to oppose British colonial rule.
  • He faced severe repression from the British government for his nationalist activities, including imprisonment and confiscation of his property.

Additional Information

  • Subramaniya Siva
  • Subramaniya Siva was a Tamil writer, poet, and freedom fighter known for his contributions to the Indian independence movement.
  • He worked closely with V.O. Chidambaram Pillai and Subramania Bharati during the Swadeshi Movement.
  • Siva was imprisoned multiple times for his nationalist activities and for inspiring people to join the freedom struggle through his speeches and writings.
  • Dheeran Chinnamalai
  • Dheeran Chinnamalai was a Tamil chieftain and warrior who fought against the British East India Company during the Polygar Wars.
  • He supported Tipu Sultan in his fight against the British and resisted British authority in the Kongu region.
  • Chinnamalai was eventually captured by the British and executed in 1805.
  • Veerapandiya Kattabomman
  • Veerapandiya Kattabomman was a prominent chieftain and freedom fighter from Tamil Nadu who opposed the British East India Company in the late 18th century.
  • He is best known for his defiance of British demands for tribute and his efforts to protect the sovereignty of his region.
  • Kattabomman was captured by the British with the help of local allies and was hanged in 1799.
  • Swadeshi Movement
  • The Swadeshi Movement was a major part of the Indian freedom struggle, aimed at promoting indigenous industries and boycotting British goods.
  • The movement gained momentum during the partition of Bengal in 1905 and inspired leaders like V.O. Chidambaram Pillai to establish indigenous businesses.
  • It played a crucial role in fostering a sense of nationalism and economic independence among Indians.

Question 60

Electoral bonds, which facilitate donations to political parties, were announced in which of the following Union Budgets?

  1. AOption (a)

    Union Budget 2017-18

  2. BOption (b)

    Union Budget 2018-19

  3. COption (c)

    Union Budget 2015-16

  4. DOption (d)

    Union Budget 2016-17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Union Budget 2017-18

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Union Budget 2017-18.

Key Points

  • Electoral bonds were introduced in Union Budget 2017-18 by the then Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.
  • Electoral bonds were proposed as a measure to bring transparency in funding to political parties.
  • These bonds are financial instruments that allow individuals, organizations, or companies to donate funds to political parties anonymously.
  • The scheme was launched on January 2, 2018, and is operated by the State Bank of India (SBI).
  • Electoral bonds can be purchased in denominations ranging from Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 1 crore and are valid for 15 days from the date of issuance.

Additional Information

  • Union Budget 2018-19:
  • Presented by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley, this budget focused on agriculture, rural development, healthcare, and infrastructure.
  • It introduced the flagship health insurance scheme Ayushman Bharat, also known as the National Health Protection Scheme, which provides health coverage of Rs. 5 lakh per family annually.
  • The budget also emphasized increasing the minimum support price (MSP) for crops and improving rural employment.
  • Union Budget 2015-16:
  • Presented by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley, this budget aimed to achieve fiscal consolidation and boost economic growth.
  • It introduced the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), which are insurance schemes for life and accidental coverage.
  • It also proposed the creation of a Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA Bank) to help microfinance institutions and small businesses.
  • Union Budget 2016-17:
  • This budget was presented by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley and focused on rural development, infrastructure, and fiscal discipline.
  • It announced the Digital Literacy Mission for rural areas and aimed to cover 6 crore households within the next three years.
  • Other measures included increased allocation to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and initiatives for farmers’ welfare.

Important Points

  • Electoral Bonds:
  • The electoral bond scheme seeks to address issues of opaque political funding and reduce reliance on cash donations.
  • Political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and securing at least 1% of votes in the last election are eligible to receive donations through electoral bonds.
  • While the scheme aims to enhance transparency, it has also been criticized for allowing anonymity in donations and raising concerns about potential misuse.

General Awareness 2 (20 questions)

Question 61

Boyle's law, Charles' law and Gay-Lussac's law, these three laws come under the scope of study of which of the following in physics?

  1. AOption (a)

    The study of radioactivity

  2. BOption (b)

    Study of light

  3. COption (c)

    Study of gases

  4. DOption (d)

    Study of atoms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Study of gases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Study of gases.

Key Points

  • Boyle's Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its volume when temperature is kept constant.
  • Charles' Law explains that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature when pressure remains constant.
  • Gay-Lussac's Law describes that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature when the volume remains constant.
  • These laws collectively form the foundation of the study of gases and are critical in understanding gas behavior under different conditions.
  • The study of gases falls under the branch of physics known as thermodynamics, which deals with heat, energy, and work.

Additional Information

  • The study of radioactivity
  • Radioactivity refers to the spontaneous emission of particles or electromagnetic radiation from unstable atomic nuclei.
  • The study of radioactivity is fundamental in nuclear physics and has applications in medicine, energy production, and radiometric dating.
  • Key discoveries include the work of Henri Becquerel, Marie Curie, and Ernest Rutherford.
  • Study of light
  • The study of light falls under optics, which is a branch of physics that deals with the behavior and properties of light, including its interaction with matter.
  • Important principles include reflection, refraction, diffraction, and polarization.
  • Applications range from designing lenses and microscopes to understanding quantum mechanics and the electromagnetic spectrum.
  • Study of atoms
  • Atomic physics focuses on the structure and behavior of atoms, including their electrons, nuclei, and energy levels.
  • It is closely related to quantum mechanics and plays a key role in understanding chemical bonding, spectroscopy, and the periodic table.
  • Significant contributions include Niels Bohr's atomic model and Schrödinger's wave equation.

Question 62

What is the colour that is prescribed for school buses in India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Green

  2. BOption (b)

    Yellow

  3. COption (c)

    Red

  4. DOption (d)

    Blue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Yellow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Yellow.

Key Points

  • In India, school buses are painted yellow as per the prescribed safety norms and guidelines under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989.
  • The color yellow is highly visible during both day and night, ensuring the safety of school children by making the buses easily noticeable in traffic.
  • The use of yellow for school buses follows international conventions, as yellow is associated with caution and is widely recognized for its visibility and safety.
  • Section 100 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules also mandates that the words "School Bus" should be prominently written on the front and back of the vehicle.
  • School buses in India are also required to have specific safety features, including speed governors, grills on windows, and emergency exit doors, to ensure maximum safety for students.

Additional Information

  • Green:
  • Green is often associated with environmental sustainability and ecological balance.
  • In India, green is used for certain license plates, such as those for electric vehicles, to promote eco-friendly transportation.
  • However, it is not used for school buses as it lacks the high visibility required for safety purposes.
  • Red:
  • Red is a color commonly associated with danger, warnings, and stop signals.
  • In transportation, red is used for emergency vehicles like fire engines and ambulances because it attracts immediate attention.
  • Red is not suitable for school buses as it does not align with international conventions for school bus color coding.
  • Blue:
  • Blue is often used for public transport vehicles, police vehicles, or certain types of government transport in India.
  • While blue is a calming color, it is not as visible as yellow in traffic, making it unsuitable for school buses.

Question 63

In April 2019, WikiLeaks founder Julian Assange was arrested from which country's embassy in London?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bolivia

  2. BOption (b)

    Colombia

  3. COption (c)

    Ecuador

  4. DOption (d)

    Venezuela

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ecuador

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ecuador.

Key Points

  • WikiLeaks founder Julian Assange was arrested on April 11, 2019, from the Ecuadorian Embassy in London.
  • He had taken asylum in the embassy in June 2012 to avoid extradition to Sweden, where he faced allegations of sexual misconduct.
  • Assange's asylum was revoked by Ecuador's President Lenín Moreno, citing violations of international conventions and the embassy's protocols.
  • Following Ecuador’s decision to withdraw asylum, the UK Metropolitan Police entered the embassy and arrested Assange for breaching his bail conditions.
  • Julian Assange is also sought by the United States on charges related to the publication of classified government documents by WikiLeaks.

Additional Information

  • Bolivia
  • Bolivia is located in South America and has no involvement in Julian Assange's case or his asylum.
  • The country is known for its political history and its current focus on indigenous rights and natural resource management.
  • Colombia
  • Colombia, another South American country, has no connection to Assange or the WikiLeaks case.
  • It is better known for its efforts in combating organized crime, drug trafficking, and its peace process after decades of internal conflict.
  • Venezuela
  • Venezuela, a South American nation, is not related to Assange's asylum or his arrest in the Ecuadorian Embassy.
  • The country has been in the news for its political and economic crises, with significant global attention on its leadership and humanitarian challenges.

Important Points

  • Asylum and WikiLeaks
  • Julian Assange founded WikiLeaks in 2006, which gained global attention for releasing classified documents, including those related to the US military and diplomatic activities.
  • Assange sought asylum in Ecuador's embassy in 2012 to avoid extradition to Sweden and potential onward extradition to the United States.
  • Asylum is a form of protection granted by a country to individuals fleeing persecution or legal risks in their home country.

Question 64

The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations to deal with trade, investment, and development issues. Where is its headquarters located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Geneva

  2. BOption (b)

    Brussels

  3. COption (c)

    New York

  4. DOption (d)

    Paris

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Geneva

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Geneva.

Key Points

  • The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body under the United Nations.
  • Geneva, Switzerland, serves as the headquarters of UNCTAD, making it a central hub for global trade and development discussions.
  • UNCTAD focuses on promoting sustainable trade, investment, and development, with the goal of reducing inequalities and fostering economic growth in developing countries.
  • The organization plays a pivotal role in assisting developing nations to integrate into the global economy by providing analysis, policy advice, and capacity-building support.
  • UNCTAD also publishes the widely recognized World Investment Report and Trade and Development Report, which offer insights into global trade and investment trends.

Additional Information

  • Brussels:
  • Brussels is the de facto capital of the European Union (EU) and houses numerous EU institutions, including the European Commission and the European Council.
  • It is also the headquarters for NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization).
  • While Brussels is a major political and administrative center, it is not associated with UNCTAD.
  • New York:
  • New York City is home to the headquarters of the United Nations (UN), established in 1945.
  • It hosts important UN organs such as the General Assembly and the Security Council.
  • Although New York is a prominent location for UN activities, UNCTAD is headquartered in Geneva.
  • Paris:
  • Paris is the headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
  • It is also home to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), which focuses on fostering economic progress and world trade.

Question 65

India conducted joint military exercise called 'BOLD KURUKSHETRA 2019 in April 2019 with which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Singapore

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia 

  3. COption (c)

    Iran 

  4. DOption (d)

    Israel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Singapore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Singapore.

Key Points

  • BOLD KURUKSHETRA 2019 is a joint military exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Singapore Armed Forces (SAF).
  • This exercise was held in April 2019 at Babina Military Station in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.
  • The exercise focused on joint training in mechanized warfare to enhance mutual cooperation and build interoperability between the two nations.
  • It marked the 10th edition of the bilateral exercise that has been conducted under the India-Singapore Defence Cooperation Agreement signed in 2003.
  • The exercise included various activities such as joint tactical planning, training on combat drills, and sharing best practices in military operations.

Additional Information

  • Russia
  • India and Russia conduct a major bilateral military exercise called INDRA, which involves the Army, Navy, and Air Force of both countries.
  • The INDRA exercise was first conducted in 2003 and aims to strengthen strategic partnership and cooperation in defense.
  • Iran
  • India and Iran cooperate in defense, but they do not have any notable regular joint military exercises.
  • Most of the cooperation between the two countries is focused on the development of strategic infrastructure like the Chabahar Port.
  • Israel
  • India and Israel share strong defense ties, but the focus is primarily on defense technology and intelligence sharing rather than large-scale joint military exercises.
  • India is one of the largest buyers of Israeli defense equipment, including drones and missile systems.

Question 66

Name the telescope that has recently created the live image of the black hole. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Event Horizon Telescope

  2. BOption (b)

    Hubble Space Telescope

  3. COption (c)

    Keck Observatory Telescope

  4. DOption (d)

    Spitzer Space Telescope

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Event Horizon Telescope

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Event Horizon Telescope.

Key Points

  • The Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) is a global network of radio telescopes designed to capture high-resolution images of black holes.
  • On April 10, 2019, the EHT collaboration released the first-ever direct image of a black hole, located at the center of the M87 galaxy, approximately 55 million light-years away.
  • The telescope uses the technique of Very Long Baseline Interferometry (VLBI), which synchronizes observations from multiple radio observatories around the world to simulate a virtual telescope the size of Earth.
  • The EHT focuses on studying supermassive black holes, including Sagittarius A*, the black hole at the center of our Milky Way galaxy.
  • This groundbreaking achievement provides insights into the behavior of black holes, their event horizons, and the surrounding accretion disks, enhancing our understanding of general relativity and astrophysics.

Additional Information

  • Hubble Space Telescope:
  • The Hubble Space Telescope is a large, space-based observatory launched in 1990 by NASA and ESA.
  • It operates primarily in visible, ultraviolet, and near-infrared wavelengths, capturing high-resolution images of distant galaxies, nebulae, and other celestial objects.
  • Hubble has contributed significantly to our understanding of the universe, including confirming the existence of dark energy and determining the age of the universe.
  • It is not specifically designed for imaging black holes but has provided indirect evidence through observations of their effects on surrounding matter.
  • Keck Observatory Telescope:
  • The Keck Observatory, located in Hawaii, houses two 10-meter optical/infrared telescopes.
  • It is renowned for its adaptive optics system, which corrects atmospheric distortions to produce clearer images.
  • The Keck telescopes have been instrumental in observing exoplanets, distant galaxies, and supermassive black holes.
  • Although capable of studying black holes, they do not specialize in producing direct images like the Event Horizon Telescope.
  • Spitzer Space Telescope:
  • The Spitzer Space Telescope was an infrared observatory launched by NASA in 2003 and retired in 2020.
  • It specialized in studying cooler celestial objects such as exoplanets, star-forming regions, and distant galaxies.
  • While the Spitzer Telescope contributed to the study of black holes indirectly, it did not produce direct images of them.

Question 67

What is the name of the economist who is closely associated with the theory of monetarism?

  1. AOption (a)

    Milton Friedman

  2. BOption (b)

    Joseph Stiglitz

  3. COption (c)

    John Maynard Keynes

  4. DOption (d)

    Adam Smith

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Milton Friedman

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Milton Friedman.

Key Points

  • Milton Friedman was an American economist who is considered the leading advocate of monetarism in the 20th century.
  • He argued that monetary policy (control of the money supply) is more effective than fiscal policy in managing economic stability.
  • Friedman developed the quantity theory of money, which emphasizes the relationship between money supply and price levels.
  • He believed that inflation is always a monetary phenomenon and that controlling money supply growth is essential for reducing inflation.
  • Friedman’s most notable works include his book “A Monetary History of the United States” (co-authored with Anna Schwartz), which profoundly influenced modern economic thought.

Additional Information

  • Joseph Stiglitz
  • Joseph Stiglitz is a Nobel Prize-winning economist known for his work on information asymmetry and market imperfections.
  • He has criticized free-market policies and has written extensively on income inequality and the role of government in the economy.
  • Stiglitz served as the Chief Economist of the World Bank and authored books such as “Globalization and Its Discontents.”
  • John Maynard Keynes
  • Keynes was a British economist who founded Keynesian economics, which emphasizes the role of government intervention in stabilizing the economy.
  • His seminal work, “The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money,” laid the foundation for modern macroeconomics.
  • Keynes advocated for fiscal policies, such as increased government spending, to combat unemployment and economic recessions.
  • Adam Smith
  • Adam Smith, often referred to as the “Father of Modern Economics,” was an 18th-century Scottish economist and philosopher.
  • His book “The Wealth of Nations” introduced the concept of the invisible hand, explaining how self-interest in a free market leads to economic prosperity.
  • Smith emphasized the importance of free markets, competition, and limited government intervention in economic activities.

Question 68

Which city in Central India is famous for its 'Diamond Railway Crossing', a point where the North-South Railway lines meet the East-West Railway lines?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Nanded

  2. BOption (b)

    Indore

  3. COption (c)

    Bhopal

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nagpur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nagpur.

Key Points

  • Nagpur is famous for its 'Diamond Railway Crossing', a unique railway junction where India’s North-South railway line intersects with the East-West railway line.
  • This crossing is strategically important as it connects major cities across India, making Nagpur a central hub for Indian Railways.
  • The Diamond Railway Crossing is located near Nagpur Junction, which is one of the busiest railway stations in Central India.
  • It serves as a vital link for passenger and freight trains, enhancing connectivity and trade efficiency in the region.
  • Due to its geographical location, Nagpur is referred to as the 'Zero Mile Center' of India, marking its significance in the country’s transportation network.

Additional Information

  • Bhopal
  • Bhopal, the capital city of Madhya Pradesh, is known as the City of Lakes due to its numerous natural and artificial lakes.
  • It is an important administrative, political, and educational center but is not associated with the Diamond Railway Crossing.
  • Bhopal Junction is a major railway station, serving as a critical stop on the Delhi-Chennai and Delhi-Mumbai routes.
  • Indore
  • Indore is the largest city in Madhya Pradesh and a key industrial and educational hub.
  • It is famous for its food culture and historic landmarks but is not connected to the Diamond Railway Crossing.
  • Indore Junction is a significant railway station in Western India, connecting to major cities like Mumbai and Delhi.
  • Nanded
  • Nanded, located in Maharashtra, is known for its spiritual significance as the city houses the Hazur Sahib Gurudwara, an important Sikh pilgrimage site.
  • It is not associated with the Diamond Railway Crossing and plays a lesser role in India’s railway network compared to Nagpur.
  • Nanded railway station primarily serves regional and pilgrimage traffic.

Question 69

One set of digits in the GST number is a direct replication of which of these identities of the GST holder? 

  1. AOption (a)

    PAN Card Number

  2. BOption (b)

    Mobile Number

  3. COption (c)

    Aadhaar Card Number

  4. DOption (d)

    Ration Card Number

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

PAN Card Number

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PAN Card Number.

Key Points

  • The GST Identification Number (GSTIN) is a 15-digit alphanumeric code assigned to registered taxpayers under the Goods and Services Tax system in India.
  • The first two digits of the GSTIN represent the state code as per the Indian Census 2011.
  • The next ten digits of the GSTIN are directly derived from the Permanent Account Number (PAN) of the GST holder, which is issued by the Income Tax Department of India.
  • The PAN-based digits in the GSTIN ensure that the GST registration is linked to the taxpayer's identity under the Income Tax framework, facilitating tax compliance.
  • The remaining three characters in the GSTIN include a unique entity code, a default character ('Z'), and a checksum digit for verification purposes.

Additional Information

  • Mobile Number
  • Although a mobile number is often used during the GST registration process for communication and verification, it is not directly embedded into the GSTIN.
  • A mobile number is crucial for receiving OTPs and updates related to GST compliance, but it does not form part of the GST identification structure.
  • Aadhaar Card Number
  • The Aadhaar card is a unique identity document for Indian residents issued by UIDAI.
  • GST registration mandates Aadhaar authentication for individuals, proprietors, or authorized signatories, but the Aadhaar number is not replicated in the GSTIN.
  • The authentication process ensures that the registration is genuine and linked to the applicant's identity.
  • Ration Card Number
  • Ration cards are primarily used for food security purposes under the Public Distribution System (PDS) and are unrelated to GST registration or the GSTIN structure.
  • Since ration cards serve a different purpose, their number is not used in the GST framework.

Question 70

What is the name for the Spanish and Portuguese Parliaments? The name has been derived from their common medieval history. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Duma

  2. BOption (b)

    El Paso 

  3. COption (c)

    Cortes

  4. DOption (d)

    Caldera

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cortes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cortes.

Key Points

  • The term Cortes refers to the parliamentary assemblies in Spain and Portugal, historically linked to their shared medieval heritage.
  • In Spain, the national parliament is called the Cortes Generales, which consists of two chambers: the Congress of Deputies and the Senate.
  • In Portugal, Cortes were historically the general assemblies of the kingdom, where representatives of the clergy, nobility, and commoners convened to discuss matters of the state.
  • The term originated during the medieval period when such assemblies played a vital role in governance, taxation, and addressing grievances of the subjects.
  • These institutions are considered precursors to modern parliamentary systems and highlight the shared governance practices of the Iberian Peninsula.

Additional Information

  • Duma
  • The Duma refers to the legislative assembly in Russia, particularly the State Duma, which is the lower house of the Federal Assembly of Russia.
  • It was first established in 1905 during the reign of Tsar Nicholas II as part of the Russian Empire's attempt at constitutional reform.
  • The modern State Duma was re-established in 1993 as part of Russia’s post-Soviet parliamentary structure.
  • El Paso
  • El Paso is a city located in the state of Texas, United States, and has no relation to parliamentary systems.
  • It is known for its location on the U.S.–Mexico border and for being a major cultural and economic hub in the region.
  • Caldera
  • A caldera is a geological term referring to a large volcanic crater, typically formed by a major eruption that causes the collapse of the volcano’s mouth.
  • It is unrelated to parliamentary systems or governance but is significant in the field of earth sciences.

Question 71

Vypeen Island is a bustling and densely populated island in the Arabian Sea, off the Indian coast. Vypeen is located near which of the following cities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calicut

  2. BOption (b)

    Mangalore

  3. COption (c)

    Kochi

  4. DOption (d)

    Trivandrum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kochi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kochi.

Key Points

  • Vypeen Island is located near Kochi, a major port city in the state of Kerala, India.
  • The island is situated in the Arabian Sea and is part of the Ernakulam district of Kerala.
  • Vypeen Island is connected to Kochi by a series of bridges and ferry services, making it easily accessible.
  • Kochi is one of the most important trade and tourism hubs in southern India, and Vypeen Island plays a significant role in its economic activities.
  • Vypeen Island is known for its fishing communities, scenic beaches, and historical landmarks like the famous Pallipuram Fort, which is among the oldest European forts in India.

Additional Information

  • Calicut (Option 1):
  • Calicut, also known as Kozhikode, is a coastal city in Kerala famous for its historical significance as a major trading hub during the medieval period.
  • The city is known for the Spice Route and the arrival of Portuguese explorer Vasco da Gama in 1498.
  • Mangalore (Option 2):
  • Mangalore is a port city located in Karnataka, not Kerala.
  • It is famous for its seafood, temples, and beaches but is significantly farther from Vypeen Island compared to Kochi.
  • Trivandrum (Option 4):
  • Trivandrum, officially known as Thiruvananthapuram, is the capital city of Kerala.
  • It is located in the southernmost part of Kerala and is famous for places like Kovalam Beach and the Padmanabhaswamy Temple.

Important Points

  • Vypeen Island:
  • Vypeen Island is one of the most densely populated islands in Kerala and is known for its strategic location near Kochi.
  • The island houses several fishing communities and has developed into a residential and commercial area over the years.
  • It is also popular among tourists for its beaches like Cherai Beach and historical sites such as Pallipuram Fort.

Question 72

Eugenics is the study of socially controlled agents that can improve or worsen the racial qualities of future generations, either physically or mentally. Who is considered the father of this stream of study?

  1. AOption (a)

    David Baltimore

  2. BOption (b)

    Charles Darwin

  3. COption (c)

    Francis Galton

  4. DOption (d)

    Raymond Dart

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Francis Galton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Francis Galton.

Key Points

  • Francis Galton, a British polymath, is considered the father of eugenics.
  • He coined the term "eugenics" in 1883, derived from the Greek words eu (good) and genos (birth).
  • Galton's work focused on the hereditary nature of traits and how selective breeding could influence human populations.
  • He was a pioneer in studying the relationship between genetics and human abilities and was the first to use statistical methods to study human differences.
  • Galton also introduced the concepts of regression and correlation in statistics to analyze hereditary traits.

Additional Information

  • David Baltimore
  • David Baltimore is an American biologist who received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1975 for his work on the interaction between tumor viruses and genetic material.
  • He is known for discovering reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that transcribes RNA into DNA, which was pivotal in advancing molecular biology.
  • His work has no direct connection to the study of eugenics.
  • Charles Darwin
  • Charles Darwin was a British naturalist best known for his theory of evolution by natural selection, as described in his book On the Origin of Species (1859).
  • While Darwin’s work on evolution influenced the development of eugenics, he did not study or promote eugenics himself.
  • His theories inspired others, including Francis Galton, who expanded on the idea of heredity in the context of human traits.
  • Raymond Dart
  • Raymond Dart was an Australian anatomist and anthropologist known for his discovery of the Taung Child, an early hominin fossil belonging to the species Australopithecus africanus.
  • His work focused on human evolution and the study of early human ancestors, rather than eugenics.

Important Points

  • Eugenics
  • Eugenics is the study of how to improve the genetic quality of human populations through selective breeding or other methods.
  • It was controversial due to its association with unethical practices, including forced sterilizations and discriminatory policies.
  • While modern genetics acknowledges hereditary influences, the concept of eugenics is now largely rejected due to its historical misuse.

Question 73

Though Spanish is the most widely spoken language, this country is also home to languages such as Nahuatl, Yucatec Maya and Mixtec. Which country is being referred to here? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mexico

  2. BOption (b)

    Chile

  3. COption (c)

    Bolivia

  4. DOption (d)

    Argentina

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mexico

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mexico.

Key Points

  • Spanish is the official and most widely spoken language in Mexico, and it is spoken by the majority of the population.
  • Mexico is home to a rich linguistic diversity, with over 68 recognized indigenous languages, including Nahuatl, Yucatec Maya, and Mixtec.
  • The Nahuatl language, spoken by the Aztecs, is still used by over 1.5 million people in modern-day Mexico.
  • The Yucatec Maya language is primarily spoken in the Yucatan Peninsula and forms a significant part of the cultural heritage of the Maya civilization.
  • The Mixtec language is spoken in the southern regions of Mexico, particularly in Oaxaca, Guerrero, and Puebla, by approximately 500,000 people.
  • Mexico is a key hub for indigenous cultures, and its government actively promotes the preservation of these languages through educational and cultural initiatives.

Additional Information

  • Chile
  • While Spanish is the official language of Chile, the country has a small number of indigenous languages such as Mapudungun, Quechua, and Rapa Nui.
  • The Mapudungun language is spoken by the Mapuche people, primarily in the southern regions of Chile and Argentina.
  • However, indigenous languages in Chile are not as widely spoken as in Mexico, and Spanish remains overwhelmingly dominant.
  • Bolivia
  • Bolivia recognizes 37 official languages, including Spanish and numerous indigenous languages like Quechua, Aymara, and Guarani.
  • The Quechua language is one of the most spoken indigenous languages in Bolivia, with millions of speakers across the Andean region.
  • Aymara, another prominent language, is spoken in the highlands near Lake Titicaca and other regions.
  • While Bolivia is linguistically diverse, it does not have the same historical connection to Nahuatl, Yucatec Maya, or Mixtec as Mexico does.
  • Argentina
  • Spanish is the official and predominant language in Argentina, and it is spoken by nearly the entire population.
  • There are some indigenous languages in Argentina, such as Quechua, Guarani, and Mapudungun, but they are not as prominent as in Mexico or Bolivia.
  • Argentina does not have a historical or cultural link to the Nahuatl, Yucatec Maya, or Mixtec languages.

Question 74

In which city of India is the Indian Diamond Institute (IDI) situated? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bangalore

  2. BOption (b)

    Vadodara

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Surat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Surat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surat.

Key Points

  • The Indian Diamond Institute (IDI) is located in Surat, Gujarat, which is known as the diamond capital of India.
  • IDI was established in 1978 with the aim of providing specialized education, training, research, and consultancy in the field of diamonds, gems, and jewelry.
  • It functions as a center of excellence for the gem and jewelry industry, offering advanced courses and certifications in diamond grading, gemology, jewelry designing, and manufacturing.
  • The institute is recognized globally for its contribution to the diamond and jewelry sectors and works closely with the industry to meet the growing demand for skilled professionals.
  • Surat is a major hub for diamond cutting and polishing, contributing to about 90% of the world's diamonds, making it the ideal location for the Indian Diamond Institute.

Additional Information

  • Bangalore:
  • Bangalore, also known as Bengaluru, is the capital of Karnataka and a major center for the IT industry in India.
  • The city is referred to as the "Silicon Valley of India" due to its prominence in technology and innovation.
  • While Bangalore is home to many educational institutions and research centers, it is not associated with diamond-related industries.
  • Vadodara:
  • Vadodara, located in Gujarat, is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical significance.
  • The city is famous for educational institutions, such as Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda, and industries like petrochemicals and engineering.
  • However, it does not have a major role in the diamond or jewelry sectors.
  • Mumbai:
  • Mumbai, the financial capital of India, is a major hub for commerce, trade, and entertainment.
  • The city has a significant presence in the diamond trade, with the Bharat Diamond Bourse being located here.
  • However, the Indian Diamond Institute is based in Surat, not Mumbai.
  • Diamond Industry in India:
  • India is one of the largest diamond processing hubs in the world, with Surat being the epicenter of diamond cutting and polishing.
  • Diamonds play a crucial role in India's economy, with significant exports to various countries.
  • Institutions like IDI contribute to skill development, research, and innovation, ensuring that India remains a global leader in this sector.

Question 75

According to Hindu mythology, which of the following weapons is associated with Lord Parashurama? Kerala is said to have been born from Lord Parashurama throwing this weapon into the Arabian Sea.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mace

  2. BOption (b)

    Parashu

  3. COption (c)

    Sword

  4. DOption (d)

    Bow and Arrow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Parashu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Parashu.

Key Points

  • Lord Parashurama, the sixth avatar of Lord Vishnu in Hindu mythology, is famously associated with the Parashu (battle axe) as his divine weapon.
  • The name "Parashurama" itself means "Rama with an axe," highlighting the significance of this weapon in his identity.
  • According to mythology, Kerala was created when Lord Parashurama threw his Parashu into the Arabian Sea, reclaiming land that is now Kerala.
  • Lord Parashurama is often depicted holding the Parashu in his hands, symbolizing his immense power, warrior skills, and dedication to dharma (righteousness).
  • In Hindu epics and Puranas, Parashurama used the axe to rid the earth of corrupt and oppressive Kshatriyas, thereby establishing justice and restoring balance.

Additional Information

  • Mace
  • The mace, known as Gada in Sanskrit, is primarily associated with Lord Hanuman and Bhima in Hindu mythology.
  • It symbolizes immense strength, power, and authority.
  • The Gada is also a weapon of Lord Vishnu in his form as Gadadhara, which means "Bearer of the Mace."
  • Sword
  • The sword, referred to as Khadga in Sanskrit, is a symbol of valor and dharma in Hindu traditions.
  • It is often associated with Goddess Durga, who wields it to destroy evil forces.
  • In mythology, swords are viewed as tools for upholding righteousness and protecting the innocent.
  • Bow and Arrow
  • The bow and arrow are iconic weapons of several mythological figures, most notably Lord Rama and Arjuna.
  • Lord Rama, the seventh avatar of Vishnu, is often depicted with his bow, Kodanda, symbolizing his role as a protector of dharma.
  • Arjuna, one of the Pandavas in the Mahabharata, used the bow Gandiva, which was gifted to him by the gods.

Question 76

In which year was the Postal Index Number (PIN) or PIN Code system started in India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1972

  2. BOption (b)

    1947

  3. COption (c)

    1950

  4. DOption (d)

    1998

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1972

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

  • The Postal Index Number (PIN) or PIN Code system was introduced in India on 15 August 1972 by the India Post.
  • The system was introduced by Shriram Bhikaji Velankar, then Additional Secretary in the Union Ministry of Communications.
  • The PIN Code is a 6-digit numbering system used for uniquely identifying postal regions and facilitating efficient mail delivery.
  • India has been divided into 9 PIN zones, including one functional zone for the Indian Army (Zone 9).
  • The first digit of the PIN represents the region, the second digit represents the sub-region, the third digit represents the sorting district, and the last three digits indicate the specific post office.

Additional Information

  • PIN Code System
  • The PIN Code system is essential for the accurate and efficient delivery of mail across India, which has one of the largest postal networks in the world.
  • India Post handles millions of letters and parcels daily, and the PIN Code system plays a crucial role in sorting and routing these items to their destinations.
  • The introduction of the PIN Code system improved the reliability and speed of postal services in India.

Question 77

The World Health Organization (WHO) celebrates World Health Day on which day of the year?

  1. AOption (a)

    7 February

  2. BOption (b)

    7 April

  3. COption (c)

    7 January

  4. DOption (d)

    7 March

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7 April

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mon Apr 07 2025 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

  • World Health Day is celebrated every year on 7th April, which marks the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
  • The primary aim of World Health Day is to raise awareness about global health issues and encourage collective action to address them.
  • Each year, WHO selects a specific theme for World Health Day to highlight a priority area of public health concern. Themes in the past have included topics such as universal health coverage, mental health, and environmental health.
  • World Health Day is observed globally with events such as health fairs, workshops, and discussions to promote better health and well-being.
  • In 2025, World Health Day will be celebrated on Monday, 7th April, continuing its mission to promote health equity and sustainable development worldwide.

Additional Information

  • World Health Organization (WHO):
  • WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
  • Established on April 7, 1948, the organization works towards achieving universal health coverage, preventing diseases, and promoting mental and physical well-being globally.
  • WHO plays a pivotal role in coordinating international responses to health emergencies such as pandemics.

Question 78

Broadway and its world-famous theater shows are synonymous with which great city?

  1. AOption (a)

    New York

  2. BOption (b)

    Paris

  3. COption (c)

    London

  4. DOption (d)

    Chicago

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

New York

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New York.

Key Points

  • Broadway is an iconic avenue located in Manhattan, New York City, and is globally recognized as the hub of American theater and performing arts.
  • Broadway theaters are renowned for their high-quality stage productions, including musicals, plays, and other live performances.
  • It encompasses a total of 41 professional theaters, each with a seating capacity of 500 or more, making it one of the most prestigious locations for theatrical performances.
  • The Broadway district significantly contributes to New York City’s cultural and economic landscape, attracting millions of tourists annually.
  • Popular Broadway shows such as "The Phantom of the Opera," "Hamilton," and "The Lion King" have gained international acclaim and have set benchmarks in the entertainment industry.

Additional Information

  • Paris
  • Paris is widely recognized as the cultural capital of France and is famous for its art, architecture, and history.
  • It is home to the iconic Palais Garnier Opera House, which hosts ballet and opera performances.
  • The city is also known for theaters like Théâtre des Champs-Élysées and Théâtre de la Ville, which showcase a range of performances from classical to contemporary art forms.
  • London
  • London is the cultural hub of the United Kingdom and is renowned for its West End theater district, similar to Broadway in New York City.
  • The West End features numerous iconic theaters, such as the Royal Opera House and the National Theatre, and is famous for productions like "Les Misérables" and "The Mousetrap."
  • It is considered a global center for performing arts, drawing millions of theater enthusiasts from around the world.
  • Chicago
  • Chicago has a rich theater scene and is home to the Goodman Theatre, Steppenwolf Theatre Company, and the Chicago Shakespeare Theater.
  • It is known for its contributions to improvisational comedy, with institutions like The Second City being pioneers in the field.
  • While Chicago is prominent in the theater world, it does not rival Broadway or the West End in terms of global recognition.

Question 79

Which of the following groups of countries make up the Iberian Peninsula?

  1. AOption (a)

    Present-day North and South Korea

  2. BOption (b)

    Present-day Iraq and Syria

  3. COption (c)

    Present-day Uruguay and Argentina

  4. DOption (d)

    Present-day Spain and Portugal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Present-day Spain and Portugal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Present-day Spain and Portugal.

Key Points

  • The Iberian Peninsula is located in the southwestern corner of Europe and consists mainly of Spain and Portugal.
  • It is named after the ancient Iberians, who were among the earliest known inhabitants of the region.
  • The peninsula also includes small parts of Andorra and Gibraltar and a minor section of southern France.
  • The Iberian Peninsula is surrounded by water on three sides: the Atlantic Ocean to the west, the Mediterranean Sea to the east, and the Bay of Biscay to the north.
  • It covers an area of approximately 583,000 square kilometers, making it one of the largest peninsulas in Europe.

Additional Information

  • Present-day North and South Korea
  • North and South Korea are located on the Korean Peninsula, which is situated in East Asia.
  • The Korean Peninsula is bordered by China and Russia to the north and surrounded by the Yellow Sea, the East China Sea, and the Sea of Japan (East Sea).
  • The region is known for its division into two sovereign states, North Korea and South Korea, since the Korean War (1950–1953).
  • Present-day Iraq and Syria
  • Iraq and Syria are located in the Middle East and are part of the region historically known as Mesopotamia.
  • This area is often referred to as the “Cradle of Civilization” due to the early development of human culture and agriculture along the Tigris and Euphrates rivers.
  • Present-day Uruguay and Argentina
  • Uruguay and Argentina are located in South America and are part of the Southern Cone region.
  • The two countries share the Río de la Plata basin, but they are not situated on a peninsula.
  • The region is known for its plains, pampas, and economic ties, particularly in agriculture and cattle ranching.

Important Points

  • The Iberian Peninsula
  • The Iberian Peninsula has a rich history, including the influence of the Roman Empire, Visigoths, and Moors.
  • The region played a significant role in the Age of Exploration, with Spain and Portugal leading maritime expeditions.
  • Modern-day Spain and Portugal are known for their diverse cultures, languages, and historical landmarks, including UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Question 80

The Warangal Fort, whose ornamental gate is now the official emblem of the state of Telangana, was built by which of the following dynasties?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandela Dynasty

  2. BOption (b)

    Vijayanagar Dynasty

  3. COption (c)

    Kakatiya Dynasty

  4. DOption (d)

    Rashtrakuta Dynasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kakatiya Dynasty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kakatiya Dynasty.

Key Points

  • The Warangal Fort was constructed during the reign of the Kakatiya Dynasty, specifically under the leadership of King Ganapati Deva and later refined by Queen Rudrama Devi.
  • The fort is renowned for its unique architectural style, including the iconic ornamental gate known as the "Kakatiya Kala Thoranam," which is now the official emblem of Telangana state.
  • Built in the 13th century, the fort served as a strategic and cultural center of the Kakatiya kingdom, showcasing their architectural and engineering prowess.
  • The fort features concentric walls made of massive granite stones and is surrounded by a moat, reflecting advanced defense mechanisms of the Kakatiya era.
  • UNESCO has included the fort in its tentative list for World Heritage Sites due to its historical significance and unique architectural elements.

Additional Information

  • Chandela Dynasty
  • The Chandela Dynasty ruled central India, particularly the Bundelkhand region, between the 9th and 13th centuries.
  • They are best known for constructing the exquisite Khajuraho temples, which are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and reflect advanced temple architecture and intricate carvings.
  • These temples are dedicated to Hindu deities and Jain Tirthankaras, showcasing India's spiritual and artistic heritage.
  • Vijayanagar Dynasty
  • The Vijayanagar Empire existed from the 14th to 17th centuries in South India and was famous for its capital, Hampi, now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • It was known for its military strength, trade networks, and patronage of art and architecture, including the construction of temples like the Virupaksha Temple and the Vittala Temple.
  • The empire played a significant role in promoting Hindu culture and resisting invasions from the Delhi Sultanate and Bahmani Kingdom.
  • Rashtrakuta Dynasty
  • The Rashtrakuta Dynasty ruled large parts of the Indian subcontinent between the 8th and 10th centuries.
  • They are best known for their contributions to art, literature, and architecture, particularly the Kailasa Temple at Ellora, which is a monolithic rock-cut temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • The Rashtrakutas were also patrons of Jainism and Sanskrit literature, as evidenced by their support for scholars like Amoghavarsha and the creation of Kavirajamarga.

Arithmetical and Numerical Ability 1 (20 questions)

Question 81

Solve the following.

8(2.65)3−1(5.3)2+6.3=?\frac{8(2.65)^3-1}{(5.3)^2+6.3}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    5.35

  2. BOption (b)

    3.35

  3. COption (c)

    4.30

  4. DOption (d)

    6.45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4.30

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expression: 8(2.65)3−1(5.3)2+6.3=?\frac{8(2.65)^3-1}{(5.3)^2+6.3}=?

Formula Used:

a3 - b3 = (a - b)(a2 + b2 + ab)

Arithmetic Operations: Parentheses → Exponents → Multiplication/Division → Addition/Subtraction

Calculation:

8(2.65)3−1(5.3)2+6.3=?\frac{8(2.65)^3-1}{(5.3)^2+6.3}=?

⇒ (2×2.65)3−1(5.3)2+6.3=?\frac{(2\times2.65)^3-1}{(5.3)^2+6.3}=?

⇒ (5.3)3−1(5.3)2+5.3+1=?\frac{(5.3)^3-1}{(5.3)^2+5.3 + 1}=?

⇒ (5.3−1)(5.32+1+5.3×1)(5.3)2+5.3+1=?\frac{(5.3 - 1)(5.3^2 + 1 + 5.3 \times 1)}{(5.3)^2+5.3 + 1}=?

⇒ (5.3−1)(5.32+1+5.3)(5.3)2+5.3+1=?\frac{(5.3 - 1)(5.3^2 + 1 + 5.3)}{(5.3)^2+5.3 + 1}=?

⇒ 5.3 - 1 = 4.3

∴ The correct answer is 4.3.

Question 82

If the numerator of a fraction is decreased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the value of the fraction becomes 47\frac{4}{7} . What is the original fraction?

  1. AOption (a)

    2532\frac{25}{32}

  2. BOption (b)

    3049\frac{30}{49}

  3. COption (c)

    2528\frac{25}{28}

  4. DOption (d)

    1517\frac{15}{17}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2528\frac{25}{28}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

New fraction = 4/7

Numerator decreased by 20% ⇒ new numerator = 0.8x

Denominator increased by 25% ⇒ new denominator = 1.25y

Formula used:

0.8x / 1.25y = 4/7

Calculations:

0.8x / 1.25y = 4/7

⇒ 0.8 / 1.25 = (4/7) × (y/x)

⇒ 0.64 = (4/7) × (y/x)

⇒ y/x = (0.64 × 7) / 4

⇒ y/x = 4.48 / 4 = 1.12

⇒ x/y = 1 / 1.12 = 25/28

∴ Original fraction = 25/28

Question 83

The average score of a class in a test was 56. The average score of the brightest 25% students was 80 and the average score of the dullest 35% students was 30. If the ratio of the boys and girls in the remaining 40% of students was 2:3 and the average score of the boys in this remaining group was 60, what was approximately the average score of the girls in the remaining 40%7 

  1. AOption (a)

    62.40

  2. BOption (b)

    68.75

  3. COption (c)

    60.20

  4. DOption (d)

    66.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

66.25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average score of the class = 56

Average score of the brightest 25% students = 80

Average score of the dullest 35% students = 30

Ratio of boys and girls in the remaining 40% = 2:3

Average score of boys in the remaining 40% = 60

Formula Used:

Total average score = (Sum of scores of all students) / (Total number of students)

Average score = (Sum of scores in a group) / (Number of students in that group)

Calculation:

Let the total number of students = 100 (assume for simplicity).

⇒ Number of brightest 25% students = 25

⇒ Sum of scores of brightest 25% students = 25 × 80 = 2000

⇒ Number of dullest 35% students = 35

⇒ Sum of scores of dullest 35% students = 35 × 30 = 1050

⇒ Number of remaining 40% students = 40

⇒ Total sum of scores of all students = 100 × 56 = 5600

⇒ Sum of scores of remaining 40% students = 5600 - (2000 + 1050) = 2550

Let the number of boys in the remaining 40% = 2x and girls = 3x (ratio 2:3).

⇒ 2x + 3x = 40

⇒ x = 8

⇒ Number of boys = 2x = 16

⇒ Number of girls = 3x = 24

⇒ Sum of scores of boys = 16 × 60 = 960

⇒ Sum of scores of girls = Total sum of scores of remaining 40% - Sum of scores of boys

⇒ Sum of scores of girls = 2550 - 960 = 1590

⇒ Average score of girls = (Sum of scores of girls) / (Number of girls)

⇒ Average score of girls = 1590 / 24 = 66.25

∴ The correct answer is 66.25.

Question 84

The value of (0.3×0.3−0.02)(0.2×0.2+0.01)−1(0.3 \times 0.3 - 0.02) (0.2 \times 0.2 + 0.01) ^{ - 1} is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    1.45

  2. BOption (b)

    1.70

  3. COption (c)

    0.40

  4. DOption (d)

    1.40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1.40

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(0.3×0.3−0.02)(0.2×0.2+0.01)−1(0.3 \times 0.3 - 0.02) (0.2 \times 0.2 + 0.01) ^{ - 1}

Formula Used:

E×pression = (a × a - b) / (c × c + d)

Calculation:

⇒ (0.3 × 0.3 - 0.02) (0.2 × 0.2 + 0.01)-1

⇒ (0.09 - 0.02) / (0.04 + 0.01)

⇒ 0.07 / 0.05

⇒ 1.4

∴ The correct answer is 1.40.

Question 85

In an examination, the average marks of a student per paper were 72. If he would have secured 15 more marks in Mathematics and 17 more marks in History, his average marks per paper would have been 75.2. How may papers were there in the examination?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average marks per paper = 72

Increase in marks for Mathematics = 15

Increase in marks for History = 17

New average marks per paper = 75.2

Formula Used:

Total marks = Average marks × Number of papers

New total marks = Old total marks + Increase in marks

New average marks = New total marks / Number of papers

Calculation:

Let the number of papers be n.

⇒ Old total marks = 72 × n

⇒ Increase in total marks = 15 + 17 = 32

⇒ New total marks = (72 × n) + 32

New average marks = 75.2

⇒ New total marks = 75.2 × n

⇒ (72 × n) + 32 = 75.2 × n

⇒ 32 = 75.2 × n - 72 × n

⇒ 32 = 3.2 × n

⇒ n = 32 / 3.2

⇒ n = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Question 86

Find the value of x in the following equation.

27.48−x3.5×0.3=20\frac{27.48-x}{3.5 \times 0.3}=20

  1. AOption (a)

    3.68

  2. BOption (b)

    9.78

  3. COption (c)

    6.48

  4. DOption (d)

    7.48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6.48

Why this answer is correct

Given:

27.48−x3.5×0.3=20\frac{27.48-x}{3.5 × 0.3}=20

Calculation:

27.48−x3.5×0.3=20\frac{27.48-x}{3.5 × 0.3}=20

⇒ (27.48 - x) = 20(3.5 × 0.3)

⇒ (27.48 - x) = 20 × 1.05

⇒ (27.48 - x) = 21

⇒ x = 27.48 - 21

⇒ x = 6.48

∴ The correct answer is 6.48.

Question 87

A shopkeeper purchased 30 kg of wheat at 30 per kg and mixed it with 40 kg of wheat which was purchased at 20 per kg. At what approximate rate should he sell the mixture to gain a profit of 10%? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹31.25

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ 24.15

  3. COption (c)

    ₹28.26 

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹26.71

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹26.71

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Quantity of wheat purchased at ₹30/kg = 30 kg

Quantity of wheat purchased at ₹20/kg = 40 kg

Profit percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

Cost price of mixture = (Quantity₁ × Rate₁ + Quantity₂ × Rate₂) / (Quantity₁ + Quantity₂)

Selling price = Cost price × (1 + Profit % / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Cost price of mixture = (30 × 30 + 40 × 20) / (30 + 40)

⇒ Cost price of mixture = (900 + 800) / 70

⇒ Cost price of mixture = 1700 / 70

⇒ Cost price of mixture = ₹24.29

⇒ Selling price = ₹24.29 × (1 + 10 / 100)

⇒ Selling price = ₹24.29 × 1.10

⇒ Selling price = ₹26.71

∴ The correct answer is ₹26.71.

Question 88

An aggregate of 36% of the total marks is required to pass an examination and 60% to get a first class. A student scored 298 marks and failed by 26 marks. How many marks should he have secured to get a first class? 

  1. AOption (a)

    540 

  2. BOption (b)

    560

  3. COption (c)

    420

  4. DOption (d)

    480

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

540 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Passing marks = 36% of total marks

First-class marks = 60% of total marks

Marks scored by the student = 298

Marks failed by = 26

Formula Used:

Total marks = (Marks scored + Marks failed) / Passing percentage

Marks for first class = 60% of total marks

Calculation:

⇒ Total marks = (298 + 26) / 36%

⇒ Total marks = 324 / 0.36

⇒ Total marks = 900

⇒ Marks for first class = 60% of 900

⇒ Marks for first class = 900 × 0.60

⇒ Marks for first class = 540

∴ The correct answer is 540.

Question 89

If 14:1x=12x:1849,\frac{1}{4} : \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{2x} : \frac{18}{49}, what is the value of x?

  1. AOption (a)

    2132\frac{1}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    3133\frac{1}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    1231\frac{2}{3}

  4. DOption (d)

    2232\frac{2}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2132\frac{1}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1/4 : 1/x = 1/2x : 18/49

Formula Used:

a : b = c : d ⇒ a/b = c/d

Calculation:

⇒ 1/4 : 1/x = 1/2x : 18/49

⇒ 1/4 × x/1 = 1/2x × 49/18

⇒ x/4 = 49/36x

⇒ x × x = (49 × 4) / 36

⇒ x2 = 196 / 36

⇒ x2 = 49 / 9

⇒ x = √(49 / 9)

⇒ x = 7 / 3

⇒ x = 2132\frac{1}{3}

∴ The correct answer is 2132\frac{1}{3} .

Question 90

The containers A and B have mixtures of milk and water in the ratios of 3: 5 and 7 :9 * respectively. If equal quantities from both the containers are mixed to form a new mixture, what will be ratio of milk and water in the new mixture? 

  1. AOption (a)

    13:19

  2. BOption (b)

    13:17

  3. COption (c)

    5:7

  4. DOption (d)

    5:9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13:19

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Container A ratio (Milk : Water) = 3 : 5

Container B ratio (Milk : Water) = 7 : 9

Equal quantities taken from both containers

Formula used:

Milk ratio = milk from A + milk from B

Water ratio = water from A + water from B

Calculations:

From A:

Total parts = 3 + 5 = 8

Milk = 3/8 , Water = 5/8

From B:

Total parts = 7 + 9 = 16

Milk = 7/16 , Water = 9/16

Take LCM of 8 and 16 = 16 (to get equal quantity)

⇒ Milk from A = 3/8 × 2 = 6/16

⇒ Water from A = 5/8 × 2 = 10/16

Milk from B = 7/16

Water from B = 9/16

⇒ Total milk = 6/16 + 7/16 = 13/16

⇒ Total water = 10/16 + 9/16 = 19/16

∴ Ratio of milk and water = 13 : 19

Question 91

Which of the following is the smallest number that leaves a remainder of 7 when 295, 403, and 547 are divided by it?

  1. AOption (a)

    64

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

36

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers: 295, 403, 547

Required: Smallest number that leaves remainder 7 when each is divided

Formula used:

If a number leaves the same remainder when dividing several numbers, then divisor = HCF of (numbers − remainder)

Calculations:

⇒ 295 − 7 = 288

⇒ 403 − 7 = 396

⇒ 547 − 7 = 540

Now find HCF of 288, 396, 540

⇒ HCF(288, 396)

⇒ 396 − 288 = 108

⇒ HCF(288, 108)

⇒ 288 ÷ 108 = 2 (remainder 72)

⇒ 108 ÷ 72 = 1 (remainder 36)

⇒ 72 ÷ 36 = 2 (remainder 0)

⇒ HCF = 36

Now check with 540

⇒ 540 ÷ 36 = 15 (no remainder)

∴ The smallest number is 36.

Question 92

Which one number would replace both the question marks in the following equation? 

38?=?342\frac{38}{?}=\frac{?}{342}

  1. AOption (a)

    144

  2. BOption (b)

    114

  3. COption (c)

    118

  4. DOption (d)

    124

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

114

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(38)/(?) = (?)/(342)

Number options: 144, 114, 118, 124

Formula Used:

a / x = x / b

Cross multiplication: x2 = a × b

x = √(a × b)

Calculation:

⇒ a = 38, b = 342

⇒ x = √(38 × 342)

⇒ x = √(12996)

⇒ x = 114

∴ The correct answer is 114.

Question 93

If 2.5(3+5)−18÷x=42.5(3 + 5) - 18 \div x = 4, then the value of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1.125

  2. BOption (b)

    0.50

  3. COption (c)

    0.88

  4. DOption (d)

    1.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.125

Why this answer is correct

Given:

2.5(3 + 5) - 18 ÷ x = 4

Formula Used:

Expand brackets and isolate x.

Calculation:

⇒ 2.5 × (3 + 5) - 18 ÷ x = 4

⇒ 2.5 × 8 - 18 ÷ x = 4

⇒ 20 - 18 ÷ x = 4

⇒ 20 - 4 = 18 ÷ x

⇒ 16 = 18 ÷ x

⇒ x = 18 / 16

⇒ x = 1.125

∴ The correct answer is 1.125.

Question 94

The HCF of 23,35,58\frac{2}{3},\frac{3}{5},\frac{5}{8} and 89\frac{8}{9} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1120\frac{1}{120}

  2. BOption (b)

    1360\frac{1}{360}

  3. COption (c)

    1180\frac{1}{180}

  4. DOption (d)

    160\frac{1}{60}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1360\frac{1}{360}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Fractions: (2)/(3), (3)/(5), (5)/(8), (8)/(9)

Formula Used:

HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators / LCM of denominators

Calculation:

Numerators: 2, 3, 5, 8

Denominators: 3, 5, 8, 9

HCF of numerators = 1 (as 2, 3, 5, 8 have no common factor other than 1)

LCM of denominators = LCM(3, 5, 8, 9)

⇒ LCM(3, 5, 8, 9) = 360

HCF of fractions = 1 / 360

∴ The correct answer is (1)/(360).

Question 95

If 30% of 25% of 57\frac{5}{7} of x = 105 what is the value of x ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1880

  2. BOption (b)

    1760

  3. COption (c)

    1960

  4. DOption (d)

    1660

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1960

Why this answer is correct

Given:

30% of 25% of (5/7) of x = 105

Formula Used:

Percentage formula: P% of Q = (P/100) × Q

Calculation:

⇒ 30% of 25% of (5/7) of x = 105

⇒ (30/100) × (25/100) × (5/7) × x = 105

⇒ (30 × 25 × 5 × x) / (100 × 100 × 7) = 105

⇒ (3750 × x) / 70000 = 105

⇒ x = (105 × 70000) / 3750

⇒ x = 196000 / 3750

⇒ x = 1960

∴ The correct answer is 1960.

Question 96

If x :y  = 5:3 , find the value of 8x+5y7x−5y\frac{8x+5y}{7x-5y}

  1. AOption (a)

    2142\frac{1}{4}

  2. BOption (b)

    1121\frac{1}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    2342\frac{3}{4}

  4. DOption (d)

    3343\frac{3}{4}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2342\frac{3}{4}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x : y = 5 : 3

Calculation:

Let x = 5k and y = 3k (as x : y = 5 : 3).

⇒ 8x+5y7x−5y\frac{8x+5y}{7x-5y}

⇒ 8(5k)+5(3k)7(5k)−5(3k)\frac{8(5k)+5(3k)}{7(5k)-5(3k)}

⇒ 40k+15k35k−15k\frac{40k+15k}{35k-15k}

⇒ 55k20k\frac{55k}{20k}

⇒ 11 / 4

⇒ 2342\frac{3}{4}

∴ The correct answer is 2342\frac{3}{4}.

Question 97

Find the greatest four-digit number that will leave remainders 5, 6, 12 and 17, when divided by 8, 9, 15 and 20 respectively. 

  1. AOption (a)

    9728

  2. BOption (b)

    9993

  3. COption (c)

    8723

  4. DOption (d)

    9723

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9723

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Remainder when divided by 8 = 5

Remainder when divided by 9 = 6

Remainder when divided by 15 = 12

Remainder when divided by 20 = 17

Formula Used:

Chinese Remainder Theorem

Number = LCM of divisors × k + common remainder

Calculation:

⇒ Adjust remainders: (8 - 5 = 3), (9 - 6 = 3), (15 - 12 = 3), (20 - 17 = 3)

⇒ Number leaves the same remainder (3) when divided by 8, 9, 15, and 20.

⇒ Find LCM of 8, 9, 15, and 20.

⇒ Prime factorization: 8 = 23, 9 = 32, 15 = 3 × 5, 20 = 22 × 5

⇒ LCM = 23 × 32 × 5 = 360

⇒ Number = 360 × k + 3

⇒ Greatest four-digit number: 9999

⇒ Solve for k: 360 × k + 3 ≤ 9999

⇒ 360 × k ≤ 9996

⇒ k = 27 (since 360 × 27 = 9720)

⇒ Number = 360 × 27 + 3

⇒ Number = 9723

∴ The correct answer is 9723.

Question 98

The average weight of 12 girls is 6 kg less than the average weight of 18 boys. If the total weight of 12 girls is 276 kg. What is the average weight of 12 girls and 18 boys taken together? 

  1. AOption (a)

    25.4 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    28.8 kg

  3. COption (c)

    27.2 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    26.6 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

26.6 kg

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total weight of 12 girls = 276 kg

Average of girls = 276 ÷ 12 = 23 kg

Average of girls is 6 kg less than boys

⇒ Average of boys = 23 + 6 = 29 kg

Formula used:

Combined average = (Total weight of girls + Total weight of boys) ÷ (Total students)

Calculations:

Girls' total weight = 276 kg

Boys' total weight = 18 × 29 = 522 kg

⇒ Combined total weight = 276 + 522 = 798 kg

⇒ Total students = 12 + 18 = 30

⇒ Combined average = 798 ÷ 30 = 26.6 kg

∴ The average weight of 12 girls and 18 boys together is 26.6 kg.

Question 99

Solve the following.

9.25−8.51+12+14/5=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{1+\frac{1}{2+\frac{1}{4/5}}}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.75

  2. BOption (b)

    3.25

  3. COption (c)

    3.65

  4. DOption (d)

    2.50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2.75

Why this answer is correct

Given:

9.25−8.51+12+14/5=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{1+\frac{1}{2+\frac{1}{4/5}}}=?

Formula Used:

Subtraction and division

Fraction simplification

Calculation:

9.25−8.51+12+14/5=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{1+\frac{1}{2+\frac{1}{4/5}}}=?

⇒ 9.25−8.51+12+54=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{1+\frac{1}{2+\frac{5}{4}}}=?

⇒ 9.25−8.51+1134=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{1+\frac{1}{\frac{13}{4}}}=?

⇒ 9.25−8.51+413=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{1+\frac{4}{13}}=?

⇒ 9.25−8.51713=?9.25 - \frac{8.5}{\frac{17}{13}}=?

⇒ 9.25−8.5×1317=?9.25 - \frac{8.5 \times 13}{17}=?

⇒ 9.25−(0.5×13)=?9.25 - (0.5 \times 13)=?

⇒ 9.25 - 6.5 = 2.75

∴ The correct answer is 2.75.

Question 100

An amount of 1,268 is to be divided among A, B and C such that their shares when reduced by₹7, ₹12 and ₹17 respectively would be in the ratio of 2:57. What is B's share? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹633

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹582

  3. COption (c)

    ₹452

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹181

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹452

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total amount = ₹1,268

A's share reduced by ₹7

B's share reduced by ₹12

C's share reduced by ₹17

Ratio of shares after reduction = 2:5:7

Formula Used:

Adjusted shares = Actual shares - Reduction

Total adjusted shares = Sum of individual adjusted shares

Ratio formula: Share = (Ratio part / Total ratio) × Total adjusted amount

Calculation:

⇒ Total ratio = 2 + 5 + 7 = 14

⇒ Total adjusted amount = ₹1,268 - (₹7 + ₹12 + ₹17) = ₹1,268 - ₹36 = ₹1,232

⇒ B's adjusted share = (5 / 14) × ₹1,232

⇒ B's adjusted share = ₹440

⇒ B's actual share = B's adjusted share + ₹12

⇒ B's actual share = ₹440 + ₹12 = ₹452

∴ The correct answer is ₹452.

Arithmetical and Numerical Ability 2 (20 questions)

Question 101

The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money at 10% interest per annum for 2 years is 185. What is the sum?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹22,500

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹24,500

  3. COption (c)

    ₹37,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹18,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹18,500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Compound interest (CI) rate = 10% per annum

Time = 2 years

Difference between CI and SI = ₹185

Formula Used:

CI = Principal × (1 + Rate/100)Time

SI = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

Difference = CI - SI

Calculation:

Let the sum (Principal) = P.

Difference = P × [(1 + 10/100)2 - 1] - (P × 10 × 2)/100

⇒ ₹185 = P × [(1 + 0.1)2 - 1] - (P × 20)/100

⇒ ₹185 = P × [(1.1)2 - 1] - P × 0.2

⇒ ₹185 = P × [1.21 - 1] - P × 0.2

⇒ ₹185 = P × 0.21 - P × 0.2

⇒ ₹185 = P × (0.21 - 0.2)

⇒ ₹185 = P × 0.01

⇒ P = ₹185 / 0.01

⇒ P = ₹18,500

∴ The correct answer is ₹18,500.

Question 102

The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of a total of 400 employees in different departments of a company. The table shows the ratio of male to female employees in different departments. Study the chart and the table and answer the question that follows.

If 40% of the male employees and 60% of the female employees in each department are executives, what is the ratio of male non-executives to female non-executives in the Accounts department?

  1. AOption (a)

    9:14

  2. BOption (b)

    7:11

  3. COption (c)

    4:7

  4. DOption (d)

    9:11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9:14

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total employees = 400

Accounts department = 25% of 400 = 100 employees

Male : Female in Accounts = 3 : 7

Male executives = 40% of males

Female executives = 60% of females

Formula used:

Total = M + F

M = (Ratio part ÷ Total ratio) × Total employees

Non-executives = Total − Executives

Calculations:

Total employees in Accounts = 100

Ratio 3 + 7 = 10

⇒ Males = 100 × 3 ÷ 10 = 30

⇒ Females = 100 × 7 ÷ 10 = 70

Male executives = 40% × 30 = 12

⇒ Male non-executives = 30 − 12 = 18

Female executives = 60% × 70 = 42

⇒ Female non-executives = 70 − 42 = 28

Ratio = Male non-executives : Female non-executives

⇒ Ratio = 18 : 28

⇒ Ratio = 9 : 14

∴ Required ratio = 9 : 14.

Question 103

At simple interest, a certain sum of money amounts to ₹ 1,488 in 2 years and to 1,776 in 4 years. Find the sum.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹900

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,600

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,450

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹1,200

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Amount after 2 years = ₹1,488

Amount after 4 years = ₹1,776

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Principal (P) × Rate (R) × Time (T) / 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

SI for 2 years = ₹1,776 - ₹1,488

⇒ SI for 2 years = ₹288

SI for 1 year = ₹288 / 2

⇒ SI for 1 year = ₹144

Principal (P) = Amount after 2 years - SI for 2 years

⇒ P = ₹1,488 - ₹288

⇒ P = ₹1,200

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,200.

Question 104

A 50-cm-wide path is made around a circular garden having a diameter of 10 m. What is approximately the area of the path?

  1. AOption (a)

    32.20 m²

  2. BOption (b)

    16.5m2

  3. COption (c)

    18.85 m²

  4. DOption (d)

    13.35 m²

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16.5m2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Diameter of the garden = 10 m

Width of the path = 0.5 m

Formula Used:

Radius of the garden = Diameter / 2

Radius of the outer circle = Radius of the garden + Width of the path

Area of a circle = π × radius2

Area of the path = Area of the outer circle - Area of the garden

Calculation:

⇒ Radius of the garden = 10 / 2 = 5 m

⇒ Radius of the outer circle = 5 + 0.5 = 5.5 m

⇒ Area of the garden = π × 52 = 3.14 × 25 = 78.5 m2

⇒ Area of the outer circle = π × 5.52 = 3.14 × 30.25 = 94.985 m2

⇒ Area of the path = 94.985 - 78.5 = 16.485 m2

∴ The correct answer is 16.5 m2.

Question 105

By selling 78 apples, a fruit seller gains the selling price of 18 apples. What is his gain percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    33.3%

  2. BOption (b)

    23.7%

  3. COption (c)

    30%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

By selling 78 apples, gain = selling price of 18 apples

Formula used:

Gain % = (Gain ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

Let SP of 1 apple = x

⇒ Gain = 18x

⇒ SP (78 apples) = 78x

CP = SP − Gain

⇒ CP = 78x − 18x = 60x

Gain % = (18x ÷ 60x) × 100

⇒ Gain % = (18 ÷ 60) × 100

⇒ Gain % = 30%

∴ Gain percent = 30%.

Question 106

A certain sum amounts to 1,320 after 2 years and to 1,760 after 4 years on compound interest. What is the sum?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,200

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹990

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1080

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹990

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Amount after 2 years = 1320

Amount after 4 years = 1760

Formula used:

Amount ratio for equal CI periods gives growth factor:

Growth factor in 2 years = 1760 ÷ 1320

Sum = Amount after 2 years ÷ (Growth factor)1

Calculations:

Growth factor for 2 years:

⇒ 1760 ÷ 1320 = 4 ÷ 3

This is the growth for 2 years.

Amount after 2 years = 1320

⇒ Sum = 1320 ÷ (4 ÷ 3)

⇒ Sum = 1320 × 3 ÷ 4

⇒ Sum = 3960 ÷ 4

⇒ Sum = 990

∴ The sum (principal) = 990.

Question 107

The following table shows the total number of students studying in various colleges over six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows.

YearsABCD
2013325410210320
2014270380260340
2015420440310410
2016360260250260
2017275350340360
2018350360230310

What is the ratio of the total number of students studying in College C to that in D over the six years?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 : 6

  2. BOption (b)

    4 : 7

  3. COption (c)

    2 : 3

  4. DOption (d)

    4 : 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4 : 5

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Ratio = Total(C) : Total(D)

Calculations:

Total(C) = 210 + 260 + 310 + 250 + 340 + 230

⇒ Total(C) = 1600

Total(D) = 320 + 340 + 410 + 260 + 360 + 310

⇒ Total(D) = 2000

⇒ Ratio = 1600 : 2000

⇒ Simplify dividing by 400

⇒ Ratio = 4 : 5

∴ Required ratio = 4 : 5.

Question 108

The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of a total of 400 employees in different departments of a company. The table shows the ratio of male to female employees in different departments. Study the chart and the table and answer the question that follows.

What is the total number of female employees in the Marketing department?

  1. AOption (a)

    56

  2. BOption (b)

    45

  3. COption (c)

    32

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

32

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total employees = 400

Marketing department = 22% of 400

Male : Female in Marketing = 7 : 4

Formula used:

Total in Marketing = 22% × 400

Female = (Female ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total Marketing employees

Calculations:

Total in Marketing = 400 × 22 ÷ 100

⇒ 88 employees

Ratio sum = 7 + 4 = 11

Females = 88 × 4 ÷ 11

⇒ 88 × 4 ÷ 11 = 32

∴ Total female employees in the Marketing department = 32.

Question 109

The length of a rectangle is twice its breadth. If its length as well as breadth is increased by 5 cm, its area increases by 250cm2. What is the length of the rectangle?

  1. AOption (a)

    16 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    30 cm 

  3. COption (c)

    24 cm 

  4. DOption (d)

    34 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

30 cm 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of rectangle = 2 × Breadth

Increase in length = 5 cm

Increase in breadth = 5 cm

Increase in area = 250 cm2

Formula Used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

New area = New length × New breadth

Calculation:

Let breadth = x cm.

⇒ Length = 2x cm

New length = 2x + 5 cm

New breadth = x + 5 cm

New area - Original area = 250 cm2

⇒ (2x + 5) × (x + 5) - (2x × x) = 250

⇒ 2x2 + 10x + 5x + 25 - 2x2 = 250

⇒ 15x + 25 = 250

⇒ 15x = 225

⇒ x = 15

Length = 2x = 2 × 15 = 30 cm

∴ The correct answer is 30 cm.

Question 110

The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 88 cm and its curved surface area is 1320cm2 . What is its volume?

  1. AOption (a)

    7520 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    8640 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    6420 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    9240 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9240 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Circumference of the base of the cylinder = 88 cm

Curved surface area (CSA) = 1320 cm2

Formula Used:

Circumference of base = 2πr

Curved surface area = 2πrh

Volume = πr2h

Calculation:

⇒ Circumference of the base = 2πr

⇒ 88 = 2 × (22/7) × r

⇒ r = (88 × 7) / (2 × 22)

⇒ r = 14 cm

⇒ Curved surface area = 2πrh

⇒ 1320 = 2 × (22/7) × 14 × h

⇒ h = 1320 × 7 / (2 × 22 × 14)

⇒ h = 21 cm

⇒ Volume = πr2h

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 142 × 21

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 196 × 21

⇒ Volume = 22 × 28 × 21

⇒ Volume = 9240 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 9240 cm3.

Question 111

A man takes 6 hours 30 minutes to walk from A to B and then drive back from B to A. He would have gained 2 hours if he would have driven both ways. How long would the man take to walk both ways?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 hours 15 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    8 hours 30 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    7 hours 45 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    9 hours 30 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8 hours 30 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Time taken to walk from A to B and drive back from B to A = 6 hours 30 minutes = 6.5 hours

Time saved if driven both ways = 2 hours

Formula Used:

Time taken to walk both ways = Time taken to walk one way + Time taken to walk one way

Time taken to walk one way = Total time taken - Time saved / 2

Calculation:

⇒ Time taken to walk one way = (6.5 hours - 2 hours) / 2

⇒ Time taken to walk one way = 4.5 hours / 2

⇒ Time taken to walk one way = 2.25 hours

⇒ Time taken to walk both ways = 2.25 hours × 2

⇒ Time taken to walk both ways = 4.5 hours × 2

⇒ Time taken to walk both ways = 8 hours 30 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 8 hours 30 minutes.

Question 112

4 men and 9 boys can complete a piece of work in 3 days, while 2 men and 6 boys can do the same work in 5 days. How many days would 8 men and 6 boys take to complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.5 days

  2. BOption (b)

    2 days

  3. COption (c)

    1.5 days

  4. DOption (d)

    3.5 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2.5 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

4 men and 9 boys complete the work in 3 days.

2 men and 6 boys complete the same work in 5 days.

To find: Time taken by 8 men and 6 boys to complete the same work.

Formula Used:

Work = Rate × Time

LCM method for time and work problems.

Calculation:

Let 1 man's 1-day work = M, and 1 boy's 1-day work = B.

⇒ (4M + 9B) × 3 = Total work

⇒ Total work = 12M + 27B

⇒ (2M + 6B) × 5 = Total work

⇒ Total work = 10M + 30B

Equating both expressions for total work:

⇒ 12M + 27B = 10M + 30B

⇒ 2M = 3B

⇒ M = 1.5B

Substitute M = 1.5B in the first equation:

⇒ Total work = 12(1.5B) + 27B

⇒ Total work = 18B + 27B = 45B

Now, find the work rate of 8 men and 6 boys:

⇒ Work rate = 8M + 6B

⇒ Work rate = 8(1.5B) + 6B

⇒ Work rate = 12B + 6B = 18B

Time taken = Total work / Work rate

⇒ Time taken = 45B / 18B

⇒ Time taken = 2.5 days

∴ The correct answer is 2.5 days.

Question 113

The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of a total of 400 employees in different departments of a company. The table shows the ratio of male to female employees in different departments. Study the chart and the table and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the number of female employees to the male employees in the IT and Marketing departments taken together?

  1. AOption (a)

    7:15

  2. BOption (b)

    13:17

  3. COption (c)

    17:20

  4. DOption (d)

    17:19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17:20

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total employees = 400

IT department = 15% of 400

Marketing department = 22% of 400

IT (Male : Female) = 2 : 3

Marketing (Male : Female) = 7 : 4

Formula used:

Total in a department = (Percentage × 400) ÷ 100

Females = (Female ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total employees

Males = (Male ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total employees

Calculations:

IT Department:

Total IT = 400 × 15 ÷ 100 = 60

Ratio sum = 2 + 3 = 5

Females(IT) = 60 × 3 ÷ 5 = 36

Males(IT) = 60 × 2 ÷ 5 = 24

Marketing Department:

Total Marketing = 400 × 22 ÷ 100 = 88

Ratio sum = 7 + 4 = 11

Females(Marketing) = 88 × 4 ÷ 11 = 32

Males(Marketing) = 88 × 7 ÷ 11 = 56

Total Females = 36 + 32 = 68

Total Males = 24 + 56 = 80

⇒ Required ratio = Females : Males

⇒ 68 : 80

⇒ Simplified = 17 : 20

∴ The ratio of female to male employees in IT and Marketing together is 17 : 20.

Question 114

A sum of 1,250 was lent out in two parts, one at 12% simple interest and another at 8% simple interest. If the total sum after one year was 1,382, find the amount lent out at 8% interest.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹700

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹650

  3. COption (c)

    ₹450

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹450

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total sum = 1250

Total amount after 1 year = 1382

Interest earned = 1382 − 1250 = 132

Let amount at 8% = x

Then amount at 12% = 1250 − x

Formula used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Calculations:

Interest at 8% = x × 8 ÷ 100 = 0.08x

Interest at 12% = (1250 − x) × 12 ÷ 100 = 0.12(1250 − x)

Total interest = 132

⇒ 0.08x + 0.12(1250 − x) = 132

⇒ 0.08x + 150 − 0.12x = 132

⇒ −0.04x + 150 = 132

⇒ −0.04x = −18

⇒ x = 450

∴ Amount lent at 8% = ₹450.

Question 115

A man is twice as efficient as a boy. If 1 man and 1 boy can complete a piece of work in 12 days, how many days would a man alone take to complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    16 days

  2. BOption (b)

    36 days

  3. COption (c)

    18 days

  4. DOption (d)

    24 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A man is twice as efficient as a boy.

1 man and 1 boy can complete the work in 12 days.

Formula Used:

Efficiency × Time = Work

LCM method for total work.

Calculation:

⇒ Let the efficiency of a boy be 1 unit/day, then the efficiency of a man is 2 units/day.

⇒ Total efficiency of 1 man and 1 boy = 2 + 1 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Total work = LCM of 3 units/day × 12 days = 36 units.

⇒ Time taken by a man alone = Total work / Efficiency of the man.

⇒ Time = 36 units / 2 units/day.

⇒ Time = 18 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Question 116

By selling an article for ₹ 1,744, a seller earns a profit of 20% more than the loss he would have incurred if he had sold the article for 1,480. What is the price of the article?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,700

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,400

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,600

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,850

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹1,600

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Selling price (SP₁) = ₹1,744

Selling price (SP₂) = ₹1,480

Profit = 20% more than the loss at SP₂

Formula Used:

Profit or Loss = SP - Cost Price (CP)

Profit = 1.2 × Loss

Calculation:

Let the cost price (CP) = x.

For SP₁: Profit = SP₁ - x = ₹1,744 - x

For SP₂: Loss = x - SP₂ = x - ₹1,480

Profit = 1.2 × Loss

⇒ ₹1,744 - x = 1.2 × (x - ₹1,480)

⇒ ₹1,744 - x = 1.2x - ₹1,776

⇒ ₹1,744 + ₹1,776 = 1.2x + x

⇒ ₹3,520 = 2.2x

⇒ x = ₹3,520 / 2.2

⇒ x = ₹1,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,600.

Question 117

A cyclist covers the four sides of a square field at speeds of 10, 15, 20 and 25 km per hour. What is approximately the average speed of the cyclist around the field?

  1. AOption (a)

    17.50 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    15.58 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    13.84 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    19.55 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15.58 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Speed for side 1 = 10 km/h

Speed for side 2 = 15 km/h

Speed for side 3 = 20 km/h

Speed for side 4 = 25 km/h

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

Total time = Distance of side 1 / Speed 1 + Distance of side 2 / Speed 2 + Distance of side 3 / Speed 3 + Distance of side 4 / Speed 4

Calculation:

Assume side length = 1 km (for simplicity).

Total distance = 4 × 1 = 4 km

⇒ Total time = (1 / 10) + (1 / 15) + (1 / 20) + (1 / 25)

⇒ Total time = 0.1 + 0.0667 + 0.05 + 0.04

⇒ Total time = 0.2567 hours

⇒ Average speed = Total distance / Total time

⇒ Average speed = 4 / 0.2567

⇒ Average speed ≈ 15.58 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 15.58 km/h.

Question 118

A car covers the first 42 km of a journey in 40 minutes and the remaining 43 km in 60 minutes. What is the average speed of the car?

  1. AOption (a)

    52.5 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    48.5 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    51 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    47 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

51 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Distance covered in first part = 42 km

Time taken for first part = 40 minutes = 40 / 60 hours = 2/3 hours

Distance covered in second part = 43 km

Time taken for second part = 60 minutes = 60 / 60 hours = 1 hour

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = 42 + 43 = 85 km

⇒ Total time = (2/3) + 1 = 5/3 hours

⇒ Average speed = Total distance / Total time

⇒ Average speed = 85 / (5/3)

⇒ Average speed = 85 × (3/5)

⇒ Average speed = 255 / 5

⇒ Average speed = 51 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 51 km/h.

Question 119

The simple interest on a sum of money at 10% per annum for 2 years is 2,400, Compounded annually, what would be the compound interest on the same sum for the same period at the same rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    ​₹2620

  2. BOption (b)

    ​₹2,580

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2,450

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹2,520

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹2,520

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹2,400

Rate of Interest (R) = 10% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Compound Interest (CI) = P × [(1 + R/100)T] - P

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (P × 10 × 2) / 100

⇒ ₹2,400 = (P × 20) / 100

⇒ P = (₹2,400 × 100) / 20

⇒ P = ₹12,000

Now calculate CI:

⇒ CI = ₹12,000 × [(1 + 10/100)2] - ₹12,000

⇒ CI = ₹12,000 × [(1 + 0.1)2] - ₹12,000

⇒ CI = ₹12,000 × (1.1)2 - ₹12,000

⇒ CI = ₹12,000 × 1.21 - ₹12,000

⇒ CI = ₹14,520 - ₹12,000

⇒ CI = ₹2,520

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,520.

Question 120

The following table shows the total number of students studying in various colleges over six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows.

YearsABCD
2013325410210320
2014270380260340
2015420440310410
2016360260250260
2017275350340360
2018350360230310

If the ratio of the boys to the girls studying in College B over the given years is 2: 3 and that in College D is 3: 2, what is the ratio of the number of boys in College B to the number of girls in College D?

  1. AOption (a)

    11:10

  2. BOption (b)

    17:15

  3. COption (c)

    10:11

  4. DOption (d)

    33:20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11:10

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Total students in College B over 6 years = 410 + 380 + 440 + 260 + 350 + 360 = 2200

Total students in College D over 6 years = 320 + 340 + 410 + 260 + 360 + 310 = 2000

Boys : Girls in B = 2 : 3

Boys : Girls in D = 3 : 2

Boys = (2 ÷ (2+3)) × Total

Girls = (2 ÷ (3+2)) × Total

⇒ Boys in B = 2200 × 2 ÷ 5 = 4400 ÷ 5 = 880

⇒ Girls in D = 2000 × 2 ÷ 5 = 4000 ÷ 5 = 800

⇒ Required ratio = 880 : 800 = 88 : 80 = 11 : 10

∴ Ratio of boys in B to girls in D = 11 : 10.

English Language 1 (20 questions)

Question 121

Select the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank.

Please ponder _____ the problem carefully to find a solution.

  1. AOption (a)

    with

  2. BOption (b)

    over

  3. COption (c)

    at

  4. DOption (d)

    through

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

over

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'over'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "ponder over" is a common collocation, meaning to think about something carefully, especially before making a decision.
  • The preposition "over" is used here to indicate thoughtful consideration of the problem.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the standard usage with "ponder."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Please ponder over the problem carefully to find a solution."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "with" is incorrect because "ponder with" is not a standard collocation in English.
  • Option 3: "at" is incorrect because "ponder at" is not a grammatically correct phrase.
  • Option 4: "through" is incorrect because "ponder through" is not an appropriate usage in this context.

Question 122

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

Mr Das exclaimed joyfully that his daughter had won the table tennis championship.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mr Das said, "Oh! My daughter wins the table tennis championship."

  2. BOption (b)

    Mr Das said, "What! My daughter has won the table tennis championship?"

  3. COption (c)

    Mr Das said, "Alas! His daughter has won the table tennis championship."

  4. DOption (d)

    Mr Das said, "Hurrah! My daughter has won the table tennis championship."

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mr Das said, "Hurrah! My daughter has won the table tennis championship."

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: Mr Das exclaimed joyfully that his daughter had won the table tennis championship.
  • Key Conversions:
  • "exclaimed joyfully" becomes "Hurrah!"
  • Exclamatory words "Hurrah!" express joy and excitement in direct speech.
  • "his daughter had won" becomes "my daughter has won"
  • Pronoun "his" is changed to "my" to reflect the speaker's perspective in direct speech.
  • The past perfect tense "had won" is changed to present perfect tense "has won" to match the immediacy of direct speech.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
  • Starts with a capital letter "Hurrah" and ends with an exclamation mark "!".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Hurrah! My daughter has won the table tennis championship.” said Mr Das."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Mr Das said, 'Oh! My daughter wins the table tennis championship.'"
  • Incorrect tense: "wins" is present simple instead of present perfect.
  • Does not match the joyful exclamation tone of "Hurrah."
  • Option 2: "Mr Das said, 'What! My daughter has won the table tennis championship?'"
  • Incorrect tone: "What" expresses surprise or disbelief rather than joy.
  • Option 3: "Mr Das said, 'Alas! His daughter has won the table tennis championship.'"
  • Incorrect word: "Alas" expresses sadness, which contradicts the joyful tone.
  • Incorrect pronoun: "his" should be "my."

Question 123

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

APPALLING

  1. AOption (a)

    Terrifying

  2. BOption (b)

    Attractive

  3. COption (c)

    Charming

  4. DOption (d)

    Ridiculous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Terrifying

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 (Terrifying).

Key Points

  • The word "Appalling" means something that is shocking, horrifying, or causing dismay. (भयावह, भयानक)
  • Example: The appalling conditions in the refugee camp shocked the humanitarian workers.
  • "Terrifying" refers to something that causes extreme fear or dread. (डरावना)
  • Example: The terrifying sound of thunder made the children hide under their beds.
  • Thus, "Terrifying" is the most appropriate synonym for "Appalling."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (Terrifying).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Attractive (आकर्षक): Something that is pleasing or appealing to the senses or mind.
  • Example: She wore an attractive dress to the party.
  • Charming (मोहक): Something or someone that is very pleasant, delightful, or attractive in personality or appearance.
  • Example: The charming little village was a favorite tourist destination.
  • Ridiculous (मूर्खतापूर्ण): Something that is absurd, silly, or laughable.
  • Example: The idea of walking a cat on a leash seemed ridiculous to him.

Question 124

Parts of the following sentence are given as options. Identify the part that has an error.

Organic farming strikes a healthy balance across the traditional and modern knowledge.

  1. AOption (a)

    a healthy balance

  2. BOption (b)

    across the traditional

  3. COption (c)

    and modern knowledge

  4. DOption (d)

    Organic farming strikes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

across the traditional

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "across the traditional" is incorrect in this context.
  • The word "across" is generally used to indicate movement or positioning over or across a surface, which is not applicable here.
  • The correct preposition in this context should be "between" to indicate a balance involving two elements (traditional and modern knowledge).
  • Thus, the error is in Option 2, and the corrected sentence should use "between" instead of "across."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Organic farming strikes a healthy balance between the traditional and modern knowledge."

Question 125

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No improvement.

Activists have criticised the forest department for failure to forming the Aravalli protection task force.

  1. AOption (a)

    to fail in forming the

  2. BOption (b)

    for failing to form the

  3. COption (c)

    No improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    in failing to form the

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

for failing to form the

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence contains a grammatical error in the phrase "failure to forming."
  • The correct form is "for failing to form," which ensures proper verb usage and clarity.
  • The verb "failing" is correctly paired with the infinitive "to form."
  • The corrected sentence removes redundancy and aligns with standard grammar rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Activists have criticised the forest department for failing to form the Aravalli protection task force."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "to fail in forming the" – This option is grammatically incorrect as it does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 3: "No improvement" – This is incorrect because the original sentence contains a grammatical error.
  • Option 4: "in failing to form the" – Although grammatically correct, it is less precise than Option 2.

Question 126

Select the most appropriate conjunction to fill in the blank.

He is himself not too well off; ________ he never disappoints friends in need.

  1. AOption (a)

    nevertheless

  2. BOption (b)

    although

  3. COption (c)

    and

  4. DOption (d)

    otherwise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

nevertheless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'nevertheless'.

 

Key Points

  • The conjunction "nevertheless" is used to show contrast between two statements.
  • In this sentence, the first part mentions a negative condition ("not too well off"), and the second part emphasizes a positive action ("never disappoints friends in need").
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 do not accurately convey the intended contrast.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "He is himself not too well off; nevertheless he never disappoints friends in need."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "although" is incorrect because it introduces a subordinate clause, not a conjunction for contrast.
  • Option 3: "and" is incorrect because it suggests addition, not contrast.
  • Option 4: "otherwise" is incorrect because it indicates a conditional outcome, not a contrasting scenario.

Question 127

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

Aanya told me that my painting would win me the first prize.

  1. AOption (a)

    Aanya said to me, "Your painting will win you the first prize."

  2. BOption (b)

    Aanya said to me, "My painting will win me the first prize."

  3. COption (c)

    Aanya told to me, "My painting will win me the first prize."

  4. DOption (d)

    Aanya said to me, "Your painting would win the first prize."

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Aanya said to me, "Your painting will win you the first prize."

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: Aanya told me that my painting would win me the first prize.
  • Key Conversions:
  • "my painting would win me" becomes "Your painting will win you"
  • The possessive pronoun "my" is changed to "your" to match the direct speech addressing the listener.
  • The verb "would win" is converted to "will win" to reflect the direct speech tense.
  • Reporting verb:
  • Indirect: "Aanya told me"
  • Converted to: "Aanya said to me," to follow the direct speech format.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
  • Starts with a capital letter "Your" and ends with a period ".".
  • Reporting clause precedes the quoted speech, separated by a comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Aanya said to me, ‘Your painting will win you the first prize.’"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "Aanya said to me, ‘My painting will win me the first prize.’"
  • The possessive pronoun "my" is incorrect as Aanya is referring to the painting of the listener.
  • Option 3: "Aanya told to me, ‘My painting will win me the first prize.’"
  • The phrase "told to me" is grammatically incorrect. "Told" does not require "to" before the listener.
  • Option 4: "Aanya said to me, ‘Your painting would win the first prize.’"
  • The verb "would" is incorrect in direct speech as it changes the tense unnecessarily.

Question 128

Parts of the following sentence are given as options. Identify the part that has an error.

The frequent occurrence of torrential rains and floods make disaster management very important.

  1. AOption (a)

    very important

  2. BOption (b)

    make disaster management

  3. COption (c)

    of torrential rains and floods

  4. DOption (d)

    The frequent occurrence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

make disaster management

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The error lies in the verb agreement within the phrase "make disaster management".
  • The subject of the sentence is "The frequent occurrence", which is singular. Therefore, the verb should also be singular.
  • Instead of "make disaster management", it should be "makes disaster management" to maintain subject-verb agreement.
  • Thus, the error is located in Option 2 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The frequent occurrence of torrential rains and floods makes disaster management very important."

Question 129

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

FICKLE

  1. AOption (a)

    Fresh

  2. BOption (b)

    Constant

  3. COption (c)

    Wicked

  4. DOption (d)

    Gentle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Constant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Constant).

Key Points

  • The word "Fickle" means someone or something that is likely to change opinions, loyalties, or decisions frequently and unpredictably. (अस्थिर, चंचल)
  • Example: The fickle weather made it difficult to plan outdoor activities.
  • "Constant" refers to something that does not change or vary; it remains the same over time. (स्थिर, अपरिवर्तनीय)
  • Example: Despite the challenges, her love and support remained constant throughout.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'fickle' is 'constant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Constant).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fresh (ताजा): Recently made, obtained, or introduced; new.
  • Example: She always starts her day with a fresh cup of coffee.
  • Wicked (दुष्ट): Evil or morally wrong; bad in behavior.
  • Example: The villain had a wicked plan to destroy the city.
  • Gentle (कोमल): Having or showing a mild, kind, or tender temperament or character.
  • Example: He spoke in a gentle voice to calm the frightened child.

Question 130

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

You said, "I checked all my drawers but couldn't find the car keys."

  1. AOption (a)

    You said that you checked all your drawers but couldn't find the car keys.

  2. BOption (b)

    You said that you had checked all your drawers but couldn't find the car keys.

  3. COption (c)

    You said that you checked all my drawers but couldn't find the car keys.

  4. DOption (d)

    You said that I checked all my drawers but couldn't find the car keys.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

You said that you had checked all your drawers but couldn't find the car keys.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: The given sentence is converted into reported speech while maintaining the past perfect tense for the actions already completed.
  • Key Conversions:
  • "I checked" becomes "you had checked"
  • The past tense verb "checked" is converted to past perfect "had checked" in reported speech.
  • Pronoun "I" is changed to "you" to match the subject of the reporting clause.
  • "my drawers" becomes "your drawers"
  • Possessive pronoun "my" is converted to "your" to match the subject of the reporting clause.
  • "couldn't find" remains unchanged
  • Since "couldn't find" already expresses inability in the past, it remains the same.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • Quotation marks are omitted in indirect speech.
  • Reported speech uses the conjunction "that" to connect the reporting clause and the reported statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: You said that you had checked all your drawers but couldn’t find the car keys.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "You said that you checked all your drawers but couldn’t find the car keys."
  • This option is incorrect because it uses the simple past tense "checked" instead of the past perfect tense "had checked" required for reported speech.
  • Option 3: "You said that you checked all my drawers but couldn’t find the car keys."
  • This option is incorrect because the possessive pronoun "my" is not correctly changed to "your" in reported speech.
  • Option 4: "You said that I checked all my drawers but couldn’t find the car keys."
  • This option is incorrect because the pronoun "I" is incorrectly used instead of "you" to match the reporting clause.

Question 131

Select the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank.

The murderer was condemned _______ life imprisonment.

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    by

  3. COption (c)

    to

  4. DOption (d)

    of

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

  • The preposition "to" is used to indicate the result or the outcome of an action. In this context, the person was condemned to life imprisonment, which is the resulting punishment.
  • The sentence structure commonly uses "condemned to" when referring to a sentence or punishment.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the grammatical structure or meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The murderer was condemned to life imprisonment."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "for" is incorrect because "condemned for" is not used to describe punishment but rather the reason behind condemnation.
  • Option 2: "by" is incorrect as it implies the agent or doer, not the result of condemnation.
  • Option 4: "of" is incorrect as it does not fit the sentence structure or meaning.

Question 132

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

She has submitted all the required documents on time.

  1. AOption (a)

    All the required documents has been submitted on time.

  2. BOption (b)

    All the required documents were submitted on time.

  3. COption (c)

    The submission of all the required documents was done on time.

  4. DOption (d)

    All the required documents have been submitted on time.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All the required documents have been submitted on time.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "She has submitted all the required documents on time."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "all the required documents" at the beginning.
  • Change the active verb form "has submitted" to "have been submitted" (present perfect passive).
  • Ensure the time phrase "on time" remains at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "All the required documents have been submitted on time."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "All the required documents has been submitted on time." – Incorrect subject-verb agreement ("has" should be "have").
  • Option 2: "All the required documents were submitted on time." – Incorrect tense (past simple instead of present perfect).
  • Option 3: "The submission of all the required documents was done on time." – Wordy and not in proper passive voice structure.

Question 133

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

CURTAIL

  1. AOption (a)

    Abort

  2. BOption (b)

    Abstain

  3. COption (c)

    Shorten

  4. DOption (d)

    Expand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shorten

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Shorten).

Key Points

  • The word "curtail" means to reduce in extent or quantity; impose a restriction on something. (कम करना, घटाना)
  • Example: Due to budget constraints, the company had to curtail its expenses.
  • "Shorten" refers to making something shorter in length, duration, or size. (छोटा करना)
  • Example: The meeting was shortened due to a scheduling conflict.
  • Hence, the synonym of 'curtail' is 'shorten'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Shorten).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Abort (असफल होना या रोक देना): To bring a process to a premature end due to a problem or difficulty.
  • Example: The mission was aborted due to technical difficulties.
  • Abstain (परहेज करना): To restrain oneself from doing or enjoying something.
  • Example: He decided to abstain from drinking alcohol for health reasons.
  • Expand (विस्तार करना): To increase in size, number, or importance.
  • Example: The company plans to expand its operations to new markets.

Question 134

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

VENERABLE

  1. AOption (a)

    Forceful

  2. BOption (b)

    Respectable

  3. COption (c)

    Miserable

  4. DOption (d)

    Contagious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Respectable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Respectable.

Key Points

  • The word "venerable" means someone or something that commands respect due to age, dignity, character, or position. (आदरणीय)
  • Example: The venerable professor was admired by all his students for his wisdom and experience.
  • "Respectable" refers to someone or something that is worthy of respect or admiration due to their qualities, achievements, or behavior. (सम्मानीय)
  • Example: She comes from a respectable family known for their charitable work in the community.
  • Hence, the most appropriate synonym of 'venerable' is 'respectable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Respectable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Forceful (जोरदार): Having a strong and assertive personality or impact.
  • Example: She made a forceful argument during the debate.
  • Miserable (दुखी): Very unhappy or uncomfortable.
  • Example: He felt miserable after losing his job.
  • Contagious (संक्रामक): Something that spreads from one person to another, usually referring to diseases.
  • Example: The flu is highly contagious and spreads quickly in crowded places.

Question 135

Select the most appropriate conjunction to fill in the blank.

She cannot hope for a promotion ____ her performance improves drastically.

  1. AOption (a)

    if

  2. BOption (b)

    yet

  3. COption (c)

    lest

  4. DOption (d)

    until

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

until

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'until'.

 

Key Points

  • The conjunction "until" is used to indicate that something will not happen before a certain condition is met.
  • In the given sentence, the condition for her hoping for a promotion is that her performance improves drastically.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 do not fit the context of the sentence correctly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "She cannot hope for a promotion until her performance improves drastically."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "if" is incorrect because "if" implies a condition but does not fit the logical flow of the sentence here.
  • Option 2: "yet" is incorrect because "yet" is used to indicate contrast or something unexpected, which does not apply here.
  • Option 3: "lest" is incorrect because "lest" is used to denote prevention, which does not suit the context.

Question 136

5 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

The policeman said to the suspect, "Where were you at this time yesterday?"

  1. AOption (a)

    The policeman asked the suspect where he was at that time the previous day.

  2. BOption (b)

    The policeman asked the suspect where was he at this time the previous day.

  3. COption (c)

    The policeman asked the suspect where was he at that time yesterday.

  4. DOption (d)

    The policeman asked the suspect that where he was at this time yesterday.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The policeman asked the suspect where he was at that time the previous day.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "The policeman asked the suspect where he was at that time the previous day."

Key Points

  • The word "reported speech" refers to a way of expressing what someone else has said without quoting them directly. (अप्रत्यक्ष वाक्य)
  • Example: He said, "I am going to the market" becomes He said that he was going to the market.
  • "Where he was at that time the previous day" is the correct transformation of the direct speech into reported speech. (यह सही रूपांतरण है जो प्रत्यक्ष वाक्य को अप्रत्यक्ष वाक्य में बदलता है।)
  • Example: The teacher asked the student where he was the day before.
  • Hence, we can conclude that the correct conversion of the given direct speech into reported speech is Option 1.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2: "The policeman asked the suspect where was he at this time the previous day" is incorrect because in reported speech, the subject comes before the verb. (इस विकल्प में क्रिया और कर्ता का क्रम गलत है।)
  • Example: Incorrect: She asked where was he. Correct: She asked where he was.
  • Option 3: "The policeman asked the suspect where was he at that time yesterday" is incorrect because "yesterday" in direct speech changes to "the previous day" in reported speech. (इसमें 'yesterday' को 'the previous day' में बदलना चाहिए।)
  • Example: Incorrect: He asked where I was yesterday. Correct: He asked where I was the previous day.
  • Option 4: "The policeman asked the suspect that where he was at this time yesterday" is incorrect because the word "that" should not be used before an interrogative word like "where." (सवालिया शब्द 'where' से पहले 'that' का प्रयोग गलत है।)
  • Example: Incorrect: She asked that who was coming. Correct: She asked who was coming.

Question: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

The policeman said to the suspect, "Where were you at this time yesterday?"

Answer: The correct answer is: Option 1.

Question 137

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No improvement.

No sooner did she leave the house when the burglar broke in.

  1. AOption (a)

    No improvement

  2. BOption (b)

    left the house but the burglar broke in

  3. COption (c)

    leave the house than the burglar broke in

  4. DOption (d)

    left the house when the burglar broke in

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

leave the house than the burglar broke in

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "No sooner did she leave the house when" is incorrect because after "No sooner did," the conjunction "than" is used instead of "when."
  • The correct structure is: "No sooner + auxiliary verb + subject + base verb + than + clause."
  • In this case, the correct phrase is "No sooner did she leave the house than."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "No sooner did she leave the house than the burglar broke in."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: No improvement – Incorrect because the original sentence uses "when" instead of "than," which is grammatically incorrect.
  • Option 2: left the house but the burglar broke in – Incorrect because "but" does not fit the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • Option 4: left the house when the burglar broke in – Incorrect because it changes the meaning and does not adhere to the "No sooner...than" structure.

Question 138

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

Sweets were being distributed among the staff on the occasion of Diwali.

  1. AOption (a)

    They distributed sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali.

  2. BOption (b)

    They were distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali.

  3. COption (c)

    They will be distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali.

  4. DOption (d)

    They are distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

They were distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the passive voice, the sentence is: "Sweets were being distributed among the staff on the occasion of Diwali."
  • To convert to active voice: Place the original subject "They" at the beginning.
  • Change the verb form "were being distributed" to "were distributing" (past continuous active).
  • Ensure the object "sweets" and the additional details "among the staff on the occasion of Diwali" remain unchanged.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "They were distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "They distributed sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali." – Incorrect tense (simple past instead of past continuous).
  • Option 3: "They will be distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali." – Incorrect tense (future continuous instead of past continuous).
  • Option 4: "They are distributing sweets among the staff on the occasion of Diwali." – Incorrect tense (present continuous instead of past continuous).

Question 139

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Water the plants regularly lest they die.

  1. AOption (a)

    Let the plants to be watered regularly lest they die.

  2. BOption (b)

    The plants be watered regularly lest they die.

  3. COption (c)

    Let the plants be watered regularly lest they die.

  4. DOption (d)

    The plants should be watered regularly lest they die.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Let the plants be watered regularly lest they die.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "Water the plants regularly lest they die."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the plants" at the beginning.
  • Use the structure "Let the object be + past participle" when converting imperatives to passive voice.
  • Retain the phrase "lest they die" at the end of the sentence as it indicates the purpose of the action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Let the plants be watered regularly lest they die."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Let the plants to be watered regularly lest they die." – Incorrect as "to be" is redundant and incorrect grammar.
  • Option 2: "The plants be watered regularly lest they die." – Incorrect as it lacks the proper structure for a passive imperative sentence.
  • Option 4: "The plants should be watered regularly lest they die." – Incorrect as it changes the sentence meaning by adding "should," indicating a suggestion rather than an imperative.

Question 140

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

A special edition of this magazine will be brought out early next year.

  1. AOption (a)

    They are bringing out a special edition of this magazine early next year.

  2. BOption (b)

    They will bring out a special edition of that magazine early next year.

  3. COption (c)

    They brought out a special edition of this magazine early next year.

  4. DOption (d)

    They will bring out a special edition of this magazine early next year.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They will bring out a special edition of this magazine early next year.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the given passive voice sentence, the phrase "will be brought out" suggests a future action.
  • To express the sentence in active voice, the subject "they" is introduced, and the verb is changed to "will bring out."
  • The correct active voice sentence is: "They will bring out a special edition of this magazine early next year."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "They will bring out a special edition of this magazine early next year."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "They are bringing out a special edition of this magazine early next year." – Incorrect tense (present continuous).
  • Option 2: "They will bring out a special edition of that magazine early next year." – Incorrect as "that magazine" changes the subject.
  • Option 3: "They brought out a special edition of this magazine early next year." – Incorrect tense (past simple).

English Language 2 (20 questions)

Question 141

Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    Either Sourabh or you is to blame for this financial loss.

  2. BOption (b)

    Either you or Sourabh are to blame for this financial loss.

  3. COption (c)

    You or Sourabh are either to blame for this financial loss.

  4. DOption (d)

    Either you or Sourabh is to blame for this financial loss.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Either you or Sourabh is to blame for this financial loss.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The conjunction "either...or" is used to connect two singular or plural subjects, but the verb agrees with the subject closest to it.
  • In this case, "Either you or Sourabh" makes "Sourabh" the subject closest to the verb. Since "Sourabh" is singular, the verb "is" is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Either you or Sourabh is to blame for this financial loss."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because the verb "is" does not agree with the subject "you."
  • Option 2: Incorrect because the verb "are" is used, but the subject "Sourabh" is singular.
  • Option 3: Incorrect due to improper word placement ("are either" is grammatically incorrect).

Question 142

Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom.

Pull the strings

  1. AOption (a)

    To reduce speed

  2. BOption (b)

    To be very frank

  3. COption (c)

    To manipulate

  4. DOption (d)

    To be frank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To manipulate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. To manipulate.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Pull the strings" means to use your influence or control to manipulate situations or people, often behind the scenes. (डोर खींचना/प्रभाव डालना)
  • Example: She was able to get the job because her uncle pulled some strings for her in the company.
  • "To manipulate" refers to skillfully handling or controlling something or someone, often in a way that is not entirely honest or transparent. (चालाकी से नियंत्रित करना)
  • Example: The businessman manipulated the situation to get the deal in his favor.
  • Hence, the idiom "Pull the strings" aligns closely with the meaning of "To manipulate".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: To reduce speed (गति कम करना): To slow down or decrease the pace of something.
  • Example: The driver reduced the speed of the car as he approached the traffic light.
  • Option 2: To be very frank (बहुत स्पष्ट होना): To express thoughts openly and honestly without hesitation.
  • Example: To be very frank, I don’t think this plan is going to work.
  • Option 4: To be frank (स्पष्ट होना): To be honest or straightforward in expressing oneself.
  • Example: To be frank, I’m not happy with the service provided by the restaurant.

Question 143

Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom.

Make much ado about nothing

  1. AOption (a)

    To get rid of something

  2. BOption (b)

    Make a confession

  3. COption (c)

    To treat as unimportant

  4. DOption (d)

    Make a great fuss about a trifle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Make a great fuss about a trifle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Make much ado about nothing" means to make a great fuss or commotion over something unimportant or trivial. (किसी तुच्छ या महत्वहीन बात पर बहुत हंगामा करना)
  • Example: She made much ado about nothing when she realized she had misplaced her pen, which was later found on her desk.
  • The correct meaning of this idiom is to exaggerate or overemphasize a minor issue. (एक छोटी सी बात को बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर पेश करना)
  • Example: The neighbors are making much ado about nothing regarding the noise from our party, even though it ended early.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: To get rid of something (किसी चीज़ से छुटकारा पाना): To remove or eliminate something unwanted.
  • Example: She wants to get rid of her old clothes to make space for new ones.
  • Option 2: Make a confession (स्वीकार करना): To admit something, especially a wrongdoing.
  • Example: He made a confession about breaking the vase.
  • Option 3: To treat as unimportant (महत्वहीन समझना): To disregard or consider something as insignificant.
  • Example: He treated her concerns as unimportant, which hurt her feelings.

Question 144

Select the most appropriate phrase to fill in the blank.

The mechanic _________ repairing the machine immediately.

  1. AOption (a)

    set off

  2. BOption (b)

    set on

  3. COption (c)

    set up

  4. DOption (d)

    set about

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

set about

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'set about'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "set about" means to begin or start doing something, especially in a determined or focused way.
  • In this context, the mechanic started repairing the machine immediately, which aligns with the meaning of "set about."
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as they do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The mechanic set about repairing the machine immediately."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "set off" is incorrect because it means to start a journey or trigger something, which does not fit in this context.
  • Option 2: "set on" is incorrect as it means to attack or encourage someone to attack, which is irrelevant here.
  • Option 3: "set up" is incorrect as it means to establish or arrange something, which does not fit the action described in the sentence.

Question 145

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Continuous

  2. BOption (b)

    Cuntinuous

  3. COption (c)

    Continous

  4. DOption (d)

    Continouse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Continuous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Cuntinuous', 'Continous', 'Continouse'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'Continuous'.
  • The word 'Continuous' is an adjective which means 'forming an unbroken whole; without interruption'. (निरंतर)
  • For Example -
  • The river flows in a continuous stream.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Continuous'.

Question 146

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who hates mankind

  1. AOption (a)

    Misnomer

  2. BOption (b)

    Misogynist

  3. COption (c)

    Misanthrope

  4. DOption (d)

    Malevolent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Misanthrope

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Misanthrope.

Key Points

  • The word "Misanthrope" refers to a person who dislikes and avoids human society. (मनुष्य जाति से घृणा करने वाला व्यक्ति)
  • Example: After years of betrayal and disappointment, he turned into a misanthrope, avoiding all social interactions.
  • A misanthrope is someone who has a general hatred or mistrust of humankind.
  • Example: She was considered a misanthrope because she preferred the company of books over people.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Misanthrope.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Misnomer (अप्रासंगिक नाम): A wrong or inaccurate name or designation.
  • Example: Calling her a "child prodigy" was a misnomer since she was already 25 years old.
  • Misogynist (स्त्री-द्वेषी): A person who dislikes, despises, or is strongly prejudiced against women.
  • Example: His comments on the role of women in the workplace made him sound like a misogynist.
  • Malevolent (दुष्ट): Having or showing a wish to do evil to others.
  • Example: The malevolent glare he gave her sent shivers down her spine.

Question 147

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

To preserve from extinction

  1. AOption (a)

    Perturb

  2. BOption (b)

    Persuade

  3. COption (c)

    Perplex

  4. DOption (d)

    Perpetuate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Perpetuate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Perpetuate).

Key Points

  • The word "Perpetuate" means to preserve something from extinction or to make something continue indefinitely. (स्थायी बनाए रखना)
  • Example: Efforts are being made to perpetuate the traditions of the ancient tribe.
  • "Perpetuate" refers to the act of ensuring something lasts for a long time or forever. (स्थायी बनाना)
  • Example: We must take steps to perpetuate the memory of our national heroes.
  • Hence, the correct one-word substitute for the group of words "To preserve from extinction" is "Perpetuate".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Perpetuate).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Perturb (व्याकुल करना): To disturb or unsettle someone's mind or emotions.
  • Example: News of the economic crisis perturbed the citizens deeply.
  • Persuade (राज़ी करना): To convince someone to do or believe something through reasoning or argument.
  • Example: She managed to persuade her parents to let her study abroad.
  • Perplex (उलझन में डालना): To confuse or complicate a matter for someone.
  • Example: The complex instructions perplexed the students.

Question 148

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neglegence

  2. BOption (b)

    Negligence

  3. COption (c)

    Negligance

  4. DOption (d)

    Negligense

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Negligence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling would be 'Negligence'.
  • The word 'Negligence' is a noun which means 'failure to take proper care in doing something'. (लापरवाही)
  • For Example -
  • The accident was caused due to the driver's negligence.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Negligence'.

Question 149

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

TRANSPARENT

  1. AOption (a)

    Clear

  2. BOption (b)

    Translucent

  3. COption (c)

    Opaque

  4. DOption (d)

    Lucid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Opaque

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Opaque.

Key Points

  • The word "Transparent" means something that allows light to pass through so that objects behind it can be distinctly seen. (पारदर्शी)
  • Example: The glass window was so transparent that we could clearly see the garden outside.
  • "Opaque" refers to something that does not allow light to pass through; it is not transparent or translucent. (अस्पष्ट/अधूरा)
  • Example: Frosted glass is opaque and is often used for bathroom windows to ensure privacy.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Transparent' is 'Opaque'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Opaque.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Clear (स्पष्ट): Easy to perceive, understand, or interpret.
  • Example: The instructions were clear and easy to follow.
  • Translucent (अर्धपारदर्शी): Allowing light to pass through, but not detailed shapes.
  • Example: The translucent curtains diffused the sunlight beautifully.
  • Lucid (स्पष्ट/पारदर्शक): Expressed clearly; easy to understand.
  • Example: The professor gave a lucid explanation of the complex theory.

Question 150

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

SURPLUS

  1. AOption (a)

    Decrease

  2. BOption (b)

    Sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Deficit

  4. DOption (d)

    Abundant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Deficit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Deficit.

Key Points

  • The word "surplus" means an amount that is more than what is needed or used; excess. (अतिरिक्त, अधिशेष)
  • Example: The farmer had a surplus of wheat after the harvest, which he sold in the market.
  • "Deficit" refers to the amount by which something, especially money, is too small or less than required. (घाटा)
  • Example: The country is facing a budget deficit due to excessive spending.
  • Since "deficit" is the direct opposite of "surplus," it is the most appropriate antonym in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Deficit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Decrease (कमी): To become smaller in size, amount, intensity, or degree.
  • Example: The company saw a decrease in profits this year due to the economic slowdown.
  • Sufficient (पर्याप्त): Enough to meet the needs of a situation or a proposed end.
  • Example: The water supply was sufficient to meet the needs of the entire village.
  • Abundant (प्रचुर मात्रा में): Existing or available in large quantities; plentiful.
  • Example: The forest is abundant with various species of flora and fauna.

Question 151

Select the most appropriate phrase to fill in the blank.

The doctor said there was nothing serious and the patient would _______ soon.

  1. AOption (a)

    come round

  2. BOption (b)

    come over

  3. COption (c)

    come up

  4. DOption (d)

    come upon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

come round

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'come round'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "come round" means to regain consciousness or recover, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • The doctor mentioned that there was nothing serious and recovery was expected, which aligns with the meaning of "come round."
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the meaning or context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The doctor said there was nothing serious and the patient would come round soon."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "come over" is incorrect as it means to visit someone, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 3: "come up" is incorrect as it refers to something arising or happening, which is unrelated here.
  • Option 4: "come upon" is incorrect as it means to find or encounter something unexpectedly, which is not relevant in this context.

Question 152

Select the most appropriate meaning of the following idiom.

Order of the day

  1. AOption (a)

    Sentence passed by a judge

  2. BOption (b)

    An impossible situation

  3. COption (c)

    Condition prevailing at the time

  4. DOption (d)

    A state of uncertainty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Condition prevailing at the time

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "Condition prevailing at the time".

Key Points

  • The idiom "Order of the day" refers to the condition, trend, or practice that is prevalent or dominant at a particular time. (उस समय की प्रचलित स्थिति या प्रथा)
  • Example: In today's fast-paced world, multitasking has become the order of the day.
  • "Condition prevailing at the time" refers to the existing situation or practice at a specific point in time. (समय पर प्रचलित स्थिति)
  • Example: During the pandemic, working from home became the condition prevailing at the time.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., "Condition prevailing at the time".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Sentence passed by a judge (न्यायाधीश द्वारा सुनाई गई सजा): The decision or punishment given by a judge in a court of law.
  • Example: The sentence passed by the judge was life imprisonment for the convict.
  • An impossible situation (असंभव स्थिति): A scenario where no solution or escape is possible.
  • Example: Negotiating peace seemed like an impossible situation between the two countries.
  • A state of uncertainty (अनिश्चितता की स्थिति): A condition where things are unclear, unpredictable, or not decided.
  • Example: After the announcement of the merger, employees were left in a state of uncertainty.

Question 153

Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    Household duties prompted her to take a break from work.

  2. BOption (b)

    Household duties prompted to take a break from her work.

  3. COption (c)

    Her household duties prompted to take a break from work.

  4. DOption (d)

    A break from work prompted to take her household duties.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Household duties prompted her to take a break from work.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Option 1 is grammatically correct because it has a clear subject "Household duties" and a proper object "her" in the phrase "prompted her to take a break from work."
  • The verb "prompted" correctly takes an object (her), making the sentence complete and meaningful.
  • The sentence structure follows the correct pattern: Subject + Verb + Object + Infinitive Phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Household duties prompted her to take a break from work."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Incorrect — missing the object "her" after "prompted," making the sentence ungrammatical.
  • Option 3: Incorrect — awkward and incomplete; again missing the object after "prompted."
  • Option 4: Incorrect — incorrect logic and sentence structure; the meaning becomes distorted.

Question 154

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who eats too much

  1. AOption (a)

    Greedy

  2. BOption (b)

    Ravenous

  3. COption (c)

    Glutton

  4. DOption (d)

    Hungry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Glutton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Glutton.

Key Points

  • The word "Glutton" refers to someone who eats excessively or more than required, often to the point of greed. (पेटू)
  • Example: John is such a glutton; he ate five burgers in one sitting!

Therefore, the correct answer is: Glutton.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Greedy (लालची): Refers to someone who desires more than what they need, often relating to wealth or possessions.
  • Example: The greedy businessman refused to share his profits with the workers.
  • Ravenous (भूखा): Describes extreme hunger or eagerness for food.
  • Example: After hiking all day, we were ravenous and devoured the meal in minutes.
  • Hungry (भूखा): Refers to a physical need for food.
  • Example: I’m feeling hungry; let’s grab something to eat.

Question 155

Select the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    Passengers are requested to be remained seated.

  2. BOption (b)

    Passengers requested to remained seated.

  3. COption (c)

    Passengers are requested to be remaining seated.

  4. DOption (d)

    Passengers are requested to remain seated.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Passengers are requested to remain seated.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The grammatically correct structure after the phrase “are requested” is “to + base verb”, not a passive or continuous form.
  • Therefore, the correct phrase is “to remain seated”, which follows the standard rule of using the infinitive form after polite requests.
  • Options 1 and 3 incorrectly use “to be remained / to be remaining”, which are grammatically wrong.
  • Option 2 omits the auxiliary verb “are”, making the sentence incomplete.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: “Passengers are requested to remain seated.”

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: “to be remained seated” — incorrect passive construction; “remain” is not used in passive voice.
  • Option 2: Missing “are,” making the sentence grammatically incomplete.
  • Option 3: “to be remaining seated” — incorrect continuous form; sounds unnatural and incorrect.

The special relationship between the client and the therapist is known as a therapeutic relationship or alliance. It is neither a passing acquaintance, nor a permanent relationship. The two major components of this alliance are the contractual nature and the limited duration of the therapy. The client and the therapist willingly enter into an alliance with the purpose of helping the client overcome their problems. The alliance lasts till the client is able to deal with the problems and take control of their life. It is a relationship based on mutual trust and confidence. A high level of trust is essential to enable the client to vent out their feelings openly and unburden themselves by confiding about their psychological and personal problems to the therapist. The therapist encourages this by being empathetic. genuine, warm and understanding. The therapist ensures the client that they would not be judging them and would continue to have positive feelings towards them even if the client is rude or shares deeds or thoughts that may be 'wrong'. This is the unconditional positive regard that the therapist has for the client.

It is very important that the therapist should have empathy for the client and not sympathy or an intellectual understanding of the other person's situation. In case of sympathy, the person feels pity for the other's suffering but cannot feel like the other person. Intellectual understanding is cold and rational and does not evoke feelings of either compassion or empathy. On the other hand, empathy makes one understand the plight of another and see oneself in the other's shoes. It enables one to see things from the other's perspective. Thus. empathy enriches the therapeutic relationship and transforms it into a healing relationship.

The therapeutic relationship also requires that the therapist maintains strict confidentiality of the feelings, thoughts, actions and experiences disclosed by the client. The therapist must not betray the trust of the client or exploit them in any way. It is a professional relationship, and must remain so.

Question 156

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

  1. AOption (a)

    A good therapist wins the confidence of the client.

  2. BOption (b)

    A good therapeutic alliance is an eternal bond.

  3. COption (c)

    A therapist encourages the client to overcome all problems.

  4. DOption (d)

    A therapist plays the role of a healer.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A good therapeutic alliance is an eternal bond.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that the therapeutic relationship is not permanent. It has a limited duration and lasts only until the client is able to deal with their problems independently.
  • Therefore, the statement that it is an eternal bond is incorrect.
  • The alliance is professional, contractual, and time-bound — not lifelong or everlasting.
  • Thus, Option 2 is the only statement that does NOT align with the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: True — The passage says trust and confidence are essential.
  • Option 3: True — The therapist helps the client overcome psychological and personal problems.
  • Option 4: True — Empathy, trust, confidentiality, and support make the therapist a healing figure.

Question 157

What are the two key ingredients of a therapeutic relationship?

  1. AOption (a)

    Trust and confidentiality

  2. BOption (b)

    Trust and intellectual understanding

  3. COption (c)

    Empathy and sound advice

  4. DOption (d)

    Confidence and mutual interest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Trust and confidentiality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that a therapeutic relationship is based on mutual trust and requires strict confidentiality from the therapist.
  • Trust allows the client to openly share their feelings and experiences without fear of judgment.
  • Confidentiality ensures that the therapist safeguards all disclosures made by the client, maintaining a safe and professional space.
  • Together, these two elements form the foundation of an effective therapeutic alliance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Incorrect — Intellectual understanding is described as cold and not suitable for a therapeutic bond.
  • Option 3: Incorrect — Empathy is important, but the passage does not list “sound advice” as a key ingredient.
  • Option 4: Incorrect — Mutual interest is not mentioned; the relationship is professional, not personal.

Question 158

Which of these phrases best describes empathy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Feeling sorry for other's misfortune

  2. BOption (b)

    Venting pent up emotions

  3. COption (c)

    Putting oneself in other's shoes

  4. DOption (d)

    Taking pity on others

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Putting oneself in other's shoes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage clearly explains that 'empathy' is the ability to understand another person's feelings by seeing things from their perspective.
  • It states that empathy means to “see oneself in the other’s shoes”, which allows deeper understanding and emotional connection.
  • The passage also clarifies that empathy is different from sympathy or pity, which only involve feeling sorry for someone.
  • Thus, the phrase that best describes empathy is 'putting oneself in another’s shoes'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (Feeling sorry): This refers to sympathy, not empathy.
  • Option 2 (Venting emotions): This is what the client does in therapy, not empathy.
  • Option 4 (Taking pity): This also describes sympathy, not empathy.

Question 159

Why is the client-therapist relationship contractual in nature?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a willing alliance with a common motive.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is based on mutual trust and is irrevocable.

  3. COption (c)

    It is legally binding on both parties.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is temporary and arises out of compassion.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is a willing alliance with a common motive.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that the therapeutic relationship is contractual because the client and therapist willingly enter into an alliance with a shared purpose — helping the client overcome their problems.
  • A contract does not always mean a legal document; here, it refers to an agreement with clear roles, boundaries, and goals.
  • It is not permanent, not legally binding, and not driven by compassion alone — it is a purposeful alliance with a defined structure.
  • Therefore, the relationship is contractual because it is a willing alliance with a common motive.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Incorrect — The relationship is based on trust, but it is not irrevocable; it ends once the therapy goals are met.
  • Option 3: Incorrect — The passage does NOT suggest that it is legally binding.
  • Option 4: Incorrect — It is temporary, but not because of compassion; it is temporary because therapy ends when the client improves.

Question 160

What attitude of the therapist could be detrimental to the therapeutic relationship?

  1. AOption (a)

    Being judgemental

  2. BOption (b)

    Being discreet

  3. COption (c)

    Being empathetic

  4. DOption (d)

    Being professional

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Being judgemental

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that the therapist must be 'empathetic, genuine, warm, understanding, and non-judgemental'.
  • A judgemental attitude breaks the trust between the client and therapist and prevents the client from opening up.
  • The therapeutic relationship works only when the therapist maintains unconditional positive regard and ensures the client will not be judged.
  • Therefore, being judgemental can severely damage the therapeutic alliance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2 – Being discreet: This is essential because the therapist must maintain confidentiality.
  • Option 3 – Being empathetic: The passage states that empathy enriches the therapeutic relationship.
  • Option 4 – Being professional: The relationship must remain strictly professional to protect the client.

Hindi Language 1 (20 questions)

नीचे दिये गए गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

मनुष्य शारीरिक कष्ट से ही पीछे हटने वाला प्राणी नहीं है। मानसिक क्लेश की संभावना से भी बहुत-से कर्मों की ओर प्रवृत्त होने का साहस उसे नहीं होता। जिन बातों से समाज के बीच उपहास, निंदा, अपमान इत्यादि का भय रहता है, उन्हें अच्छी और कल्याणकारी समझते हुए भी बहुत से लोग उनसे दूर रहते हैं। प्रत्यक्ष हानि देखते हुए भी कुछ प्रथाओं का अनुसरण बड़े-बड़े समझदार तक इसलिए करते चलते हैं कि उनकेत्याग से वे बुरे कहे जाएँगे; लोगों में उनका वैसा आदर-सम्मान न रह जाएगा। उसके लिए मान-ग्लानि का कष्ट सब शारीरिक क्लेशों से बढ़कर होता है। जो लोग मान-अपमान का कुछ भी ध्यान न करके निंदा-स्तुति की कुछ भी परवाह न करके किसी कुप्रथा के विरुद्ध पूर्ण तत्परता औरप्रसन्नता के साथ कार्य करते जाते हैं, वे उत्साही और वीर कहलाते हैं।

Question 161

ग‌द्यांश में उपहास का आशय है:

  1. AOption (a)

    खिल्ली

  2. BOption (b)

    हास्य

  3. COption (c)

    सम्मान

  4. DOption (d)

    प्रशसा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

खिल्ली

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर- खिल्ली

Key Points

व्याख्या:

  • गद्यांश में वाक्य है: “जिन बातों से समाज के बीच उपहास, निंदा, अपमान इत्यादि का भय रहता है...”
  • यहां 'उपहास' का अर्थ है व्यंग्यपूर्ण हँसी, मजाक उड़ाना, खिल्ली उड़ाना या मखौल। यह एक नकारात्मक भाव है, जिसमें व्यक्ति को नीचा दिखाने या अपमानित करने के लिए हँसी का सहारा लिया जाता है। संदर्भ में लोग अच्छे कार्यों से इसलिए दूर रहते हैं कि उनपर समाज खिल्ली उड़ाएगा या उनका मजाक बनाएगा।

Additional Information

सभी विकल्पों के अर्थ-

शब्दअर्थ
खिल्लीमजाक उड़ाना, मखौल उड़ाना, उपहास करना
हास्यसामान्य हँसी, विनोद, कॉमेडी
सम्मानआदर, इज्जत, मान
प्रशंसातारीफ, सराहना, गुणगान

Question 162

'स्तुति' का अर्थ है:

  1. AOption (a)

    प्रशंसा

  2. BOption (b)

    सम्मान

  3. COption (c)

    अपमान

  4. DOption (d)

    घृणा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

प्रशंसा

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर- प्रशंसा

Key Points

व्याख्या:

  • गद्यांश में 'स्तुति' शब्द का प्रयोग “निंदा-स्तुति की कुछ भी परवाह न करके” में हुआ है। यहाँ 'स्तुति' का अर्थ प्रशंसा या गुणगान है। निंदा (बुराई) और स्तुति (प्रशंसा) दोनों की परवाह न करने वाले व्यक्ति को उत्साही और वीर कहा गया है। 'स्तुति' संस्कृत मूल का शब्द है, जो देवताओं या व्यक्ति की प्रशंसा करने के अर्थ में प्रयुक्त होता है।

Additional Information

सभी विकल्पों के शब्दों का अर्थ-

शब्दअर्थ
प्रशंसागुणगान, तारीफ, सराहना
सम्मानआदर, मान, इज्जत
अपमानतिरस्कार, बेइज्जती, निरादर
घृणानफरत, द्वेष, तिरस्कार (भावनात्मक)

Question 163

'प्रत्यक्ष' का अर्थ है:

  1. AOption (a)

    अस्पष्ट

  2. BOption (b)

    जटिल

  3. COption (c)

    स्पष्ट

  4. DOption (d)

    सरल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

स्पष्ट

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर- स्पष्ट

Key Points

व्याख्या:

  • गद्यांश में “प्रत्यक्ष हानि” का अर्थ है जो हानि आँखों के सामने या साफ-साफ दिखाई देने वाली हो। प्रत्यक्ष का मूल अर्थ संस्कृत से है: प्रति + अक्ष = आँखों के सामने वाला, जो सीधे देखा जा सके। इसलिए इसका अर्थ स्पष्ट या प्रत्यक्ष रूप से दिखने वाला होता है।

Additional Information

सभी विकल्पों के शब्दों का अर्थ-

 

शब्दअर्थ
अस्पष्टजो स्पष्ट न हो, धुंधला, असाफ
जटिलउलझा हुआ, कठिन, क्लिष्ट
स्पष्टसाफ, साफ-साफ दिखने वाला, प्रत्यक्ष
सरलआसान, सहज, जटिलता रहित

Question 164

गद्यांश में प्रयुक्त 'मान-ग्लानि' से आशय हैः

  1. AOption (a)

    सुख

  2. BOption (b)

    सम्मान

  3. COption (c)

    दुख

  4. DOption (d)

    अपमान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अपमान

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- अपमान

Key Points

व्याख्या:

  • गद्यांश में वाक्य है: “उसके लिए मान-ग्लानि का कष्ट सब शारीरिक क्लेशों से बढ़कर होता है।”
  • यहां 'मान-ग्लानि' एक संयुक्त शब्द है:
  • मान → सम्मान, आदर
  • ग्लानि → लज्जा, संकोच, हीनता की भावना (जो अपमान से उत्पन्न होती है)

Additional Information

  • मान-ग्लानि से आशय अपमान की स्थिति या सम्मान की हानि से उत्पन्न होने वाले मानसिक कष्ट से है। अर्थात् जब व्यक्ति को अपमानित किया जाता है या उसका सम्मान कम होता है, तो उससे होने वाली पीड़ा।

नीचे दिये गए गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नो��� के उत्तर दीजिए।

मनुष्य शारीरिक कष्ट से ही पीछे हटने वाला प्राणी नहीं है। मानसिक क्लेश की संभावना से भी बहुत-से कर्मों की ओर प्रवृत्त होने का साहस उसे नहीं होता। जिन बातों से समाज के बीच उपहास, निंदा, अपमान इत्यादि का भय रहता है, उन्हें अच्छी और कल्याणकारी समझते हुए भी बहुत से लोग उनसे दूर रहते हैं। प्रत्यक्ष हानि देखते हुए भी कुछ प्रथाओं का अनुसरण बड़े-बड़े समझदार तक इसलिए करते चलते हैं कि उनकेत्याग से वे बुरे कहे जाएँगे; लोगों में उनका वैसा आदर-सम्मान न रह जाएगा। उसके लिए मान-ग्लानि का कष्ट सब शारीरिक क्लेशों से बढ़कर होता है। जो लोग मान-अपमान का कुछ भी ध्यान न करके निंदा-स्तुति की कुछ भी परवाह न करके किसी कुप्रथा के विरुद्ध पूर्ण तत्परता औरप्रसन्नता के साथ कार्य करते जाते हैं, वे उत्साही और वीर कहलाते हैं।

Question 165

'क्लेश' का अर्थ होता है:

  1. AOption (a)

    सुख

  2. BOption (b)

    उत्साह

  3. COption (c)

    आलस्य

  4. DOption (d)

    दुःख

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

दुःख

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- दुःख

Key Points

व्याख्या-

  • गद्यांश में 'क्लेश' शब्द का प्रयोग निम्न स्थानों पर हुआ है:
  • “मानसिक क्लेश की संभावना”
  • “शारीरिक क्लेशों से बढ़कर”
  • संदर्भ से स्पष्ट है कि 'क्लेश' का अर्थ दुःख, कष्ट या पीड़ा है (शारीरिक या मानसिक)। मनुष्य शारीरिक कष्ट और मानसिक क्लेश दोनों से पीछे हटता है, तथा मान-ग्लानि का कष्ट सबसे बड़ा बताया गया है।

Question 166

निम्न में से किस शब्द की वर्तनी शुद्ध है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अभ्यन्तरिक

  2. BOption (b)

    सुसुप्ति

  3. COption (c)

    हितैषी

  4. DOption (d)

    सम्राज्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

हितैषी

Why this answer is correct

शब्द की वर्तनी शुद्ध है- हितैषी

Key Points

  • अभ्यन्तरिक का शुद्ध रूप आभ्यन्तरिक है।
  • सुसुप्ति का शुद्ध रूप सुषुप्ति है।
  • सम्राज्य का शुद्ध रूप साम्राज्य है।

Important Points

  • किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
  • वर्तनी का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।
  • यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Informationकुछ अशुद्ध से शुद्ध शब्द:-

  • अशुद्ध - शुद्ध
  • परिशिष्ठ - परिशिष्ट
  • न्यौछावर - न्योछावर
  • दुरूपयोग - दुरुपयोग
  • तुष्टिकरण - तुष्टीकरण
  • ज्योत्सना - ज्योत्स्ना
  • ग्रहकार्य - गृहकार्य

Question 167

निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द तत्सम है?

  1. AOption (a)

    पत्थर

  2. BOption (b)

    पंख

  3. COption (c)

    पक्षी

  4. DOption (d)

    पलंग

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

पक्षी

Why this answer is correct

तत्सम शब्द होगा - पक्षी

Key Points

  • पक्षी शब्द एक तत्सम शब्द है, क्योंकि यह संस्कृत भाषा से हिंदी में बिना किसी बदलाव के लिया गया है।

Important Points

  • तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चंद्र, क्षेत्र, मुख, दुग्ध आदि।
  • तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चाँद, खेत, मुँह, दूध, आदि।​

Additional Information

तत्समतद्भव
अंगुष्ठअंगूठा
एकत्रइकट्ठा
कपाटकिवाड़
ग्रामीणगँवार
तड़ागतालाब
नासिकानाक
प्रस्तरपत्थर
द्विगुणादुगुना
आश्रयआसरा

Question 168

निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द तद्भव है?

  1. AOption (a)

    दमन

  2. BOption (b)

    नग्न

  3. COption (c)

    धान

  4. DOption (d)

    स्थान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

धान

Why this answer is correct

तद्भव शब्द होगा - धान

Key Points

  • धान एक तद्भव शब्द है।

Important Points

  • तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चंद्र, क्षेत्र, मुख, दुग्ध आदि।
  • तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चाँद, खेत, मुँह, दूध, आदि।​

Additional Information

तत्समतद्भव
अंगुष्ठअंगूठा
एकत्रइकट्ठा
कपाटकिवाड़
ग्रामीणगँवार
तड़ागतालाब
नासिकानाक
प्रस्तरपत्थर
द्विगुणादुगुना
आश्रयआसरा

Question 169

निम्न में से कौन सा समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    भी

  2. BOption (b)

    पर

  3. COption (c)

    अरे!

  4. DOption (d)

    और

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अरे!

Why this answer is correct

समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय नहीं है- अरे!

Key Points

  • वे  शब्द जिनमे लिंग, कारक, वचन, पुरुष आदि के कारण कोई विकार/ परिवर्तन उत्पन्न नहीं होता है, अव्यय शब्द कहलाते है।
  • जैसे – आज, कब, इधर, किन्तु आदि।
  • अव्यय के पांच भेद हैं –
अव्ययपरिभाषाउदाहरण
क्रिया-विशेषणजिन शब्दों से क्रिया की विशेषता का पता चले।वह धीरे-धीरे खाना खाता है।
सम्बन्धबोधकवे शब्द जो संज्ञा, सर्वनाम शब्दों को अन्य संज्ञा, सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ सम्बन्ध का बोध कराते हैं।मंदिर के पास नदी है।
समुच्चयबोधकदो शब्दों या वाक्यों को जोड़ने वाले संयोजक शब्द को समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय कहते हैं।वह दफ्तर से आया और सो गया।
विस्मयादिबोधकजिन वाक्यों में घृणा, हर्ष, शोक, आश्चर्य के भाव प्रकट हों। इसमें विस्मयादिबोधक (!) चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।वाह! तुमने तो कमाल कर दिया।
निपातकिसी भी बात पर अधिक भार देने के लिए जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग किया जाता है निपात कहलाता है।आज राज तुम्हे पार्टी में रुकना ही पड़ेगा। 'ही' निपात शब्द है। निपात शब्द - भी , तो, तक , केवल , ही , मात्र आदि।

Question 170

निम्न में से देशज शब्द कौन सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    खयाल

  2. BOption (b)

    खबर

  3. COption (c)

    खिड़की

  4. DOption (d)

    खत

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

खिड़की

Why this answer is correct

देशज शब्द है- खिड़की

Key Points

देशज और विदेशी शब्दों में अंतर
वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति के मूल का पता न हो परन्तु वे प्रचलन में हों। ऐसे शब्द देशज शब्द कहलाते हैं। ये शब्द आम तौर पर क्षेत्रीय भाषा में प्रयोग किये जाते हैं। विदेशी भाषाओं से हिंदी में आये शब्दों को विदेशी शब्द कहा जाता है। इन विदेशी भाषाओं में मुख्यतः अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी व पुर्तगाली शामिल है।

Important Points

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्सम शब्दऐसे शब्द जिन्हें बिना किसी परिवर्तन के संस्कृत से हिन्दी में शामिल कर लिया गए हों।जैसे - आम्र, उष्ट्र, ऐश्वर्य, षष्ठी आदि।
तद्भव शब्दऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से हिंदी में आने पर उनका रूप बदल गया।जैसे - आग, खीर, छत आदि।
देशज शब्दऐसे शब्द जो देश की अन्य या क्षेत्रीय भाषा से हिंदी में सम्मिलित हुए ।जैसे – थैला, लोटा, टाँग, पगड़ी आदि।
विदेशज/ आगत/ विदेशी शब्दअन्य देश की भाषा से आये हुए शब्द जो हिंदी भाषा में सम्मिलित हुए। इन विदेशी भाषाओं में मुख्यतः अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, उर्दू, अंग्रेजी व पुर्तगाली शामिल हैं।जैसे - अदालत, ऑफिसर, बुखार, हज़म आदि।
संकर शब्दहिंदी में वे शब्द जो अलग-अलग भाषाओं के शब्दों को मिलाकर बनाए गए हैं, संकर शब्द कहलाते हैं।जैसे - उप-बोली, भोजन-घर, छायादार, फलदार इत्यादि।

Question 171

'खग' का अर्थ नहीं होताः

  1. AOption (a)

    बाण

  2. BOption (b)

    तारा

  3. COption (c)

    पक्षी

  4. DOption (d)

    आकाश

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

आकाश

Why this answer is correct

'खग' का अर्थ 'आकाश' नही होता है। 

  • खग के पर्यायवाची : चिडिया, गगनचर, पखेरू, विहंग, नभचर, पक्षी।
  • खग के हिंदी **अर्थ -**किन्नर, गंधर्व, देवता आदि। हवा में पंखों के सहारे उड़नेवाले जीव पक्षी।

Confusion Points

  • खग के एक से अधिक अर्थ – पक्षी, तारा, गन्धर्व, जुगनू, बाण।

Key Points

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
अनेकार्थी शब्दजिन शब्दों के एक से अधिक अर्थ होते हैं, उन्हें 'अनेकार्थी शब्द' कहते है।काक- कौआ, लँगड़ा आदमी, अतिधृष्ट।

Question 172

निम्न में से प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया कौन सी है?

  1. AOption (a)

    जागना

  2. BOption (b)

    कहना

  3. COption (c)

    दिखना

  4. DOption (d)

    सुखाना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

सुखाना

Why this answer is correct

प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया है- सुखाना

Key Pointsप्रेरणार्थक क्रिया-

  • जब कर्ता किसी कार्य को स्वयं न करके किसी दूसरे को कार्य करने की प्रेरणा दे तो उस क्रिया को प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया कहते हैं।
  • जैसे - काटना से कटवाना, करना से कराना।
  • मालिक नौकर से कार साफ करवाता है।
  • महेश अपने बच्चों को खिलौने दिलाता है।

Important Points

मूल धातुप्रथम प्रेरणार्थकद्वितीय प्रेरणार्थक
उठउठानाउठवाना
उड़उड़ानाउड़वाना
चलचलानाचलवाना
पढ़पढ़ानापढ़वाना
सुनसुनानासुनवाना
चलचलानाचलवाना

Question 173

'टिकाऊ' किस प्रकार का विशेषण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    संख्यावाचक

  2. BOption (b)

    सार्वनामिक

  3. COption (c)

    गुणवाचक

  4. DOption (d)

    परिमाणबोधक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

गुणवाचक

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- गुणवाचक

Key Pointsविशेषण-

  • 'संज्ञा या सर्वनाम' की विशेषता बताने वाले शब्दों को विशेषण कहते है।
  • जो शब्द विशेषता बताते है, उन्हें विशेषण कहते है तथा जिसकी विशेषता बताई जाती है, उसे विशेष्य कहते है।
  • जैसे-
  • मोटा आदमी जा रहा है।
  • यहाँ 'मोटा' विशेषण है तथा 'आदमी' विशेष्य।

Important Pointsविशेषण के भेद- 4 भेद होते है।

  • सार्वनामिक विशेषण-
  • विशेषण के रूप में प्रयोग होने वाले सर्वनाम को सार्वनामिक विशेषण कहते।
  • जैसे- वह पुस्तक अच्छी है।
  • गुणवाचक विशेषण-
  • जो शब्द संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के गुण धर्म आदि का बोध कराते है, गुणवाचक विशेषण कहलाते है।
  • जैसे- पुरानी किताब, गोरी लड़की।
  • संख्यावाचक विशेषण-
  • जो शब्द संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम की संख्या का बोध कराते है, संख्यावाचक विशेषण कहते।
  • जैसे- दस लडके आये थे।
  • परिमाणबोधक विशेषण-
  • जिन शब्दों से संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम के परिमाण का बोध हों परिमाण बोधक विशेषण कहते है।
  • जैसे- थोडा सा पानी, पाँच किलो गेहूँ आदि।

Question 174

निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द तत्सम नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    वानर

  2. BOption (b)

    फाल्गुन

  3. COption (c)

    फूल

  4. DOption (d)

    वत्स

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

फूल

Why this answer is correct

तत्सम शब्द नहीं है- फूल

Key Points

  • फूल एक तद्भव शब्द है। इसका तत्सम रूप पुष्प या पुहुप होता है।

Important Points

  • तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चंद्र, क्षेत्र, मुख, दुग्ध आदि।
  • तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चाँद, खेत, मुँह, दूध, आदि।​

Additional Information

तत्समतद्भव
अंगुष्ठअंगूठा
एकत्रइकट्ठा
कपाटकिवाड़
ग्रामीणगँवार
तड़ागतालाब
नासिकानाक
प्रस्तरपत्थर
द्विगुणादुगुना
आश्रयआसरा

Question 175

निम्न में से बिदेशी शब्द कौन सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    टिकट

  2. BOption (b)

    लोटा

  3. COption (c)

    चिड़िया

  4. DOption (d)

    पगड़ी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

टिकट

Why this answer is correct

बिदेशी शब्द कौन सा है- टिकट

Key Points

  • विदेशज/आगत/विदेशी शब्द : विदेशी भाषाओं से हिंदी में आये शब्दों को विदेशी शब्द कहा जाता है।
  • इन विदेशी भाषाओं में मुख्यतः अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, उर्दू, अंग्रेजी व पुर्तगाली शामिल है।
  • उदाहरण: अदालत, ऑफिसर, बुखार, हज़म आदि।

Additional Information

  • ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से हिंदी में आने पर उनका रूप बदल जाता है, तद्भव शब्द कहलाते है।
  • जैसे - आग, खीर, छत आदि।
  • ऐसे शब्द जो संस्कृत से ज्यों के त्यों लिए गए, तत्सम शब्द होते हैं।
  • जैसे- आम्र, उष्ट्र, ऐश्वर्य, षष्ठी आदि।

Question 176

निम्न में से निजवाचक सर्वनाम कौन सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    तू

  2. BOption (b)

    आप

  3. COption (c)

    मैं

  4. DOption (d)

    वह

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

आप

Why this answer is correct

निजवाचक सर्वनाम है- आप

Key Points

  • मैं अपने आप काम कर लूँगा" वाक्य में "अपने" शब्द निजवाचक सर्वनाम है। यह सर्वनाम तब प्रयोग किया जाता है जब कोई व्यक्ति अपने आप से संबंधित बात करता है।
  • जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग वक्ता स्वयं के लिए करता है, वे निजवाचक सर्वनाम कहलाते हैं। इसके अंतर्गत आप, स्वयं, खुद, स्वतः आदि।
  • ​उदाहरण - तुमने खुद ही सब कुछ कर लिया।

Important Pointsसर्वनाम के छ: भेद होते हैं -

  1. पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम
  2. निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
  3. अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
  4. सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम
  5. प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम
  6. निजवाचक सर्वनाम।

Additional Information 

सर्वनामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पुरुषवाचकये सर्वनाम व्यक्तिगत रूप से किसी व्यक्ति, जीव, जानवर, वस्तु, स्थान या विचार के संदर्भ में प्रयोग होते हैं। इसके सर्वनाम के अंतर्गत  मैं, हम, तू, तुम, तुम्हारा, तुम्हारी, वह, वे, उसका, उसकी, उनका, उनकी, आदि।मैं गीत गाना चाहता हूं।
निश्चयवाचकजिन सर्वनाम शब्दों से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति या स्थान की निश्चितता का बोध हो वे शब्द निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम कहलाते हैं। इस सर्वनाम के अंतर्गत ‘यह’ और ‘वह’ आते हैं।यह विद्यालय है।
अनिश्चयवाचकजिन सर्वनाम शब्दों से वस्तु, व्यक्ति, स्थान आदि की निश्चितता का बोध नही होता, वे अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम कहलाते हैं। इसके सर्वनाम के अंतर्गत ‘कोई’ , 'किसी'और ‘कुछ’ आते हैं।​कोई दरवाजा बजा रहा है।
संबंधवाचकजिस सर्वनाम से वाक्य में किसी दूसरे सर्वनाम से संबंध स्थापित किया जाए, उसे संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं। जैसे - जैसी, तैसी, वैसी, जैसा, वैसा, जो, सो, जहाँ, वहाँ, जिसकी, उसकी, जितना, उतना आदि।​जैसा काम करोगे, वैसा फल मिलेगा।
प्रश्नवाचकजिन शब्दों का प्रयोग किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति आदि के बारे में कोई सवाल पूछने या उसके बारे में जाने के लिए किया जाता है, उन शब्दों को प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं। प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम के अंतर्गत कौन, क्या, कहाँ आदि शब्द आते हैं।तुम कौन हो?

Question 177

निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द तद्भव नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    दूब

  2. BOption (b)

    धीरज

  3. COption (c)

    दीपक

  4. DOption (d)

    दही

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

दीपक

Why this answer is correct

तद्भव शब्द नहीं है- दीपक

Key Points

  • दीपक एक तत्सम शब्द है।

Important Points

  • तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चंद्र, क्षेत्र, मुख, दुग्ध आदि।
  • तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- चाँद, खेत, मुँह, दूध, आदि।​

Additional Information

तत्समतद्भव
अंगुष्ठअंगूठा
एकत्रइकट्ठा
कपाटकिवाड़
ग्रामीणगँवार
तड़ागतालाब
नासिकानाक
प्रस्तरपत्थर
द्विगुणादुगुना
आश्रयआसरा

Question 178

'जो जाना जा सके' अर्थ के लिए एक शब्द होगाः

  1. AOption (a)

    ज्ञेय

  2. BOption (b)

    ज्ञापन

  3. COption (c)

    अज्ञेय

  4. DOption (d)

    ज्ञापक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ज्ञेय

Why this answer is correct

'जो जाना जा सके' अर्थ के लिए एक शब्द होगा- ज्ञेय

Important Pointsकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांशशब्द
​जिसके समान दूसरा कोई न होअद्वितीय
जो किनारे से सटे हुए होतटवर्ती
​जो बिना वेतन के कार्य करे​अवैतनिक
जो दूसरों के साथ भलाई करेपरोपकारी
जिस स्त्री का पति मर चुका होविधवा
​जो ऋण-मुक्त हो गया होउऋण

Question 179

'बड़प्पन' किस प्रकार की संज्ञा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    भाववाचक

  2. BOption (b)

    जातिवाचक

  3. COption (c)

    व्यक्तिवाचक

  4. DOption (d)

    पदार्थवाचक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

भाववाचक

Why this answer is correct

'बड़प्पन' की संज्ञा है- भाववाचक

Key Points

  • भाववाचक संज्ञा की परिभाषा: जो शब्द किसी चीज़ या पदार्थ की अवस्था, दशा या भाव का बोध कराते हैं, उन शब्दों को भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।
  • जैसे- बचपन, बुढ़ापा, मोटापा, मिठास, उमंग, इत्यादि।

Important Points

संज्ञा- किसी जाति, द्रव्य, गुण, भाव, व्यक्ति, स्थान और क्रिया आदि के नाम को संज्ञा कहते हैं। जैसे- पशु (जाति), सुंदरता (गुण), व्यथा (भाव), मोहन (व्यक्ति), दिल्ली (स्थान)। यह पाँच प्रकार की होती है-
संज्ञापरिभाषाउदाहरण
व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञाजिन शब्दों से किसी विशेष व्यक्ति, स्थान अथवा वस्तु के नाम का बोध हो, उसे व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।जयपुर, दिल्ली, भारत आदि।
जातिवाचक संज्ञाजिस शब्द से किसी प्राणी या वस्तु की समस्त जाति का बोध होता है, उन शब्दों को जातिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।घोड़ा, फूल, मनुष्य आदि।
समूहवाचक संज्ञाजब किसी संज्ञा शब्द से व्यक्ति या वस्तु के समूह का बोध होता है, तब उसे समूहवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।परिवार, कक्षा, सेना आदि।
द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञाजब किसी संज्ञा शब्द से किसी द्रव्य का बोध हो, तो उसे द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।तेल, घी, दाल आदि।
भाववाचक संज्ञाजिस संज्ञा शब्द से पदार्थों की अवस्था, गुण-दोष, भाव या दशा, धर्म आदि का बोध हो, उसे भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।बुढ़ापा, मिठास, बचपन आदि।

Question 180

'आदि-आदी' शब्द-युग्म का सही अर्थ है:

  1. AOption (a)

    अभ्यस्त, अदरक

  2. BOption (b)

    आरम्भ, अभ्यस्त

  3. COption (c)

    आरम्भ, इत्यादि

  4. DOption (d)

    अभ्यस्त, आरम्भ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

आरम्भ, अभ्यस्त

Why this answer is correct

'आदि-आदी' शब्द-युग्म का सही अर्थ है- आरम्भ, अभ्यस्त

Key Points

  • आदि का अर्थ आरम्भ (शुरुआत) या 'इत्यादि' (आदि) होता है, जब हम उदाहरण देते समय कुछ शब्दों के बाद इसका प्रयोग करते हैं, जिसका अर्थ होता है इसी प्रकार और भी हैं।
  • आदी का अर्थ अभ्यस्त (किसी चीज़ की आदत होना) होता है। यह 'आदत' शब्द से बना है, जैसे 'धूम्रपान का आदी'।

Important Points

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
श्रुतिसम भिन्नार्थक शब्दवे शब्द जो पढ़ने और सुनने में एक समान प्रतीत होते हैं, परन्तु उनके अर्थो में भिन्नता होती है, उन्हें श्रुतिसम भिन्नार्थक शब्द कहते हैं।अनिल-हवा अनल-आग

Hindi Language 2 (20 questions)

Question 181

'मनुष्य को क्षुब्ध नहीं होना चाहिए।' वाक्य के रेखांकित शब्द का विलोम होगाः

  1. AOption (a)

    खुश

  2. BOption (b)

    शांत 

  3. COption (c)

    क्रुद्ध

  4. DOption (d)

    दुखी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

शांत 

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- शांत

Key Pointsविलोम - 

  • जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द-

शब्दविलोम
उन्नतिअवनति
सफलताअसफलता
आरोहणअवरोहण
विकासविनाश
उदयअस्त
प्रगतिपतन
सृजनसंहार
आदरनिरादर

Question 182

'अन्विति' का विलोम होगाः

  1. AOption (a)

    इति

  2. BOption (b)

    अनन्विति

  3. COption (c)

    श्रुति

  4. DOption (d)

    अनन्वित

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

अनन्विति

Why this answer is correct

'अन्विति' का विलोम होगा- अनन्विति

Key Pointsविलोम - 

  • जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द-

शब्दविलोम
उन्नतिअवनति
सफलताअसफलता
आरोहणअवरोहण
विकासविनाश
उदयअस्त
प्रगतिपतन
सृजनसंहार
आदरनिरादर

Question 183

'श्याम ने कहा कि मैं पदूँगा।' वाक्य में 'मैं पदूँगा' किस प्रकार का उपवाक्य है?

  1. AOption (a)

    विशेषण उपवाक्य

  2. BOption (b)

    सर्वनाम उपवाक्य

  3. COption (c)

    क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य

  4. DOption (d)

    संज्ञा उपवाक्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

संज्ञा उपवाक्य

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- संज्ञा उपवाक्य

Key Points

  • जो आश्रित उपवाक्य संज्ञा की तरह व्यवहृत हों, उन्हें 'संज्ञा-उपवाक्य' कहते हैं।
  • दूसरे शब्दों में - 
  • जो गौण उपवाक्य प्रधान उपवाक्य का उद्देश्य (कर्ता), कर्म या पूरक बनकर संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम के स्थान पर प्रयुक्त हो, वह संज्ञा उपवाक्य कहलाता है तथा यह ‘कि’ योजक द्वारा जुड़ा होता है।
  • जैसे -
  • मोहन ने कहा कि मैं अभी खेलूँगा। यहाँ मैं अभी खेलूँगा ‘संज्ञा आश्रित उपवाक्य’ है।

Additional Information

मिश्रित वाक्यमिश्र या मिश्रित वाक्य के दो भेद होते हैं: प्रधान उपवाक्य - किसी वाक्य में जो उपवाक्य किसी पर आश्रित नहीं होता अर्थात् स्वतंत्र होता है एवम् उसकी क्रिया मुख्य होती है , वह मुख्य या प्रधान उपवाक्य कहलाता है। जैसे – मोदी जी ने कहा की अच्छे दिन आएँगे। इस वाक्य में ‘मोदी जी ने कहा’ प्रधान उपवाक्य है। आश्रित उपवाक्य - किसी वाक्य में जो उपवाक्य दूसरे उपवाक्य पर निर्भर होता है अर्थात् स्वतंत्र नहीं होता है एवम् किसी न किसी व्यधिकरण योजक से जुड़ा होता है , वह आश्रित उपवाक्य कहलाता है। इस वाक्य में ‘अच्छे दिन आएँगे।’ आश्रित उपवाक्य है।
क्रिया-विशेषण आश्रित उपवाक्यजो उपवाक्य क्रिया-विशेषण की तरह व्यवहृत हो, उसे क्रिया-विशेषण उपवाक्य कहते हैं। जैसे - जब पानी बरसता है, तब मेढक बोलते हैं। यहाँ 'जब पानी बरसता है' क्रियाविशेषण-उपवाक्य हैं। इसमें प्रायः 'जब', 'जहाँ', 'जिधर', 'ज्यों', 'यद्यपि' इत्यादि शब्दों का प्रयोग होता हैं।
विशेषण आश्रित उपवाक्यजो आश्रित उपवाक्य विशेषण की तरह व्यवहृत हो, उसे विशेषण-उपवाक्य कहते हैं। जैसे- वह आदमी, जो कल आया था, आज भी आया है। यहाँ 'जो कल आया था' विशेषण-उपवाक्य है। इसमें 'जो', 'जैसा', 'जितना' इत्यादि शब्दों का प्रयोग होता हैं।

Question 184

'अल्पायु' का विलोम होगाः

  1. AOption (a)

    अमर

  2. BOption (b)

    जटायु

  3. COption (c)

    अजर

  4. DOption (d)

    दीर्घायु

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

दीर्घायु

Why this answer is correct

'अल्पायु' का विलोम होगा- दीर्घायु

Key Pointsविलोम - 

  • जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द-

शब्दविलोम
उन्नतिअवनति
सफलताअसफलता
आरोहणअवरोहण
विकासविनाश
उदयअस्त
प्रगतिपतन
सृजनसंहार
आदरनिरादर

Question 185

'करकमल' में कर का अर्थ है:

  1. AOption (a)

    हाथी

  2. BOption (b)

    हाथ

  3. COption (c)

    किरण

  4. DOption (d)

    टैक्स

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

हाथ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2

Question 186

रचना के अनुसार कौन सा वाक्य का प्रकार नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    संयुक्त वाक्य

  2. BOption (b)

    कुटिल वाक्य

  3. COption (c)

    मिश्र वाक्य

  4. DOption (d)

    सरल वाक्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

कुटिल वाक्य

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2

Question 187

'तुम पढ़ो' किस प्रकार का वाक्य है?

  1. AOption (a)

    संकेतवाचक

  2. BOption (b)

    विस्मयवाचक

  3. COption (c)

    संदेहवाचक

  4. DOption (d)

    आज्ञावाचक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

आज्ञावाचक

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4

Question 188

'अतः + एव' का संधि-रूप होगाः

  1. AOption (a)

    अतैव

  2. BOption (b)

    अताएव

  3. COption (c)

    अतएव

  4. DOption (d)

    अतिएव

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अतएव

Why this answer is correct

'अतः + एव' का संधि-रूप होगा- अतएव

Key Points

  • 'अतः + एव' का सही संधि-रूप अतएव (अतः + एव = अतएव) होगा, जिसमें विसर्ग संधि का नियम लागू होता है, जहाँ विसर्ग (:) का लोप होकर 'ए' के साथ जुड़ जाता है, जिससे 'अतएव' शब्द बनता है, जिसका अर्थ 'इसीलिए' या 'इस कारण से' होता है।

Important Points

 

संधि - दो शब्दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है, उसे संधि कहते हैं। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं - 1. स्वर, 2. व्यंजन और 3. विसर्ग।
संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
स्वर संधिदो स्वरों के मेल से उत्पन्न होने वाले विकार को स्वर संधि कहते हैं। इसके पाँच भेद हैं- दीर्घ, गुण, वृद्धि, यण, अयादि।महाशय = महा + आशय।
व्यंजन संधिव्यंजन के बाद किसी स्वर या व्यंजन के आने से उस व्यंजन में जो परिवर्तन होता है, वह व्यंजन संधि कहलाता है।दिग्गज = दिक् + गज।
विसर्ग संधिविसर्ग के साथ स्वर अथवा व्यंजन के मिलने से जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है, उसे विसर्ग संधि कहते हैं।शिरोमणि = शिर: + मणि।

Question 189

अन्वय की दृष्टि से कौन सा वाक्य शुद्ध है?

  1. AOption (a)

    माता-पिता बैठे है।

  2. BOption (b)

    माता-पिता बैठी है।

  3. COption (c)

    माता-पिता बैठा है।

  4. DOption (d)

    माता-पिता बैठे हैं।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

माता-पिता बैठे हैं।

Why this answer is correct

अन्वय की दृष्टि से वाक्य शुद्ध है- माता-पिता बैठे हैं।

Key Points

  • अन्वय - वाक्य में व्याकरण की दृष्टि से लिंग,पुरुष, वचन, कारक,काल आदि का क्रिया के साथ उचित तरह से मेल होना चाहिए।

Important Pointsवाक्य के प्रमुख तत्व -

  1. सार्थकता - वाक्य का कुछ-न-कुछ सार्थक अर्थ अत्यंत जरूरी होता है।
  2. योग्यता - वाक्य में भावों का बोध कराने वाली योग्यता अति आवश्यक है।
  3. आकांक्षा - वाक्य स्वयं में इतना पूर्ण होना चाहिए कि भाव को समझने की आवश्यकता ही न हो।
  4. निकटता - बोलते या लिखते समय वाक्य के शब्दों में निकटता का होना अति आवश्यक होता है।
  5. पदक्रम - वाक्य में पदों को एक निश्चित क्रम में होना जरूरी होता है।
  6. अन्वय - वाक्य में व्याकरण की दृष्टि से लिंग,पुरुष, वचन, कारक,काल आदि का क्रिया के साथ उचित तरह से मेल होना चाहिए।

Additional Informationनिम्नलिखित वाक्यगत अशुद्धि होती हैं - 

  • संज्ञा संबंधित त्रुटि
  • लिंग संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • वचन संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • शब्द चयन की अशुद्धियाँ
  • सर्वनाम संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • विशेषण संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • क्रिया संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • अव्यय संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • पदक्रम संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

Question 190

'मछली' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है:

  1. AOption (a)

    गिरा

  2. BOption (b)

    सफरी

  3. COption (c)

    झख

  4. DOption (d)

    मीन

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

गिरा

Why this answer is correct

'मछली' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है- गिरा 

  • गिरा: मछली का पर्यायवाची नहीं। “गिरा” का अर्थ गिरना (क्रिया) या कोई अन्य संदर्भ (जैसे नाम) होता है, लेकिन मछली के लिए प्रयुक्त नहीं।

Key Points

  • 'मछली' के प्रमुख पर्यायवाची शब्द हैं: मीन, मत्स्य, झख, झष, शफरी (या सफरी), मकर, रोहित, कुलीर (केकड़ा संदर्भ में अलग) आदि।

Important Points

  • पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
आनंदहर्ष, खुशी, आनंदिता, प्रीति, उत्साह, प्रफुल्लित।
कपटदगा, दगाबाजी, ठगी, फरेब, छल, धोखा, धूर्त्तता।
अटलस्थिर, अचल, दृढ, अडिग, चिरस्थायी, पक्का।
क्रोधरोष, अमर्ष, गुस्सा, आक्रोश, कोह, प्रतिघात खीझ।
भलाईउपकार, नेकी,अच्छाई, परोपकार, कल्याण, अहसान।
खेददु:ख, पीड़ा, व्यथा, कष्ट, संकट, शोक, क्लेश, वेदना।
चतुरविज्ञ, निपुण, नागर, पटु, कुशल, दक्ष, प्रवीण, योग्य।

Question 191

'लौटकर कहने लगा' किस पदबन्ध का उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    क्रिया पदबन्ध

  2. BOption (b)

    संज्ञा पदबन्ध

  3. COption (c)

    सर्वनाम पदबन्ध

  4. DOption (d)

    विशेषण पदबन्ध

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

क्रिया पदबन्ध

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1

Question 192

'अधिकार' में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    कर

  2. BOption (b)

    अधि

  3. COption (c)

    कार

  4. DOption (d)

    अ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

अधि

Why this answer is correct

'अधिकार' में उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है- अधि

Key Pointsउपसर्ग -

  • उपसर्ग शब्द के शुरूआत में जुड़ते हैं और मूल शब्द का अर्थ बदल देते हैं।
  • उदाहरण- 
  • अप + यश = अपयश
  • अध + पका = अधपका
  • ना + लायक = नालायक
  • हाफ + टिकट = हाफटिकट आदि।

Important Pointsहिन्दी में मुख्यतः चार प्रकार के उपसर्ग होते है :-

  • संस्कृत के उपसर्ग (प्र, परा, अप, सम्, अनु, अव, निस्, निर्, दुस्, दुर्, वि, आङ्, नि, अधि, अपि, अति, सु, उत्, अभि, प्रति, परि तथा उप)
  • हिंदी के उपसर्ग (अन, अध, उन, औ, कु, चौ, पच, पर, बिन, भर, स, सह, चिर, न, बहु, आप, सम, दु)
  • उर्दू के उपसर्ग (ला, बद, बे, कम, ग़ैर, ना, खुश, हम, ऐन, सर, बेश, बा, अल)
  • अंग्रेजी के उपसर्ग (ब, हाफ, को, हैड, वाइस)

Question 193

'मैं आया और वह गया।' किस प्रकार का वाक्य है?

  1. AOption (a)

    उपवाक्य

  2. BOption (b)

    संयुक्त वाक्य

  3. COption (c)

    सरल वाक्य

  4. DOption (d)

    मिश्र वाक्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

संयुक्त वाक्य

Why this answer is correct

'मैं आया और वह गया।' वाक्य है- संयुक्त वाक्य

Key Points

रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद - - रचना के आधार पर वाक्य तीन प्रकार के होते हैं। - सरल वाक्य - मिश्रित वाक्य - संयुक्त वाक्य
वाक्यपरिभाषाउदाहरण
सरलऐसा वाक्य जिसमे एक ही क्रिया एवं एक ही कर्ता होता है या जिस वाक्य में एक ही उद्देश्य एवं एक ही विधेय होता है, वे वाक्य सरल वाक्य कहलाते हैं।लोग तुम्हें मूर्ख समझते हैं।
मिश्रऐसे वाक्य जिनमें सरल वाक्य के साथ-साथ कोई दूसरा उपवाक्य भी हो, वे वाक्य मिश्र वाक्य कहलाते हैं। मिश्र वाक्य में प्रधान वाक्य को आश्रित उपवाक्य से जोड़ने के लिए जो आपस में कि, जो, क्योंकि, जितना, उतना, जैसा, वैसा, जब, तब, जहाँ, वहाँ, जिधर, उधर, अगर/यदि, तो, यद्यपि, तथापि आदि का प्रयोग किया जाता है।​लोग समझते हैं कि तुम मूर्ख हो।
संयुक्त​ऐसा वाक्य जिसमे दो या दो से अधिक उपवाक्य हो एवं सभी उपवाक्य प्रधान हों, ऐसे वाक्य को सयुंक्त वाक्य कहते हैं।  ​सयुंक्त वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक सरल वाक्यों को और, एवं, तथा, या, अथवा, इसलिए, अतः, फिर भी, तो, नहीं तो, किन्तु, परन्तु, लेकिन, पर आदि का प्रयोग करके जोड़ा जाता है।प्रात:काल हुआ, और पक्षी चहचहाने लगे।

Additional Information"वाक्य" की परिभाषा -

  • वाक्य वह शब्द समूह होता है जो किसी पूर्ण विचार को व्यक्त करता है।
  • उदाहरण के लिए -
  • मैं स्कूल जा रहा हूं।
  • वह बहुत अच्छा गाता है।
  • क्या आप ठीक हैं?
  • अगर मैं जल्दी उठता, तो मैं दौड़ने जा सकता।
  • मेरी किताब और मेरा पेन टेबल पर है।

Question 194

पदक्रम की दृष्टि से कौन सा वाक्य शुद्ध है?

  1. AOption (a)

    भोजन गीता ने किया।

  2. BOption (b)

    गीता ने किया भोजन।

  3. COption (c)

    भोजन किया गीता ने।

  4. DOption (d)

    गीता ने भोजन किया।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

गीता ने भोजन किया।

Why this answer is correct

पदक्रम की दृष्टि से वाक्य शुद्ध है- गीता ने भोजन किया।

Key Pointsअन्वय -

  • वाक्य में व्याकरण की दृष्टि से लिंग,पुरुष, वचन, कारक,काल आदि का क्रिया के साथ उचित तरह से मेल होना चाहिए।

Important Pointsवाक्य के प्रमुख तत्व -

  1. सार्थकता - वाक्य का कुछ-न-कुछ सार्थक अर्थ अत्यंत जरूरी होता है।
  2. योग्यता - वाक्य में भावों का बोध कराने वाली योग्यता अति आवश्यक है।
  3. आकांक्षा - वाक्य स्वयं में इतना पूर्ण होना चाहिए कि भाव को समझने की आवश्यकता ही न हो।
  4. निकटता - बोलते या लिखते समय वाक्य के शब्दों में निकटता का होना अति आवश्यक होता है।
  5. पदक्रम - वाक्य में पदों को एक निश्चित क्रम में होना जरूरी होता है।
  6. अन्वय - वाक्य में व्याकरण की दृष्टि से लिंग,पुरुष, वचन, कारक,काल आदि का क्रिया के साथ उचित तरह से मेल होना चाहिए।

Additional Informationनिम्नलिखित वाक्यगत अशुद्धि होती हैं - 

  • संज्ञा संबंधित त्रुटि
  • लिंग संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • वचन संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • शब्द चयन की अशुद्धियाँ
  • सर्वनाम संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • विशेषण संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • क्रिया संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • अव्यय संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ
  • पदक्रम संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

Question 195

'कृशानु' किसका पर्यायवाची है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अश्व

  2. BOption (b)

    अग्नि

  3. COption (c)

    किरण

  4. DOption (d)

    असुर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

अग्नि

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है -अग्नि

Key Points

  • 'कृशानु' संस्कृत का एक प्रमुख शब्द है, जो अग्नि (आग) का पर्यायवाची है।
  • व्युत्पत्ति: कृश् (दाह करना या क्षीण करना) + अनु (धातु) → जो कुछ को जलाकर क्षीण/भस्म कर दे, अर्थात् अग्नि।
  • यह अग्नि के कई पर्यायों में से एक है (जैसे अनल, पावक, वह्नि, हव्यवाहन, कृशानु आदि)। पुराणों, वेदों और काव्यों में 'कृशानु' का प्रयोग अग्नि के लिए ही होता है।

Additional Information

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

  • अश्व (घोड़ा): पर्यायवाची हैं हय, तुरंग, वाजी, घोटक आदि। कृशानु नहीं।
  • किरण (रश्मि): पर्यायवाची हैं मरीचि, मयूख, रश्मि, अंशु आदि। कृशानु नहीं।
  • असुर (दानव): पर्यायवाची हैं दानव, दैत्य, राक्षस, निशाचर आदि। कृशानु नहीं।

Important Points

  • पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाचीशब्द -

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
आनंदहर्ष, खुशी, आनंदिता, प्रीति, उत्साह, प्रफुल्लित।
कपटदगा, दगाबाजी, ठगी, फरेब, छल, धोखा, धूर्त्तता।
अटलस्थिर, अचल, दृढ, अडिग, चिरस्थायी, पक्का।
क्रोधरोष, अमर्ष, गुस्सा, आक्रोश, कोह, प्रतिघात खीझ।
भलाईउपकार, नेकी,अच्छाई, परोपकार, कल्याण, अहसान।
खेददु:ख, पीड़ा, व्यथा, कष्ट, संकट, शोक, क्लेश, वेदना।
चतुरविज्ञ, निपुण, नागर, पटु, कुशल, दक्ष, प्रवीण, योग्य।

Question 196

'आँख' का पर्यायवाची है:

  1. AOption (a)

    मयूख

  2. BOption (b)

    निलय

  3. COption (c)

    आशुग

  4. DOption (d)

    अम्बक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अम्बक

Why this answer is correct

'आँख' का पर्यायवाची है- अम्बक

Key Points

  • आंख के पर्यायवाची शब्द हैं- नेत्र, नयन, चक्षु, लोचन, दृग, अक्षि, विलोचन, दीदा, अंबक आदि।

Important Points

  • पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Information

  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
आनंदहर्ष, खुशी, आनंदिता, प्रीति, उत्साह, प्रफुल्लित।
कपटदगा, दगाबाजी, ठगी, फरेब, छल, धोखा, धूर्त्तता।
अटलस्थिर, अचल, दृढ, अडिग, चिरस्थायी, पक्का।
क्रोधरोष, अमर्ष, गुस्सा, आक्रोश, कोह, प्रतिघात खीझ।
भलाईउपकार, नेकी,अच्छाई, परोपकार, कल्याण, अहसान।
खेददु:ख, पीड़ा, व्यथा, कष्ट, संकट, शोक, क्लेश, वेदना।
चतुरविज्ञ, निपुण, नागर, पटु, कुशल, दक्ष, प्रवीण, योग्य।

Question 197

'तनुज' किसका पर्यायवाची है?

  1. AOption (a)

    पिता

  2. BOption (b)

    पुत्र

  3. COption (c)

    भाता

  4. DOption (d)

    मित्र

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

पुत्र

Why this answer is correct

'तनुज' पर्यायवाची है- पुत्र

Key Points

  • 'तनुज' शब्द पुत्र, बेटा, लड़का, सुत, तनय, और आत्मज का पर्यायवाची है, जिसका अर्थ है वह जो इस शरीर (तन) से जन्मा हो, यानी संता

Important Points

  • पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Information

  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
आनंदहर्ष, खुशी, आनंदिता, प्रीति, उत्साह, प्रफुल्लित।
कपटदगा, दगाबाजी, ठगी, फरेब, छल, धोखा, धूर्त्तता।
अटलस्थिर, अचल, दृढ, अडिग, चिरस्थायी, पक्का।
क्रोधरोष, अमर्ष, गुस्सा, आक्रोश, कोह, प्रतिघात खीझ।
भलाईउपकार, नेकी,अच्छाई, परोपकार, कल्याण, अहसान।
खेददु:ख, पीड़ा, व्यथा, कष्ट, संकट, शोक, क्लेश, वेदना।
चतुरविज्ञ, निपुण, नागर, पटु, कुशल, दक्ष, प्रवीण, योग्य।

Question 198

'प्रतिमान' में कौन सा समास है?

  1. AOption (a)

    द्विगु

  2. BOption (b)

    तत्पुरुष

  3. COption (c)

    अव्ययीभाव

  4. DOption (d)

    द्वंद्व

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अव्ययीभाव

Why this answer is correct

'प्रतिमान' में समास है- अव्ययीभाव

Key Points

  • 'प्रतिमान' शब्द में अव्ययीभाव समास है, क्योंकि इसमें पहला पद 'प्रति' एक अव्यय (उपसर्ग) है और यह पद प्रधान है, जिसका अर्थ 'प्रत्येक' या 'के अनुसार' होता है, और यह पद क्रिया-विशेषण के रूप में कार्य करता है।

Important Points

समास - समास उस प्रक्रिया को कहते हैं, जिसमें दो शब्द मिलाकर उनके बीच के संबंधसूचक आदि का लोप करके नया शब्द बनाया जाता है। समास से तात्पर्य 'संक्षिप्तीकरण' से है। समास के माध्यम से कम शब्दों में अधिक अर्थ प्रकट किया जाता है। जैसे - राजा का पुत्र – राजपुत्र, समास के छःप्रकार हैं -
समासपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्पुरुषजिस समास में उत्तरपद प्रधान हो तथा समास करने के उपरांत विभक्ति (कारक चिन्ह) का लोप हो।धर्म का ग्रन्थ = धर्मग्रन्थ, तुलसीदास द्वारा कृत = तुलसीदासकृत।
बहुव्रीहिजिस समास में दोनों पद प्रधान नहीं होते हैं और दोनों पद मिलकर किसी अन्य विशेष अर्थ की ओर संकेत कर रहे होते हैं।जो महान वीर है = महावीर अर्थात हनुमान, तीन आँखों वाला = त्रिलोचन अर्थात शिव।
कर्मधारयजिस समास के दोनों शब्दों के बीच विशेषण-विशेष्य अथवा उपमान-उपमेय का सम्बन्ध हो। पहचान: विग्रह करने पर दोनों पद के मध्य में 'है जो', 'के समान' आदि आते हैं।कमल के समान नयन = कमलनयन, महान है जो देव = महादेव।
द्विगुजिस समास में पूर्वपद (पहला पद) संख्यावाचक विशेषण हो।दो पहरों का समूह = दोपहर, तीनों लोकों का समाहार = त्रिलोक।
अव्यययीभावजिस समास में पहला पद प्रधान हो और समस्त शब्द अव्यय का काम करे।प्रति + दिन = प्रतिदिन, एक + एक = एकाएक
द्वंद्वद्वन्द्व समास में समस्तपद के दोनों पद प्रधान हों या दोनों पद सामान हों एवं दोंनों पदों को मिलाते समय "और, अथवा, या, एवं" आदि योजक लुप्त हो जाएँ, वह समास द्वंद्व समास कहलाता है।माता- पिता = माता और पिता, हाँ- न = हाँ या न

Question 199

निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द स्त्रीलिंग है?

  1. AOption (a)

    उपवास

  2. BOption (b)

    उपासना

  3. COption (c)

    उत्साह

  4. DOption (d)

    उपकरण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

उपासना

Why this answer is correct

स्त्रीलिंग है- उपासना

Key Points'लिंग'-

  • लिंग का शाब्दिक अर्थ है 'चिह्न'।
  • शब्द के जिस रूप से यह जाना जाये कि जिस के बारे में बात की जा रही है वह 'स्त्री' जाति का है या 'पुरुष' जाति का, उसको लिंग कहते है।

शब्दों के व्याकरण में तीन लिंग होते हैं:-

पुल्लिंग लिंग:

  • जो शब्द पुरुष जाति का होते हैं, उन्हें पुल्लिंग लिंग कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण के लिए, 'आदमी', 'बेटा', 'भाई' आदि।

स्त्रीलिंग लिंग:

  • जो शब्द स्त्री जाति का होते हैं, उन्हें स्त्रीलिंग लिंग कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण के लिए, 'महिला', 'बेटी', 'बहन' आदि।

नपुंसकलिंग लिंग:

  • जो शब्द जिनका कोई लैंगिक गुणधर्म नहीं होता है, उन्हें नपुंसकलिंग लिंग कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण के लिए, 'मकान', 'पेड़', 'अंडा' आदि।

Additional Information

पुल्लिंगस्त्रीलिंग
बाबूबबुआइन
भगवानभगवती
भीलभीलनी
मजदूरमजदूरनी
मूर्खमूर्खा
याचकयाचिका
लालाललाइन
विधाताविधात्री
साँपसाँपिन

Mistake Points

  • हिंदी के जिन शब्दों के अंत में आ या ई की मात्रा आती है, उनमें से अधिकतर शब्द स्त्रीलिंग होते हैं।
  • जैसे:- रमा, पीली, काली, चमकीली इत्यादि।
  • परंतु कुछ शब्द अपवाद भी होते है जो सदैव पुल्लिंग होते है-
  • जैसे- धन, दही, पानी, कपि आदि।

Question 200

'पुष्पित' में किस प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    त 

  2. BOption (b)

    इत

  3. COption (c)

    पु

  4. DOption (d)

    पित

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

इत

Why this answer is correct

'पुष्पित' में प्रत्यय है- इत

Key Pointsप्रत्यय-

  • प्रत्यय शब्द दो शब्दों से मिलकर बना है – प्रति + अय। प्रति का अर्थ होता है ‘साथ में, पर बाद में" और अय का अर्थ होता है "चलने वाला", अत: प्रत्यय का अर्थ होता है साथ में पर बाद में चलने वाला।
  • प्रत्यय के प्रकार -
  • संस्कृत के प्रत्यय
  • हिंदी के प्रत्यय
  • विदेशी भाषा के प्रत्यय
  • संस्कृत के प्रत्यय- संस्कृत व्याकरण में जो प्रत्यय शब्दों और मूल धातुओं से जोड़े जाते हैं वे संस्कृत के प्रत्यय कहलाते हैं ।
  • जैसे- त – आगत , विगत , कृत ।
  • संस्कृत प्रत्यय के प्रकार-
  • कृत प्रत्यय
  • तद्धित प्रत्यय
  • कृतृ प्रत्यय- वे प्रत्यय जो क्रिया या धातु के अंत में लगकर एक नए शब्द बनाते हैं उन्हें कृत प्रत्यय कहा जाता है ।कृत प्रत्यय से मिलकर जो प्रत्यय बनते है उन्हें कृदंत प्रत्यय कहते हैं । ये प्रत्यय क्रिया और धातु को नया अर्थ देते हैं । कृत प्रत्यय के योग से संज्ञा और विशेषण भी बनाए जाते हैं ।
  • तद्धित प्रत्यय- जो प्रत्यय संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, विशेषण के अंत में लगने के बाद नए शब्दों की रचना करते हैं , उन्हें तद्धित प्रत्यय कहते हैं । हिंदी में आठ प्रकार के तद्धित प्रत्यय होते हैं ।

Important Pointsकृत प्रत्यय के भेद- 

प्रत्ययपरिभाषाउदाहरण
कर्तृवाचक कृत प्रत्ययउन्हें कर्तृवाचक कृदंत कहा जाता है जो धातुओं के अंत में जुड़ कर कर्ता वाचक शब्दों का निर्माण करते हैं।आक = तैराक आलू = झगड़ाल
विशेषणवाचक कृत प्रत्ययउन्हें विशेषणवाचक कृदंत कहा जाता है, जो धातु के अंत में जोड़कर विशेषण वाची शब्द का निर्माण करते हैं।अनीय – पठनीय, गृहणीय इत – लिखित, कथित
भाववाचक कृत प्रत्ययउन्हें भाववाचक कृदंत कहा जाता है जो धातु के अंत में  जुड़कर भाववाचक संज्ञा का निर्माण करते हैं।आव = चढ़ाव, घुमाव, ई = बोली, हँसी
कर्मवाचक कृत प्रत्ययउन्हें कर्मवाचक कृदंत कहा जाता है जो प्रत्यय धातुओं के अंत में जुड़कर कर्म वाचक शब्दों का निर्माण करते हैं।ना = सूँघना ,ओढ़ना, पढ़ना,खाना नी = सूँघनी,छलनी
करणवाचक कृत प्रत्ययउन्हें करणवाचक कृदंत कहा जाता है जो धातुओं के अंत में जुड़ कर कर्म के माध्यम यह साधन का बोध कराने वाले शब्द बनाते हैं।ई = फाँसी ,धुलाई ,रेती,भारी आ = मेला
क्रियावाचक कृत प्रत्ययवे प्रत्यय जो क्रिया का बोध करवाते हों उन्हें क्रियावाचक कृत् प्रत्यय कहते हैं।या=  आया, बोया, खाया, कर=  गाकर, देखकर, सुनकर

200 questions in the full paper