Social Studies PYQs

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

Key PointsAssertion (A): Short stunted trees and grasses form the grasslands. - True

• Grasslands are characterized by a dominance of grasses and the presence of short, stunted trees.
• The vegetation in grasslands is adapted to various factors such as soil, climate, and disturbances like grazing or fires. Grasslands can be found in various forms, such as savannas, prairies, and steppes, depending on the specific combination of these factors in a particular region.

Reason (R): Amount of moisture regulates the sizes of trees and their density. - True

Moisture availability is one of the critical factors that influence the size of trees and their density in a given ecosystem.

1. Regions with more moisture, like rainforests or wetter parts of the savannas, tend to have taller and denser trees. The abundant moisture supports rapid growth, allowing trees to reach greater heights and form a dense canopy.
2. Areas with less moisture, like semi-arid or arid grasslands, have fewer and shorter trees. The limited moisture restricts the growth of trees, leading to a sparser vegetation pattern. In these regions, grasses tend to be the dominant form of vegetation because they can better adapt to the limited water availability.

• While both the assertion and reason are true, the reason is not the sole explanation for the assertion.
• Other factors, such as soil type, fire frequency, and grazing pressure, also contribute to the formation of grasslands and the presence of short, stunted trees.
• For example, frequent fires can limit tree growth and help maintain grass dominance in some grassland ecosystems, even if moisture is not the limiting factor.

Permanent winds are those that persist throughout the year and are associated with the Earth's atmospheric circulation system. They help to distribute heat, moisture, and air masses across the planet, playing a crucial role in shaping global climate patterns.

Key PointsTrade winds and Westerlies - Both trade winds and westerlies are examples of permanent winds, making this the correct answer.

• Trade winds: These are consistent, prevailing winds that blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere, found between approximately 30° latitude and the equator in both hemispheres.
• Westerlies: These winds blow from the southwest in the Northern Hemisphere and the northwest in the Southern Hemisphere, generally found between latitudes 30° and 60° in both hemispheres.
• Easterlies: Also known as polar easterlies, these winds blow from the east near the Earth's poles and are formed as cold air masses move away from the poles towards the lower latitudes.

Additional Information

• Easterlies and Monsoon winds - Easterlies are permanent winds, but monsoon winds are seasonal.
• Loo and Monsoon winds - Both loo and monsoon winds are seasonal, not permanent.
• Sea breeze and Westerlies - Sea breezes are local and diurnal (daily) winds, while westerlies are permanent winds.

Among the given options, Trade winds and Westerlies are the correct answer, as both trade winds and westerlies are examples of permanent winds that persist throughout the year and play a vital role in shaping global climate patterns.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

Important Points(A) The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure.

• This statement is true.
• The movement of air in the atmosphere is driven by differences in air pressure.
• Air moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, which creates winds.
• The pressure gradient force is the force that arises due to the differences in pressure.
• The air flows from high pressure to low pressure until the pressure is equalized.
• The pressure gradient force is not the only factor that affects the direction of the wind.
• Other factors, such as the rotation of the earth, the distribution of heat and moisture, the topography of the land, and the location of high and low-pressure systems, also play a role in determining the direction of the winds.

(B) Rotation of the earth is also one of the factors that affect the direction of the winds.

• This statement is also true.
• The rotation of the earth affects the direction of the winds.
• The earth's rotation causes the Coriolis force, which deflects moving objects to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
• This force affects the direction of the winds and causes them to curve instead of moving in a straight line.
• The Coriolis force is caused by the rotation of the earth and is the strongest at the poles and weakest at the equator.
• The Coriolis force is not a primary force that drives the movement of the air.
• Instead, it is a secondary force that modifies the direction of the air movement that is driven by the pressure gradient force.

Therefore, while both statements (A) and (B) are true, statement (B) is not the correct explanation of statement (A) because the direction of wind movement is not solely determined by the rotation of the earth.

The direction of wind movement is primarily determined by the differences in air pressure, and the rotation of the earth is one of the factors that affects the direction of the winds

Option (A) is the correct option.

Key Points

(A) Due to varied climatic conditions, India has a wide range of natural vegetation.

• India is a large country with a diverse range of climatic conditions, from the Himalayan mountains in the north to the tropical forests in the south.
• As a result, India has a wide range of natural vegetation, which includes tropical rainforests, deciduous forests, alpine forests, grasslands, and deserts.

Statement (A) is true.

(B) Natural vegetation of any area is dependent only on rainfall in that area.​

• While rainfall is an important factor that influences the growth and distribution of natural vegetation, it is not the only factor.
• Other factors that play a role include temperature, altitude, soil type, and topography.
• For example, areas with high rainfall may have different types of vegetation based on other factors such as soil type and temperature.
• Similarly, areas with similar rainfall may have different types of vegetation based on other factors such as altitude and topography.

Statement (B) is false.

The correct answer is Antarctica.

Key Points The Prince Charles Mountains are a major group of mountains in Mac. Robertson Land, Antarctica, including the Athos Range, the Porthos Range, and the Aramis Range.

• They were discovered on 13 January 1956 by an Australian National Antarctic Research Expeditions southern party led by W.G. Bewsher.
• The region is known for its geological significance.
• The Prince Charles Mountains contain large reserves of iron ore, primarily in the form of magnetite.
• These reserves were first discovered during the 1980s and 1990s through aeromagnetic surveys and satellite imagery.
• While the extreme weather conditions and remoteness of the area have limited mining activities, the presence of these resources underscores the mineral richness of Antarctica.
• So, the Prince Charles Mountains, associated with iron ore, are located in Antarctica.
• This highlights the continent's potential for future resource extraction, despite the current legal protections and environmental concerns that limit such activities in this region.

The factors (A) Time, and (B) Technology, can change any substance into a resource.

Key PointsThe factors that can change any substance into a resource are interconnected and dynamic.

(A) Time:

• Over time, societal values and priorities can change, leading to new demands for certain materials or substances.
• For example, the need for fossil fuels has increased dramatically over the past century due to industrialization and the growing demand for energy.
• Conversely, resources such as whale oil, which was once a valuable resource for lighting and lubrication, have become less important due to the development of new energy sources.

(B) Technology:

• Technological advancements play a crucial role in transforming substances into resources.
• As technology progresses, new methods of extraction, processing, and utilization are developed, making it possible to access and use substances that were previously inaccessible or unprofitable.
• For example, hydraulic fracturing (fracking) has allowed access to previously untapped natural gas reserves, turning them into valuable resources.
• Similarly, advancements in renewable energy technology have made solar and wind power increasingly viable alternatives to fossil fuels.

​In summary, substances can be transformed into resources based on advancements in technology, and the passage of time.

The correct answer is   Only (A), (B) and (C).

Key Points

The plantations found in the tropical regions of the world from the list are:

(A) Rubber in Malaysia

(B) Coffee in Brazil

(C) Tea in India

Tropical regions are typically located between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, around the equator. These regions have a warm and humid climate that is ideal for the growth of certain crops like rubber, coffee, and tea.

(D) Maize in Canada is not typically found in a tropical region. Canada has a temperate climate, and maize (or corn) is a crop that can grow in a variety of climates, but it's not typically associated with tropical regions.

Additional Information 

(A) Rubber in Malaysia: Rubber trees require a hot, humid climate with temperatures between 20°C and 34°C (68°F and 93°F). They also need abundant rainfall of around 2000-4500 mm annually, well-distributed throughout the year. Malaysia, being a tropical country, provides these conditions.

(B) Coffee in Brazil: Coffee plants prefer a tropical climate with temperatures between 15°C and 24°C (59°F and 75°F). They require a significant amount of rainfall, around 1500-3000 mm per year, preferably in a pattern that includes a dry period to allow for the coffee cherries to ripen and be harvested. Brazil's climate, especially in its major coffee-growing regions, fits these conditions.

(C) Tea in India: Tea plants thrive in a tropical and subtropical climate with temperatures between 10°C and 30°C (50°F and 86°F). They need a high amount of rainfall, around 1500-2500 mm per year, and prefer well-distributed rain throughout the year. The high-altitude regions of Northeast India (like Assam and Darjeeling) and South India (like Nilgiris) provide these conditions.

(D) Maize in Canada: Maize, or corn, is a versatile crop that can grow in a variety of climates, but it prefers a warm and temperate climate. It needs temperatures between 10°C and 30°C (50°F and 86°F) for optimal growth. It also requires a good amount of rainfall, around 500-1000 mm per year, preferably well-distributed throughout the growing season. While Canada is not a tropical country, its summer conditions in the southern regions are suitable for maize cultivation.

The correct answer is Buddhism.

Key Points Frustrated by the persistent social inequality and the caste system in Hinduism, Ambedkar began to explore alternative religious beliefs.

• He was specifically searching for a religion that promoted social equality and did not endorse caste-based discrimination.
• In 1956, he publicly converted to Buddhism, leading hundreds of thousands of his followers to do the same.
• Ambedkar chose Buddhism because he appreciated its principles of equality, fraternity, and justice, which he believed would help uplift the Dalit community.
• He was also instrumental in reviving Buddhism in India, especially among marginalized communities.
• His conversion was not just personal; it was a political and social act, symbolizing the rejection of a system that had traditionally oppressed people like him.

Therefore, Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar converted to Buddhism in search of equality.

Additional InformationDr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, often referred to as Babasaheb Ambedkar, was a leading activist and social reformer who dedicated his life to eradicating social inequality in India, particularly the caste-based discrimination.

• He was born into a Dalit (then called 'untouchable') family, and despite facing immense social and economic challenges, he went on to become one of the most educated individuals in India, earning law degrees and multiple doctorates for his study and research in law, economics, and political science.

A village has people belonging to different castes who are seen in a hierarchical manner.

• This option is NOT a valid example of diversity because it represents a social hierarchy based on the caste system.
• Diversity refers to the understanding and appreciation of differences among people, including their beliefs, values, culture, language, and religion.
• While the presence of different castes in a village does show a variety of backgrounds, the focus on a hierarchical manner implies discrimination and inequality rather than embracing and celebrating diversity.

Additional Information

• The other options (1, 3, and 4) all reflect instances of diversity, as they showcase different aspects of culture, language, and religion being acknowledged and practiced in a harmonious manner.

The correct option is ' Rajya Sabha '.

Key Points

• The more popular name for the Council of States in India is the Rajya Sabha.
• The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament and represents the states and union territories of India.
• It is a permanent body that is not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.
• The Rajya Sabha has a total of 245 members, of which 233 are elected by the legislative assemblies of the states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President of India.
• The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament and represents the people of India, with a total of 545 members.
• The Sansad is the Hindi term for the Indian Parliament.
• The Vidhan Sabha is the state legislative assembly in India.
• The Rajya Sabha has a fixed term of 6 years for its members, while the Lok Sabha members are elected for a term of 5 years.
• The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution, while the Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

The correct option is ' Executive accountability towards the legislature'. 

Key Points

• Question Hour is an important feature of the parliamentary system of government.
• It is held in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
• During the Question Hour, Members of Parliament can ask questions to the Ministers regarding the administration of their respective ministries.
• This allows the MPs to hold the Executive accountable for their actions and policies.
• The questions can be broadly classified into three categories:
• Starred Questions:
• These are the questions which require an oral answer from the Minister on the floor of the House.
• The member who asks the question is given an opportunity to ask a supplementary question.
• Unstarred Questions:
• These are the questions which do not require an oral answer.
• The written answer is given by the Minister to the House.
• Short Notice Questions:
• These are the questions which are asked on an urgent matter.
• The member is required to give a notice of less than 10 days to the Minister.

Among the following, Putting-Out System is not a type of market.

Key Points

• A putting-out system is a method of production in which a company provides materials and instructions to individual workers or small groups of workers who then complete the work in their own homes or workshops.
• It was a form of subcontracting used in the textile industry during the 17^th and 18^th centuries.
• On the other hand, weekly markets, shopping complexes, and malls are types of markets.
• Weekly markets are temporary markets set up at a specific place on a specific day of the week.
• Shopping complexes are permanent markets where a variety of products are sold.
• Malls are large complexes that contain a variety of shops, restaurants, and entertainment facilities.

Therefore, we can conclude that among the following, Putting-Out System is not a type of market.

The correct answer is Weaver has no control over pricing of cloth in the market and the merchant walks away with the profit.

Key Points In the "Putting-Out System," also known as the "domestic system" or "cottage industry," the weaver typically works from home using materials supplied by a merchant.

• The finished products are then given back to the merchant to sell in the market.
• The disadvantage of this system for the weaver is that they have little to no control over the pricing of the cloth in the market.
• The merchant, who provides the raw materials and takes on the task of selling the finished product, often sets the price based on market conditions and their desire for profit.
• As a result, the weaver may receive a wage that is much less than the value of the finished product, and they have little opportunity to negotiate for higher pay.
• The merchant, on the other hand, can profit significantly from this arrangement.
• They can often buy raw materials in bulk at a lower cost, and they benefit from the weaver's labor without having to pay for the full value of their work.
• In this system, the weaver carries out the labor-intensive task of producing the cloth, while the merchant walks away with the majority of the profit.
• This system also leaves weavers vulnerable to exploitation and economic instability.
• If the demand for cloth falls, or if the merchant decides to lower the price for any reason, the weaver's income can decrease significantly, even though they are still doing the same amount of work.
• Additionally, if the merchant decides to withdraw their business, the weaver is left without a source of income or the materials needed to produce cloth independently.

The correct answer is: Civil Rights Movement in the United States of America.

Key Points Rosa Parks, an African American woman, made history on December 1, 1955, when she refused to give up her seat to a white man on a bus in Montgomery, Alabama.

• This act of defiance violated the city's racial segregation laws at the time, which mandated separate seating areas for white and black passengers on public buses.
• When a bus became full, black passengers were expected to give up their seats in the "colored" section for white passengers.
• Rosa Parks' arrest following her refusal triggered a 381-day boycott of the Montgomery bus system by the African American community.
• This event, known as the Montgomery Bus Boycott, was a pivotal moment in the American Civil Rights Movement, a social movement in the United States that sought to end racial segregation and discrimination against African Americans.
• The boycott led to a 1956 Supreme Court decision declaring segregation on public buses to be unconstitutional, marking one of the first major victories for the Civil Rights Movement.
• Rosa Parks' act of defiance and the subsequent boycott propelled the Civil Rights Movement into the national consciousness and set the stage for further organized actions to challenge racial segregation and discrimination, including the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Voting Rights Act of 1965.
• Rosa Parks became an iconic figure in the struggle for racial equality, and her courage is celebrated as a defining moment in the fight against racial discrimination in the United States.

Anganwadis are Child-Care Centres.

Key Points

• Anganwadis are child-care centers that were established by the Indian government in 1975 as part of the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program.
• They are meant to provide a package of services including early childhood education, nutrition, health check-ups, and immunization to children under the age of six, as well as expectant and nursing mothers.
• The term "Anganwadi" means "courtyard shelter" in Hindi, and refers to the fact that these centers are often located in a community member's courtyard or other local building.
• The primary aim of Anganwadis is to improve the health, nutrition, and development of young children, as well as empower women by providing them with education and training on health and nutrition-related issues.
• The services provided by Anganwadis are intended to be comprehensive, including a wide range of interventions that address both the immediate and long-term needs of children and their families.
• These services include:
• ​Early childhood education
• Nutrition
• Health check-ups
• Immunization
• Health and nutrition education
• In addition to these services, Anganwadis also serve as a platform for community mobilization and empowerment.
• They provide a space for women to come together, share experiences, and develop leadership skills.
• This has led to the formation of women's self-help groups, which have played an important role in empowering women and improving their economic and social status.

Hence, we can conclude that Anganwadis are Child-Care Centres.

The correct option is 'Right to Constitutional Remedies'.

Key Points

• The Right to move courts in case a citizen's Fundamental Rights are violated has been established by the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This right is enshrined in Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Right to Constitutional Remedies is considered the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution as it provides individuals with the power to seek legal remedies and enforcement of their Fundamental Rights.
• It ensures that citizens can approach the Supreme Court directly in case their Fundamental Rights are violated or threatened.
• Article 32 grants the power to the Supreme Court to issue writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.
• These writs serve as legal remedies to protect and enforce the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
• Through these writs, the Supreme Court can order the release of a person who has been unlawfully detained (habeas corpus), direct a public authority to perform its legal duty (mandamus), prohibit an authority from acting beyond its jurisdiction (prohibition), question the legality of a public appointment (quo warranto), and review decisions of lower courts (certiorari).
• The Right to Constitutional Remedies ensures that citizens have an effective mechanism to safeguard their Fundamental Rights.
• It empowers individuals to seek justice and relief from the judiciary if their rights are violated, thereby upholding the rule of law and ensuring the protection of citizens' rights.

The correct answer is: Both (B) and (C).

Key PointsHere's why:

• A minister refusing to sanction a project of his ministry for sound technical reasons is not a misuse of authority or power.
• They are exercising their responsibility appropriately by considering the technical feasibility of the project.
• This is within their jurisdiction and duty as a minister.
• A senior officer calling the police station to ask them not to register a complaint against a relative is a misuse of power and authority.
• This act interferes with the lawful procedures and processes of the police, potentially preventing justice from being served.
• It is an abuse of their position for personal gain or to benefit a relative.
• Falsely accusing a poor student in a class by the class monitor is also a misuse of power.
• The class monitor is using their authority to falsely accuse someone, which is unjust and could have negative consequences for the accused student.

So, both (B) and (C) represent misuse of authority and power.

The correct option is 'Different levels of court are connected with each other through an appellate system'.

Key Points

• There is no hierarchy between the different levels of the judiciary:
• This statement is incorrect.
• In India, there is a clear hierarchy among the different levels of the judiciary.
• The judicial system in India consists of various levels, including district courts, High Courts, and the Supreme Court.
• Each level has its own jurisdiction and authority, and decisions made by higher courts can overrule decisions made by lower courts.
• The Chief Justice of a High Court is the highest judge in the country:
• This statement is incorrect.
• While the Chief Justice of a High Court holds a significant position within the respective state or union territory, the highest judge in the country is the Chief Justice of India.
• The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Indian judiciary and holds the highest judicial office in the country.
• An appeal can be made in a High Court against a judgment passed by the Supreme Court:
• This statement is incorrect.
• The Supreme Court of India is the highest court in the country. Its judgments are final and binding, and there is no provision for an appeal against its decisions in a High Court.
• However, in certain exceptional cases, a review petition may be filed before the Supreme Court to seek a review of its own judgment.
• Different levels of court are connected with each other through an appellate system:
• This statement is true.
• The Indian judicial system follows an appellate system, where different levels of courts are connected through the process of appeals.
• If a party is dissatisfied with the judgment of a lower court, they can file an appeal to a higher court within the hierarchy.
• For example, a party can appeal to a High Court against a judgment passed by a subordinate court, and further, an appeal can be made

Hakim Seikh and Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti filed a petition in the court to ensure Medical Aid and health care.

Key Points

• Hakim Seikh, a member of the Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti (West Bengal Agricultural Labour Union), fell off a train and injured himself, but was refused treatment by several hospitals.
• In this case, known as Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti vs State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court held that Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the right to life, also includes the right to health and medical care.
• The Court stated that it was the constitutional obligation of the state to provide adequate medical services to the people.
• The refusal of a government hospital to provide timely medical treatment to a person in need of such treatment was considered a violation of his right to life guaranteed under Article 21.

This case played a significant role in the development of health rights jurisprudence in India, underlining the obligation of the state to ensure access to health services for all, particularly in emergency situations.

The correct answer is marginalization.

Key Points

• Stereotyping a community refers to making generalizations or assumptions about a group of people based on certain characteristics, such as race, ethnicity, religion, or gender.
• These stereotypes often perpetuate biased beliefs and can have negative consequences for the community being stereotyped.
• Marginalization is the process by which certain individuals or groups are pushed to the margins or edges of society, excluded from full participation, and denied equal opportunities.
• When a community is stereotyped, it often leads to marginalization because the stereotypes can reinforce discriminatory attitudes and actions against that community.
• This marginalization can manifest in various ways, including limited access to resources, discrimination in employment or education, social exclusion, and unequal treatment under the law.
• Stereotyping can have a profound impact on the well-being and opportunities available to individuals within the stereotyped community.
• It can perpetuate harmful biases, contribute to systemic discrimination, and hinder the community's progress and social mobility.

Therefore, stereotyping ultimately results in the marginalization of the community affected by the stereotypes.