Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) · Topic Collection

Social Studies PYQs

Social studies content and pedagogy — history, geography, polity, and economics as asked in upper-primary social science teacher papers.

3840 Total Questions64 Official PapersYears: 2012–2026Search in Social Studies
Showing questions 61–80 of 3840Page 4 of 100
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 61

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

In about how many days does the moon move around the earth? 

  1. AOption (a)

     29 days

  2. BOption (b)

    28 days

  3. COption (c)

    27 days 

  4. DOption (d)

    30 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27 days 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '27 days'

Key Points

  • Lunar Orbit Period:
  • The moon takes approximately 27.3 days to complete one full orbit around the Earth. This period is known as the sidereal month.
  • The sidereal month refers to the time it takes for the Moon to return to the same position relative to the stars.
  • This is a fundamental property of the Moon's orbital dynamics and is determined by the gravitational forces between the Earth and the Moon.
  • Why It Seems Longer:
  • While the Moon completes its orbit in 27.3 days, the time it takes to return to the same phase (e.g., new moon to new moon) is slightly longer—about 29.5 days. This is called the synodic month.
  • This difference occurs because the Earth is also moving in its orbit around the Sun, so the Moon must travel a bit farther to align with the Sun and Earth in the same way.

Additional Informatio

  • Understanding the Moon's Cycles:
  • The Moon's orbit is elliptical, so its speed varies slightly as it moves closer to and farther from the Earth.
  • The sidereal month is shorter than the synodic month because the Earth-Moon system is also in motion relative to the Sun.
  • Significance of the Lunar Cycle:
  • The Moon's orbit affects tides, calendars, and cultural practices worldwide.
  • Understanding the distinction between sidereal and synodic months is essential for astronomy and timekeeping.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 62

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Match Column-A with Column-B:

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Tropic of Cancer(i) 23% 23% in Southern Hemisphere
(b) Tropic of Capricorn(ii) 23% in Northern Hemisphere
(c) Arctic Circle(iii) 66½° South of the Equator
(d) Antarctic Circle(iv) 66½° North of the Equator

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).

Key Points

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Tropic of Cancer(ii) 23° in Northern Hemisphere
(b) Tropic of Capricorn(i) 23° in Southern Hemisphere
(c) Arctic Circle(iv) 66½° North of the Equator
(d) Antarctic Circle(iii) 66½° South of the Equator

Additional Information

  • Tropic of Cancer (23° in Northern Hemisphere):
  • Definition: The Tropic of Cancer is the latitude located at 23°30' North of the Equator. It is the northernmost point where the Sun can be directly overhead at noon during the summer solstice.
  • Significance: It marks the boundary of the tropical zone in the Northern Hemisphere, dividing the Earth into temperate and tropical regions.
  • Countries Passing Through: It passes through countries like India, Mexico, Egypt, and Saudi Arabia.
  • Tropic of Capricorn (23° in Southern Hemisphere):
  • Definition: The Tropic of Capricorn is the latitude located at 23°30' South of the Equator. It is the southernmost point where the Sun can be directly overhead at noon during the winter solstice.
  • Significance: It marks the boundary of the tropical zone in the Southern Hemisphere, dividing the Earth into temperate and tropical regions.
  • Countries Passing Through: It passes through countries like Australia, Brazil, and South Africa.
  • Arctic Circle (66½° North of the Equator):
  • Definition: The Arctic Circle is the latitude located at 66½° North of the Equator. It marks the southernmost boundary of the polar day and polar night phenomena.
  • Significance: The region north of the Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of daylight in summer and 24 hours of darkness in winter due to Earth's axial tilt.
  • Countries Inside: Countries like Norway, Sweden, Finland, and parts of Russia fall within the Arctic Circle.
  • Antarctic Circle (66½° South of the Equator):
  • Definition: The Antarctic Circle is the latitude located at 66½° South of the Equator. It marks the northernmost boundary of the polar day and polar night phenomena in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • Significance: The region south of the Antarctic Circle experiences similar phenomena of 24-hour daylight and darkness due to Earth's axial tilt.
  • Geography: Antarctica, which is a continent, falls entirely within the Antarctic Circle.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 63

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which one of the following is not correct about the earth? 

  1. AOption (a)

    In size, the earth is the fifth largest planet 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun

  3. COption (c)

    The shape of the earth is described as a geoid

  4. DOption (d)

    The earth is the third nearest planet to the sun

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Rotation is the movement of the earth around the sun.'

Key Points

  • Rotation vs Revolution:
  • Rotation refers to the spinning of the Earth on its own axis. This movement is responsible for the day and night cycle and takes approximately 24 hours.
  • Revolution, on the other hand, is the Earth's movement around the sun in an elliptical orbit. This process takes about 365.25 days and is responsible for the changing seasons.
  • The confusion in this statement arises because it incorrectly defines rotation as the movement of the Earth around the sun, which is actually revolution.

Additional Information

  • In size, the Earth is the fifth largest planet:
  • This statement is correct. Among the eight planets in the solar system, Earth ranks as the fifth largest in size after Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
  • Earth has a diameter of approximately 12,742 kilometers, making it the largest terrestrial planet in the solar system.
  • The shape of the Earth is described as a geoid:
  • This is also correct. The term "geoid" refers to the Earth's shape, which is not a perfect sphere but rather an oblate spheroid. It is slightly flattened at the poles and bulging at the equator due to its rotation.
  • The geoid describes the mean sea level of the Earth, taking into account gravitational variations and centrifugal forces caused by rotation.
  • The Earth is the third nearest planet to the sun:
  • This statement is accurate. The planets in our solar system are ordered based on their distance from the sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
  • Earth is the third planet from the sun, situated at an average distance of about 149.6 million kilometers (1 astronomical unit).
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 64

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the two statements carefully:

Statement A: At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read 12 o'clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky, i.e., when it is mid-day.

Statement B: The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B are false

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true but B is false

  3. COption (c)

    A is false but B is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and B are true

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Statement A and Statement B are true.

Key Point

  • Statement A: "At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read 12 o'clock when the sun is at the highest point in the sky, i.e., when it is mid-day."
  • This statement is true because:
  • The highest point of the sun in the sky is known as the solar noon or local noon.
  • At solar noon, the sun is directly overhead at a place's meridian, making it the reference point for local time.
  • Historically, before the advent of standardized time zones, people would adjust their clocks or watches to reflect 12 o’clock at the moment of solar noon in their specific location.
  • Thus, the watch can indeed be set to 12 o'clock when the sun is at its zenith, aligning with the natural solar day cycle.
  • Statement B: "The time shown by such a watch will give the local time for that place."
  • This statement is also true because:
  • Local time is defined as the time determined by the position of the sun relative to a specific location's longitude.
  • When a watch is set to 12 o'clock at solar noon, it accurately reflects the local time at that particular place.
  • The concept of local time varies with longitude, as Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, causing a time difference of 4 minutes per degree of longitude.
  • Hence, the time shown by the watch, when adjusted at solar noon, accurately represents the local time for that specific longitude.

Additional Information

  • Standard Time vs. Local Time:
  • Standard time is a uniform time adopted for a region or country, typically based on a central meridian (e.g., Indian Standard Time is based on 82.5°E).
  • Local time, on the other hand, changes with longitude and is specific to a particular location.
  • While local time is based on solar noon, standard time ensures synchronization across larger areas to facilitate communication and scheduling.
  • Time Zones:
  • Earth is divided into 24 standard time zones, each covering 15 degrees of longitude, to simplify timekeeping globally.
  • Within each time zone, the local time of the central meridian is used as the standard time.
  • Historical Context:
  • Before the adoption of time zones and standard time in the late 19th century, local time was widely used, leading to discrepancies in timekeeping between different locations.
  • With the advent of railways and communication technologies, standardization became necessary to avoid confusion and streamline operations.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 65

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Ecosystem is formed by: 

  1. AOption (a)

    all plants, animals and human beings

  2. BOption (b)

    interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings

  3. COption (c)

    atmosphere and hydrosphere 

  4. DOption (d)

     lithosphere and biosphere 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'interrelationship between organisms and their surroundings'

Key Points

  • Ecosystem:
  • An ecosystem is a dynamic system comprising living organisms (plants, animals, microorganisms) and their physical environment (soil, water, air).
  • The term highlights the interrelationship between biotic components (living beings) and abiotic components (non-living elements).
  • These interactions result in energy flow, nutrient cycling, and ecological balance, making ecosystems vital for sustaining life on Earth.
  • Examples include forests, grasslands, aquatic systems, and even artificial ecosystems like urban areas.
  • Interrelationship:
  • The correct answer emphasizes the interaction between organisms and their surroundings, which is the foundation of an ecosystem.
  • Organisms depend on their environment for resources like food, shelter, and water, while also influencing their surroundings through processes like decomposition, photosynthesis, and respiration.
  • This mutual dependency ensures the continuous functioning of the ecosystem and its ability to adapt to changes.

Additional Information

  • All plants, animals, and human beings:
  • This option is incorrect because it only highlights the biotic components (living organisms) of an ecosystem.
  • While plants, animals, and humans are essential parts of ecosystems, the definition is incomplete without considering the abiotic components (soil, water, air, sunlight) and their interactions.
  • Atmosphere and hydrosphere:
  • This option is incorrect because it refers to specific layers of Earth (atmosphere and hydrosphere) but does not encompass the complex relationships between living organisms and their environment.
  • While these spheres contribute to ecosystems, they alone do not define the concept of ecosystem.
  • Lithosphere and biosphere:
  • This option is incorrect as it focuses on the physical Earth (lithosphere) and the global sum of living organisms (biosphere).
  • However, it does not address the dynamic interactions between living and non-living components that characterize ecosystems.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 66

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the statements A and B carefully:

A: Human beings interact with the environment and modify it according to their need.

B: A perfect balance is necessary between the natural and human environment.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B are true but B does not explain A

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true but B is false  

  3. COption (c)

     A is false but B is true 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B are true and B explains A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both A and B are true but B does not explain A

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'Both A and B are true but B does not explain A'.

Key Points

  • Statement A: Human beings interact with the environment and modify it according to their need.
  • This statement is true.
  • Interaction with the Environment: Humans have continuously interacted with their surroundings, using resources such as water, land, minerals, and plants to fulfill their basic needs and improve their quality of life.
  • Modification Examples: Building infrastructure, cutting forests for agriculture, mining, and urbanization are examples of how humans alter the environment to cater to their requirements.
  • Impact: This modification often leads to environmental degradation, such as pollution, deforestation, and climate change.
  • Statement B: A perfect balance is necessary between the natural and human environment.
  • This statement is true.
  • Importance of Balance: To ensure sustainability, it is essential to maintain harmony between human activities and the natural world. Overexploitation of resources can lead to environmental crises, which ultimately affect human survival.
  • Consequences of Imbalance: Climate change, biodiversity loss, and depletion of natural resources are examples of the adverse effects of not maintaining this balance.
  • Efforts for Balance: Promoting eco-friendly practices, renewable energy sources, afforestation, and conservation initiatives help in achieving this equilibrium.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and B:
  • While both statements are true, statement B does not directly explain statement A.
  • Statement A focuses on how humans modify the environment to meet their needs, while statement B emphasizes the importance of maintaining balance between natural and human environments.
  • Though related in context, statement B is more of a general guideline for sustainability and does not provide a specific explanation for statement A.

Additional Information

  • Human Impact: Human activities such as industrialization, deforestation, and urbanization have led to significant changes in the environment. These changes often disrupt ecosystems and lead to environmental challenges.
  • Need for Sustainability: Balancing human development with environmental conservation is crucial for ensuring the survival of future generations. This includes adopting sustainable practices in agriculture, energy use, and waste management.
  • Global Efforts: International agreements like the Paris Agreement and initiatives such as the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) aim to promote this balance by addressing issues like climate change, biodiversity conservation, and resource management.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 67

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Why is tourism a major activity in Ladakh the cold desert of India?

A. Visits to Gompas

B. Treks to see meadows and glaciers

C. Witnessing ceremonies and festivities

D. It is flat plain area

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    B, C and D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and D

  3. COption (c)

     A, B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 A, B and C

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: A, B, and C

Key Points

  • Visits to Gompas:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Gompas, or monasteries, are central to Ladakh's cultural and spiritual heritage. These monasteries are not only places of worship but also architectural marvels that attract tourists from around the world.
  • Famous monasteries like Hemis, Thiksey, and Diskit are known for their unique Buddhist art, ancient scriptures, and serene ambiance, making them a must-visit for travelers.
  • The Gompas also offer a chance to experience meditation and learn about Buddhist traditions, adding a spiritual dimension to Ladakh's tourism appeal.
  • Treks to see meadows and glaciers:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Ladakh's rugged terrain, characterized by high-altitude deserts, glaciers, and lush meadows, makes it a paradise for trekking enthusiasts.
  • Popular treks like the Chadar Trek (walking on a frozen river) and Markha Valley Trek offer breathtaking views of snow-capped peaks, pristine rivers, and unique wildlife.
  • The region's untouched natural beauty and challenging trails attract adventure seekers and nature lovers alike.
  • Witnessing ceremonies and festivities:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Ladakh is known for its vibrant festivals and ceremonies, which showcase the rich cultural traditions of the region.
  • Festivals like Hemis Tsechu, Losar (New Year), and Ladakh Festival are celebrated with great enthusiasm, featuring traditional dances, music, and rituals.
  • Tourists get a glimpse of the local lifestyle, customs, and beliefs through these colorful events, making them a major attraction.
  • It is flat plain area:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Ladakh is not a flat plain area; rather, it is a high-altitude cold desert surrounded by the Himalayan and Karakoram mountain ranges.
  • The region's unique topography includes rugged mountains, deep valleys, and barren landscapes, which are far from being flat plains.
  • It is the dramatic and diverse terrain that makes Ladakh a popular destination, not flat plains.

Additional Information

  • Ladakh as a Tourist Destination:
  • Ladakh, often referred to as the "Land of High Passes," is known for its stunning landscapes, including the Pangong Lake, Nubra Valley, and Magnetic Hill.
  • The region's unique culture, influenced by Tibetan Buddhism, adds to its charm and sets it apart from other destinations in India.
  • Adventure Activities:
  • Besides trekking, Ladakh offers other adventure activities like river rafting in the Zanskar River, mountain biking, and camping under the starry sky.
  • The extreme weather and altitude make these activities even more thrilling and rewarding for adventure enthusiasts.
  • Wildlife:
  • Ladakh is home to rare and endangered species like the snow leopard, Tibetan antelope, and Himalayan blue sheep, making it a hotspot for wildlife tourism.
  • The Hemis National Park is a significant attraction for those interested in wildlife photography and conservation.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 68

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which one of the following gases is the second most plentiful gas in the air? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Nitrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Oxygen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Oxygen'

Key Points

  • Oxygen:
  • Oxygen is the second most plentiful gas in the Earth's atmosphere, comprising approximately 21% by volume.
  • It is vital for life as it supports cellular respiration in plants, animals, and humans.
  • Oxygen is a key component in combustion reactions and is involved in the production of energy within living organisms.
  • It is also essential for the formation of the ozone layer, which protects the Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation.

Additional Information

  • Nitrogen:
  • Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere, making up about 78% of the air by volume.
  • It is an inert gas that plays a critical role in the nitrogen cycle, which sustains plant and animal life.
  • While nitrogen is crucial for creating amino acids and proteins, it is not reactive under normal conditions, making it unsuitable for processes like respiration.
  • Carbon Dioxide:
  • Carbon dioxide constitutes only about 0.04% of the atmosphere.
  • It is an essential greenhouse gas that helps regulate the Earth's temperature by trapping heat in the atmosphere.
  • Carbon dioxide is critical for photosynthesis in plants but is not as abundant as nitrogen or oxygen in the atmosphere.
  • Hydrogen:
  • Hydrogen is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe but is present in very small quantities in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • It is primarily found in compound forms such as water (H₂O) or hydrocarbons rather than as a free gas.
  • Hydrogen gas is not a major component of the atmosphere and does not significantly contribute to its composition.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 69

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Given below are four

Statements:

A: High pressure is associated with clear sunny skies.

B: Air pressure is not influenced by temperature of air.

C: Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.

D: Air always moves from high-pressure to low-pressure areas.

Choose the true statements about air pressure and temperature.

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B and C 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C and D

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: 2) A, C, and D

Key Points

  • Statement A: High pressure is associated with clear sunny skies.
  • This statement is correct.
  • High-pressure systems are generally associated with descending air, which inhibits cloud formation. As a result, skies are usually clear and sunny in high-pressure areas.
  • Such weather conditions are common in anticyclones, where the sinking air suppresses the formation of clouds and precipitation.
  • Statement B: Air pressure is not influenced by temperature of air.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Temperature plays a significant role in determining air pressure. Warm air is less dense and rises, leading to lower pressure, whereas cold air is denser and sinks, leading to higher pressure.
  • For example, tropical regions with warmer temperatures tend to have lower pressure systems, while polar regions with colder temperatures tend to have higher pressure systems.
  • Statement C: Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Low-pressure systems are characterized by rising air, which cools and condenses to form clouds and precipitation. This is why low-pressure areas are often linked with cloudy skies and wet weather conditions.
  • This phenomenon is commonly observed during cyclones and monsoon seasons, where low-pressure systems bring heavy rainfall and storms.
  • Statement D: Air always moves from high-pressure to low-pressure areas.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Air movement is driven by pressure differences in the atmosphere. Wind is essentially the movement of air from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, attempting to equalize the pressure difference.
  • This process is influenced by the Coriolis effect and friction, which can cause the wind to curve as it moves across the Earth's surface.

Additional Information

  • High-Pressure Systems (Anticyclones):
  • High-pressure systems are associated with sinking air, which leads to stable atmospheric conditions and clear skies.
  • These systems often bring dry and calm weather, making them favorable for outdoor activities.
  • Low-Pressure Systems (Cyclones):
  • Low-pressure systems are associated with rising air, which cools and condenses to form clouds and precipitation.
  • These systems are often accompanied by strong winds, storms, and rainfall, especially in tropical and temperate regions.
  • Factors Influencing Air Pressure:
  • Temperature: Warmer temperatures reduce air density, leading to lower pressure, while colder temperatures increase air density, leading to higher pressure.
  • Altitude: Air pressure decreases with increasing altitude due to the thinning of the atmosphere at higher elevations.
  • Moisture Content: Moist air is less dense than dry air, which can lower the pressure in humid regions.
  • Global Wind Patterns:
  • Air movement between high- and low-pressure systems creates global wind patterns, such as the trade winds, westerlies, and polar easterlies.
  • These patterns are crucial for understanding weather systems and climate zones across the globe.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 70

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the statements A and B carefully

A: Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transport since early days.

B: Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B are false

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true but B is false 

  3. COption (c)

    A is false but B is true

  4. DOption (d)

     Both A and B are true 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 Both A and B are true 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Statements A and B are true.

Key Point

Statement A: Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transport since early days.

  • True Explanation: Inland waterways and sea routes have been used for transportation since ancient times because of their natural connectivity and ease of navigation.
  • Historically, rivers, canals, and seas have served as major transportation routes for civilizations like Mesopotamia, Egypt, the Indus Valley, and China.
  • The Nile River in Egypt, the Ganges in India, and the Yangtze in China are prime examples of waterways that have been used for centuries for trade, agriculture, and communication.
  • Sea routes also played a critical role in global exploration and trade, connecting continents and facilitating the exchange of goods, ideas, and cultures. For example, the Silk Road's maritime routes contributed significantly to trade between Asia, Europe, and Africa.
  • Even today, inland waterways and sea routes remain critical in global trade and transport systems.

Statement B: Waterways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.

  • True Explanation: Waterways are indeed the most cost-effective mode of transport for heavy and bulky goods over long distances due to the following reasons:
  • Low operational costs: Compared to road and rail transport, the fuel and maintenance costs for water-based transport are significantly lower.
  • High carrying capacity: Ships and barges can carry much larger volumes of goods compared to trucks or trains, which reduces the cost per unit of cargo.
  • Reduced infrastructure costs: Unlike roads and railways that require extensive construction and maintenance, waterways are natural or require minimal engineering (e.g., canals).
  • Environmental benefits: Water transport is more energy-efficient and environmentally friendly, leading to indirect cost savings.
  • For example, the transportation of coal, iron ore, grains, and petroleum products is often more economical via waterways, especially for international trade.

Additional Information

  • Global significance of waterways: Approximately 90% of world trade by volume is carried by sea, making it the backbone of global commerce.
  • Examples of major waterways: The Panama Canal, Suez Canal, and Rhine River are critical arteries for international trade and economic activities.
  • Limitations of waterways: While waterways are cost-effective, they are slower than road and rail transport and are dependent on weather conditions and navigable routes.
  • Government initiatives: Many governments are investing in developing inland waterways, such as India’s National Waterways project, to reduce transportation costs and promote sustainable transport solutions.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 71

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Many species of plants and animals have become vulnerable or endangered and some are on the verge of extinction. Choose the reasons from the following:

A. Afforestation

B. Landslidesni

C. Constructional activities

D. Poaching of animals

Options:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C 

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D

  3. COption (c)

     A, B and D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C and D 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B, C and D

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: 2) B, C, and D

Key Points

  • B. Landslides:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Landslides result in the destruction of ecosystems, including habitats of plants and animals, leading to their vulnerability or even extinction.
  • They can cause soil erosion, loss of vegetation, and displacement of wildlife. For species with limited habitat ranges, landslides can be catastrophic.
  • Areas affected by frequent landslides often see a decline in biodiversity as species struggle to adapt to the shifting terrain.
  • C. Constructional Activities:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Urbanization and constructional activities, such as building roads, dams, and housing projects, lead to deforestation and fragmentation of habitats.
  • Loss of natural habitats forces animals and plants to adapt to new environments, which they may not be equipped for, increasing their risk of becoming endangered.
  • Additionally, construction often introduces pollution, noise, and human disturbances, further threatening species survival.
  • D. Poaching of Animals:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Poaching is the illegal hunting or capturing of wildlife, often for commercial purposes like the trade of animal parts (e.g., ivory, fur, horns).
  • It has led to the decline of several species, such as tigers, elephants, and rhinoceroses, pushing them toward extinction.
  • Poaching disrupts ecosystems by removing key species, affecting food chains and ecological balance.
  • A. Afforestation:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Afforestation involves planting trees in barren or deforested areas, which generally helps restore ecosystems and supports biodiversity.
  • It creates new habitats for plants and animals, thereby reducing their vulnerability rather than contributing to their endangerment.
  • While afforestation can sometimes introduce non-native species that may disrupt local ecosystems, it is primarily a conservation measure.

Additional Information

  • Causes of Endangerment:
  • Natural disasters like landslides, floods, and droughts can directly impact the habitats of species.
  • Human-induced activities such as deforestation, urbanization, industrial pollution, and poaching are major contributors to biodiversity loss.
  • Climate change also plays a significant role in altering habitats, forcing species to adapt or face extinction.
  • Conservation Efforts:
  • Efforts such as afforestation, wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, and anti-poaching laws aim to protect endangered species.
  • International agreements like the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) help regulate the trade of species and their products.
  • Impact of Habitat Loss:
  • Habitat loss due to construction activities and deforestation leads to fragmentation, making it difficult for species to find food, mates, and shelter.
  • Fragmentation also isolates populations, reducing genetic diversity and increasing vulnerability to disease and environmental changes.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 72

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the statements A and B carefully

A: Potential resources are those resources whose entire quantity may not be known.

B: These resources are not being used at present,

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B are false 

  2. BOption (b)

     A is true but B is false

  3. COption (c)

    A is false but B is true 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B are true 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and B are true 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Statements A and B are true.

Key Points

Introduction: Potential Resources

  • Potential resources refer to those natural resources that exist in a region and have the potential for utilization in the future.
  • These resources are not currently being exploited but have the capability to be utilized once their quantity is accurately measured and technology develops to harness them effectively.
  • Understanding potential resources is crucial for sustainable development, as they represent reserves that can be tapped into when needed.

Statement A: Potential resources are those resources whose entire quantity may not be known.

  • This statement is true because potential resources are often not fully quantified. Their exact availability and distribution may be unknown due to a lack of exploration or technological limitations.
  • For example, solar energy in deserts and wind energy in coastal regions are considered potential resources because they exist in large quantities but are not fully utilized or accurately measured.
  • Scientific advancements, surveys, and exploration are required to determine the complete quantity of these resources.
  • Potential resources differ from actual resources, which are already identified, measured, and being exploited.

Statement B: These resources are not being used at present.

  • This statement is also true because potential resources are not currently exploited or utilized. They are reserved for future use when conditions are favorable, such as technological advancements or economic feasibility.
  • For example, large oil reserves under ocean beds or untapped mineral deposits in remote areas are categorized as potential resources because they require advanced extraction techniques that may not be available currently.
  • These resources serve as a backup and ensure resource availability for future generations, aligning with the principles of sustainability.
  • Governments and organizations often invest in research and development to convert potential resources into actual resources in the long term.

Additional Information

  • Examples of Potential Resources: Wind energy in regions with consistent winds, solar energy in areas with high sunlight exposure, and geothermal energy in volcanic regions.
  • Factors Affecting Utilization: The utilization of potential resources depends on factors such as technological advancements, economic feasibility, environmental concerns, and policy regulations.
  • Importance of Sustainable Use: Potential resources play a key role in ensuring resource availability for future generations while minimizing environmental impacts.
  • Transition to Actual Resources: When the quantity of potential resources is identified and technology develops to exploit them, they transition into actual resources.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 73

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Match Column-A with Column-B:

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Sericulture(i) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use
(b) Pisciculture(ii) Cultivation of grapes
(c) Viticulture(iii) Breeding of fish
(d) Horticulture(iv) Commercial rearing of silkworms

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Key Points

Column-AColumn-B
(a) Sericulture(iv) Commercial rearing of silkworms
(b) Pisciculture(iii) Breeding of fish
(c) Viticulture(ii) Cultivation of grapes
(d) Horticulture(i) Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use

Additional Information

  • Sericulture:
  • Definition: Sericulture refers to the commercial rearing of silkworms for silk production.
  • Process: It involves breeding, feeding, and managing silkworms to harvest silk from their cocoons.
  • Importance: Silk is a highly valuable fabric used in textiles, making sericulture a significant part of the economy in many countries, especially India and China.
  • Pisciculture:
  • Definition: Pisciculture is the practice of breeding and raising fish commercially.
  • Methods: It can involve freshwater fish farming, marine aquaculture, or integrated farming systems.
  • Significance: Pisciculture provides a sustainable source of protein-rich food and contributes to the economy through fisheries exports.
  • Viticulture:
  • Definition: Viticulture is the cultivation of grapes, primarily for wine production.
  • Regions: Countries like France, Italy, and Spain are renowned for their viticulture practices.
  • Importance: Grapes are used not only for wine but also for raisins, juices, and other food products.
  • Horticulture:
  • Definition: Horticulture involves growing vegetables, fruits, flowers, and ornamental plants for commercial and aesthetic purposes.
  • Scope: It includes landscaping, greenhouse farming, and urban gardening.
  • Impact: Horticulture contributes to food security, employment, and sustainable urban planning.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 74

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following is not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Liberty

  2. BOption (b)

    Freedom

  3. COption (c)

    Justice

  4. DOption (d)

    Equality 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Freedom

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Freedom'

Key Points

  • Freedom:
  • The term "Freedom" is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. Instead, the concept of freedom is encompassed under the term "Liberty."
  • The Preamble guarantees "Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship," which reflects the essence of freedom but does not directly use the word "Freedom."
  • While the Constitution provides for fundamental rights such as the right to freedom (Article 19), the Preamble specifically uses the term "Liberty" to represent these ideals.

Additional Information

  • Liberty:
  • The Preamble explicitly mentions "Liberty" as one of its core ideals, ensuring that all citizens have the freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
  • The inclusion of Liberty signifies the importance of individual autonomy and the ability to exercise one's rights without fear of oppression or discrimination.
  • This principle is foundational to a democratic and pluralistic society like India.
  • Justice:
  • The Preamble of the Indian Constitution emphasizes "Justice" in three forms: social, economic, and political.
  • Social justice aims at creating a society free from discrimination based on caste, creed, or gender.
  • Economic justice seeks to reduce the gap between the rich and the poor, ensuring equitable distribution of resources.
  • Political justice ensures equal participation in the political process for all citizens.
  • Equality:
  • Equality is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble as a fundamental ideal of the Indian Constitution.
  • It ensures equality of status and opportunity, prohibiting discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • This principle is aimed at creating an inclusive society where everyone has the same legal rights and opportunities to grow and thrive.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 75

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

A situation where a person does not have resources and opportunities that are available to other persons is known as 

  1. AOption (a)

    inequality

  2. BOption (b)

    difference

  3. COption (c)

    otherness

  4. DOption (d)

    diversity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

inequality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Inequality'

Key Points

  • Inequality:
  • Inequality refers to a situation where individuals or groups do not have equal access to resources, opportunities, or privileges, leading to disparities in wealth, education, healthcare, and other aspects of societal well-being.
  • It can manifest in various forms, such as economic inequality (differences in income and wealth), social inequality (discrimination based on gender, race, caste, etc.), or political inequality (unequal representation or participation in governance).
  • The root causes of inequality often include systemic issues like historical oppression, unequal distribution of resources, and lack of access to education and employment opportunities.
  • Inequality has far-reaching consequences, including social unrest, reduced economic growth, and perpetuation of poverty cycles.
  • Efforts to address inequality include policy interventions like affirmative action, progressive taxation, universal access to education, and social welfare programs.

Additional Information

  • Difference:
  • Difference refers to the distinctions or variations between individuals, groups, or things. It is a neutral term that describes diversity without implying any hierarchy or inequality.
  • For example, differences in cultural practices, languages, or personal preferences are natural and can enrich societal interactions.
  • Unlike inequality, difference does not inherently involve a lack of access to resources or opportunities.
  • Otherness:
  • Otherness is a concept that refers to perceiving or categorizing individuals or groups as fundamentally different from oneself or the dominant group.
  • It is often linked to identity formation and can be a source of exclusion or marginalization when used to justify discrimination or prejudice.
  • While related to inequality, otherness focuses more on social perception and identity rather than resource or opportunity distribution.
  • Diversity:
  • Diversity refers to the presence of a wide range of different characteristics, perspectives, or identities within a group or society.
  • It can include differences in ethnicity, gender, age, religion, and more, and is often celebrated for fostering innovation and creativity.
  • Unlike inequality, diversity emphasizes inclusion and coexistence rather than disparities in access or power.
  • Diversity is generally seen as positive, whereas inequality highlights negative disparities.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 76

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following is/are not characteristic/characteristics of democratic government?

A. Indirect participation of people in decision making

B. The Prime Minister has absolute power

C. Explain and defend its actions to the people

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only B and C 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: 1) Only B

Key Points

  • A. Indirect participation of people in decision-making:
  • This statement is correct.
  • In a democratic government, citizens participate indirectly in decision-making through elected representatives. This is a hallmark of representative democracy, where individuals choose leaders to act on their behalf in legislative and executive processes.
  • Direct participation is usually limited to specific mechanisms like referendums or citizen initiatives.
  • Thus, indirect participation aligns with the functioning of a democratic government.
  • B. The Prime Minister has absolute power:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • In a democratic government, power is not concentrated in one individual. Instead, it is distributed among various institutions, such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary, to ensure a system of checks and balances.
  • The Prime Minister operates within the constraints of the constitution, laws, and the democratic framework. They are accountable to the parliament and, ultimately, the people.
  • Absolute power contradicts the principles of democracy, which emphasize accountability, transparency, and power-sharing.
  • C. Explain and defend its actions to the people:
  • This statement is correct.
  • A key characteristic of democratic governance is accountability. Elected representatives and government officials are required to explain and justify their decisions and policies to the citizens.
  • This is achieved through mechanisms such as parliamentary debates, press conferences, public reports, and other communication channels.
  • Transparency in governance ensures that citizens are aware of government actions and can hold leaders accountable through elections or other democratic processes.

Additional Information

  • Key Characteristics of a Democratic Government:
  • Accountability: Democratic governments are answerable to the people for their actions and decisions.
  • Rule of Law: All individuals, including government officials, are subject to the law of the land.
  • Free and Fair Elections: Citizens have the right to choose their representatives through regular elections without coercion or manipulation.
  • Separation of Powers: Power is divided among different branches of government to prevent its misuse.
  • Fundamental Rights: Citizens enjoy fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, equality, and the right to vote, which are protected by the constitution.
  • Why Absolute Power is Undemocratic:
  • Absolute power undermines the principle of checks and balances, leading to authoritarianism.
  • It removes accountability, as the leader is not answerable to other institutions or the public.
  • History has shown that absolute power often results in abuse, corruption, and suppression of individual freedoms.
  • Examples of Democratic Mechanisms:
  • Parliamentary Oversight: Legislatures monitor the executive branch’s functioning and ensure accountability.
  • Judicial Review: Courts ensure that laws and executive decisions comply with the constitution.
  • Public Participation: Citizens engage in governance through voting, public consultations, and activism.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 77

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following functions does not come under the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporations?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Marking laws

  2. BOption (b)

    Maintaining law and order 

  3. COption (c)

    Developing

  4. DOption (d)

    Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maintaining law and order 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Maintaining law and order'

Key Points

  • Maintaining law and order:
  • Municipal Corporations are responsible for managing civic and infrastructure-related issues within urban areas, but maintaining law and order is not part of their jurisdiction.
  • The responsibility for maintaining law and order typically falls under the purview of the state government and its police department.
  • Law enforcement agencies ensure public safety, prevent crimes, and investigate criminal activities, which are beyond the scope of municipal functions.
  • Municipal Corporations may collaborate with law enforcement agencies for specific events or issues, but they do not have direct authority over law enforcement activities.

Additional Information

  • Marking laws:
  • This refers to the creation and enforcement of local regulations and bye-laws, such as zoning rules, building codes, and waste management policies.
  • Municipal Corporations are responsible for formulating and implementing such laws to ensure smooth governance and urban development.
  • These regulations directly impact the functioning of the city and aim to improve the quality of life for its residents.
  • Developing:
  • Municipal Corporations play a crucial role in urban development, including infrastructure projects like roads, bridges, parks, and public transportation systems.
  • They are tasked with ensuring planned development and upgrading facilities to cater to the growing needs of the urban population.
  • The focus is on sustainable and inclusive growth to enhance the city's overall efficiency and livability.
  • Education:
  • Municipal Corporations are involved in providing basic education services, such as running municipal schools and ensuring access to primary education for all children in their jurisdiction.
  • They may also implement schemes to improve literacy rates and provide vocational training programs.
  • Education initiatives by Municipal Corporations complement state and central government efforts in the education sector.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 78

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following sequences in context of market chain is correct? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Wholesaler-Producer-Retailer-Consumer

  2. BOption (b)

    Producer-Retailer-Wholesaler-Consumer 

  3. COption (c)

    Producer-Wholesaler-Retailer- Consumer 

  4. DOption (d)

    Wholesaler-Retailer-Producer-Consumer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Producer-Wholesaler-Retailer- Consumer 

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer: Producer-Wholesaler-Retailer-Consumer

Rationale

 

Key Points

The correct sequence of the market chain is Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer. This chain represents the typical flow of goods from production to the end consumer.

  • Producer: This is the first stage in the market chain where goods are manufactured or cultivated. Producers can be farmers, manufacturers, or artisans who create the product.
  • Wholesaler: Wholesalers purchase products in bulk directly from producers. They act as intermediaries, storing large quantities of goods and distributing them to retailers. Their role is crucial in bridging the gap between producers and retailers.
  • Retailer: Retailers are the next link in the chain. They buy products from wholesalers in smaller quantities and sell them directly to the end consumers in retail stores or through other channels.
  • Consumer: This is the final stage of the market chain. Consumers purchase the products from retailers to fulfill their needs and demands.
  • This sequence ensures the efficient distribution of goods, allowing them to reach the end users in an organized and cost-effective manner.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 79

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the following statements in reference to agricultural labourers:

Statement A: Employment guarantee programmes in rural areas can decrease migration from rural to urban areas.

Statement B: One of the main reasons for rural to urban migration has been the higher income jobs available in urban areas.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false but B is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A

  4. DOption (d)

    A is true but B is false

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and B are true and B is the reason for A

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'Both A and B are true but B is not the reason for A'.

Key Points

  • Statement A: Employment guarantee programmes in rural areas can decrease migration from rural to urban areas.
  • This statement is true.
  • Economic Security: Employment guarantee schemes such as rural wage employment programmes provide assured livelihood and minimum income support to rural households, particularly agricultural labourers.
  • Reduction in Distress Migration: When individuals are able to secure work locally, the need to migrate to urban areas in search of employment reduces significantly.
  • Stabilization of Rural Economy: These programmes help in strengthening rural infrastructure and improving living standards, thereby making rural areas more sustainable for livelihood.
  • Statement B: One of the main reasons for rural to urban migration has been the higher income jobs available in urban areas.
  • This statement is also true.
  • Pull Factor of Urban Areas: Cities offer better-paying jobs, industrial employment, and diverse economic opportunities, which attract rural workers.
  • Income Differentials: The gap between rural wages and urban wages acts as a major incentive for migration.
  • Improved Living Prospects: Urban areas also provide better access to education, healthcare, and infrastructure, further encouraging migration.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and B:
  • Both statements are individually correct and reflect real economic phenomena.
  • However, Statement B explains why migration occurs (due to higher income opportunities in urban areas), whereas Statement A explains a policy measure that reduces migration.
  • There is no direct causal relationship where Statement B explains Statement A.
  • Employment guarantee programmes reduce migration by providing local employment opportunities, not because urban jobs are high-paying.
  • Therefore, Statement B does not serve as the correct explanation for Statement A.

Additional Information

  • Example of Employment Guarantee Scheme: Programmes like MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) in India aim to provide at least 100 days of wage employment to rural households, thereby reducing distress migration.
  • Push and Pull Factors: Migration is influenced by push factors (like unemployment, poverty in rural areas) and pull factors (like higher wages and better opportunities in urban areas).
  • Balanced Development: Strengthening rural employment opportunities is essential for achieving balanced regional development and reducing excessive urbanization.
CTET (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On: 07 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 80

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Social Studies• Social Studies

Match Column-A with Column-B:

Column-A (Panchayati Raj Institutions)Column-B (Tasks)
(a) Gram Sabha(i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats
(b) Gram Panchayat(ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction
(c) Janpad Panchayat(iii) Approving BPL list
(d) Zila Parishad(iv) Maintaining water sources
  1. AOption (a)

    (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i.

Key Points

Column-A (Panchayati Raj Institutions)Column-B (Tasks)
(a) Gram Sabha(iii) Approving BPL list
(b) Gram Panchayat(iv) Maintaining water sources
(c) Janpad Panchayat(ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction
(d) Zila Parishad(i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats

Additional Information 

  • (a) Gram Sabha - (iii) Approving BPL list:
  • The Gram Sabha is a body of all the registered voters in a village. It functions as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system.
  • One of its significant roles is to approve the list of Below Poverty Line (BPL) families, ensuring transparency and accountability in identifying eligible beneficiaries for government schemes.
  • It also reviews the work and expenditures of the Gram Panchayat and discusses village development plans.
  • (b) Gram Panchayat - (iv) Maintaining water sources:
  • The Gram Panchayat is the executive body at the village level responsible for implementing development programs and addressing basic infrastructure needs.
  • It plays a crucial role in maintaining local water sources, such as wells, ponds, and hand pumps, to ensure the availability of clean water for the community.
  • In addition, it handles sanitation, street lighting, and the construction of village roads.
  • (c) Janpad Panchayat - (ii) Coordinating the activities of the various Panchayats within its jurisdiction:
  • The Janpad Panchayat, also known as the Block Panchayat, operates at the intermediate level. It serves as a link between the Gram Panchayat and the Zila Parishad.
  • Its primary responsibility is to coordinate the activities of the various Gram Panchayats within its jurisdiction, ensuring effective implementation of development programs and policies.
  • It also monitors and evaluates the performance of the Gram Panchayats and provides necessary guidance and support.
  • (d) Zila Parishad - (i) Regulating the money among Gram Panchayats:
  • The Zila Parishad is the apex body of the Panchayati Raj system, functioning at the district level. It oversees and regulates the financial and administrative activities of the Gram Panchayats and Janpad Panchayats in the district.
  • It allocates funds to the Gram Panchayats and ensures their proper utilization for developmental activities.
  • The Zila Parishad also formulates district-level plans and coordinates the implementation of state and central government schemes in rural areas.

How should I prepare for Social Studies in Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.