Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) · Topic Collection

Social Studies PYQs

Social studies content and pedagogy — history, geography, polity, and economics as asked in upper-primary social science teacher papers.

3840 Total Questions64 Official PapersYears: 2012–2026Search in Social Studies
Showing questions 221–240 of 3840Page 12 of 100
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 221

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Match List - I with List - II in the context of List of Subjects currently in the Indian Constitution :

List IList II
(a)State List(i)Taxes
(b)Union List(ii)Education
(c)Concurrent List(iii)Health

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

Key Points

  • This option matches:
  • (a) State List with (iii) Health,
  • (b) Union List with (i) Taxes, and
  • (c) Concurrent List with (ii) Education.
  • State List: The subjects under the State List are primarily the responsibility of the state governments. Health is a state subject, meaning state governments have the primary responsibility for healthcare services and public health issues within their territories.
  • Union List: The subjects under the Union List are the exclusive responsibility of the central government. Taxes are a subject under the Union List, meaning the central government has the authority to impose and collect taxes.
  • Concurrent List: The subjects under the Concurrent List are shared between the central and state governments. Education is a concurrent subject, meaning both the central and state governments can make laws and policies regarding education.

Additional Information

  • Indian Constitution and List of Subjects:
  • The Constitution of India divides the subjects of legislation between the Union and the States in three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
  • Union List: It includes subjects of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and railways. The Union Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on these matters.
  • State List: It includes subjects of local or state importance such as police, public health, and agriculture. The state legislatures have exclusive power to legislate on these matters.
  • Concurrent List: It includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and the States such as criminal law, marriage, bankruptcy, and education. Both the Union and the State legislatures can make laws on these subjects. In case of a conflict between the Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 222

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

What would happen if the earth does not rotate?

  1. AOption (a)

    There will be rapid change in seasons,

  2. BOption (b)

    Life would not have been possible on the earth. 

  3. COption (c)

    There will be shorter day and longer night.

  4. DOption (d)

    There will be longer day and shorter night. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Life would not have been possible on the earth. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Life would not have been possible on the earth.'

Key Points

  • Impact of Earth's Rotation:
  • Earth's rotation is crucial for maintaining the day-night cycle. This cycle helps regulate the temperature, making the environment suitable for life.
  • If the Earth did not rotate, one side would be in perpetual daylight while the other in perpetual darkness. This would result in extreme temperatures, making it impossible for most forms of life to survive.
  • The rotation also contributes to the distribution of heat and the movement of oceans and atmosphere, which are essential for climate stability and ecosystems.

Additional Information

  • Rapid change in seasons: This is incorrect. The rotation of the Earth does not directly affect the change of seasons. Seasons are primarily caused by the tilt of the Earth's axis as it orbits the Sun.
  • Shorter day and longer night: This is incorrect. If the Earth did not rotate, there would be no alternation between day and night at all. One side of the Earth would face the Sun constantly while the other side would remain in darkness.
  • Longer day and shorter night: This is also incorrect for the same reason as above. Without rotation, there would be no cyclical pattern of day and night.

Important Points

  • Rotation and Life on Earth:
  • The rotation of the Earth creates a habitable environment by ensuring moderate temperatures. Without it, the extreme conditions on the surface would not support most current life forms.
  • It affects the Coriolis effect, which influences ocean currents and wind patterns, playing a critical role in weather systems and climate.
  • Earth's rotation contributes to the circadian rhythms of living organisms, which are essential for various biological processes.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 223

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

If a teacher wants to teach the children to read and understand the map through the map of India, which of the following should she discuss first?

A. Direction and scale

B. Geographical status of India

C. Symbol/Icon

D. National symbols of India

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D

  3. COption (c)

    Only A and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only C and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B and C

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: A, B and C

Key Points

  • Direction and scale:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Understanding direction and scale is fundamental when learning to read maps. Direction helps in identifying the orientation of the map, which is crucial for navigation and understanding spatial relationships.
  • Scale explains the relationship between a distance on the map and the actual distance on the ground, enabling accurate measurement and comprehension of distances.
  • Without knowing direction and scale, students might struggle to accurately interpret the map's information.
  • Geographical status of India:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Discussing the geographical status of India provides context and helps students understand the physical features, climate, and location of different regions within the country.
  • This foundational knowledge is essential before delving into more detailed map reading skills, as it helps students make sense of the map's content.
  • It sets the stage for more advanced discussions about the map's features and how they relate to real-world geography.
  • Symbol/Icon:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Symbols and icons are visual representations of various features on a map, such as mountains, rivers, cities, and roads.
  • Understanding these symbols is crucial for interpreting the map's information accurately. It helps students quickly identify and understand the map's content without confusion.
  • Learning about symbols and icons early on ensures that students can read and understand the map effectively.
  • National symbols of India:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • National symbols of India, such as the national flag, emblem, and anthem, are important for understanding the country's identity and heritage.
  • However, they are not directly related to reading and understanding maps. They don't provide the necessary skills or knowledge required for map reading.
  • While important in their own right, national symbols do not help in learning the fundamentals of map interpretation.

Additional Information

  • Importance of Map Reading Skills:
  • Map reading is an essential skill that helps individuals understand spatial relationships and navigate their environment.
  • It enhances geographical literacy and fosters a better understanding of the world's physical features and human-made structures.
  • Learning to read maps can also improve critical thinking and problem-solving skills as students interpret and analyze spatial data.
  • Practical Applications of Map Reading:
  • Map reading is useful in various real-life scenarios, including travel, urban planning, environmental management, and emergency response.
  • It also plays a crucial role in academic disciplines such as geography, history, and earth sciences.
  • Modern Mapping Technologies:
  • With advancements in technology, digital maps and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) have become prevalent, making map reading an even more valuable skill in today's world.
  • Understanding traditional map reading principles provides a strong foundation for navigating and utilizing modern mapping tools effectively.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 224

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

The opening time of the Central Government offices in India is 9:00 a.m. IST. What will be the local time of opening of the Central Government offices located at 77°30' east longitude near Bengaluru and 91°15' east longitude near Agartala, respectively?

  1. AOption (a)

    9:20 a.m. and 8:25 a.m.

  2. BOption (b)

    8:25 a.m. and 9:20 a.m.

  3. COption (c)

    9:35 a.m. and 8:40 a.m.

  4. DOption (d)

    8:40a.m. and 9:35a.m.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8:40a.m. and 9:35a.m.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 8:40 a.m. and 9:35 a.m.

Key Points

  • Understanding Time Zones and IST:
  • India Standard Time (IST) is the time observed throughout India and Sri Lanka, which is UTC +5:30.
  • IST is calculated from the 82.5° east longitude, which is near Allahabad.
  • Longitude and Local Time:
  • The Earth is divided into 360 degrees of longitude, and it rotates 15 degrees of longitude per hour.
  • Therefore, a change of 1 degree in longitude results in a time difference of 4 minutes.
  • Calculating Local Time:
  • For Bengaluru at 77°30' east longitude:
  • The difference in longitude from the IST meridian (82.5°) is 5° (82.5° - 77.5° = 5°).
  • 5° difference results in a time difference of 20 minutes (5 * 4 minutes = 20 minutes).
  • Since Bengaluru is west of the IST meridian, the local time is 20 minutes behind IST.
  • Thus, the local opening time in Bengaluru is 8:40 a.m. (9:00 a.m. - 20 minutes).
  • For Agartala at 91°15' east longitude:
  • The difference in longitude from the IST meridian (82.5°) is 8.75° (91.25° - 82.5° = 8.75°).
  • 8.75° difference results in a time difference of 35 minutes (8.75 * 4 minutes = 35 minutes).
  • Since Agartala is east of the IST meridian, the local time is 35 minutes ahead of IST.
  • Thus, the local opening time in Agartala is 9:35 a.m. (9:00 a.m. + 35 minutes).

Additional Information

  • Understanding Local Time Adjustments:
  • Local time adjustments are crucial for accurate scheduling, especially for government offices and essential services.
  • This knowledge helps in understanding how time zones impact daily activities and operations across different geographical locations.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 225

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the following

Statements:

A. The areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle have moderate temperatures.

R. The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is true but R is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    A is false but R is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A'.

Key Points

  • Assertion A: The areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle have moderate temperatures.
  • This statement is true.
  • Moderate Climate: The regions between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle, which largely fall within the temperate zone, generally experience moderate temperatures. These areas do not typically experience the extreme heat of the tropics or the extreme cold of the polar regions, leading to a more temperate climate.
  • Reason R: The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer.
  • This statement is true.
  • Sun's Position: The Tropic of Cancer (approximately 23.5°N latitude) marks the northernmost point where the sun can be directly overhead at noon. Beyond this latitude, the sun is never directly overhead, even at its highest point in the sky. This is due to the tilt of the Earth's axis and its orbit around the sun.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • While both the assertion and the reason are true, they describe different aspects of Earth's geography and climate.
  • The assertion (A) speaks about the moderate temperatures in the region between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle.
  • The reason (R) explains the positional characteristics of the sun's overhead position relative to the Tropic of Cancer.
  • However, the reason (R) does not directly explain why the temperatures are moderate in the area bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle.
  • Therefore, while both statements are correct, R is not the correct explanation for A.

Additional Information

  • Climatic Zones: The Earth is divided into different climatic zones based on latitude. The temperate zones, which lie between the tropics and the polar circles, generally have moderate climates with distinct seasonal changes.
  • Solar Declination: The sun's declination varies throughout the year, causing the variation in the sun's zenith position. This affects the amount of solar energy received at different latitudes, influencing temperature patterns.
  • Seasonal Variations: The moderate temperatures in the temperate zones are also a result of the seasonal variations caused by the tilt of the Earth's axis. These regions experience significant changes in weather and temperature throughout the year.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 226

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which type of rural settlement is mostly found in hilly tracts, thick forests and regions of extreme climate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Scattered

  2. BOption (b)

    Linear

  3. COption (c)

    Compact

  4. DOption (d)

    Nucleated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Scattered

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Scattered'

Key Points

  • Scattered Settlements:
  • Scattered or dispersed settlements are characterized by isolated houses or farms spread over a large area, usually with no clear pattern.
  • This type of settlement is often found in hilly regions, thick forests, and areas with extreme climates where the terrain and conditions do not support the close clustering of houses.
  • In such regions, the geographical constraints and the need for arable land and resources like water lead to homes being spread out.
  • Scattered settlements offer the advantage of utilizing large areas of land and allow for more personalized land use, such as farming or forestry.
  • This pattern helps in managing the resources efficiently in harsh and inaccessible terrains.

Additional Information

  • Linear Settlements:
  • Linear settlements are arranged in a line, often along a road, river, or valley.
  • This type of settlement is common in areas where the terrain forces the development of a single line of housing, such as along a narrow valley or a transportation route.
  • Linear settlements are less likely in hilly or forested regions where the terrain is more varied and dispersed habitation is more practical.
  • Compact Settlements:
  • Compact settlements are characterized by closely built homes grouped together, often forming a village or small town.
  • This type of settlement is typically found in fertile plains and regions with an abundant water supply, where the land can support intensive agriculture and close-knit communities.
  • Compact settlements are not suitable for hilly or forested areas due to the lack of flat, arable land and the challenges of dense habitation in such terrains.
  • Nucleated Settlements:
  • Nucleated settlements have buildings clustered around a central point, such as a crossroads, market, or church.
  • These settlements are common in regions where resources and social infrastructure are concentrated in a single area, encouraging people to live close together.
  • Nucleated settlements are less common in remote, hilly, or forested regions where resources are spread out and dispersed living is more practical.

Important Points

  • In hilly and forested regions, scattered settlements help in minimizing the risk of natural disasters such as landslides and forest fires by spreading out the population.
  • The dispersed nature of scattered settlements also allows for better utilization of limited resources like water and fertile land.
  • Scattered settlements are often found in areas with harsh climates as they allow for better adaptation to the environment, with each household managing its own resources and space.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 227

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Match List - I with List - II :

List IList II
(a)P waves(i)Transverse waves
(b)L waves(ii)Longitudinal waves
(c)S waves(iii)Surface waves

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

Key Points

Wave Type (List I)Wave Property (List II)
(a) P waves(ii) Longitudinal waves
(b) L waves(iii) Surface waves
(c) S waves(i) Transverse waves

Additional Information 

  • P waves (Primary Waves):
  • Definition: P waves are longitudinal seismic waves that travel through both solids and liquids.
  • Structure: They are the fastest seismic waves and are the first to be detected by seismographs. They move in a compressional motion, where particles of the medium move in the same direction as the wave propagation.
  • Impact: These waves are typically the first to arrive during an earthquake, providing vital information about the earthquake's location and magnitude.
  • L waves (Love Waves):
  • Definition: L waves, or Love waves, are a type of surface seismic wave that causes horizontal shearing of the ground.
  • Structure: They travel slower than P and S waves but are more destructive due to their surface motion. They cause the ground to move from side to side, which can result in significant damage to structures.
  • Impact: L waves are typically the second waves to arrive after P waves and are responsible for much of the damage caused during an earthquake.
  • S waves (Secondary Waves):
  • Definition: S waves are transverse seismic waves that only travel through solids and are slower than P waves.
  • Structure: They cause the ground to move perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, resulting in up-and-down or side-to-side motion.
  • Impact: S waves arrive after P waves and cause considerable ground shaking, which can lead to significant damage, particularly to structures that are not designed to withstand lateral motion.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 228

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following concepts can be depicted on a map in a geography class?

A. Ocean basins of the world

B. Strait of Gibraltar

C. Delhi's atmosphere

D. Rainfall in the month of July

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B and D

Why this answer is correct

In geography, maps are essential tools used to visually represent spatial information. They help students understand the location, distribution, and patterns of physical and human-made features. A concept that can be shown on a map must have a spatial or locational aspect that can be observed, measured, or compared across a region.

Key Points

  • Ocean basins are large geographical features that can clearly be marked and labeled on a world map.
  • The Strait of Gibraltar is a specific water body connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea, and its location and shape can also be shown on a map.
  • Rainfall in the month of July can be represented using thematic maps like rainfall distribution or weather maps, often through color-coded symbols to show intensity in different regions.

All three of these have clear spatial aspects that are visible and measurable.

  • Delhi’s atmosphere, on the other hand, refers to air quality or the condition of air in a specific location. While aspects like pollution levels might be measured, the "atmosphere" itself is not a spatial feature in the same sense as basins, straits, or rainfall and is better studied using graphs or data sets, not maps.

Hence, the correct answer is A, B and D.

CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 229

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which among the following statements is correct about lithosphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a regular surface with various landforms.

  2. BOption (b)

    It provides us forests, grasslands form grazing, land for agriculture and human settlements.

  3. COption (c)

    It is the soft crust or the soft top layer of the earth.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is made up of rocks and minerals, and covered by a thick layer of soil.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It provides us forests, grasslands form grazing, land for agriculture and human settlements.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'It provides us forests, grasslands for grazing, land for agriculture and human settlements.'

Key Points

  • Explanation of the Correct Answer:
  • The lithosphere is the outermost layer of the Earth and includes the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle.
  • This layer is crucial for human life as it provides essential resources such as forests, grasslands for grazing, land for agriculture, and spaces for human settlements.
  • The lithosphere is where most terrestrial life exists, and it supports various ecosystems and human activities.

Additional Information

  • Overview of Incorrect Options:
  • It is a regular surface with various landforms:
  • The lithosphere is not a regular surface; it is highly irregular and consists of various landforms such as mountains, valleys, plateaus, and plains.
  • This option oversimplifies the complexity and variability of the Earth's surface.
  • It is the soft crust or the soft top layer of the Earth:
  • The lithosphere is not a soft layer; it is rigid and solid. It consists of the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle, which are both solid and relatively hard.
  • This option incorrectly describes the physical properties of the lithosphere.
  • It is made up of rocks and minerals, and covered by a thick layer of soil:
  • While the lithosphere is indeed made up of rocks and minerals, it is not uniformly covered by a thick layer of soil.
  • Soil formation and distribution depend on various factors such as climate, topography, and biological activity, and it is not consistent across the entire lithosphere.

Important Points

  • The lithosphere is divided into tectonic plates that float on the semi-fluid asthenosphere beneath them.
  • Tectonic movements within the lithosphere are responsible for many geological phenomena, including earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the creation of mountain ranges.
  • The lithosphere interacts with other spheres of the Earth, such as the hydrosphere, atmosphere, and biosphere, contributing to the dynamic nature of our planet.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 230

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the following

Statements:

A. Hot air always rises up.

R. Hot air is denser.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is correct but R is incorrect.

  2. BOption (b)

    A is incorrect but R is correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A is correct but R is incorrect.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'A is correct but R is incorrect.'

Key Points

  • Assertion A: Hot air always rises up.
  • This statement is true.
  • Concept of Buoyancy: Hot air rises because it is less dense than the surrounding cooler air. When air is heated, it expands and becomes less dense, causing it to rise due to the buoyant force. This is a fundamental principle of fluid dynamics.
  • Real-life Examples: Hot air balloons operate on this principle. When the air inside the balloon is heated, it rises, lifting the balloon off the ground. Similarly, warm air currents can create updrafts in the atmosphere.
  • Reason R: Hot air is denser.
  • This statement is false.
  • Density and Temperature Relationship: In reality, hot air is less dense than cold air. As air is heated, its molecules move faster and spread apart, decreasing its density. Consequently, hot air rises above the denser, cooler air.
  • Scientific Explanation: The incorrect reason (R) contradicts the basic principles of thermodynamics and fluid mechanics. Heated air expands and becomes less dense, which is why it rises. If hot air were denser, it would not rise but rather sink.
  • Evaluation of the Relationship Between A and R:
  • The assertion (A) is correct as hot air indeed rises up.
  • However, the reason (R) is incorrect because it incorrectly states that hot air is denser, which contradicts the established scientific understanding of the behavior of gases under varying temperatures.
  • Therefore, the correct explanation for the assertion is not provided by the reason given.

Additional Information

  • Buoyant Force: The buoyant force is the upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes the weight of an object immersed in the fluid. This force causes hot air to rise in the cooler surrounding air.
  • Practical Applications: Understanding the behavior of hot air is crucial in various fields, including meteorology, aviation, and HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) systems.
  • Misconceptions: It is important to address common misconceptions about density and temperature to ensure accurate scientific knowledge is disseminated.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 231

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following statements is incorrect about roadways as a means of transport?

  1. AOption (a)

    The plains have a dense network of roads.

  2. BOption (b)

    Roadways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances

  3. COption (c)

    It is the most commonly used means of transport especially for short distances.

  4. DOption (d)

    Roads built underground are called subways / underpaths.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Roadways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'Roadways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances'

Key Points

  • Introduction:
  • Roadways are a vital means of transportation, playing a crucial role in the movement of people and goods.
  • They are extensively used for short-distance travel and offer flexibility in route choices.
  • Key Points:
  • The plains have a dense network of roads:
  • Plains are usually flat and have fewer geographical obstacles, making road construction easier and more extensive.
  • This results in a dense network of roads facilitating efficient movement and connectivity.
  • Roadways are the cheapest for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances:
  • This statement is incorrect because roadways are not the most cost-effective method for transporting heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
  • Railways and waterways are generally more economical for such purposes due to their higher capacity and lower costs per unit of weight over long distances.
  • It is the most commonly used means of transport especially for short distances:
  • Roadways are indeed the most frequently used mode of transport for short distances due to their convenience and accessibility.
  • They provide door-to-door service, making them ideal for local travel and distribution of goods.
  • Roads built underground are called subways / underpaths:
  • Subways or underpaths refer to roads constructed below the ground level.
  • These are typically used in urban areas to alleviate traffic congestion and provide a smooth flow of transportation.

Additional Information

  • Waterways:
  • Waterways are the most economical means of transporting heavy and bulky goods over long distances, especially for international trade.
  • They have a higher cargo capacity and lower fuel consumption compared to road transport.
  • Railways:
  • Railways are efficient for transporting large quantities of goods over long distances.
  • They offer a cost-effective solution for bulk cargo and have a lower environmental impact compared to road transport.
  • Airways:
  • Airways are the fastest mode of transport, suitable for long-distance travel and high-value, time-sensitive goods.
  • However, they are more expensive compared to other modes of transport.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 232

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

One-fourth of the world's electricity is produced by which resource 

  1. AOption (a)

    Solar energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Nuclear power

  3. COption (c)

    Thermal power

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydel power

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hydel power

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Hydel power'

Key Points

  • Hydel Power:
  • Hydel power, also known as hydroelectric power, involves generating electricity by harnessing the energy of flowing water.
  • This resource is one of the most widely used renewable energy sources worldwide and contributes significantly to global electricity production.
  • Hydroelectric power plants typically use dams to store river water in a reservoir. Water released from the reservoir flows through turbines, generating electricity.
  • Hydropower is a clean energy source, producing no direct emissions of pollutants or greenhouse gases.
  • According to recent statistics, hydel power accounts for approximately one-fourth of the world's electricity production.

Additional Information

  • Solar Energy:
  • Solar energy harnesses the power of the sun to generate electricity using photovoltaic cells or solar thermal systems.
  • While solar energy is a rapidly growing sector, it currently accounts for a smaller fraction of global electricity production compared to hydel power.
  • Solar power is an excellent source of renewable energy, with the potential to significantly reduce carbon footprints.
  • Challenges include variability in solar energy generation due to weather conditions and the need for large areas for solar panel installations.
  • Nuclear Power:
  • Nuclear power plants generate electricity through nuclear fission reactions, where atomic nuclei split and release energy.
  • Nuclear power is a significant source of electricity in several countries, providing a stable and large-scale energy supply.
  • However, it does not account for one-fourth of the world’s electricity production.
  • Concerns associated with nuclear power include radioactive waste disposal, high costs, and potential risks of nuclear accidents.
  • Thermal Power:
  • Thermal power plants generate electricity by burning fossil fuels such as coal, natural gas, or oil to produce steam that drives turbines.
  • Thermal power is one of the largest sources of electricity worldwide but is associated with significant environmental issues.
  • These include the emission of greenhouse gases, air pollution, and the depletion of finite fossil fuel resources.

Important Points

  • Hydel power is highly reliable and can be adjusted to meet peak electricity demands.
  • It has low operational costs once the infrastructure is established, contributing to its widespread use.
  • Countries with significant hydropower installations include China, Brazil, Canada, and the United States.
  • Advancements in technology are enhancing the efficiency and environmental sustainability of hydropower systems.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 233

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Read the following

Statements:

A. Pittsburgh was once an important steel pity of the United States of America.

R. Iron ore was available in plenty in Pittsburgh and coal came from the mines at Minnesota.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is true but R is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are false.

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true and R is the (correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A is true but R is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'A is true but R is false'.

Key Points

  • Assertion A: Pittsburgh was once an important steel city of the United States of America.
  • This statement is true.
  • Historical Significance: Pittsburgh indeed became a dominant steel-producing city in the United States during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The city's growth was heavily tied to the steel industry, which became one of the key contributors to its economic prosperity. Pittsburgh was known as the "Steel City" due to the large number of steel mills located there.
  • Decline: However, the steel industry in Pittsburgh began to decline in the 1970s due to economic shifts, automation, and the global competition that led to the closure of many mills. Despite this, Pittsburgh's role in steel production remains an integral part of its industrial legacy.
  • Reason R: Iron ore was available in plenty in Pittsburgh and coal came from the mines at Minnesota.
  • This statement is false.
  • Iron Ore: Pittsburgh itself did not have abundant iron ore. The region relied on imports of iron ore, especially from areas like the Lake Superior region, which is rich in iron ore, and not from Pittsburgh itself.
  • Coal: The statement about coal is partially correct. Coal was indeed mined in the Appalachian region, which is nearby Pittsburgh and played a crucial role in the steel industry. However, the claim that coal came from the mines in Minnesota is incorrect. Minnesota's role was more focused on iron ore, not coal.

Additional Information

  • Pittsburgh's Steel Industry: Pittsburgh's dominance in steel production was driven by the availability of coal from nearby mines, but iron ore was sourced primarily from other regions, particularly the Great Lakes area.
  • Decline of Steel Industry: The steel industry in Pittsburgh faced a decline due to technological changes, foreign competition, and automation. Pittsburgh successfully transitioned into a more diversified economy, focusing on technology, healthcare, and education.
  • Coal and Iron Ore: Coal from the Appalachian region was a key resource for Pittsburgh’s steel industry, but iron ore came from outside the region, including Minnesota, which is a significant supplier of iron ore, not coal.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 234

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Choose the correct crop based on the statements given below:

A. It grows well on alluvial soil.

B. It requires high temperature to grow well.

C. It requires heavy rainfall and humid climate.

D. Bangladesh is one of the leading producers of this crop.

  1. AOption (a)

    Maize

  2. BOption (b)

    Wheat

  3. COption (c)

    Rice

  4. DOption (d)

    Jute

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Jute

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Jute'

Key Points

  • ​It grows well on alluvial soil.
  • This statement is true. Jute thrives in alluvial soil, which is rich in nutrients and moisture.
  • Alluvial soil is typically found in river deltas and floodplains, making it ideal for the cultivation of crops like jute.
  • It requires high temperature to grow well.
  • This statement is true. Jute requires a warm temperature to grow optimally, usually between 25°C and 35°C.
  • High temperatures help in the rapid growth of jute fibers, which are harvested during the rainy season.
  • ​It requires heavy rainfall and humid climate.
  • This statement is true. Jute is a tropical crop that thrives in areas with heavy rainfall and high humidity.
  • The plant requires an abundance of water to grow, making regions with monsoon climates suitable for its cultivation.
  • ​Bangladesh is one of the leading producers of this crop.
  • This statement is true. Bangladesh is one of the largest producers of jute in the world, along with India.
  • The fertile land in Bangladesh, combined with the favorable climate, makes it an ideal region for jute cultivation.

Additional Information

  • Jute Cultivation:
  • Jute is primarily grown in tropical and subtropical regions of the world. Apart from Bangladesh, India is another major producer of jute, especially in states like West Bengal and Bihar.
  • Jute is an important cash crop that is primarily used for making ropes, sacks, carpets, and bags. The fibers are derived from the plant's stalks, making it a vital raw material in the textile industry.
  • Jute's Economic Importance:
  • Jute plays a crucial role in the economies of Bangladesh and India, contributing significantly to rural employment and export revenues. It is considered a major crop in the agricultural sector of these countries.
  • As an eco-friendly alternative to synthetic materials like plastic, jute has gained popularity in recent years, contributing to its demand in the global market.
  • Climate for Jute Growth:
  • The ideal climate for jute includes abundant rainfall, warm temperatures, and high humidity. These conditions are typically found in tropical regions with monsoons, which are essential for the successful cultivation of jute.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 235

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following religions did Ambedkar convert to in his later life?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bahaism

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikhism

  3. COption (c)

    Jainism

  4. DOption (d)

    Buddhism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Buddhism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Buddhism'

Key Points

  • Buddhism:
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, an eminent Indian jurist, economist, and social reformer, converted to Buddhism on October 14, 1956, along with hundreds of thousands of his followers.
  • Ambedkar chose Buddhism due to its principles of equality, non-discrimination, and rationality which aligned with his vision for an egalitarian society.
  • His conversion was a significant event in Indian history, leading to the rise of the Dalit Buddhist movement.
  • Ambedkar wrote extensively on Buddhism and its relevance to social justice, including his book 'The Buddha and His Dhamma'.

Additional Information

  • Bahaism:
  • Bahaism, also known as the Bahá'í Faith, is a religion teaching the essential worth of all religions and the unity of all people.
  • It originated in the 19th century in Persia and emphasizes spiritual unity and peace.
  • Ambedkar did not convert to Bahaism, as it was not as prominent in India during his time and did not address the social issues he was focused on.
  • Sikhism:
  • Sikhism is a monotheistic religion founded in the Punjab region of India in the 15th century.
  • It emphasizes the teachings of Guru Nanak and the ten successive Sikh Gurus.
  • While Sikhism promotes equality and social justice, Ambedkar chose Buddhism for its broader appeal and historical significance in India.
  • Jainism:
  • Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that prescribes a path of non-violence towards all living beings.
  • It emphasizes spiritual development through self-discipline and asceticism.
  • Ambedkar considered Jainism but ultimately chose Buddhism for its practical approach to social reform and its historical connection to India.

Important Points

  • Ambedkar's conversion to Buddhism was a strategic and symbolic act aimed at challenging the caste system and promoting social equality.
  • The conversion ceremony took place in Nagpur, Maharashtra, and marked the beginning of the Dalit Buddhist movement in India.
  • Ambedkar's influence extended beyond his lifetime, inspiring millions of Dalits to embrace Buddhism as a means of social empowerment.
  • His legacy continues to be celebrated annually on October 14th as 'Dhammachakra Pravartan Day' by his followers.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 236

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following is/are example(s) of 'breaking stereotypes"?

A. Male nurse

B. Female farmer

C. Male pilot

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A and B

Why this answer is correct

A stereotype is a fixed, oversimplified belief or idea about a particular group of people, often based on gender, profession, caste, or social roles. Breaking stereotypes means challenging and going against these traditional or socially constructed roles and expectations.

Key Points

  • A. Male nurse: Traditionally, nursing is seen as a female-dominated profession. A male becoming a nurse challenges this gender stereotype and is a clear example of breaking stereotypes.
  • B. Female farmer: Farming is often stereotypically viewed as a male profession, especially in traditional societies. A woman working as a farmer defies this assumption and breaks the stereotype.
  • C. Male pilot: This is a commonly accepted role in most societies and aligns with traditional expectations, so it does not challenge or break a stereotype.

Hence, the correct answer is A and B.

CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 237

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

The States in India have begun to get reorganized in the year 1956 on the basis of which of the following criteria?

  1. AOption (a)

    Linguistic and cultural uniformity

  2. BOption (b)

    Geographic similarity and resource allocation

  3. COption (c)

    External and internal security

  4. DOption (d)

    Administrative facility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Linguistic and cultural uniformity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Linguistic and cultural uniformity'

Key Points

  • Linguistic and cultural uniformity:
  • In 1956, the States Reorganization Act was passed, which led to the reorganization of Indian states primarily based on linguistic lines.
  • This decision was influenced by the recommendations of the States Reorganization Commission, which suggested that states should be formed where people shared a common language and culture.
  • The reorganization aimed to reduce administrative difficulties and promote unity by grouping people who spoke the same language together.
  • Notable changes included the creation of states like Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Kerala, reflecting linguistic identities.

Additional Information

  • Geographic similarity and resource allocation:
  • This criterion was not the primary basis for the reorganization of states in 1956. While geographic factors are important, the primary focus was on linguistic uniformity.
  • Resource allocation and geographic similarity might play roles in administrative planning but were secondary in the reorganization process.
  • External and internal security:
  • Security considerations, while important for national integrity, were not the primary factor in the reorganization of states.
  • The focus on linguistic and cultural uniformity aimed at administrative ease and unity rather than security concerns.
  • Administrative facility:
  • Though administrative convenience was a benefit of the reorganization, it was not the driving force behind the decision.
  • The reorganization was intended to make governance easier by grouping people with common languages, which naturally aided in administrative efficiency.

Important Points

  • The States Reorganization Commission was formed in 1953 to evaluate the demands for reorganization based on linguistic lines.
  • The commission was chaired by Fazal Ali, with members H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar.
  • The Act came into effect on November 1, 1956, which is observed as 'States Reorganization Day'.
  • This reorganization process set a precedent for future state formation and adjustments in India, including the creation of states like Telangana in 2014.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 238

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Who among the following is/are associated with rural administration?

A. Ward Councillor

B. Lekhpal

C. Tehsildar

D. Patwari

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C

  2. BOption (b)

    Only D

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, C and D

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: B, C and D

Key Points

  • Ward Councillor:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Ward Councillors are associated with urban administration, specifically with municipal corporations or municipal councils in cities and towns.
  • They are responsible for addressing the issues within their ward and ensuring proper implementation of policies and schemes related to urban governance.
  • They do not play a role in rural administration.
  • Lekhpal:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Lekhpal is a government official responsible for maintaining land records in rural areas.
  • They play a crucial role in rural administration by handling land-related documentation, conducting surveys, and assisting in revenue collection.
  • Lekhpal ensures the proper management and updating of land records, which is essential for the governance and development of rural regions.
  • Tehsildar:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Tehsildar is an administrative officer in charge of a tehsil (sub-district) in rural areas.
  • They oversee the functioning of revenue administration, land records, and law and order within their jurisdiction.
  • Tehsildars play a vital role in rural governance by implementing government policies, handling disputes, and ensuring smooth administration at the tehsil level.
  • Patwari:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Patwari is a government official responsible for maintaining land records in rural areas, similar to the Lekhpal.
  • They are involved in measuring land, recording details of ownership, and assisting in revenue collection.
  • Patwaris are integral to rural administration as they ensure accurate and updated land records, which are crucial for various administrative and legal purposes.

Additional Information

  • Rural Administration:
  • Rural administration encompasses the management and governance of rural areas, focusing on land records, revenue collection, law and order, and implementation of government schemes.
  • Officials like Lekhpal, Tehsildar, and Patwari play a crucial role in ensuring effective administration and development of rural regions.
  • Rural administration aims to provide necessary services and infrastructure to rural communities, facilitating their overall growth and well-being.
  • Urban vs. Rural Administration:
  • Urban administration deals with city and town governance, involving municipal corporations and ward councillors who manage urban issues like sanitation, public health, and infrastructure.
  • Rural administration focuses on land records, agriculture, revenue collection, and development schemes specific to rural areas.
  • The roles and responsibilities of officials in urban and rural administration differ significantly, reflecting the distinct needs and challenges of these regions.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 239

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

In which of the following systems, small producers/workers have more chances of getting a fair price for their products?

  1. AOption (a)

    Subcontracting

  2. BOption (b)

    Outsourcing

  3. COption (c)

    Putting out

  4. DOption (d)

    Cooperative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cooperative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cooperative'

Key Points

  • Cooperative:
  • A cooperative is an autonomous association of people united voluntarily to meet their common economic, social, and cultural needs and aspirations through a jointly-owned and democratically-controlled enterprise.
  • In a cooperative system, small producers and workers have higher chances of getting a fair price for their products because it operates on principles of fairness, equity, and mutual benefit.
  • Cooperatives often focus on collective bargaining and shared resources, which can lead to better market access and improved negotiation power for small producers.
  • They emphasize member participation and democratic decision-making, which ensures that the interests of all members are considered and protected.
  • By pooling resources and working together, members can achieve economies of scale, lower costs, and higher efficiency, enhancing their overall profitability.

Additional Information

  • Subcontracting:
  • Subcontracting involves a business contracting out certain tasks or services to external firms or individuals.
  • Small producers and workers often face challenges in subcontracting due to unequal power dynamics and the potential for exploitative practices.
  • The subcontracting firm usually seeks to minimize costs, which can lead to lower prices and wages for the subcontracted workers.
  • Outsourcing:
  • Outsourcing is the practice of hiring third parties to handle certain business activities or services.
  • Small producers/workers may struggle to receive fair compensation due to the focus on reducing costs and maximizing efficiency by the outsourcing company.
  • Outsourcing can lead to job insecurity and lack of direct control over pricing and market access.
  • Putting out:
  • Putting out, or the domestic system, involves a central firm distributing raw materials to home-based workers who process them into finished goods.
  • While it allows workers to operate from home, it often results in low wages and exploitation due to the centralized control over pricing and distribution.
  • The central firm typically retains a significant portion of the profits, leaving small producers/workers with minimal earnings.

Important Points

  • Cooperatives promote the principles of self-help, self-responsibility, democracy, equality, and solidarity.
  • They are often established in sectors such as agriculture, retail, finance, and housing, where collective effort can significantly enhance the economic well-being of the members.
  • Examples of successful cooperatives include agricultural cooperatives, credit unions, and housing cooperatives.
  • Cooperatives can also contribute to community development and social cohesion by fostering a sense of shared purpose and mutual support.
CTET (Level-II) (Social Studies) Official Paper-II (Held On:15 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 240

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2024• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following statements regarding urban livelihoods is/are true?

A. Street vendors in urban areas do not have right to earn their livelihood because they are considered as engaged in unlawful activities.

B. It is the Municipal Corporation or Town Panchayat which decides on which day of the week the market has to remain closed in urban areas.

C. Casual workers often have to engage in more than one job.

Choose the correct option.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only A

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B and C

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: B and C

Key Points

  • Street vendors in urban areas do not have right to earn their livelihood because they are considered as engaged in unlawful activities:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Street vendors have the right to earn their livelihood as per the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014 in India.
  • This act aims to protect the rights of urban street vendors and regulate street vending activities to ensure they are conducted in a lawful manner.
  • Street vendors contribute to the urban economy and provide affordable goods and services to city dwellers.
  • It is the Municipal Corporation or Town Panchayat which decides on which day of the week the market has to remain closed in urban areas:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Municipal Corporations or Town Panchayats have the authority to regulate market operations, including deciding the day(s) of the week when markets should remain closed.
  • This is part of urban governance to manage market areas and ensure public order and sanitation.
  • Such decisions are often made to facilitate cleaning, maintenance, and to manage traffic congestion in urban areas.
  • Casual workers often have to engage in more than one job:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Casual workers typically do not have stable employment and may need to take on multiple jobs to earn sufficient income.
  • This is due to the temporary and irregular nature of their employment, which often does not provide a steady income or job security.
  • Casual workers may work in various sectors such as construction, domestic work, and small-scale retail to make ends meet.

Additional Information

  • Urban Livelihoods:
  • Urban livelihoods encompass various forms of employment and income-generating activities that people engage in within urban areas.
  • These include formal and informal sector jobs, self-employment, and casual work.
  • Urban areas provide diverse opportunities but also present challenges such as job insecurity, high living costs, and competition.
  • Informal Sector:
  • The informal sector plays a significant role in urban economies, providing jobs to a large portion of the urban population.
  • Jobs in the informal sector are often characterized by lack of formal contracts, social security, and job security.
  • Despite these challenges, the informal sector is crucial for livelihoods in urban areas, offering flexibility and opportunities for entrepreneurship.
  • Municipal Governance:
  • Municipal bodies are responsible for urban governance, including regulation of markets, sanitation, infrastructure development, and public services.
  • Effective municipal governance ensures orderly urban development and better living conditions for residents.
  • Decisions made by Municipal Corporations and Town Panchayats impact daily life and livelihoods in urban areas significantly.

How should I prepare for Social Studies in Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.