Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) · Topic Collection

Mathematics and Science PYQs

Elementary mathematics and science content with the pedagogical issues of teaching both subjects, as asked in upper-primary teacher papers.

3840 Total Questions64 Official PapersYears: 2012–2026Search in Mathematics and Science
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CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 41

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Which of the following tasks would be least suitable for developing an understanding of the relationship of science with society among learners ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Debate on nuclear energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Group project on latest developments in science and technology

  3. COption (c)

    Concept map on sources of energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Poster competition on contribution of Indian scientists to the World

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Concept map on sources of energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Understanding the relationship between science and society

  • The relationship between science and society is built upon how scientific advancements influence societal progress and how societal needs drive scientific research.
  • Educational tasks aimed at this understanding should emphasize real-world applications, societal impacts, and the role of scientists in addressing global challenges.
  • Tasks that focus solely on theoretical or conceptual understanding without contextualizing their societal relevance may not effectively foster this relationship.

EXPLANATION:

  • In the given options, tasks like debates, group projects, and poster competitions actively engage learners in exploring the practical implications of science and its role in society.
  • For example:
  • A debate on nuclear energy encourages learners to analyze its benefits and risks, fostering a critical understanding of its impact on society.
  • A group project on the latest developments in science and technology helps learners connect scientific progress with societal needs.
  • A poster competition on the contributions of Indian scientists highlights the role of individuals in advancing science for societal benefit.
  • However, creating a concept map on sources of energy is primarily a theoretical exercise focused on categorizing information. While it aids in understanding scientific concepts, it lacks a direct connection to societal implications and real-world applications.

Therefore, creating a concept map on sources of energy would be the least suitable task for developing an understanding of the relationship of science with society.

CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 42

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

The free ends of an electric circuit comprising a cell and switch are connected one by one to wires A, B, C and D.

Which of these wires would produce least amount of heat ?

Wirelength (cm)Area of Cross-section (m2)
A10\(10 \times 10^{-8}\)
B10\(8 \times 10^{-8}\)
C12\(6 \times 10^{-8}\)
D5\(10 \times 10^{-8}\)
  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is D.

Key Points

  • The heat produced in a wire carrying electric current is given by Joule's law of heating:

H = I2Rt

  • Since the same cell and switch are used for all the wires, the current and time are considered the same. Therefore, the heat produced is proportional to the resistance:

H ∝ R

  • The resistance of a wire is:

R = ρL/A

where L is the length and A is the cross-sectional area.

  • For the same material, ρ is constant. Hence:

R ∝ L/A

  • Calculate L/A for each wire:
  • A: 10/(10 × 10−8) ∝ 1
  • B: 10/(8 × 10−8) ∝ 1.25
  • C: 12/(6 × 10−8) ∝ 2
  • D: 5/(10 × 10−8) ∝ 0.5
  • Wire D has the smallest value of L/A, so it has the lowest resistance and therefore produces the least amount of heat.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 – D.

Important Points

  • Heat produced: H = I2Rt
  • Resistance: R = ρL/A
  • For the same material and same current, H ∝ L/A.
  • Smallest L/A → Smallest resistance → Least heat.
  • Wire D has the smallest value, 0.5.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 43

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Read the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.

Reasoning (R): Villi have a large surface area which helps the small intestine in absorption of food.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

  2. BOption (b)

     Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reasoning for (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

Key Points

  • The Small Intestine is indeed the site where the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats takes place. It receives secretions from the liver and the pancreas to achieve this. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.
  • The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi, which significantly increase the surface area for the absorption of digested food into the bloodstream. Hence, Reasoning (R) is correct.
  • Digestion and absorption are functionally linked; the small intestine is structurally specialized (via villi) to ensure that once complete digestion occurs, the nutrients are efficiently absorbed.
  • The villi are richly supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body, where it is utilized for obtaining energy, building new tissues, and the repair of old tissues.
  • Since the primary purpose of the small intestine's extensive surface area and length is to facilitate the transition from digestion to nutrient uptake, the anatomical feature of villi directly supports the organ's role as the final site of the digestive process. Hence, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Additional Information

  • Structure of the Small Intestine:
  • It is a long, highly coiled tube approximately 6 to 7 meters (20-22 feet) long in an adult human.
  • It is divided into three parts: the Duodenum (C-shaped, first part), Jejunum (middle part), and Ileum (longest, final part).
  • Chemical Digestion:
  • Bile Juice: Secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, it performs emulsification of fats and makes the medium alkaline.
  • Pancreatic Juice: Contains enzymes like Trypsin (for proteins), Lipase (for fats), and Amylase (for carbohydrates).
  • Intestinal Juice: The walls of the small intestine secrete juice that finally converts proteins to amino acids, complex carbohydrates to glucose, and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
  • Absorption Mechanism:
  • The villi contain lacteals (lymphatic vessels) for the absorption of fatty acids and glycerol, while amino acids and glucose enter the blood capillaries directly.

Important Points

  • The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the food they eat; herbivores eating grass need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested, while carnivores like tigers have a shorter one as meat is easier to digest.
  • The process of peristalsis (rhythmic contraction of muscles) pushes the chyme (partially digested food) through the alimentary canal.
  • The alkaline medium provided by bile is crucial because pancreatic enzymes cannot act in the acidic environment of the food coming from the stomach.
  • Assimilation: This is the stage after absorption where the nutrients are actually incorporated into the cells for biological functions.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 44

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

While discussing about nature of Science in his class, a teacher makes the following remark -

'A scientist is open-minded'.

What does this remark highlight about scientists ?

  1. AOption (a)

    They constantly come up with new ideas.

  2. BOption (b)

    They also consider ideas which go against their own ideas.

  3. COption (c)

    They openly share their ideas with everyone.

  4. DOption (d)

    They do not agree with the views of other scientists. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

They also consider ideas which go against their own ideas.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Open-Mindedness in Science

  • Science is built on the principle of critical thinking and the willingness to evaluate evidence objectively.
  • An open-minded scientist is someone who considers new evidence and ideas, even if they contradict their own beliefs or previous conclusions.
  • This quality helps scientists refine theories, embrace innovation, and ensure that scientific knowledge is dynamic and self-correcting.

EXPLANATION:

  • The teacher's remark, "A scientist is open-minded," highlights a key attribute of scientists — their ability to consider ideas that may challenge their own beliefs or hypotheses.
  • This does not mean that scientists accept all ideas uncritically; instead, they carefully analyze evidence and arguments, regardless of whether these support or oppose their current understanding.
  • For example, if a new experiment produces results that are inconsistent with a widely accepted theory, an open-minded scientist will explore these findings, re-evaluate the theory, and potentially revise it, based on the new evidence.
  • Such an approach fosters growth in science and ensures that scientific progress remains grounded in evidence rather than personal biases or preconceived notions.

Therefore, the statement emphasizes that scientists consider ideas, even those that go against their own, as long as they are supported by valid evidence.

CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 45

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Match the animal with the mode of feeding.

(a) Housefly(i) Biting and chewing
(b) Humming bird(ii) Sucking
(c) Cockroach(iii) Sponging
(d) Infants(iv) Suckling
  1. AOption (a)

    (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

  3. COption (c)

    (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).

Key Points

  • Housefly (a) - Sponging (iii): The housefly has specialized mouthparts adapted for sponging. It does not have jaws to bite; instead, it secretes saliva onto solid food to dissolve it into a liquid form, which is then absorbed through its proboscis. Hence, statement (a) is correctly matched with (iii).
  • Humming bird (b) - Sucking (ii): Hummingbirds primarily feed on nectar from flowers. They possess long, slender beaks and a specialized tongue that allows them to perform sucking to extract the liquid energy source. Hence, statement (b) is correctly matched with (ii).
  • Cockroach (c) - Biting and chewing (i): Cockroaches are omnivorous insects with strong, hard mouthparts known as mandibles. These allow them to perform biting and chewing of a wide variety of organic matter, ranging from food scraps to paper. Hence, statement (c) is correctly matched with (i).
  • Infants (d) - Suckling (iv): Human infants and the young ones of many other mammals feed on mother's milk. This process of feeding by drawing milk into the mouth through the suckling reflex is the primary mode of nutrition during early developmental stages. Hence, statement (d) is correctly matched with (iv).

Additional Information

  • Modes of Feeding in Different Animals:
  • The mode of feeding varies significantly across the animal kingdom based on habitat and food source.
  • Siphoning: Used by insects like butterflies and moths who use a long tube to siphon nectar.
  • Scraping: Animals like snails use a radula to scrape food from surfaces.
  • Capturing and Swallowing: Predatory birds like the eagle and reptiles like snakes (e.g., Python) capture their prey and swallow it whole.
  • Holozic Nutrition:
  • Most animals, including those mentioned, follow holozoic nutrition, which involves ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation, and egestion.
  • The physical structure of the mouthparts is a key evolutionary adaptation to the specific diet of the organism.

Important Points

  • Scientific Classification: This topic is a fundamental part of Nutrition in Animals, covered in Chapter 2 of the NCERT Class 7 Science curriculum in India.
  • Morphological Adaptations:
  • The proboscis of a housefly is a modified labium.
  • The mandibles of a cockroach are highly sclerotized for grinding.
  • The suckling reflex in mammals is one of the earliest innate behaviors observed after birth.
  • Comparison of Sucking vs. Suckling: While both involve a vacuum-like action, sucking (as in hummingbirds or mosquitoes) is used to draw liquid through a rigid tube, whereas suckling is a specific mammalian behavior involving the rhythmic compression of the mammary glands.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 46

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Which of the following is a mismatched set ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plaster of Paris - \(CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O\) - Used in coating walls

  2. BOption (b)

    Gypsum - \(CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O\) - Used in Dentistry

  3. COption (c)

    Bleaching powder - \(CaOCl_2\) - Used in Laundry

  4. DOption (d)

    Slaked lime - CaO - Used for lowering the acidity of soil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Slaked lime - CaO - Used for lowering the acidity of soil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Slaked lime – CaO – Used for lowering the acidity of soil.

Key Points

  • Option 1: Plaster of Paris (POP) has the chemical formula CaSO4·½H2O. It is commonly used for coating walls, making false ceilings, moulds, casts, and decorative items. Hence, this pair is correctly matched.
  • Option 2: Gypsum has the chemical formula CaSO4·2H2O. It is used in the manufacture of dental impressions, dental casts, and Plaster of Paris. Hence, this pair is correctly matched.
  • Option 3: Bleaching powder (CaOCl2) is used as a bleaching agent in the textile and paper industries, for disinfecting drinking water, and in laundry. Hence, this pair is correctly matched.
  • Option 4: Slaked lime is Ca(OH)2, not CaO. CaO is quicklime (calcium oxide). Although slaked lime is used to reduce soil acidity, the given chemical formula is incorrect. Hence, this is the mismatched set.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Quicklime:
  • Chemical formula: CaO.
  • Prepared by heating limestone (CaCO3).
  • Slaked Lime:
  • Chemical formula: Ca(OH)2.
  • Prepared by adding water to quicklime.
  • Used to neutralize acidic soils, in whitewashing, and water treatment.
  • Plaster of Paris:
  • Chemical formula: CaSO4·½H2O.
  • Gypsum:
  • Chemical formula: CaSO4·2H2O.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 47

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

In a science class, Mr. Sumit brought some material. It was a water bottle, a glass and thick paper sheet. He poured water in the glass and put the thick paper sheet on it. Slowly and carefully, he inverted the glass and removed his hand from there. Learners were surprised that paper had stuck on the glass and water was not coming out.

Some students said that paper had glue inside while others said it had stuck due to water inside the bottle. What, according to you, was the objective of doing this task ?

(A) Help learners to understand that experiments are the principal route to scientific knowledge.

(B) Encourage learners to construct explanations based on their observations.

(C) Encourage learners to ask questions

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (C) 

  3. COption (c)

    (C) and (A)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (C) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B) and (C) 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Air Pressure and Surface Tension

  • In this experiment, the phenomenon observed can be explained by the concept of air pressure and surface tension.
  • Air pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the air above a surface. When the glass is inverted, the air pressure outside the glass is higher than the pressure of the water inside the glass, which helps keep the paper in place.
  • Surface tension of water also contributes to holding the paper in position, as the cohesive forces between water molecules create a seal between the water and the paper.

EXPLANATION:

  • The objective of the task conducted by Mr. Sumit was to stimulate curiosity and engage the learners in scientific thinking.
  • The task encouraged students to make observations and construct explanations based on their observations. For example:
  • Some students hypothesized that the paper had glue inside.
  • Others speculated that water inside the glass was the reason for the observed phenomenon.
  • The activity also motivated students to ask questions about the scientific principles behind the experiment, fostering a spirit of inquiry and exploration.
  • Thus, the activity aimed to:
  • Help learners understand that experiments are an essential route to gaining scientific knowledge.
  • Encourage learners to construct explanations based on observations.
  • Inspire learners to ask questions and explore the "why" behind observed phenomena.

Therefore, the objective of the task was to help learners engage in scientific inquiry by observing, explaining, and questioning the phenomenon.

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Question 48

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): While preparing a dough for bread, baking powder is added along with yeast to facilitate fermentation.

Reasoning (R): Baking powder acts as food for yeast.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reasoning for (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is false but (R) is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both (A) and (R) are false.

Why this answer is correct

According to the question:

Assertion (A): While preparing a dough for bread, baking powder is added along with yeast to facilitate fermentation. → False

Reason (R): Baking powder acts as food for yeast. → False

Bread dough is typically prepared using yeast alon for fermentation. Yeast feeds in sugars present in the dough, not on baking powder. Baking powder is a chemical leavening agent that releases carbon dioxide independently and is not used as food for yeast. Therefore, adding baking powder along with yeast is neither necessary nor related to fermentation.

Thus, Both (A) and (R) are false.

Hence. "Option 4" is the correct answer.

CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 49

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Read the following excerpt.

"There was a belief that all living beings on earth were created by God. However, Darwin and Wallance came up with the idea that life forms evolved on the earth from previously existing forms of life'.

What does the above excerpt illustrate about the nature of Science ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Science is value neutral.

  2. BOption (b)

    Science progresses by following the scientific method.

  3. COption (c)

    Science is tentative.

  4. DOption (d)

    Science is interdisciplinary. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Science is tentative.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Nature of Science

  • Science is characterized by its tentative nature, meaning that scientific theories and understandings are open to change and revision based on new evidence and perspectives.
  • Scientific knowledge progresses through observation, experimentation, and the formulation and testing of hypotheses. This ongoing process allows for the refinement or replacement of existing ideas.
  • Theories in science are not absolute truths but are the best explanations we have based on current evidence. They are always subject to further scrutiny and improvement.

EXPLANATION:

  • The given excerpt contrasts the belief in divine creation with the theory of evolution proposed by Darwin and Wallace. This highlights the tentative nature of science as it shows how scientific understanding evolves and adapts when new evidence is discovered.
  • Initially, the belief in divine creation was widely accepted, but the development of the theory of evolution provided a new, evidence-based explanation for the diversity of life on Earth.
  • This shift exemplifies how science is not static but dynamic, continuously revising its explanations to align with the best available evidence.
  • The tentative nature of science ensures that it remains self-correcting, allowing for progress and deeper understanding over time.

Therefore, the given excerpt illustrates that science is tentative in nature.

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Question 50

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

A student has an alternative conception that air contracts on heating. Which of the following strategies would you adopt to challenge this alternative conception ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Explain the difference between conduction and convection to illustrate that air is a poor conductor of heat.

  2. BOption (b)

    Ask students to do an activity which involves filling a plastic bottle to half of its capacity with very hot water, capping tightly and keeping it aside for few minutes. Ask students to note down the observations.

  3. COption (c)

    Ask students to refer to the textbook for examples from daily life where air expands on

    heating.

  4. DOption (d)

    Ask the students to attach a deflated balloon to the mouth of a bottle containing air and place the bottle in water bath containing boiling water and note down the observations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ask the students to attach a deflated balloon to the mouth of a bottle containing air and place the bottle in water bath containing boiling water and note down the observations.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Expansion of Air on Heating

  • Air expands when heated because the molecules of air move faster and spread farther apart as the temperature increases.
  • This phenomenon can be explained using the kinetic theory of gases, which states that the particles in a gas have more kinetic energy at higher temperatures, leading to an increase in volume.
  • When air is heated, its density decreases as the same amount of air occupies a larger space.

EXPLANATION:

  • To challenge the alternative conception that "air contracts on heating," a practical activity can be conducted to demonstrate the expansion of air due to heating.
  • One effective activity involves attaching a deflated balloon to the mouth of a bottle containing air and placing the bottle in a water bath containing boiling water. As the bottle heats up:
  • The air inside the bottle absorbs heat and expands.
  • The expanding air inflates the balloon, visibly showing the increase in volume.
  • Observing this phenomenon helps students understand that air expands on heating, directly contradicting their alternative conception.
  • Additionally, students can be encouraged to reflect on everyday examples, such as the expansion of hot air in a hot air balloon or the movement of air in convection currents.

Therefore, conducting a hands-on activity and linking the concept to real-life examples is an effective strategy to address the misconception that air contracts on heating.

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Question 51

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Which method of reproduction is common to fungus, moss and fern? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Budding

  2. BOption (b)

    Fragmentation

  3. COption (c)

    Spore formation

  4. DOption (d)

    Regeneration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Spore formation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Spore formation.

Key Points

  • Spore formation is a common method of asexual reproduction found in several organisms, including fungi, mosses, and ferns. In this process, the parent plant produces hundreds of tiny, unicellular or multicellular reproductive units called spores.
  • In Fungi, such as the bread mould (Rhizopus), spores are produced within specialized knob-like structures called sporangia. When these sporangia burst, the spores are released into the air to land on suitable substrates and grow into new mycelia.
  • Mosses, which belong to the Bryophyta group, utilize spores for reproduction. These spores are produced in a capsule situated at the tip of a slender stalk (the sporophyte). Upon maturation, the capsule opens to disperse spores that germinate into a protonema stage.
  • Ferns are Pteridophytes and represent vascular plants that do not produce seeds. Instead, they produce spores in specialized structures called sporangia, which are often clustered together in Sori (singular: sorus) on the underside of their leaves, known as fronds.
  • This method is advantageous as it allows organisms to survive unfavorable environmental conditions and ensures wide dispersal through agents like wind or water.

Additional Information

  • Budding:
  • This is an asexual reproduction method where a small bulb-like projection, called a bud, develops on the parent body.
  • Once the bud matures, it detaches to form a new individual. This is commonly observed in Yeast (a unicellular fungus) and Hydra (an animal).
  • Fragmentation:
  • In this method, the body of the parent organism breaks into two or more distinct fragments upon maturation.
  • Each fragment subsequently grows into a complete new organism. This is typical of filamentous algae like Spirogyra and some Lichens.
  • Regeneration:
  • Regeneration is the ability of an organism to regrow its lost or damaged body parts.
  • In some cases, like in Planaria (flatworms) or Hydra, a small cut piece of the body can regenerate into a full-sized independent organism. This is often used as a means of reproduction in simple multicellular organisms.

Important Points

  • Characteristics of Spores: Spores are microscopic and are protected by a thick, hard cell wall. This protective layer helps them withstand extreme temperatures, dehydration, and high acidity, allowing them to remain dormant for long periods until favorable conditions return.
  • Evolutionary Context: Fungi, mosses, and ferns are often categorized as Cryptogams, meaning their reproductive organs are "hidden" and they do not produce flowers or seeds. Spore formation was one of the earliest successful reproductive strategies for terrestrial life.
  • Ecological Impact: Because spores are lightweight, they can travel vast distances. This airborne dispersal mechanism allows fungi and ferns to colonize new habitats rapidly, which is why mould can appear quickly on food left in the open.
  • Biological Classification: While Fungi belong to their own kingdom (Kingdom Fungi), Mosses (Bryophytes) and Ferns (Pteridophytes) belong to Kingdom Plantae. Despite these differences in classification, the commonality of spore-based reproduction links them in biological studies.
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Question 52

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Identify the metals on the basis of their reaction with water.

A reacts violently with cold water

B reacts with steam only

C does not react with water

  1. AOption (a)

    Potassium, Iron, Copper 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium, Copper, Aluminium

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium, Zinc, Iron

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium, Aluminium, Silver 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Potassium, Iron, Copper 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium, Iron, Copper.

Key Points

  • Metals react with water to produce Metal Hydroxides or Metal Oxides along with Hydrogen gas. The intensity of this reaction depends on the position of the metal in the Reactivity Series.
  • Statement A describes a metal that reacts violently with cold water. Metals like Potassium and Sodium are extremely reactive; they react instantly with cold water to form hydroxides and hydrogen. The reaction is so exothermic that the hydrogen gas produced catches fire immediately. Hence, Potassium correctly satisfies condition A.
  • Statement B describes a metal that reacts with steam only. Metals such as Iron, Aluminium, and Zinc do not react with cold or even hot water. They only react when water is in the form of steam to form a Metal Oxide and hydrogen. Hence, Iron correctly satisfies condition B.
  • Statement C describes a metal that does not react with water at all. Metals at the bottom of the activity series, such as Copper, Gold, Silver, and Lead, do not react with water, boiling water, or steam under normal conditions. Hence, Copper correctly satisfies condition C.
  • Based on the evaluation of all three conditions, the sequence Potassium, Iron, and Copper matches the requirements perfectly. Hence, the correct answer is Potassium, Iron, and Copper.

Additional Information

  • Reactivity of Alkali Metals: Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are stored in kerosene oil because they are highly reactive towards oxygen and moisture. In the reaction with water, Potassium Hydroxide (KOH) is formed along with heat.
  • Reaction of Calcium and Magnesium: Calcium reacts with cold water but the reaction is less violent. The metal starts floating because the bubbles of Hydrogen gas formed stick to its surface. Magnesium does not react with cold water but reacts with hot water to form Magnesium Hydroxide.
  • Steam Reaction Products: Unlike highly reactive metals that form hydroxides, metals like Iron (Fe) react with steam to form Iron(II,III) oxide (Fe3O4). This reaction usually requires the metal to be red-hot.
  • Inert Metals: Copper, Silver, and Gold are considered noble metals in the context of water reactivity. Their lack of reaction is due to their very low electrode potential, placing them below hydrogen in the reactivity series, meaning they cannot displace hydrogen from water.

Important Points

  • The Reactivity Series is a crucial tool in General Science to predict how metals will behave with different reagents like acids, oxygen, and water.
  • The year 1807 was significant in chemistry as Sir Humphry Davy isolated Potassium and Sodium using electrolysis, proving their high affinity for other elements.
  • In industrial applications, the lack of reactivity of Copper with water makes it an ideal material for making hot water tanks and pipes, as it will not corrode or react with the water flowing through it.
  • The Hydrogen gas evolved during these reactions can be tested using a burning splinter, which produces a characteristic pop sound upon contact with the gas.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 53

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Match the organism in Column A with its action in

Column A.Column B
(a) Yeast(i) Causing cholera
(b) Protozoan(ii) Causing AIDS
(c) Bacteria(iii) Producing antibodies
(d) Virus(iv) Baking of bread (v) Causing malaria
  1. AOption (a)

    ​(a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)

  3. COption (c)

    (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a)-(i), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

​(a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Key Points

  • Yeast and Baking: Yeast is a single-celled fungus that is vital in the food industry. It reproduces rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during respiration. In the baking of bread, this gas bubbles and fills the dough, increasing its volume and making it light and fluffy. Hence, (a) matches with (iv).
  • Protozoans and Malaria: Protozoa are a group of single-celled eukaryotes. Plasmodium is a well-known protozoan parasite that causes Malaria in humans. It is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito, which acts as a carrier. Hence, (b) matches with (v).
  • Bacteria and Cholera: Bacteria are microscopic prokaryotic organisms. Cholera is a severe intestinal infection caused by the bacterium named Vibrio cholerae. It is typically spread through contaminated water or food in areas with poor sanitation. Hence, (c) matches with (i).
  • Virus and AIDS: Viruses are submicroscopic infectious agents that replicate only inside the living cells of an organism. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). This virus damages the immune system, interfering with the body's ability to fight infection. Hence, (d) matches with (ii).

Additional Information

  • Fermentation Process: This is the process of conversion of sugar into alcohol by microbes. Louis Pasteur discovered fermentation in 1857. While yeast is used for baking, it is also extensively used in the commercial production of alcohol and wine by growing it on natural sugars present in grains like barley, wheat, and rice.
  • Viral Characteristics: Viruses occupy a unique position between living and non-living things. They remain inactive outside a host but become active once they enter the body of a host organism, which may be a bacterium, plant, or animal. Common ailments like cold, influenza (flu), and coughs are caused by viruses.
  • Bacterial Roles: Not all bacteria are harmful. While some cause diseases like Tuberculosis and Typhoid, others like Lactobacillus promote the formation of curd from milk. Additionally, certain bacteria like Rhizobium are involved in nitrogen fixation in the roots of leguminous plants, enriching the soil.
  • Protozoan Diversity: Protozoans cause several diseases besides malaria, such as Amoebic dysentery (caused by Entamoeba histolytica) and Sleeping Sickness (caused by Trypanosoma). They are mostly aquatic and can be found in freshwater or marine environments.

Important Points

  • Antibody Production: Option (iii) refers to Producing antibodies. When a disease-carrying microbe enters our body, the immune system produces antibodies to fight the invader. These antibodies remain in the body to protect it from future attacks by the same pathogen. This is the fundamental principle behind vaccination.
  • Vaccine History: Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for smallpox in 1798. Today, vaccines are used globally to prevent diseases such as polio, cholera, hepatitis, and tuberculosis.
  • Biological Carriers: It is important to distinguish between the causative agent (the microbe) and the carrier (the insect or animal). For example, the virus is the causative agent of Dengue, but the female Aedes mosquito is the carrier.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 54

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Which of the following is not done during the process of treatment of waste water? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sludge is scraped out and skimmer removes the grease.

  2. BOption (b)

    Waste water enters a grit and sand removal tank.

  3. COption (c)

    Inorganic impurities such as nitrates and phosphates are removed by chlorination.

  4. DOption (d)

    Sand, grit and pebbles are made to settle by decreasing the speed of waste water.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Inorganic impurities such as nitrates and phosphates are removed by chlorination.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inorganic impurities such as nitrates and phosphates are removed by chlorination..

Key Points

  • Wastewater treatment, also known as sewage treatment, involves a series of physical, chemical, and biological processes to remove contaminants from water.
  • The first stage of treatment involves passing wastewater through a grit and sand removal tank. In this tank, the speed of the incoming wastewater is decreased to allow heavier solids like sand, grit, and pebbles to settle at the bottom. Hence, statement 2 and 4 are correct steps in the process.
  • The water is then shifted to a large sedimentation tank or clarifier where it is allowed to settle. Solids that settle at the bottom, such as human waste, are called sludge and are removed using a scraper. Floatable solids like oil and grease are removed by a skimmer. Hence, statement 1 is a correct step in the process.
  • Chlorination is typically a final stage in the treatment process, where chlorine or ozone is added to the water. The primary function of chlorination is disinfection, which kills pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and other microbes before the water is released into water bodies.
  • Chlorination is not designed to remove inorganic impurities like nitrates and phosphates. These nutrients are typically removed through tertiary treatment or specialized biological nutrient removal processes. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect and is the action not done as described.

Additional Information

  • Types of Impurities: Wastewater contains various contaminants. Organic impurities include human feces, animal waste, oil, and urea. Inorganic impurities consist of nitrates, phosphates, and metals. Biological contaminants include bacteria (such as Vibrio cholerae) and other microbes.
  • Secondary Treatment (Biological): After the primary physical removal of solids, air is pumped into the water in an aeration tank. This helps aerobic bacteria grow, which consume the remaining organic matter and food waste.
  • Sludge Management: The sludge removed during the clarifier stage is transferred to a separate tank where it is decomposed by anaerobic bacteria. This process produces biogas, which can be used as a fuel or to produce electricity. The dried sludge is used as manure.
  • Tertiary Treatment: This is the advanced stage of cleaning. It involves the use of chemicals and advanced filtration (like Reverse Osmosis) to remove specific inorganic ions like nitrogen and phosphorus, which can otherwise cause environmental issues.

Important Points

  • Environmental Impact: If nitrates and phosphates are not removed and are released into ponds or lakes, they lead to eutrophication. This causes excessive algal blooms, which deplete the oxygen in water and kill aquatic life.
  • Disinfectants: While Chlorine is the most common disinfectant used in municipal Sewage Treatment Plants (STP), Ozone ($O_3$) and Ultraviolet (UV) radiation are also used to ensure water is safe from waterborne diseases like cholera and typhoid.
  • World Water Day: To raise awareness about clean water and sanitation, 22 March is celebrated as World Water Day annually across the globe.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 55

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Read the following and choose the correct option

Assertion (A): Science textbooks should include biographies of scientists.

Reasoning (R): Narrating biographies of great scientists inspires students to learn how scientists make discoveries by following a universal scientific method.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reasoning for (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Importance of Including Biographies of Scientists in Science Textbooks

  • Biographies of scientists provide a narrative that inspires students and demonstrates the human aspect of scientific discoveries.
  • They highlight the challenges, perseverance, and methodologies used by scientists, encouraging students to engage in scientific thinking.
  • Learning about the lives and work of scientists fosters curiosity, critical thinking, and a deeper appreciation of the scientific process.

EXPLANATION:

  • Assertion (A): Science textbooks should include biographies of scientists.
  • This statement is true because including biographies helps students understand the personal journeys of scientists and motivates them to explore science further.
  • Reasoning (R): Narrating biographies of great scientists inspires students to learn how scientists make discoveries by following a universal scientific method.
  • This statement is also true because biographies demonstrate the application of the scientific method in real-life scenarios, which can inspire students.
  • The reasoning (R) correctly explains the assertion (A) because it provides the rationale for why including biographies in textbooks is beneficial for student learning.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct reasoning for (A).

CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 56

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Which of the following statements is true regarding cyclones? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Warm air rises and low pressure is created. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cool air rises and low pressure is created.

  3. COption (c)

    Warm air rises and high pressure is created

  4. DOption (d)

    Cool air rises and high pressure is created

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Warm air rises and low pressure is created. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Warm air rises and low pressure is created..

Key Points

  • A cyclone is a large-scale system of air that rotates around a center of low atmospheric pressure. The fundamental driver of this weather phenomenon is the temperature-density relationship of air.
  • When air is heated, typically over warm ocean waters, the molecules move faster and spread out, making the air less dense. This warm air then rises upward into the atmosphere. Hence, the statement "Warm air rises and low pressure is created" is correct.
  • As the warm air ascends, it leaves behind a region with fewer air molecules near the surface, which is characterized as a low-pressure area or a "depression."
  • Cool air, conversely, is denser and tends to sink, which creates high-pressure zones. The rising of cool air is physically inconsistent with standard atmospheric thermodynamics. Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
  • The surrounding high-pressure air then rushes into this low-pressure void. Due to the Earth's rotation, this incoming air does not move in a straight line but begins to spiral, initiating the cyclonic motion.

Additional Information

  • Coriolis Effect: This is a force caused by the rotation of the Earth. It deflects moving air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere (resulting in counter-clockwise rotation) and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere (resulting in clockwise rotation).
  • Formation Requirements: Tropical cyclones generally require a Sea Surface Temperature (SST) of at least 26.5°C (approx. 80°F) to a depth of about 50 meters. This heat acts as the "fuel" for the storm.
  • The Eye of the Cyclone: The very center of a mature cyclone is called the eye. It is a region of mostly calm weather, clear skies, and sinking air, which is paradoxically the area of lowest surface pressure.
  • Latent Heat: As the warm moist air rises, the water vapor in it condenses to form clouds. This process of condensation releases latent heat into the atmosphere, which further warms the surrounding air and intensifies the updraft.

Important Points

  • Regional Nomenclature: While the physical mechanism is the same, these storms are named differently based on location:
  • Hurricanes: Occur in the Atlantic Ocean and Northeast Pacific.
  • Typhoons: Occur in the Northwest Pacific Ocean (affecting East Asia).
  • Cyclones: Occur in the South Pacific and Indian Ocean.
  • Classification in India: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies these systems based on maximum sustained surface wind speed. A system is termed a "Cyclonic Storm" when winds reach 62–88 km/h, and a "Super Cyclone" when winds exceed 222 km/h.
  • Landfall: When a cyclone moves from the ocean onto land, it is called landfall. Because it is cut off from its primary energy source (moist warm ocean air) and faces surface friction, the cyclone typically dissipates or weakens rapidly.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 57

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Process A Galvanization to prevent rusting.

Process B Electroplating of copper.

  1. AOption (a)

     Process A is a physical change and B is a chemical change.

  2. BOption (b)

    Process A is a chemical change and B is a physical change.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the processes A and B are physical changes.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the processes A and B are chemical changes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 Process A is a physical change and B is a chemical change.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Process A is a physical change and B is a chemical change.

Key Points

  • Process A is Galvanization, which is the process of applying a protective Zinc coating to Iron or steel to prevent rusting. In many foundational science contexts, applying a layer or coating is categorized as a physical change because the base metal remains chemically unchanged, although it provides a barrier. Hence, statement A is correct.
  • Process B involves the Electroplating of copper. This is a process where a layer of Copper is deposited onto another metal using an electric current. This process relies on electrolysis and chemical reactions occurring at the electrodes, resulting in the formation of a new chemical bond between the surface and the deposited metal. Hence, statement B is correct.
  • A physical change refers to a change in the physical properties of a substance, such as shape, size, or state, without the formation of a new chemical substance.
  • A chemical change is a process where one or more substances are altered into one or more new and different substances with distinct chemical properties.
  • In this context, the distinction is made based on the electrochemical reaction involved in electroplating versus the protective coating mechanism in galvanization. Hence, the correct answer is Process A is a physical change and B is a chemical change.

Additional Information

  • Galvanization Details:
  • The most common method is hot-dip galvanizing, where parts are submerged in a bath of molten zinc at a temperature of approximately 450 degrees Celsius.
  • It protects the metal in two ways: it acts as a physical barrier and provides sacrificial protection, where the zinc corrodes in preference to the iron.
  • This process is widely used in construction, automotive industries, and infrastructure to increase the longevity of steel structures.
  • Electroplating Details:
  • Electroplating is a versatile technique used for corrosion resistance, aesthetic appeal, and electrical conductivity.
  • In copper electroplating, an electrolyte such as Copper Sulphate (CuSO4) is used to facilitate the movement of Copper ions.
  • The object to be plated acts as the cathode (negative electrode), while the copper source acts as the anode (positive electrode).
  • Rusting of Iron:
  • Rusting is a slow chemical change that occurs when Iron reacts with Oxygen and Moisture to form Hydrated Iron Oxide.
  • Factors such as salinity in water and high humidity can accelerate the rate of rusting.

Important Points

  • Chemical vs. Physical distinctions: While galvanization involves some minor alloying at the interface, it is often taught as a physical barrier method in contrast to the active electrolytic decomposition found in electroplating.
  • Applications: Galvanization is typically used for large-scale structural steel, whereas electroplating is used for precision items like jewelry, electronics, and machinery parts.
  • Prevention: Other methods to prevent rusting include painting, greasing, and alloying iron with chromium and nickel to create Stainless Steel.
CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 58

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

A ray of light travels from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium. What will be the change in the frequency of light ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase

  2. BOption (b)

    Decrease

  3. COption (c)

    No Change

  4. DOption (d)

    First increase and then decrease 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No Change

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Frequency of Light in Different Mediums

  • When light travels from one medium to another, its speed and wavelength change, but the frequency remains constant.
  • The frequency of light is a property of the source and is independent of the medium through which it travels.
  • For a wave traveling from an optically denser medium (higher refractive index) to an optically rarer medium (lower refractive index), the speed of light increases, and the wavelength becomes longer. However, the frequency of the wave does not change.

EXPLANATION:

  • When light travels from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium:
  • The speed of light increases because the rarer medium offers less resistance to the propagation of light.
  • The wavelength of light increases according to the relationship:

v = fλ, where:

  • v = speed of light in the medium
  • f = frequency of light
  • λ = wavelength of light
  • Since the speed of light changes and the wavelength adjusts accordingly, the frequency remains constant.
  • Frequency is determined by the source of light and does not depend on the medium through which the light propagates.

Therefore, the frequency of light does not change when it travels from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium.

CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 59

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Choose the correct statements from the given set of statements.

(A) Clayey soil contains sand and silt.

(B) Percolation of water is faster in loamy soil than clayey soil.

(C) Sandy soil has a greater proportion of big particles.

(D) Loamy soil does not contain humus.

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (C)

  3. COption (c)

    (C) and (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B) and (C)

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Types of Soil and Their Characteristics

  • Sandy soil contains a large proportion of sand particles, which are relatively large in size. It has large pore spaces and allows water to drain quickly.
  • Clayey soil contains a high proportion of fine clay particles. It has very small pore spaces and retains water for a longer time.
  • Loamy soil is a balanced mixture of sand, silt, clay, and humus. It is considered the most suitable soil for plant growth.
  • Percolation rate refers to the speed at which water passes through soil. It depends on the size of soil particles and pore spaces.

EXPLANATION:

  • Clayey soil mainly consists of fine clay particles and does not necessarily contain both sand and silt in significant amounts. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Loamy soil has larger pore spaces than clayey soil due to the presence of sand and organic matter. Therefore, water percolates faster through loamy soil than through clayey soil. This statement is correct.
  • Sandy soil contains the largest soil particles among the common soil types. Therefore, it has a greater proportion of big particles. This statement is correct.
  • Loamy soil contains humus, which improves soil fertility and water-holding capacity. This statement is also correct.

Therefore, the correct statements are that water percolates faster in loamy soil than in clayey soil, sandy soil has a greater proportion of big particles, and loamy soil contains humus.

CTET (Maths & Science) Official Paper-II (Held On: 08 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·Mathematics and Science
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Question 60

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2026• Mathematics and Science• Mathematics and Science

Which of the following parts of the solar cooker is responsible for greenhouse effect ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mirror

  2. BOption (b)

    Outer cover of the solar cooker

  3. COption (c)

    Glass sheet

  4. DOption (d)

    Black coloured coating inside the box

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Glass sheet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Glass sheet.

Key Points

  • The Glass sheet is the component in a solar cooker specifically responsible for the Greenhouse Effect. It acts as a selective transmitter of radiation.
  • It allows short-wavelength solar radiations (such as visible light and short-wave infrared rays) from the sun to pass through into the insulated box. Hence, the statement regarding its role in the greenhouse effect is correct.
  • Once the interior of the cooker and the food containers absorb this energy, they become hot and emit long-wavelength infrared radiation (heat).
  • The glass sheet is opaque to these longer wavelengths, meaning it does not allow the heat to escape back into the atmosphere. This trapping of heat causes the internal temperature to rise significantly, typically between 100°C to 140°C.
  • Without the glass cover, the heat absorbed by the black surfaces would be lost to the surroundings through convection and radiation, making it impossible to cook food efficiently.

Additional Information

  • Mirror (Reflector):
  • The Mirror used in a solar cooker is usually a plane mirror, although concave mirrors are used in certain high-temperature designs.
  • Its primary function is to reflect and focus additional sunlight into the solar box, thereby increasing the intensity of solar energy received by the cooker.
  • Black Coloured Coating:
  • The inner walls and the cooking utensils are painted black because black is a perfect absorber of heat.
  • A black surface can absorb approximately 98% of the incident solar radiation, converting it into thermal energy more effectively than any other colour.
  • Insulated Box:
  • The solar cooker consists of an outer and inner box, with the gap filled with insulating materials like glass wool or thermocol.
  • This insulation prevents the loss of heat through conduction, ensuring the trapped thermal energy remains concentrated on the food.
  • Advantages of Solar Cookers:
  • They are environmentally friendly as they use renewable solar energy and produce no carbon emissions or smoke.
  • Cooking is done at moderate temperatures, which helps in retaining the nutrients and vitamins of the food compared to high-flame pressure cooking.

Important Points

  • Solar Intensity: The efficiency of a solar cooker depends on the angle of the sun and the reflectivity of the mirror. In India, solar cookers are highly effective during the summer months due to high solar insolation.
  • Limitations: A major limitation is that solar cookers cannot be used at night or during cloudy weather. Additionally, they are generally not suitable for frying or making chapatis, which require very high instantaneous heat.
  • Historical Context: Solar cooking technology has been promoted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in India through various subsidy schemes to reduce the dependence on LPG and firewood.

How should I prepare for Mathematics and Science in Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.