English Comprehension PYQs

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The Kanaganahalli site is located on the left bank of the Bhima River in Chitapur taluk of Kalaburagi, Karnataka.
• Excavations at the site have revealed the remains of a large stupa, known as the Maha Stupa, which is believed to have been constructed between the 1^st and 3^rd centuries AD.
• The site was accidentally discovered in 1986 during the excavation of the Chandralamba temple complex at Sannati.
• The Kanaganahalli archaeological site is an important source of information about the spread of Buddhism in South India.
• Evidence of carved relief depictions of Emperor Ashoka with his queen and attendants has been found at this site.

Additional Information

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is directly under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture and is the lead institution for archaeology.
• It is an autonomous institution.
• It is charged with preserving the cultural heritage of our nation.
• Its focus is on the conservation of physical and tangible heritage accumulated in ancient monuments and archaeological sites.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The strength of a volcano is measured by the Volcanic Explosive Index. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Volcanic Explosive Index (VEI) is a scale used to measure the explosiveness of volcanic eruptions based on factors like volume of ejected material, eruption cloud height, and other characteristics.
• Iceland and Philippines were created by volcanic activity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both Iceland and the Philippines are geologically active regions formed by volcanic activity. The islands in these regions were primarily shaped through volcanic eruptions and tectonic movements.
• Volcanic soils are rich, deep, and fertile and allow intensive agriculture to take place. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Volcanic soils can indeed be rich and fertile due to the minerals and nutrients present in the volcanic ash and rock. This fertility often allows for productive agricultural practices in volcanic regions.
• So, all three statements are accurate, indicating that option 4) 1, 2, and 3 is the correct answer.

Based on the characteristics provided, the cloud type that matches these descriptions is option 2) Cumulonimbus.

• Born through convection: Cumulonimbus clouds are formed through strong vertical convection currents.
• Produces hail, thunder, and lightning: These clouds are known for producing intense weather conditions such as hail, thunderstorms, and lightning.
• Large cauliflower-shaped towers with anvil tops: Cumulonimbus clouds often have towering, cauliflower-shaped structures with flat, spreading tops that resemble an anvil.

Therefore, based on the given characteristics, Cumulonimbus fits the description provided.

The correct answer is Scatter graph.

Key Points

• ​According to the given information, a Scatter chart would be most suitable for the presentation of stored data.
• A scatter graph is ideal for visualizing the relationship between two variables.
• It plots individual data points on a two-dimensional plane, with one variable represented on the x-axis and the other on the y-axis.
• Each data point represents a combination of values for both variables, allowing for direct observation of any patterns or correlations between them.
• This type of graph is particularly useful when analyzing the relationship between continuous or numerical data sets, such as population size and number of services.

Additional Information

• Pie charts:
• These are suitable for representing proportions within a set of data, not for showing relationships between two different sets.
• Bar Charts:
• Bar charts are useful for comparing categories or groups against each other, such as comparing the number of services provided by different regions.
• However, they may not clearly display the relationship between two continuous variables.
• Triangular graphs:
• ​Triangular graphs, or ternary plots, are used for three variables that add up to a constant.
• They may not be suitable for comparing two variables such as population size and number of services.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

India has a total of 7516.1 km of coastline which touches 13 states and Union Territories. 

Key Points

• Gujarat has a coastline of 1600 kilometers alone.
• The coastlines that follow Gujarat in the longest length of coastline in rank wise orders are-

Therefore, Gujarat has the largest coastline.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Visakhapatnam​ Port:
• Visakhapatnam Port is one of 13 major ports in India and the only major port in Andhra Pradesh.
• It is India's third-largest state-owned port by volume of cargo handled and the largest on the Eastern Coast.
• It is located midway between the Chennai and Kolkata Ports on the Bay of Bengal.
• It is an example of a landlocked harbor. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Deendayal Port (Kandla Port):
• Kandla is a port on the Gulf of Kachch of the Arabian sea.
• Kandla was constructed in the 1950s as the chief seaport serving western India.
• Kandla is a tidal port. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Kandla Port was renamed as Deendayal Port in 2017 under the Indian Ports Act, of 1908.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

According to Forest Survey 2021 & 2011, forest with there area as follow-

• Hence option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Very Dense Forests (VDF):
• The Lands with forest cover having a canopy density of 70% and more are called Very Dense Forests (VDF).
• Moderately Dense Forests (MDF):
• The Land with forest cover having a canopy density of 40-70% is called the Moderately Dense Forest (MDF).
• Open Forests (OF):
• The Lands with forest cover having a canopy density of 10-40% are called Open Forests.
• Scrubs:
• The degraded forest lands which have a Canopy density of less than 10% are called Scrubs.

Important Points

• According to the report, India's total forest and tree cover is now spread across 80.9 million hectares, which is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.
• The total tree-and-forest cover in the country includes an increase of 1,540 square kilometres of forest cover and 721 sq km of tree cover compared to the 2019 report.
• The top five states in terms of increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km), Telangana (632 sq km), Odisha (537 sq km), Karnataka (155 sq km), and Jharkhand (110 sq km).

the correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• National Education Policy, 2020:
• It is based on the recommendations of the Kasturirangan and T.S.R. Subramanian committees.
• It seeks to promote multilingualism in schools and colleges.
• It proposes an academic bank of credits to enable transfers of credits between institutions.
• The Union Cabinet has approved the new National Education Policy 2020 with an aim to introduce several changes in the Indian education system – from the school to the college level.
• Its aims at making “India a global knowledge superpower”.
• The two earlier education policies were brought in 1968 and 1986.
• The National Education Policy as submitted by the Kasturirangan Committee submitted an education policy that seeks to address the following challenges facing the existing education system:
• Quality
• Affordability
• Equity
• Access
• Accountability
• By 2025, at least 50% of learners through the school and higher education system shall have exposure to vocational education, for which a clear action plan with targets and timelines will be developed.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Vocational education will be integrated in the educational offerings of all secondary schools in a phased manner over the next decade.
• Towards this, secondary schools will also collaborate with ITIs, polytechnics, local industry, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Skill labs will also be set up and created in the schools in a hub and spoke model which will allow other schools to use the facility.
• Higher education institutions will offer vocational education either on their own or in partnership with industry and NGOs. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The correct answer is Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index 2020-21 has been developed in India in collaboration with the United Nations.
• NITI Aayog launched its index in 2018 to monitor the country's progress on the targets through data-driven assessment and foster a competitive spirit among states and union territories in achieving them.
• Kerala retained its position at the top of the rankings in the third edition of the index with 75 points, followed by Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh, both with 72 points.
• At the other end of the scale, Bihar, Jharkhand and Assam were the worst-performing states.

Additional Information

​The 17 goals under the Sustainable Development Goals are as mentioned below:

Key Points Article 51 

• Article 51 of the Constitution of India lists the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are guidelines for the government on how to promote the welfare of the people. One of the Directive Principles is to promote international peace and security. This can be done by:
• Encouraging settlement of international disputes by arbitration
• Fostering respect for international law
• Cooperating with other nations for the promotion of world peace
• The use of UN peacekeeping forces is not mentioned in Article 51. This is because the UN peacekeeping forces are not a part of the Indian government. They are a multinational force that is deployed by the UN Security Council to help resolve international disputes.
• The other options are all mentioned in Article 51.
• Option 1, "Promote international peace and security," is the main objective of the Directive Principles.
• Option 2, "Maintain just and honourable relations between nations," is a necessary condition for promoting international peace and security.
• Option 4, "Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration," is a specific way to promote international peace and security.

The correct answer is Fidel Castro.

Key Points

• Fidel Castro was not in the main leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in its initial phase.
• Fidel Castro was in fact a prominent leader during the formative phase of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).
• The Non-Aligned Movement was established in 1961 and Cuban leader Fidel Castro played an important role in this movement.

Additional Information

• Non-Aligned Movement
• It was formed during the Cold War as an organization of states that did not wish to formally associate themselves with the United States or the Soviet Union but wished to remain independent or neutral.
• The first NAM summit took place in September 1961 in Belgrade, Yugoslavia.
• The Non-Aligned Movement was founded and its first conference (Belgrade Conference) was held in 1961 under the leadership of Josip Broz Tito of Yugoslavia, Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt, Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana and Sukarno of Indonesia.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

Organisation of Production in Medieval India:

• Craft production was organised in villages as well as qasbas. There also existed imperial Karkhanas.
• In rural areas, artisans produced articles of daily use.
• Various records show that the balutas were never employed by separate families. Rather they were servants of the village as a whole. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The village artisans and servants in these regions were called balutedars. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This system was more organized in Deccan and Maharashtra. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Important Points

• Though agriculture formed the occupation of the bulk of the people, a variety of crafts also existed on a significant scale in rural as well as urban areas of the country.
• These crafts included textile, pottery making, dyeing, sugar making, metal works, paper making, woodwork, arms and armour manufacturing, ship-building, chemical works etc.
• The textile production was one of the most widely practiced crafts of medieval India.
• The Indian weavers produced four major types of fabric - cotton, silk, woollen, and mixed coarse cotton.
• Bengal, Lahore, Agra, Awadh, Patna, Fatehpur Sikri and Gujarat etc. were prominent cotton textile production regions.
• Kashmir, Lahore and Agra were major shawl and carpet making centres.
• Apart from manufacturing, Bengal and Gujarat were renowned for the export of textile goods.

The correct answer is John Lawrence.

Key Points

• In 1863, during the British colonial rule in India, the Viceroy of India John Lawrence decided to shift the summer capital of the British Raj to Shimla.
• The idea behind the move was to escape the scorching heat of the Indian plains during the summer months.
• Shimla remained the summer capital of British India until India gained independence in 1947.

Additional Information

• Lord Dalhousie served as Governor-General of India from 1848–1856.
• Lord Dalhousie took possession of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh on February 13, 1856, accusing him of misrule.
• The first attempt towards railway construction in India was made by Lord Dalhousie in 1853 AD. It was laid between Bombay and Thane during the time of Dalhousie.
• For the first time during his tenure, a separate Public Works Department was created.
• Lord Mayo (1869–1872)
• Establishment of Indian Statistical Survey.
• Establishment of Agriculture and Commerce Department.
• Lord William Bentinck (1828–1835): The following various events occurred during his tenure as Governor-General:
• Abolition of Sati and other cruel rites (1829).
• Suppression of Thuggee (1830).
• Charter Act of 1833.
• The Resolution of 1835, and educational reforms and the introduction of English as an official language.

Narayan Surve is the author of Maze Vidyapeeth, the famous poem about the life of the working class of Bombay.

Key Points

• Narayan Surve was a Marathi poet and activist who is best known for his poem "Maze Vidyapeeth" (My University).
• The poem is a powerful and moving account of the life of the working class in Bombay, and it has been praised for its realism, its empathy, and its revolutionary spirit.
• Surve was born into a poor family in Bombay in 1924.
• He was orphaned at a young age and had to fend for himself on the streets.
• He worked as a labourer and a rickshaw puller, and he experienced firsthand the poverty and exploitation of the working class.
• Surve's experiences in the working class informed his poetry.
• He wrote about the struggles of the working class with compassion and understanding.
• He also wrote about the need for revolution to create a more just and equitable society.
• "Maze Vidyapeeth" is one of Surve's most famous poems.
• It is a long poem that tells the story of a young man from a poor family who grows up to become a worker in Bombay.
• The poem describes the harsh realities of life for the working class in Bombay, including poverty, exploitation, and violence.
• The poem also expresses the hope that the working class can overcome its oppression and create a better world.
• The young man in the poem eventually becomes a union leader and fights for the rights of the working class.
• He is eventually killed by the police, but his death inspires others to continue the fight for justice.
• "Maze Vidyapeeth" is a powerful and moving poem that gives voice to the struggles of the working class.
• It is a poem that is still relevant today, and it continues to inspire people to fight for a better world.

The correct answer is Radhakanta Deb.

Key Points

• Radhakanta Deb founded the Dharma Sabha in Calcutta in 1830.
• The organisation was founded primarily to combat current social reform initiatives led by figures like Raja Ram Mohun Roy and Henry Derozio.
• The impetus for the formation of the organization came from a new law enacted by colonial British rule that outlawed the practice of sati in the country.
• The goal of the new organization was to overturn the law, which some Hindus saw as an intrusion by the British into the religious affairs of the indigenous people.
• The Dharma Sabha campaigned against the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856, submitting a petition with nearly four times the number of signatures as Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar's plea for it.
• Despite the objections and the fact that it was regarded a flagrant violation of Hindu norms at the time, Lord Dalhousie himself finished the measure, which was then passed by Lord Canning.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

• The United Nations General Assembly at its 75^th session in March 2021 declared 2023 the International Year of Millets (IYM 2023). Hence option 3 is correct
• FAO is the lead agency for celebrating the Year in collaboration with other relevant stakeholders.
• Millets can grow on arid lands with minimal inputs and are resilient to changes in climate.
• They are therefore an ideal solution for countries to increase self-sufficiency and reduce reliance on imported cereal grains.

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates.

Key Points

• United Arab Emirates leg spinner Karthik Meiyappan took his first hat-trick of the T20 World Cup 2022 by sending back three Sri Lankan batsmen in the first-round match.
• The ICC Men's T20 World Cup is a Twenty20 international cricket tournament, organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC) since 2007.

Additional Information

• ICC Men's T20 World Cup:
• The United States and West Indies will co-host the 2024 edition.
• India and Sri Lanka will jointly host the 2026 edition.
• Australia and New Zealand will co-host the 2028 edition.
• The 2030 edition will be co-hosted by the United Kingdom and Ireland.

The correct answer is It is formed primarily as a nuclear weapon overseer.

Key Points

• The Wassenaar Arrangement is an international export control regime that was established to contribute to regional and international security and stability by promoting transparency and greater responsibility in the transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.
• It is not primarily focused on nuclear weapons but rather on conventional arms and dual-use technologies.
• The arrangement aims to prevent the destabilizing accumulation of these items and technologies and to ensure they are not used for the development or enhancement of military capabilities that could undermine regional and global security.
• There are 42 participating nations in the Arrangement.
• India is the current Chairman of the Wassenaar Arrangement. The Chair of the Wassenaar Arrangement is a position that rotates annually among participating states.
• India joined the Wassenaar Arrangement in 2017.

Additional Information

• Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) for control of nuclear-related technology.
• Australia Group (AG) for the control of chemical and biological technology that could be weaponized.
• Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) for the control of rockets and other aerial vehicles capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction.

The correct answer is P. T. Usha.

Key Points

• Pilavullakandi Thekkeparambil Usha, known as P. T. Usha, nicknamed Payyoli Express, is a retired Indian track and field athlete.
• She has been associated with Indian athletics since 1979.
• She is often called the "Queen of Indian Track and Field".
• Terminologies used in Athletics are Relay, Photofinish, Track, Lane, Hurdles, Shotput, Discus Throw, Hammer Throw, Triple Jump, High Jump, Cross Country, etc.

Additional Information

• Hima Das is the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in a track event at the IAAF World U20 Championships.
• She is an Indian sprinter from the state of Assam. It has been nicknamed Dhing Express.
• Dutee Chand is very famous in the field of athletics.
• She is a sprinter and competes in 100 meters events.
• Shiny Kurisingal Wilson is a retired Indian athlete.
• She has been a National Champion in 800 metres for 14 years.

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1.

Key Points

Sahitya Akademi Awards 2022:

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Award is given in the field of literature.
• This award is given annually by the Sahitya Akademi (National Literary Academy of India), New Delhi.
• It is given in 24 languages including Hindi and English.
• The objective of the award is to recognize and promote excellence in Indian writing and acknowledge new trends.
• Makhanlal Chaturvedi was the first prize recipient in the Hindi category in the year 1955.
• RK Narayan was the first recipient in the English category in the year 1960.