UPPSC Polytechnic Lecturer Civil 23 Dec 2021 Official Paper II (Previous Year Paper)

The Correct Answer is Chandauli District.

Key Points

• The Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Chandauli district of Uttar Pradesh state in central India.
• It is well endowed with beautiful picnic spots, dense forests, and scenic waterfalls like Rajdari and Devdari that attract tourists every year to its vicinity.
• Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated about 70 kilometers from the historic city of Varanasi.
• The area was made a hunting preserve for the rulers of Benares in the second half of the 18^th century.
• The wildlife sanctuary was established in May 1957. Asiatic lions were introduced at Chandra Prabha in 1958.

Additional Information

• Importance of Wildlife Sanctuaries: There are a number of reasons for establishing wildlife sanctuaries. Some of the reasons are listed below:
• The wildlife sanctuaries are established to protect endangered species.
• It is quite difficult to always relocate the animals from their natural habitat, therefore, protecting them in their natural environment is advantageous.
• The endangered species are specially monitored in the wildlife sanctuaries. If they reproduce and grow in number while under protection, few specimens can be kept for breeding in the conservation parks for their survival.
• Biologist activities and researches are permitted in the wildlife sanctuaries so that they can learn about the animals living there.
• A few sanctuaries take in injured and abandoned animals and rehabilitate them to health before releasing them in the forest.
• Wildlife sanctuaries preserve endangered species and protect them from humans and predators.

The correct answer is 15.

Key Points

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• Journalists Maria Ressa, of the Philippines, and Dmitry Muratov, of Russia, have won the 2021 Nobel Peace Prize.
• They have been honored for their efforts to safeguard freedom of expression, which is a precondition for democracy and lasting peace.
• Maria Angelita Ressa is a Filipino-American journalist and author, the co-founder and CEO of Rappler, and the first Filipino recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize.
• Dmitry Andreyevich Muratov is a Russian journalist, television presenter, and editor-in-chief of the Russian newspaper Novaya Gazeta.

Additional Information 

• Nobel prize in chemistry was won by Benjamin List and David MacMillan in 2021.
• Nobel prize in Medicine was won by David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian in 2021.

The correct answer is Article 72.

Key Points

• Pardoning Power of the President:
• Constitution’s Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons to persons tried and convicted of any offence where:
• The Sentence is for an offence against a Union Law;
• A sentence is by a court-martial (military court); and
• It is a sentence of death.
• This pardoning power is independent of the Judiciary;
• It is executive power.
• But, the President does not sit as a court of appeal, while exercising this power.
• We may point out that, it is a power which the Sovereign exercises against its judicial mandate.
• Hence option 4 is NOT correct.

 Important Points

• The pardoning power of the President includes the following:
• Pardon: Completely frees the convict from all sentences, punishments, and disqualifications.
• Commutation: Substitution of punishment into a lighter form.
• For example, a death sentence may be substituted for rigorous imprisonment.
• Remission: Implies reducing the period of a sentence without changing its character.
• For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.
• Respite: It means awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the pregnancy of a woman offender or the physical disability of a convict.
• Reprieve: It denotes a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 4.

 Key Points

• The latitude approximately 23°27′ N of the terrestrial equator is called tropic of cancer.
• There are 17 countries(Including Taiwan) through which the tropic of cancer passes.
• The tropic of cancer is the only latitude pass through India.
• The tropic of cancer passes through 8 Indian states.

Important Points

• The 8 Indian states through which tropic of cancer passes through are:

1. Gujarat.
2. Rajasthan.
3. Madhya Pradesh.
4. Chhatisgarh.
5. Jharkhand.
6. West Bengal.
7. Tripura.
8. Mizoram.

• Mahi River is the only river in India that passes the tropic of cancer twice.
• The city nearest to the tropic of cancer in India is Udaipur city in Tripura.

The correct answer is A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1.

Key Points

Additional Information 

• Rigveda - The oldest Veda is the Rigveda. It has 1028 hymns called ‘Suktas’ and is a collection of 10 books called ‘Mandalas.’
• Samaveda - Known as the Veda of melodies and chants, Samaveda dates back to 1200-800 BCE. This Veda is related to public worship.
• Yajurveda - Stands to mean ‘Worship Knowledge’, Yajurveda dates back to 1100-800 BCE; corresponding with Samaveda. It compiles ritual-offering mantras/chants. These chants were offered by the priest alongside a person who used to perform a ritual (in most cases yajna fire.)
• Atharvaveda - Stands to mean a tatpurusha compound of Atharvan, an ancient sage, and knowledge (atharvan+knowledge), it dates back to 1000-800 BCE.

The correct answer is Part XI.

Key Points

• India is a  "Union of States" according to the Constitution of India.
• Center-state relation is mentioned in Part XI of the constitution.
• It divides into the legislative, executive, and financial powers between the centre and the states.
• The center-state relations are divided into three parts - 
• Legislative Relations (Article 245-255)
• Administrative Relations (Article 256-263)
• Financial Relations (Article 268-293)
• Part XIII - consists of Articles on trade and Commerce inside the territory of India.
• Articles 301 - 305 on Freedom of Trade and Commerce.
• Article 306 - Repealed - Replaced by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956.

Additional Information 

• Originally the constitution contained 395 articles divided into 22 parts and 8 schedules.
• At present, there are 448 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules.​

The correct answer is Honduras.

Key PointsUN Human Rights Council Elections for 2022-2024 and the Responsibility to Protect

• On 14 October 2021, the UN General Assembly elected Argentina, Benin, Cameroon, Eritrea, Finland, The Gambia, Honduras, India, Kazakhstan, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malaysia, Montenegro, Paraguay, Qatar, Somalia, United Arab Emirates, and the United States of America to the Human Rights Council (HRC) for the 2022-2024 term. With the elections of Argentina, Finland, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Montenegro, Paraguay, Qatar, and the United States of America, 19 of the 47 Council members in 2022 will be “Friends of the Responsibility to Protect” – having appointed an R2P Focal Point and/or joined the Group of Friends of R2P in New York and Geneva.
• The Human Rights Council and its mechanisms and procedures – including the Universal Periodic Review (UPR), investigative mechanisms, special procedures and treaty bodies, as well as the technical assistance provided by the Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) – all play an essential role in providing early warning of the risk factors that can lead to crimes against humanity, ethnic cleansing, war crimes and genocide, and provide recommendations to prevent their recurrence. 

Additional Information

The Global Centre for the Responsibility to Protect encourages all HRC members to:

• Improve the link between human rights and peace and security:
• Ask the UN Secretary-General to bring to the attention of the Security Council relevant decisions and reports by the HRC;
• Encourage the UN General Assembly to ensure information collected by HRC-mandated special procedures and international investigative mechanisms, is relayed to the Security Council in a timely manner;
• Encourage the Security Council to request regular briefings by OHCHR and relevant HRC mechanisms and procedures;
• Promote continued dialogue on human rights and the prevention of mass atrocities.
• Make better use of the UPR to detect early warning signs of potential mass atrocity crimes:
• In preparation for your national report, consider what action your government has taken to uphold its primary responsibility to protect all populations in your territory;
• Use the UPR to ask relevant questions regarding the ratification and implementation of core human rights treaties, as well as regarding risk factors related to systematic violations and abuses of human rights.
• Ensure the HRC responds in a timely and effective manner to atrocity situations:
• Actively support the adoption of resolutions addressing serious violations of human rights;
• Support HRC-mandated investigative mechanisms;
• Mandate that special procedures and investigative mechanisms conduct country-specific atrocity risk assessments, including by utilizing the UN Framework of Analysis for Atrocity Crimes;
• Where an imminent risk of mass atrocity crimes is detected, hold a special session in order to help mobilize appropriate international diplomatic action.
• Make use of the Irish Principles, which layout independent and objective considerations to guide decisions on whether and when the HRC should respond to a country-specific situation.

The correct answer is B. N. Rao.

Key Points

The drafting of the document called the constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly.

• Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946.
• Its first meeting was held in December 1946.

Important Points

Sir Benegal Narsing Rau, CIE, (26 February 1887 - 30 November 1953) was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India.

• He was the Constitutional Advisor to Constituent Assembly.
• He was also India's representative to the United Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952.
• One of the foremost Indian jurists of his time, Rau helped draft the constitutions of Burma in 1947 and India in 1950.
• As India's representative on the United Nations Security Council (1950–52), he was serving as president of the council when it recommended armed assistance to South Korea (June 1950).
• Later he was a member of the Korean War post-Armistice United Nations Command Military Armistice Commission (UNCMAC).

Thus, we can say that B. N. Rao was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India.

Additional Information

• Kavalam Madhava Panikkar (3 June 1895 - 10 December 1963), popularly known as Sardar K. M. Panikkar, was an Indian statesman and diplomat. He was also a professor, newspaper editor, historian and novelist.
• K.T Shah was elected to the Constituent Assembly from Bihar. He was an active member of the Assembly who made immense contributions during the debates. He was a socialist and intervened on issues ranging from freedom of speech, presidential elections, citizenship and separation of powers.

The correct answer is Khudiram Bose.

​ Important Points

• Khudiram Bose was hanged for his attempt to assassinate a British judge, Magistrate Kingsford.
• Bose was executed on August 11, 1908, after being held guilty for the famous Muzaffarpur conspiracy where he, made an attempt on the life of Douglas Kingsford, a British judge in colonial India.
• Prafulla and Khudiram Bose tried to assassinate the District Judge, Mr. Kingsford by throwing bombs at the carriage in which Kingsford was supposed to travel but he was not in the carriage and two British women were killed.

 Key Points

• Khudiram Bose was born on 3 December 1889, He was an Indian revolutionary from the Bengal Presidency who opposed British rule of India.
• At the age of 15, Bose joined the Anushilan Samiti, an early 20^th-century organization that propounded revolutionary activities in Bengal.
• At the time of his hanging, Khudiram was 18 years old making him one of the 2^nd youngest revolutionaries in India.
• On July 13, 1908, Bose was finally sentenced to death.

Additional Information

• Douglas Kingsford colonial British judicial officer, former
• Chief Presidency Magistrate of  Calcutta was a Kingsford was the Chief Magistrate of the Presidency Court of Alipore and had overseen the trials of Bhupendranath Dutta and other editors of Jugantar, sentencing them to rigorous imprisonment.
• During  Kingsford time Bengal was a hotbed of revolutionaries and freedom fighters, and freedom movements were more visible in Bengal than in other regions.

Important Points about Kakori

• Kakori Conspiracy is also known as Kakori Kand, Kakori Conspiracy Case, or The Kakori Train Robbery.
• It was an armed robbery that took place on August 9, 1925, on a train in central Uttar Pradesh.
• The robbery occurred at the town of Kakori, about 16 km from Lucknow which was where the train was headed.
• The objectives of the Kakori Kand/Conspiracy were to:
• Gain funds for the HRA by taking money from the British Administration through force.
• Create a positive image of the HRA among Indians by attacking a high-profile British government target with minimum collateral damage.
• The robbery was planned by Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqullah Khan.
• It was executed by Bismil, Khan, Chandrashekhar Azad, Rajendra Lahiri, Shachindra Bakshi, Keshab Chakravarty, Murari Lal Khanna(Gupta), Banwari Lal, Mukundi Lal Gupta, and Manmathnath Gupta.
• Though no passengers were targeted by the revolutionaries, one passenger named Ahmed Ali was killed in the crossfire between the guards and revolutionaries.
• This made it a manslaughter case.
• The final verdict of the Kakori Kand was pronounced in July 1927. Around 15 people were let off by the court for lack of evidence. Death sentences were awarded to:
• Ram Prasad Bismil
• Ashfaqullah Khan
• Thakur Roshan Singh
• Rajendra Lahiri

The correct answer is 2015.

Important Points

• Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’s campaign was started in October 2015 A. D.
• The initiative Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat was announced by the Hon'ble Prime Minister on the occasion of the 140^th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat (EBSB) has been one of the major flagship programs of the Government to bring in cultural integration of the country as a part of the vision to build a New India by 2022.

Key Points

• Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat program aims to enhance interaction & promote mutual understanding between people of different states/UTs through the concept of state/UT pairing.
• The aim of online Ek Bharat Shresth Bharat Saptah was to foster the spirit of National Integration and solidarity by overcoming cultural, religious, geographical, environmental, and linguistic barriers from all state NCC cadets.
• Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat of NCC is an annual camp for national integration conducted between paired states.

Additional Information 

• M/o Human Resource Development (HRD) is the nodal ministry for the EBSB program.
• The Minister of Education, formerly the Minister of Human Resources Development (1985-2020), is the head of the Ministry of Education and one of India's cabinet ministers.
• The current minister is Dharmendra Pradhan and its Headquater is located in New Delhi.

The correct answer is Raja Raja.

 Key Points

• A delegation sent to China by the great Chola emperor Rajaraja over trade relations 1,000 years ago, a Shiva temple in China, and the use of Chinese umbrellas centuries ago shed light on ancient links between Tamil Nadu and the dragon land.
• During the reign of the Song dynasty (960-1279), Raja Raja Chola the Great sent a delegation of emissaries to China by 1014 following a representation from the Chinese rulers, seeking trade ties.

Additional Information

• Rajaraja Chola(985-1014AD)
• The original name, Arumolivarman, who crowned himself as Rajaraja I in 985 A D the next thirty years of his rule formed the formative period of Chola imperialism.
• He was the successor of Parantaka II,
• The Chola kingdom grew under him into an extensive and well-knit empire, efficiently organized and administered and possessing a powerful standing army and navy.
• Rajaraja began his conquests by attacking the confederation between the rulers of the Pandya and Kerala kingdoms and of Ceylon.
• Polonnaruva became the capital of Chola province in North Ceylon after the defeat of Mahinda V, the Ceylonese king.
• He also annexed the Maldives. Elsewhere, several parts of modern Mysore were conquered and annexed which intensified their rivalry with the Chalukyas.
• Rajaraja built the magnificent Shiva temple of Brihadeshwara or Rajaraja temple at Thanjavur which was com­pleted in 1010.
• It is considered a remarkable piece of architecture in the South Indian style.
• Rajaraja I also encouraged Sri Mara Vijayottungavarman, the Sailendra ruler of Sri Vijaya to build a Buddhist Vihara at Negapatam.
• This vihara was called ‘Chudamani Vihara’ after the father of Sri Mara.

The correct answer is 11 December 2019.

Key Points 

• The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 has been passed by the Parliament, with the Rajya Sabha approving it on 11 December 2019.
• The bill amends the Citizenship Act, 1955 to make illegal migrants of six communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan eligible for Indian citizenship.
• The communities are:
• Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians.

The correct answer is c.

Key Points

Additional Information

• Mahavir Swami Wildlife Sanctuary:-
• Established in the year 1977.
• Total area: 05 sq km
• It is located in the Lalitpur district.
• This sanctuary is home to Wolves, Wild cats, Hyenas, Wild Dogs, Mongoose, etc.
• Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary:-
• ​Established in the year 1982.
• Total area: 501 sq km.
• It is located in the Mirzapur district.
• It is famous for Black Bucks.
• Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary:
• It is in the Lakhimpur Kheri district not in Lucknow.
• Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary was founded in 1972.
• Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary is in Bahraich.
• Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1975.
• Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary is in Kannauj.
• Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary was founded in 1972.
• ​Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary.
• The largest bird Sanctuary of Uttar Pradesh is Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary.
• Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary is situated in the Kannauj district of UP
• Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary covers 80 square km.
• Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary is home to various migratory birds.
• Jackal, blue bull, mongoose, fishing cat, and monkeys are also found in Lakh Bahosi Sanctuary.

Important Points

• There is a total of 11 Wildlife sanctuaries in Uttar Pradesh.
• First Wildlife Sanctuary: Chandraprabha
• Set up in 1957 in Chandauli.
• Largest Wildlife Sanctuary: Hastinapur
• Total area: 2073 sq km.
• Smallest Wildlife Sanctuary: Mahavir Swami
• Total area: 05 sq km.

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Kushinagar International Airport on 20 October 2021.
• The inaugural flight will land at the airport from Colombo, Sri Lanka carrying 125 dignitaries & Buddhist Monks.
• Inauguration of the Kushinagar Airport will facilitate the pilgrims from across different parts of the world by providing seamless connectivity to various Buddhist sites in the region.
• Tourism inflow is expected to rise by up to 20% with the inauguration of the flight.
• The Kushinagar International Airport will not only put the pilgrimage site on International Aviation Map but also give a boost to the economic development of the region.
• It will have a multiplier effect on the hospitality industry by promoting hotel business, tourism agencies, restaurants, etc.
• It will create employment for local people by opening an immense amount of opportunities in feeder transport services, local guide jobs, etc.
• The development of the airport at Kushinagar will help in developing Kushinagar as one of the four principal places of Buddhist Pilgrimage.
• The airport will serve a population of more than two crores since the airport has a hinterland of around10-15 Districts and will be a great support for the large migrant population of Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Western / Northern Part of Bihar.
• This will also boost the opportunities for the export of horticultural products like bananas, strawberries, and mushrooms.
• The Kushinagar Airport is spread across 3600sqm. It is built at an estimated cost of ₹260 crores.
• The new terminal is equipped to handle 300 passengers during peak hours.
• At present, two international airports - Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport at Lucknow and Lal Bahadur Shastri International Airport at Varanasi -- are operational in the state while another one is coming up at Jewar in Gautam Budh Nagar.
• Now Kushinagar became the Third International Airport of Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Shillong.

Key Points

• Shillong, the capital city of Meghalaya, has been selected as the 100^th Smart City of India by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs after evaluating the proposal submitted by it.
• With the selection of Shillong, the total proposed investment in the finally selected 100 cities under the Smart Cities Mission would be Rs.2,05,018 crores.
• Till now, 99 smart cities have been selected in four rounds of competition, and with this announcement; the selection of 100 cities has been completed under the Smart Cities Mission.
• Previously, 20 cities were selected in January 2016, 13 cities in May 2016, 27 cities in September 2016, 30 cities in June 2017, and nine cities in January this year.
• The Smart Cities Mission was launched on June 25, 2015, with the objective of strengthening urban infrastructure through the application of smart solutions and giving a decent quality of life to citizens.

The correct answer is  Narayan Meghaji Lokhande.

Key Points

• Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was the pioneer in organizing the labor movement in British India.
• Lokhande is acclaimed as the Father of the Trade Union Movement in India.
• The first labor association in India,  'Bombay Mill Hands Association' was started by him.
• The Government of India issued a postage stamp with his photograph in 2005.

The correct answer is Amin Divi Island.

 Key Points

Amindivi Islands, Lakshadweep

• Amindivi Islands build up the northern part of Lakshadweep and consists of several small islands that are popular tourist attractions around the place.
• These islands are namely – Chetlat, Kadmat, Bitra, Amini, and Kiltan.
• Amindivi Islands are one of the three major island groups in Lakshadweep.
• Lakshadweep is an exotic archipelago, sun-kissed amidst the gigantic Arabian Sea boasting soft white sands, and crystal blue water accompanied with some of the best seafood delights.
• The main attraction of Amindivi Islands is hidden in its very name, the name comes from the word ‘Amini’ which roughly translates to a heavenly place
• Kadmat Island offers a bountiful of water sports options like scuba diving, swimming.

Nearby Attractions of Amindivi Islands

• Amindivi is a group of islands with each island being slightly more unique than the other. So, most nearby attractions include natural beauty at its best with friendly natives, eager to help, and the overall vibe of complete relaxation.
• The nearby attractions in Amindivi are:
• Dolphin Dive Centre, Kavaratti
• Minicoy Dive Centre
• Kadmat Scuba Diving Centre
• Kiltan
• Chetlat
• Bitra

Additional Information

• Rutland Island is an island of the Andaman Islands. It belongs to the South Andaman administrative district, part of the Indian union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. the island lies 20 km south from Port Blair.
• Narcondam, India's easternmost island, is a small volcanic island located in the northern Andaman Sea. The island's peak rises to 710 m above mean sea level, and it is formed of andesite.
• Bompoka island lies about 1,8 NM east from the southern end of nearby Teressa Island in the Nicobar group of islands. The hills on the island rise up to 193 m. The island has dense forest and some portions have grass growth.

The correct answer is 1952.

Key Points

• National Development Council (NDC) is the apex body that gives approval to five-year plans in India.
• It was established on 6^th August 1952.
• The Prime minister is serving as the chairman of the National Development Council.
• The headquarters of the National Development Council (NDC) is in New Delhi.
• The first five-year plan is the only five-year plan adopted without the consent of the National Development Council.
• The first meeting of the NDC was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru in November 1952.

The correct answer is Anshu Malik.

Key Points

• At the 2021 World Wrestling Championships, Indian wrestler Anshu Malik created history as she became the first Indian women finalist at the World Championship.
• And also the first female player from India to claim a silver medal.
• The 19-year old Anshu settled for a silver medal after losing to 2016 Olympic champion Helen Lousie Maroulis of the United States in a 57kg freestyle bout.

Additional Information

• To date, Indian women wrestlers Alka Tomar (2006), Geeta Phogat (2012), Babita Phogat (2012), Pooja Dhanda (2018), and Vinesh Phogat (2019) have been able to win a bronze each.
• Wrestler Sushil Kumar (2010) is the lone wrestler from India to win World Championship to date.
• Besides this, Sarita Mor claimed her maiden medal by winning bronze in the 59kg category at the 2021 World Wrestling Championships being held at Oslo, Norway from October 02 to 10, 2021.

The correct answer is Jagannath.

Key Points

• Jagannātha, also known as Jagannātha Paṇḍita or Jagannātha Paṇḍitarāja, or Jagannatha Pandita Rayalu, was a famous poet and literary critic who lived in the 17^th century.
• As a poet, he is known for writing the Bhāminī-vilāsa. He was a Telugu Brahmin from the Khandrika family and a junior contemporary of Emperor Akbar.
• Pandit Jagannath was a famous poet and literary critic in the courts of the Mughal emperors Jehangir and Shah Jahan.
• As a literary theorist or rhetorician, he is renowned for his Rasagagadhara, a work on poetic theory. He was granted the title of Paanditaraja by the Mughal emperor, at whose court he received patronage.
• Sanskrit scholars of Jahangir’s time, Jaganath, who later became  Jahangir’s court pandit and was called ‘Pandit Raj’ was patronized by Asaf Khan 1 and wrote ‘Asaf Vijaya’ a eulogy of Asaf Khan.

Additional Information

• https://archive.org/stream/StatusAndRoleOfPrimeMinistersUnderTheMughals1526To1707/Status%20and%20role%20of%20prime%20ministers%20under%20the%20Mughals%201526%20to%201707_djvu.txt

The correct answer is 

Key Points

• Simon Commission:​

• In 1927, the British government appointed Simon Commission to look into the working of the Government of India Act,1919.

• All its seven members were Englishmen.

• On 3 February 1928 when the Commission reached Bombay, a general hartal was observed all over the country.

• And they were greeted with black flags and the cries of 'Simon Go Back'.

• The Simon Commission Report became the basis for enacting the Government of India Act of 1935.

• Quit India Movement

• On 8 August 1942 at the All-India Congress Committee session in Bombay, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi launched the 'Quit India' movement.

• The next day, Gandhi, Nehru, and many other leaders of the Indian National Congress were arrested by the British Government.

• The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was a movement launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.

• The slogan 'Quit India' was given by Yusuf Meherally.

• The viceroy during the Quit India movement was Lord Linlithgow.

• During the 'Quit India' movement, Mahatma Gandhi gave the slogan 'Do or Die'​

• The cabinet mission plan was formed in the year 1946.

• The main purpose of this plan was to transfer the power from the British government to the Indian government.

• The three British cabinet members were - Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, and A.V Alexander.

• The elections were held for the first time for the constituent assembly.

• The members of the constituent assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single, transferable-vote system of proportional representation.

• First Meeting of Indian Constitution Assembly​

• The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on 9 December 1946 at the Constitutional Hall, New Delhi.

• The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League won 73 seats.

• The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950 which became the Republic Day of India.

• It was passed by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.

• In the first meeting, the Assembly adopted an 'Objectives Resolution' which later became the Preamble to the Constitution.

• The constitution-making body was elected by the Provincial Legislative Assembly consisting of 389 members, 93 from princely states, and 296 from British India.

• Dr. Satchidanand Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly.

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4.

Confusion Points

• Although the Balaghat mine produces 52% of India's Copper production.
• However, Manganese ore fines are generated at Balaghat and Ukwa mines of MOIL.

Key Points

Additional Information

• Balaghat is the largest source of manganese in Madhya Pradesh.
• Madhya Pradesh is India's foremost source of manganese ore with a reserve of around 23.64 million tonnes.
• It accounts for near about 14.13% of the national reserve.
• The country's largest Open Cast Copper Mine is at Malajkhand in the Balaghat district of the state.
• The "Bharveli manganese mine" in Balaghat district is the largest underground mine operating in the Asian sub-continent.
• Rajasthan has the highest reserve of copper in India followed by Madhya Pradesh.
• Copper plants in India:
• Ghatsila (Jharkhand).
• Korba (Chattisgarh).
• Taloja (Maharastra).
• Chilpi, Malanjkhand (Madhya Pradesh).
• Bailadila-14 mine is the first large-scale open cast mechanized iron ore mine in India for which DPR was prepared by NMDC.
• The mine has the distinction of having a unique down-the-hill conveyor system passing through a tunnel to transport iron ore from the crushing plant to the processing plant.
• The iron ore mined at Bailadila is mostly haematite.
• Nellore is a city located on the banks of the Penna River.
• It is in the Nellore district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
• ​Nellore district produces most of the crude mica in India.

The correct answer is 

Key Points

• Dhai din ka Jhopra is situated in Ajmer.
• Dhai din ka Jhopra was constructed by Qutb-Ud-Din-Aibak in 1192 CE.
• ​Groundbreaking: 1192 CE
• Completed: 1199 CE

​

• The  Quwwat-Ul-Islam Mosque was built along with the Qutub Minar in 1193 AD and finished in 1197 AD by Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak of the Slave dynasty as a Jami Masjid.
• Quwat-ul-Islam mosque in the Qutub Minar Premises was converted from a Jain temple.

​

​​

• Sultan Ghari was the first Islamic Mausoleum built in 1231 AD for Prince Nasiru'd-Din Mahmud, eldest son of Iltumish, in the "funerary landscape of Delhi" in the Nangal Dewat Forest, Near Nangal Dewat Vasant Kunj.

• Iltumish was the third Sultan of the Slave Dynasty who ruled in Delhi from 1210 to 1236 AD.

• Siri Fort was built by Allauddin Khilji to defend the city of Delhi from the Mongol attack.

• Siri Fort is one of the many forts of Delhi, which were built during the time of the Delhi Sultanate (AD 1191-1526) in the medieval age.

• It is situated between Hauz Khas and Mehrauli.

• The fort was said to be a part of the city of Siri.

• Built: 1303

• Demolished: 1540 - 1545

​

The correct answer is 11 March 2020.

Key Points

• Pandemic 
• A pandemic is an outbreak of infectious disease that occurs over a wide geographical area and that is of high prevalence, generally affecting a significant proportion of the world’s population, usually over the course of several months.
• Pandemics arise from epidemics, which are outbreaks of disease confined to one part of the world, such as a single country.
• Pandemics, especially those involving influenza, sometimes occur in waves, so that a post-pandemic phase, marked by decreased disease activity, may be followed by another period of high disease prevalence.
• In March 2020, an ongoing outbreak of a novel coronavirus known as severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus-2 (SARS-CoV2) was declared a pandemic by WHO officials on 11 March 2020.
• Infection with SARS-CoV2 produced an illness known as coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19).
• The illness was characterized primarily by fever, cough, and shortness of breath.

Concept:

Trickling Filters:

• A trickling filter is an attached growth process i.e. process in which microorganisms responsible for treatment are attached to inert packing material.
• The packing material used in attached growth processes includes rock, gravel, slag, sand, redwood, and a wide range of plastic and other synthetic materials.

Figure: Trickling Filter

The process of trickling filter is as follows:

• The wastewater in the trickling filter is distributed over the top area of a vessel containing non-submerged packing material.
• Air circulation in the void space, by either natural draft or blowers, provides oxygen for the microorganisms growing as an attached biofilm.
• During operation, the organic material present in the wastewater is metabolized by the biomass attached to the medium. The biological slime grows in thickness as the organic matter abstracted from the flowing wastewater is synthesized into new cellular material.
• The thickness of the aerobic layer is limited by the depth of penetration of oxygen into the microbial layer.
• The micro-organisms near the medium face enter the endogenous phase as the substrate is metabolized before it can reach the micro-organisms near the medium face as a result of increased thickness of the slime layer and lose their ability to cling to the media surface.
• The liquid then washes the slime off the medium and a new slime layer starts to grow. This phenomenon of losing the slime layer is called sloughing.
• The sloughed-off film and treated wastewater are collected by an under drainage which also allows circulation of air through the filter.
• The collected liquid is passed to a settling tank used for solid-liquid separation.

Explanation:

Intersection:

• Intersection is the area where two or more roads join or cross
• At traffic intersection change in direction of movements may occur.
• Due to movement of traffic at intersection various types of conflicts occur like crossing conflict, merging conflict and diverging conflict.
• The movement of one vehicle can conflict with the movements of other vehicles in the same stream, the cross-streams, the opposing stream, and pedestrians in crosswalks. Consider a typical four-legged intersection as shown in figure.
• The number of conflicts for competing through movements are 4, while competing right turn and through movements are 8.
• The conflicts between right turn traffics are 4, and between left turn and merging traffic is 4.
• The conflicts created by pedestrians will be 8 taking into account all the four approaches.
• Diverging traffic also produces about 4 conflicts.
• Therefore, a typical four-legged intersection has about 32 different types of conflicts of which 24 are vehicular conflict out of which 16 are major and 8 are minor conlfict and 8 are Pedestrian conflict.

Important Points

Concept:

Stabilization Ponds:

• The stabilization ponds are open flow through basins specifically designed and constructed to treat sewage and biodegradable industrial wastes.
• They provide long detention periods extending from a few to several days.
• Pond systems, in which oxygen is provided through mechanical aeration rather than algal photosynthesis are called aerated lagoons.
• Lightly loaded ponds used as a tertiary step in waste treatment for polishing of secondary effluents and removal of bacteria are called maturation ponds.

Classification of Stabilization Ponds is as follows:

1. Aerobic ponds:

• It is a shallow pond with a depth of less or equal to 0.5 m and BOD loading of 40-120 kg/ha/d so as to maximize penetration of light throughout the liquid depth.
• Such ponds develop intense algal growth.

2. Anaerobic ponds:

• It is used as pretreatment of high-strength wastes with a BOD load of 400-3000 kg/ha.d.
• Such ponds are constructed with a depth of 2.5-5m as light penetration is unimportant.

3. Facultative ponds:

• Facultative pond functions aerobically at the surface while anaerobic conditions prevail at the bottom.
• They are often about 1 to 2 m in depth.
• The aerobic layer acts as a good check against odor evolution from the pond.

Explanation:

Three road plans developed for the planning and construction of the road network are:

Note: Lucknow road plan does not give the length of NH and SH. There is a formula given to calculate the length of different road plans.

Concept:

The distance through which the curve is shifted is known as shift (S) of the curve and is equal to

 ${\bf{S}} = \frac{{{{\bf{L}}^2}}}{{24{\bf{R}}}}$

where,

L is the length of each transition curve and R is the radius of the desired circular curve

The offset for the transition curve is given by: -

${\bf{offset}};\left( {\bf{y}} \right) = \frac{{{\ell ^3}}}{{6{\bf{RL}}}}$

Where,

ℓ = measured along the curve (m),

R = radius of the curve (m), and

L = length of the curve (m)

∴ For offset at the junction point, ℓ = L

${\bf{y}} = \frac{{{{\bf{l}}^3}}}{{6{\bf{RL}}}} = \frac{{{{\bf{L}}^3}}}{{6{\bf{RL}}}} = \frac{{{{\bf{L}}^2}}}{{6{\bf{R}}}}$         

Important Points

 The relation between Shift of curve S and offset of transition curve is:

 4 × S = Offset

Concept:

The methods of setting out curves:

The methods of setting out curves may be divided into two classes according to the instrument employed for setting out of curves as follows:

1. Linear or chain and tape method:- Linear methods are those in which the curve is set out with chain and tape only. It contains sub-methods as follows:

• By offsets or ordinates from the long chord
• By successive bisections of arcs
• By offsets from the tangents
• By offsets from chord produced

2. Angular or instrumental method:- Instrumental methods are those in which theodolite with or without a chain is employed to set out a curve. It contains sub-methods as follows:

• Rankine’s method of tangential angle
• Two theodolite method​

By offsets from the tangents: In this method, the offsets are set out either radially or perpendicular to the tangents. It contains sub-methods as follows:

• By Radial offsets
• By offsets perpendicular to tangents

Explanation:

By Radial offsets:

The radial offset at a distance X from the point of commencement of curve of radius R

Let, T1 be the first tangent point and R is the radius of the curve

EE1 = Ox= the radial offset at E at a distance of X from T1 along with the tangent AB.

Now in the ∆OT1E,

OT1 = R  and  T1E = X

OE = OE1+ EE1 =R + Ox

Now, OE2 = (OT1) 2 + (T1E)2

(R + Ox)2 = R2 + x 2 

$O_X = \sqrt {R^2 + X^2} - R$

The radial offset at a distance X from the point of commencement of curve of radius R is given by $O_X = \sqrt {R^2 + X^2} - R$

Concept:

Evaporation:

• The phenomenon of change of a liquid into vapours at any temperature below its boiling point is called evaporation.

The factors that affect the process of evaporation are as follows:

1. Surface area:

• Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. If the surface area is increased, the rate of evaporation increases. For example, while putting clothes for drying up we spread them out.

2. Temperature:

• With the increase in temperature, more particles get enough kinetic energy to go into the vapour state, hence evaporation increases.

3. Humidity:

• Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in the air. The air around us cannot hold more than a definite amount of water vapour at a given temperature.
• If the amount of water in the air is already high, the rate of evaporation decreases.

3. Wind speed:

• With the increase in wind speed, the particles of water vapour move away from the wind, decreasing the amount of water vapour in the surroundings and its increases evaporation.

4. Salinity or pollution:

• Increasing water salinity reduces evaporation since the dissolved salt ions lower the free energy of the water molecules, i.e., reduce the water activity, and hence reduce the saturation vapour pressure above the saline water at a given water temperature.

Explanation:

Specific Capacity:

• The specific capacity of a well is defined as the rate of flow through the well per unit drawdown.
• The specific capacity is not the same for all the unit drawdown, but it is computed only for the initial first-meter fall of the height of water in the well.

${Q_{Specific;Capacity}} = \frac{{Discharge;through;the;well;\left( Q \right)}}{{Unit;Drawdown;\left( {{S_T}} \right)}}$

Factors affecting the specific capacity of the well are:

a) Diameter of well: On increasing the diameter of the well, its specific capacity increases as the yield of well increases.

b) Aquifer thickness: The higher the thickness of the aquifer, the higher will be the specific capacity.

c) Duration of pumping and pumping rate: It decreases with the increase in pumping rate and its duration.

Specific Retention (Sr):

Specific retention of a rock or soil is the ratio of the volume of water a rock can retain against gravity to the total volume of the rock.

$\rm\left( {{S_R}} \right) = \frac{{{Volume;of;water;retain;against;gravity;(V_{RG})}}}{Volume;of;soil} \times 100$

Explanation:

Mach number (M or Ma)

• Dimensionless quantity in fluid dynamics
• The ratio of the flow velocity of the object to the local speed of sound.
• If the Mach number is less than 0.3, flow can be treated as incompressible​

Important Points

• The magnitude of the compressibility effect can be judged with the flow velocity.
• For air, when the flow velocity is 100 m/s or less, the air is treated as an incompressible fluid.
• If the velocity is greater than 100 m/s, the air is treated as **compressible fluid.**​

Mistake PointsStudents get confused between supersonic and hypersonic if M > 1.

M > 1 - Supersonic 

M > 5 - Hypersonic​

Explanation:

Sight distance:

It is the length of the road visible ahead to the driver at any distance

Three sight distance situations are considered

1) Stopping or non-passing sight distance or absolute minimum sight distance

2) Overtaking or passing sight distance

3. Sight distance at an uncontrolled intersection

Lag distance:

During the total reaction time or PIEV time the vehicle may be assumed to proceed forward with a uniform speed at which the vehicle has been moving and this speed may be taken as the design speed. If 'V' is the design speed in m/sec and 't' is the total reaction time of the driver in seconds, then the lag distance will be (V × t) m.

If the design speed V is in kmph then

Lag distance = (0.278 × V × t) m

Concept:

Most economical section is the one whose wetted perimeter is minimum for the given value of discharge.

For minimum wetted perimeter,

d = b/2

∴ d/b = 1 : 2

Important Points

Explanation:

 As per NBC 2016, BIS

The following rates per capita per day may be considered the minimum for domestic and non-domestic needs:

1. For communities with a population of up to 20,000 and without a flushing system : 

a) water supply through standpost: 40 lpcd (Min) 

b) water supply through house service connection:  70 to 100 lpcd.

2. For communities with a population of 20,000 to 100,000 together with a full flushing system: 100 to 135 lpcd. 3. For communities with a population above 100000  together with a full flushing system: 150 to 200 lpcd.

From the above given options answer should be 135lpcd.

Explanation:

Declination: 

The horizontal angle between the True meridian and magnetic meridian is called declination.

Local attraction: 

Local attraction is the phenomenon by which the magnetic needle is constantly prevented to point towards the magnetic north at a place. This is because that these magnetic compass is influenced by other magnetic objects at that locality such as wires carrying electric current, rails, steel and iron structures, steel tapes etc.

Magnetic Bearing: 

The horizontal angle which a line makes with the magnetic meridian measured from Magnetic North line is called magnetic bearing. It varies with time. Magnetic meridian of a line can be measured in the field by using prismatic compass.

Azimuth: 

Azimuth of a line is its horizontal angle measured clockwise from geographic or true meridian.

Concept:

Toxicity and health effects of some heavy metals:

• Heavy metal toxicity has proven to be a major threat and there are several health risks associated with it.
• The toxic effects of these metals, even though they do not have any biological role, remain present in some of the other forms harmful for the human body and its proper functioning.
• They sometimes act as a pseudo-element of the body while at certain times they may even interfere with metabolic processes.
• Few metals, such as aluminum, can be removed through elimination activities, while some metals get accumulated in the body and food chain, exhibiting a chronic nature.
• The most commonly found heavy metals in wastewater include arsenic, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, nickel, and zinc, all of which cause risks for human health and the environment.
• Heavy metals are significant environmental pollutants and their toxicity is a problem of increasing significance for ecological, evolutionary, nutritional, and environmental reasons.
• Various public health measures have been undertaken to control, prevent and treat metal toxicity occurring at various levels, such as occupational exposure, accidents, and environmental factors.

Explanation:

Water - Budget Equation:

The Water - Budget equation is based on conservation of mass in a closed system and states that any water entering a system, must be transferred into either evaporation, surface runoff or stored in the ground.

A general water balance equation is

Mass inflow - Mass outflow = Change in storage

or

$P = R + E\pm ΔS$

where

P is precipitation (gain)

E is evapotranspiration (loss)

R is streamflow (loss)

ΔS is the change in storage.

Concept:

An optical square is used for setting out right angles. It consists of a small circular metal box of diameter 5 cm and depth 1.25 cm. It has a metal cover that slides around the box to cover the slits.

Principle of optical square:

• According to the principle of reflecting surfaces, the angle between the first incident ray and the last reflected ray is twice the angle between the mirrors. In this case, the angle between the mirrors is fixed at 45˚. So, the angle between the horizon sight and index sight will be 90˚.

Construction of Optical Square:

• A horizon glass H is fixed at the bottom of the metal box. The lower half of the glass is unsilvered and the upper half is silvered.
• An index glass “I” is also fixed at the bottom of the box which is completely silvered.
• The angle between the index glass and horizon glass is maintained at 45˚.

The horizon glass is placed at an angle of 120˚ with the horizon sight. The index glass is placed at an angle of 105˚ with the index sight.

Concept: 

Lacey's scour depth is given by:

$R; = ;1.35{\left( {\frac{{{q^2}}}{f}} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}}};$

Where, q = Discharge per meter width, f = silt factor

Calculations:

Given, q = 3 cumec, f = 1.2

$R; = ;1.35{\left( {\frac{{{3^2}}}{1.2}} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}}};=;2.64;m$

Important Points 

Various formulas deduced by lacey is given below:

1) silt factor ⇒ $\rm{f = 1.76\sqrt {{d_{mm}}}}$

2. velocity of flow ⇒$V = {\left[ {\frac{{Q{f^2}}}{{140}}} \right]^{\frac{1}{6}}}$

3) hydraulic mean depth ⇒$R = \frac{{5{V^2}}}{{2f}}$

4. wetted perimeter ⇒ $P = 4.75\sqrt Q$

Concept:

Forces due to wave pressure on a gravity dam:

• Due to the generation of waves on the surface by blowing winds.

Wave height(hw) is given by

${h_w} = 0.032\sqrt {VF} + 0.763 - 0.271{F^{3/4}}$    (For F < 32 km)

${h_w} = 0.032\sqrt {VF}$     (For F > 32 km)

where, 

V = Wind velocity (km/hr)

F = Fetch or straight length of water (km) 

Calculation:

Given data

F  = 30 km

V = 30 km/hr

For F < 32 km, Wave height(hw)

${h_w} = 0.032\sqrt {VF} + 0.763 - 0.271{F^{3/4}}$​​

${h_w} = 0.032\sqrt {30 \times 30} + 0.763 - 0.271{(30)^{3/4}}$

hw = 1.75 m

Explanation:

Correction for basic Runway length (I)

1) Correction for elevation

ICAO recommends that basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7% per 300 m rise in elevation above mean sea level.

2) Temperature correction

Airport reference Temperature (ART)

$T_a + {1\over3}(T_m-T_a)$

Tm = Monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the hottest month.

Ta = Monthly mean of the average daily temperature of the hottest month

Rise in temperature = ART - SAT

Where,

SAT is Standard Atmospheric Temperature

NOTE: Due to the elevation, there is a decrease in standard temperature at the rate of -6.50 c per 1000 m rise.

As per ICAO, Basic runway length after correction for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1% for every 1° C rise of the airport reference temperature

Correction for temperature

Note: As per ICAO, the cumulative connection for elevation and temperature Cumulative (%) correction together should not be ≯35%

If exceeds modify, I2 = 1.35 x I

3) Gradient correction

For every 1% effective gradient, runway length will be increased by 20%

$Gradient = {Elevation \space difference\over Original \space length \space of \space runway}$

Mercury is used in the barometer because it is a high-density fluid which gives less height of column for high pressures. A barometer using water, for instance, would need to be 13.6 times taller than a mercury barometer to obtain the same pressure difference. This is because mercury is 13.6 times denser than water.

Explanation:

• Vertical curves are used in highway and street vertical alignment to provide a gradual change between two adjacent grade lines.
• The gradient is the rate of rising or falling along the length of the road with respect to the horizontal.
• The length of the vertical curve can be obtained by dividing the algebraic difference of the two grades by the rate of change of grade.

$Length \ of \ curve(L) = \frac{{Total \ change \ of \ grade}}{{{Rate \ of\ change \ of \ grade}}}$

Length of curve(L) = (g₂-g₁)**/**r

Where g₁, g₂ = Grade in percentage

r= rate of change of grade in percentage

Concept:

The adjustments of the theodolite  are as follows:

Azimuth test:

• The line of sight should be perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

​​Spire test:

• The horizontal axis should be perpendicular to the vertical axis.

​Vertical circle index test:

• The axis of the bubble tube attached to the telescope should be parallel to the line of sight. This is done so that the vertical circle reads zero when the telescope is horizontal.
• This test is also known as the bubble tube adjustment test.

Vertical arc test:

• When the line of sight is perpendicular to the vertical axis, the vertical circle should read zero.
• This test is also known as the vertical circle test.

Cross-Hair ring test:

• The vertical cross-hair should lie in a plane perpendicular to the horizontal axis, i.e. it is to be made truly vertical.

Plate level test:

• The vertical axis of the instrument should be perpendicular to the axis of each plate bubble tube.

Explanation:

Breast wall:

• A breast wall is built to sustain the face of a natural bank of earth
• A breast wall is usually constructed on the hillside of the roadway.

Retaining wall: 

• Retaining walls are relatively rigid walls used for supporting soil laterally so that they can be retained at different levels on the two sides.

Parapet wall: 

• A wall around the edge of a roof, balcony, terrace, or stairway is designed either to prevent those behind it from falling over or to shelter them from attack from the outside.

Difference between Breast wall and Retaining wall:

Explanation :

Infiltration:

Infiltration is the flow of water through the soil surface into a porous medium under gravity action and pressure effects.

The infiltration capacity is the maximum rate at which water can be absorbed by a given soil per unit area under given conditions.

Concept:

Combined correction to take into the effect of error due to collimation and refraction is given by:

C_d = 0.0673 × d²

Distance to visible horizon (H): = 0.0673 × D² or D = 3.85 × √H

Where,

H is the height of the tower/ lighthouse in meters and D is the distance between the object and lighthouse in km.

Calculation:

Given: H = 120 m

120 = 0.0673 × D²

${\rm{D}} = \sqrt {\frac{{120}}{{0.0673}}} = 42.226{\rm{;kms}} = 42226{\rm{;meters}}$

Important Point:

Combined correction is the combined effect of curvature correction and refraction correction.

Curvature correction (C_c) = - 0.07849 × D², Refraction correction (C_R) = 1/7 × C_c

If the observer has a height of H₁ (m) and the object has a height of H₂ (m) then, the distance between horizons will be

D = 3.85(√H₁+√H₂)

Where D is in km.

Measurement of evapotranspiration is done in two ways either by using lysimeter or by the use of field plots. Lysimeter studies are time consuming and expansive.

Important Points

Instruments used in the measurement

Confusion point:

The pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of fluid whereas an anemometer is used to measure gas and air velocity

Explanation:

Canal Lining:

• Canals are lined to reduce seepage losses, and to the chances of waterlogging in a given area.
• Various types of lining options are available, and the selection of a particular type is related to cost effectiveness and ready availability.
• Lined channels are non-erodible, and hence their design theories are different from those of unlined canals.

Brick Lining:

• To make the lining successful the lining may be constructed of two layers of bricks laid flat in mortar. The first layer is laid on a 12 mm layer of 1: 6 cement mortar. This 12 mm thick layer of cement mortar is spread on the properly compacted and wetted subgrade.
• Then on the top of first brick layer, a 12 mm layer of 1: 3 cement mortar is given. It is allowed to cure for two days.
• Finally second layer of bricks in mortar is laid on the top. Thus a 12 mm layer of rich cement mortar (1: 3) is sandwiched between two brick layers and this layer is actually responsible to make the lining practically watertight.

Important Points Types of canal lining: Canals are lined by any of the following materials:

• Concrete (in-situ construction).
• Precast concrete (tiles).
• Lime concrete.
• Shotcrete or guniting.
• Brick tiles.
• Asphalt- (a) Buried asphalt membrane (b) Asphaltic concrete.
• Stone blocks, concrete blocks or undressed stones.
• Earth materials- (a) Compacted earth (b) Soil cement.
• Prefabricated light-weight membranes.
• Bentonite - soil and clay membranes.
• PVC films.

Concept:

Superelevation:

• It is the transverse slope to counteract the centrifugal force and to reduce the tendency of the vehicle to overturn or skid.
• It is the rise of the outer edge of the pavement with respect to the inner edge on a horizontal curve thus providing a transverse slope throughout the length of the horizontal curve.
• It is also known as cant or banking.

Pothole:

• The appearance of bowl-shaped holes, usually after rain.
• This indicated progressive disintegrations of bituminous premix carpet surfacing by loss of aggregates.
• When a vehicle negotiates a vertical curve on a highway without super elevation the pressure on the tires on the outer edge is more than on the inner edge. Thus the chance of potholes is more on the outer edge of the road.

Explanation:

Unit hydrograph: 

A unit hydrograph is a direct runoff hydrograph resulting from one unit (one cm) of constant intensity uniform rainfall occurring over the entire watershed.

Base period of 12 hr unit hydrograph = Base period of 6 hr unit hydrograph + 6

Base period of 12 hr unit hydrograph = 84 + 6 = 90h

Explanation:

Actual evapotranspiration: Actual Evapotranspiration (ETa) is the quantity of water that is removed from a surface due to the processes of evaporation and transpiration.

Potential evapotranspiration: Potential evapotranspiration is the demand or maximum amount of water that would be evapotranspirate  if enough water were available.

The ratio of actual evapotranspiration to potential evapotranspiration is in the range of 0.0 to 1.0

For soil moisture at field capacities, AET = PET

For soil moisture at permanent willing point, AET ≈ 0 

Concept:

Superelevation/Cant:

• It is the difference between the height of the outer rail and the inner rail on a curve. The inner rail is taken as the reference rail and with respect to the inner rail, the outer rail is raised.
• The objective of providing a superelevation to neutralize the effect of centrifugal force, achieve equal distribution of wheel loads, improve the comfort level of passengers, etc.

Superelevation or cant 

$e = {GV^2 \over 127R}$

Where, R = radius of rail in meters, V = Speed of train in km/hr, G = gauge of track

Cant deficiency:

• The actual cant provided on a railway track is based on the average speed of trains.
• However, in the case of high-speed trains, the cant requirement will be more than the actual value of the cant provided so the train will be forced to move on a lower value of cant than the maximum cant is required for the high-speed train. This deficiency in the cant for high-speed trains is called a cant deficiency.

Calculation:

Given data:

G = 1.676 m, V = 45 km/hr,

R = 1720 / D where D = degree of curve

R = 1720 / 5 

So, the cant for the main line is 

$e = {GV^2 \over 127R} = {1.676 × 45^2 \times 5\over 127× 1720 }$  = 0.0778 m = 7.78 cm

The permitted cant deficiency for the mainline = 7.6 cm

Hence, cant for mainline = 7.78 - 7.60 = 0.18 cm

The cant for the branch track on the main line is - 0.18 cm, which is closest to option B ie - 0.168 cm

Additional Information Radius or degree of a curve:

• A curve is defined either by its radius or by its degree. The degree of a curve is the angle subtended at its center by a 100 ft or 30.5 m cord.
• The value of the degree of the curve can be determined as below:

Circumference of a circle = 2 × π × R 

The angle subtended at the center by a circle with this circumference = 360° 

The angle subtended at the center by a circle by a 30 m chord or degree of curve = $360 \times 30 \over {2\times\pi\times R }$ = $1750 \over R$ (Where R is in meters).

In general, we use a 30 m chord, but for exact calculations, a 30.5 m chord is used in railways, and accordingly, in place of 1720 we have to use 1750 in the formula.

But, the given options were set according to 1720, so we have provided a solution accordingly.

Concept:

Water Year:

• Generally, 1 October to 30 September in the Northern Hemisphere, 1 July to 30 June in the Southern Hemisphere; the annual cycle that is associated with the natural progression of the hydrologic seasons.
• It commences with the start of the season of soil moisture recharge, includes the season of maximum runoff (or season of maximum groundwater recharge), if any, and concludes with the completion of the season of maximum evapotranspiration (or season of maximum soil moisture utilization).
• Each country has fixed a definite 12-month period to begin and in a relatively dry season as the water year.
• In India, the water year starts from June 1^st and ends on May 31^st of the following calendar year.

 Important Points

• The World Water Day is observed every year on 22^nd March to mark the importance of freshwater.

Explanation:

Concept: Standard error in computation of area is given by:

  $e_{A}={[(e_{l}\frac{\mathrm{d}A }{\mathrm{d} l})^{2}}+(e_{b}\frac{\mathrm{d}A }{\mathrm{d} b})^{2}]^{1/2}$    

where, e_l and e_b = standard error of length and width measurement,

l and b = length and width of plot respectively, A = Area of plot = l × b

∴     $\frac{\mathrm{d} A}{\mathrm{d} l} = b ,,, and ,, \frac{\mathrm{d} A}{\mathrm{d} b} = l\textbf{}$

Solution: 

given , l = 60 m , b = 20 m , e_l = e_b = $\pm$ 1 cm = $\pm$0.01 m

∴ Standard error in computation of area 

$e_{A}={[(e_{l}\frac{\mathrm{d}A }{\mathrm{d} l})^{2}}+(e_{b}\frac{\mathrm{d}A }{\mathrm{d} b})^{2}] ^ {1/2}={[(0.01\times20)^{2}}+(0.01\times60)^{2}]^{1/2}= \pm0.632,,m^2$

Explanation:

Distance between sewers = 250 m

Slope = 1:125 

Difference of height between 2 sewers = 250/125 = 2 m = ΔH 

RL of manhole B = RL of invert at A - Difference of height between 2 manholes + Height of boning rod

RL_B = RL_A - ΔH + H_B

RL_B = 205.75 - 2 + 3 = 206.75 m

Explanation:

The total head or energy head (H), at any location in an open channel, can be defined as

• $H = z + y + \frac{{{V^2}}}{{2g}}$

By assuming kinetic energy factor (α =1) and pressure distribution is hydrostatic.

Using channel bottom as datum (z = 0), The total head or energy head above the channel bottom is called specific energy.

• $E = y + \frac{{{V^2}}}{{2g}}$

For critical flow in triangular channel

${E_c} = {y_c} + \frac{{V_c^2}}{{2g}}$ {eqn (i)}

∵ We know that, Froude number for critical flow, Fr = 1

and, ${F_r} = \frac{{{V_c}}}{{\sqrt {gD} }} = 1$ {eqn(ii)}

Where, D = Hydraulic depth, D = Area of section/Top width of section

Hydraulic depth for triangular section, D = yc/2 

From eqn (ii), $\frac{{{V_c}}}{{\sqrt {g\frac{{{y_c}}}{2}} }} = 1$ ⇒ $\frac{{2V_c^2}}{{g{y_c}}} = 1$

$\frac{{V_c^2}}{g} = \frac{{{y_c}}}{2}$

from (i), ${E_c} = {y_c} + \frac{{{y_c}}}{4} = \frac{5}{4}{y_c}$

Ec = 1.25 Yc

so, ${E_c\over Y_c}=1.25$

Explanation:

(i) Boundary layer concept was first introduced by L. Prandtl in 1904.

(ii) In ideal fluid viscous force is neglected but in actual viscous stresses are prominent within the boundary layer.

(iii) When fluid flows past a solid body the fluid particles adhere to the boundary and the condition of no-slip occurs.

(iv) No-slip conditions: It means the velocity of the fluid at body surface will be same as the velocity of body.

(v) Within the boundary layer viscous stress decreases from maximum to negligible value in which in turn causes an increase in velocity from zero at body surface to upstream velocity.

(vi)Outside the boundary layer effect of shear stress is very low and velocity gradient is negligible.

Concept:

Aeration:

• Aeration brings water and air in close contact in order to remove dissolved gases (such as carbon dioxide) and oxidizes dissolved metals such as iron, hydrogen sulfide, and volatile organic chemicals (VOCs).
• It also removes bad odor from the water.
• Aeration is often the first major process at the treatment plant.
• The efficiency of aeration depends on the amount of surface contact between air and water, which is controlled primarily by the size of the water drop or air bubble.

The chemicals removed or oxidized by aeration are as follows:

• Volatile organic chemicals, such as benzene (found in gasoline), trichloroethylene, dichloroethylene, and perchloroethylene (used in dry-cleaning or industrial processes)
• Ammonia
• Chlorine
• Carbon dioxide
• Hydrogen sulfide
• Methane
• Iron and Manganese

Explanation:

Unconfined aquifer: 

• An unconfined aquifers is one in which the water table forms the upper surface of zone of saturation.
• The term unconfined signifies the absence of any geological layer confining the zone of saturation (above the water table).
• The unconfined aquifer is in direct contact with atmosphere through the zone of aeration. At the water table, the hydraulic pressure head or ground water pressure head is equal to atmospheric pressure (i.e. zero).
• This aquifer is also known as water table aquifer or phreatic aquifer.

Confined aquifer:

• The confined aquifer a geological formation qualifying as an aquifer is overlained by a impermeable layer or an aquiclude.
• The confining layers show very low intrinsic permeability (k).Here the overlying layer acts as layer confining the underlying aquifer.
• The water in the confined aquifer is not in direct contact with the

atmosphere. This is because of the presence of confining layer overlying the confined aquifer.

Semiconfined aquifer:

• An aquifer partially confined by soil layers of low permeability through which recharge and discharge can still occur.
• Semi-confined aquifers can usually be located between aquifers and the ground surface with the water seeping into via the internal layers to move freely through the main aquifers.

Perched aquifer:

• A special case of unconfined aquifer is known as perched aquifer. A perched aquifer is formed when the infiltrated rain water is intercepted within the zone of Aeration by an impermeable layer and a local zone of saturation is formed.
• The upper surface of such local zone of saturation is known as perched water table. The perched aquifer occurs at higher elevation than the regional water table.

Explanation:

A transition curve is provided at the junction of the straight and curved portion of a railway track to serve the following purposes:

i) to provide the superelevation in a gradual manner

ii) to avoid the sudden jerking of the passengers

iii) to reduce the radius of curvature gradually

The requirement of an ideal transition curve:

i) The length of the transition curve is inversely proportional to the radius of curvature ( $l \propto \frac{1}{r};$).

ii) The curve should be tangential to its junction points.

iii) The rate of change of superelevation provided should be equal to the rate of change of curvature so that full superelevation can be provided within the length of the transition curve.

iv) The rate of change of centrifugal acceleration should be consistent, this implies the radius of the transition curve should be consistently decreased from infinity at the tangent point to the radius R of the circular curve.

Concept:

Infiltration:

It is the flow of water into the ground through the soil surfaces.

Infiltration capacity:

It is defined by Horton as the maximum rate at which rain can be absorbed by the soil in the given condition.

Horton’s equations:

Horton expressed the decay of infiltration capacity with time as an exponential decay

f_t = f_c + (f₀ - f_c) e^-kt for 0 < t < t_c

where,

f_t = Infiltration capacity at any time t from the start of rainfall

f₀ = Initial infiltration capacity at t = 0

f_c = Final infiltration capacity occurring at t = t_c

k = Horton’s decay constant which depends upon soil characteristic and vegetation cover

The main factors that influence the infiltration are as follows:

1. The soil type i.e. texture, structure, hydrodynamic characteristics:

• The soil characteristics influence capillary forces and adsorption.

2. The soil coverage and vegetation:

• They increase the time of water penetration in soil.

3. The topography and morphology of slopes: 

• The steep slope has low infiltration capacity as water flow rapidly due to gravity.

4. Rain intensity: 

• High rainfall implies more rate of infiltration.

5. Soil humidity or moisture:  

• Dry soil has more infiltration as compared to wet soil.

6. Soil compaction:

• High compaction reduces infiltration capacity.

7. Soil thickness:

• Higher the thickness soil can hold more water.

8. Surface retention or runoff: 

• More surface run-off means less water is available to infiltrate into the soil.

9. Temperature:

• If the saturated soil temperature is very low, the soil mass becomes impermeable so that the infiltration rate will be below.

Hence, The infiltration capacity of the ground does NOT depend on gravity.

Concept:

Permeability:

• The ability of soil to allow the flow of water through it is called the permeability of the soil.
• It is a very important factor for the structures which are in contact with water.
• The flow of water in soil takes place through void spaces, which are interconnected.

Porosity:

• The pore space of soil is defined as the portion of the soil volume occupied by air and water.
• It refers to the percentage of soil volume occupied by pore spaces.

Transmissibility:

• Transmissibility (or transmissivity) is a property closely related to hydraulic conductivity that describes the capacity of a specific water-bearing unit of a given thickness, such as an aquifer, to transmit water.
• Transmissibility is most simply defined as the effective hydraulic conductivity of an aquifer or other water-bearing unit multiplied by the thickness of that unit.

Specific retention:

• It is that volume fraction of water that is held back by adhesion and capillary forces when an aquifer is drained.

Specific yield:

• It is the amount of water that is actually available for groundwater pumping when sediments or rocks are drained due to the lowering of the water table.

As per IS 10430 : 2000, the maximum permissible velocity in different types of canals is given below in tabulated form: The velocity is limited to avoid scouring in canals.

Concept:

Types of losses in pipe:

Minor losses: 

• Whenever there is a change in the cross-section, minor losses occur.
• For e.g. sudden expansion, sudden contraction, or bend in the pipes.

Major losses: 

• Whenever the losses in the pipes are because of friction they are considered as major losses because there is a significant loss of energy because of friction.

According to Darcy’s Weisbach equation, A major loss (h_L) is the head loss due to friction

${h_L} = \frac{{fL{V^2}}}{{2gD}}$

where f = friction factor, L = length of pipe, V = velocity of flow, D = diameter of the pipe

Calculation:

Given data

D = 12 cm

f = 0.04

Minor losses =  $5 \frac{V^2}{2g}$

Loss due to friction(h_L)

${h_L} = \frac{{fL{V^2}}}{{2gD}}$

To account for the minor losses

$\frac{{fL{V^2}}}{{2gD}} = 5 \frac{V^2}{2g}$

${fL \over D} = 5$

$L = {5 \times D \over f} = {5 \times 0.12 \over 0.04}$ = 15 m

\(\begin{matrix} {{\text{C}}{6}}{{\text{H}}{12}}{{\text{O}}{6}} \ \left( 180\text{ }!!~!!\text{ part} \right)\left( \text{Glucose} \right) \ \end{matrix}+\begin{matrix} 6{{\text{O}}{2}} \ 6\times 32\text{ }!!~!!\text{ parts}\left( \text{Oxygen} \right) \ \end{matrix}\to 6\text{C}{{\text{O}}{2}}+6{{\text{H}}{2}}\text{O}\)

180 parts of C₆H₁₂O₆ gives 192 parts of O₂

∴ 1 part of C₆H₁₂O₆ gives 192/180 parts of O₂

⇒ 500 mg/l of C₆H₁₂O₆ = 192/180 × 500 mg/l of O₂

Theoretical oxygen demand = 533.33 mg/l

∴ The theoretical oxygen demand of a glucose solution of concentration 500 mg/l is 533.33 mg/l

Concept:

CBR (California Bearing Ratio) Method: (IRC 37-1984)

• The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is the CBR method.
• The CBR method was developed originally by the California State Highway Department.
• The advantage of the CBR method is that it can be used to find the pavement and that of individual courses in addition thickness of the CBR values of the materials of the courses are also known.

The following methods are used for the design of flexible pavements:-

1. Empirical methods
2. Semi-empirical methods
3. Theoretical methods

Empirical methods:

They are based on the strength properties of the soil subgrade.

1. The Group index method,
2. CBR method and
3. Mcleod method

Semi-empirical or Semi theoretical method:

These methods are based upon the stress-strain function.

1. Triaxial test method

Theoretical Methods:

These methods totally depend upon theoretical analysis and mathematical computations.

1. Burmeister method