Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Public Administration 11 Oct 2022 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

100 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

Who said that three basic problems in developing the science of Public Administration are normative value, understanding human behaviour and relationship between Public Administration and its social setting.

  1. AOption (a)

    Robert Dahl

  2. BOption (b)

    Herbert Simon

  3. COption (c)

    Ali Farazmard

  4. DOption (d)

    Christopher Hood

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Robert Dahl

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Robert Dahl

Key Points

  • Robert Dahl
  • Robert Dahl highlighted the three fundamental problems in the development of Public Administration as a science:
  • Normative value: The challenge of establishing ethical frameworks and values within administrative processes.
  • Understanding human behavior: The difficulty of comprehending and predicting the behavior of individuals and groups within organizations.
  • Relationship between Public Administration and its social setting: The necessity of understanding how administrative practices interact with and are influenced by the broader social context.
  • These insights are considered foundational for the study and evolution of Public Administration as a discipline.

Additional Information

  • Public Administration
  • It is the study and practice of managing government policies and programs.
  • Public Administration often involves addressing issues like organizational efficiency, human behavior, and ethical governance.
  • Normative Approach
  • Focuses on establishing the values and ethical principles that should guide administrative actions.
  • It contrasts with empirical approaches that focus only on measurable outcomes and behaviors.
  • Behavioral Approach
  • Emphasizes studying how individuals and groups act within the administrative framework.
  • Understanding behavior is crucial for improving organizational efficiency and decision-making.

Question 2

Which of the following considered Public Administration as socially embeded process of relationship, dialogue and action to promote human flourshing for all?

  1. AOption (a)

    New Public Administration

  2. BOption (b)

    New Public Management

  3. COption (c)

    II Minnowbrook Conference

  4. DOption (d)

    III Minnowbrook Conference

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

III Minnowbrook Conference

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - III Minnowbrook Conference

Key Points

  • III Minnowbrook Conference
  • The III Minnowbrook Conference focused on the concept of Public Administration as a socially embedded process aimed at fostering human flourishing through relationships, dialogue, and action.
  • It emphasized a shift from traditional bureaucratic models to a more inclusive and participatory approach to public administration.
  • Core ideas revolved around aligning public administration with ethical values and promoting equity, social justice, and collaboration.
  • This conference revisited the principles of the original Minnowbrook Conference and redefined them in the context of 21st-century challenges.

Additional Information

  • Key Themes of Minnowbrook Conferences
  • I Minnowbrook Conference (1968)
  • Focused on the emergence of New Public Administration (NPA).
  • Stressed the need for public administration to address issues like social equity and justice.
  • II Minnowbrook Conference (1988)
  • Addressed the challenges of globalization and the need for adaptability in public administration.
  • Emphasized the integration of information technology and organizational efficiency.
  • III Minnowbrook Conference (2008)
  • Revised the principles of earlier conferences to align with modern governance.
  • Stressed on collaborative governance, ethical leadership, and social inclusion.
  • New Public Administration (NPA)
  • An academic movement born out of the I Minnowbrook Conference.
  • Focused on making public administration more responsive to the needs of society.

Question 3

The integration of several parts into an orderly whole to achieve the purpose of undertaking is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Hierarchy

  2. BOption (b)

    Direction

  3. COption (c)

    Coordination

  4. DOption (d)

    Leadership

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Coordination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Coordination

Key Points

  • Coordination is the process of integrating different parts of an organization or activity into a unified whole.
  • It ensures that all departments and individuals work together to achieve the common goals of the organization.
  • Coordination aligns resources, processes, and efforts in a structured way to maximize efficiency and effectiveness.
  • It is essential for maintaining harmony between various functions, avoiding duplication, and resolving conflicts.
  • Organizations depend on coordination to integrate their planning, organizing, and execution activities into one orderly system.

Additional Information

  • Hierarchy
  • Refers to the structure of an organization where tasks and authority are distributed across levels.
  • It helps in defining roles and responsibilities but is different from coordination, which focuses on unifying efforts rather than structuring authority.
  • Direction
  • Involves guiding and supervising employees to achieve specific objectives.
  • While direction is focused on leadership and motivation, coordination ensures alignment across activities.
  • Leadership
  • Refers to the ability to influence and inspire individuals to achieve goals.
  • While leadership involves inspiring people, coordination is a broader concept that involves integrating efforts across teams.

Question 4

Which of the following, who have by force of personal abilities is capable of having a profound and extra ordinary effect on followers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Traditional leader

  2. BOption (b)

    Charismatic leader

  3. COption (c)

    Profesional leader

  4. DOption (d)

    Situational leader

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Charismatic leader

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Charismatic leader

Key Points

  • Charismatic leader
  • Defined by their ability to inspire and emotionally connect with their followers.
  • Often possess exceptional communication skills and a compelling vision.
  • They have the capacity to create a strong bond with followers, leading to extraordinary influence and loyalty.
  • Examples include leaders in history or organizations who bring profound change through their personal charm and persuasion.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Charismatic Leaders
  • Visionary thinking: They articulate a clear and inspiring vision that motivates others.
  • Confidence: They exude a high degree of self-confidence that instills trust in followers.
  • Empathy: Charismatic leaders understand and relate to the emotional needs of their followers.
  • Impact on Organizations
  • They often lead transformational change, fostering innovation and growth.
  • Can create a high level of trust, loyalty, and commitment among team members.
  • However, their influence can sometimes lead to dependency or blind allegiance if not balanced with ethical leadership.

Question 5

Who among following considered that the best organisation try to incorporate the best of both machnistic and organic sytems of organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    Henry Mintzberg

  2. BOption (b)

    Tom Burns and G. M. Stalker

  3. COption (c)

    S. P. Robbins

  4. DOption (d)

    W. Edward Deming

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tom Burns and G. M. Stalker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Tom Burns and G. M. Stalker

Key Points

  • Tom Burns and G. M. Stalker
  • They introduced the concept of mechanistic and organic systems of organization in their study of organizational structures.
  • Their work highlights that the best organizations adapt by incorporating elements of both systems based on environmental and operational needs.
  • A mechanistic system is characterized by rigid structures, formalized processes, and centralized decision-making, suitable for stable environments.
  • An organic system is flexible, decentralized, and promotes collaboration, making it ideal for dynamic and uncertain environments.
  • Organizations need to balance these systems to achieve efficiency and adaptability.

Additional Information

  • Mechanistic vs Organic Systems
  • Mechanistic systems are suited for organizations operating in predictable environments, where tasks are repetitive and stability is key.
  • Organic systems are ideal for environments that demand innovation, adaptability, and frequent changes.
  • Contingency Theory
  • Burns and Stalker’s work aligns with Contingency Theory, which states that organizational effectiveness depends on adapting structure and processes to environmental demands.
  • This theory emphasizes that there is no one-size-fits-all approach to organizational design.
  • Relevance in Modern Organizations
  • Modern businesses often use a combination of mechanistic and organic approaches to respond to both routine operations and dynamic challenges.
  • Examples include startups leveraging organic systems for innovation and established firms adopting mechanistic structures for scalability.

Question 6

The French title of Henri Fayol's classic book 'Administration and Industrielle et Generale' was translated by Storrs as

  1. AOption (a)

    General and Industrial Management

  2. BOption (b)

    General and Industrial Administration

  3. COption (c)

    General Administration and Industrial Management

  4. DOption (d)

    Industrial Administration and General Management

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

General and Industrial Management

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - General and Industrial Management

Key Points

  • Henri Fayol was a French industrialist and management theorist known for his contributions to modern management practices.
  • His classic book 'Administration Industrielle et Générale' provides foundational principles of management, emphasizing administrative skills.
  • Storrs translated this book into English under the title 'General and Industrial Management', which remains widely referenced in management studies today.
  • The translation captures Fayol’s ideas about systematic management principles that apply to both general administration and industrial practices.

Additional Information

  • 14 Principles of Management
  • Henri Fayol introduced 14 principles of management, such as division of work, authority and responsibility, and scalar chain.
  • These principles serve as guidelines for effective administrative management.
  • Administrative Theory
  • Fayol’s work is considered a cornerstone of the administrative management theory, focusing on organizational structure and efficiency.
  • This theory emphasizes the importance of planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling.
  • Relevance in Modern Management
  • Fayol’s principles are still applied in contemporary management practices, especially in areas like strategic planning and organizational design.
  • Many management textbooks reference 'General and Industrial Management' as a foundational text.

Question 7

'Bounded – rationality' is determiened in decision making is founded on the individual's ability

  1. AOption (a)

    To comprehend vastness and complexity of decision territory

  2. BOption (b)

    To respond to the environment of decision

  3. COption (c)

    Of reasoning power that are limited

  4. DOption (d)

    To accord under weightage to information received first.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Of reasoning power that are limited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Of reasoning power that are limited

Key Points

  • Bounded Rationality refers to the idea that individuals make decisions based on limited cognitive capacity, available information, and time constraints.
  • It emphasizes that humans are not capable of fully understanding the complexity of decision-making scenarios due to their limited reasoning power.
  • Instead of optimizing, individuals often seek satisficing solutions—choosing an option that meets their minimum criteria rather than the best possible option.
  • Bounded rationality acknowledges that decision-makers operate within the constraints of their mental capacity, environmental influences, and the information available at the time.

Additional Information

  • Herbert Simon's Contribution
  • Herbert Simon introduced the concept of bounded rationality in decision-making.
  • According to Simon, individuals make decisions based not on perfect rationality but within the limits of their cognitive capabilities.
  • Key Characteristics of Bounded Rationality
  • Decisions are influenced by heuristics, or mental shortcuts, rather than exhaustive analysis.
  • Individuals tend to rely on prioritized or easily accessible information rather than exploring all possible data.
  • Bounded rationality is common in situations of uncertainty or time pressure.
  • Application in Behavioral Economics
  • The concept is widely used in behavioral economics to explain deviations from traditional models of rational decision-making.
  • It helps understand why individuals often make choices that are suboptimal or influenced by biases.

Question 8

Which one of the following replaced the Secretariat Executive Council?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prime Minister's office

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Secretariat

  3. COption (c)

    Cabinet Secretariat

  4. DOption (d)

    Office of Internal Affairs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cabinet Secretariat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Cabinet Secretariat

Key Points

  • Cabinet Secretariat
  • The Cabinet Secretariat replaced the earlier Secretariat Executive Council after India achieved independence.
  • This body serves as the administrative support system for the Union Cabinet, facilitating decision-making processes at the highest level of the government.
  • It acts as the principal agency for coordination among ministries and departments of the Government of India, ensuring smooth functioning of the executive branch.
  • It operates under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.

Additional Information

  • Role of Cabinet Secretariat
  • It ensures effective communication and coordination among different ministries and departments.
  • It assists in the implementation of decisions taken by the Union Cabinet and in resolving inter-ministerial disputes.
  • It prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and maintains a record of discussions and decisions.
  • Structure of Cabinet Secretariat
  • The Cabinet Secretary, who is the senior-most civil servant, heads the Cabinet Secretariat.
  • The Cabinet Secretariat functions through three wings: civil, military, and intelligence.

Question 9

Which one of the following is not part of XI Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Safe Drinking water

  2. BOption (b)

    Public Distribution system

  3. COption (c)

    Animal Husbandry, dairying and poultry

  4. DOption (d)

    Swatch Bharat Programme.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Swatch Bharat Programme.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Swatch Bharat Programme

Key Points

  • Swatch Bharat Programme
  • The Swatch Bharat Programme is a nationwide initiative launched by the Government of India in 2014 aimed at promoting cleanliness, sanitation, and hygiene.
  • This program is not listed under the XI Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which specifies the functional areas of Panchayats.
  • The inclusion of Swatch Bharat Programme in the question aims to test knowledge of constitutional provisions versus government schemes.

Additional Information

  • XI Schedule of the Indian Constitution
  • Introduced through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, the XI Schedule contains a list of 29 functional items that are to be delegated to Panchayats.
  • Examples of these items include:
  • Safe Drinking Water - Ensuring access to potable water for rural areas.
  • Public Distribution System - Overseeing the distribution of essential commodities in rural areas.
  • Animal Husbandry, Dairying, and Poultry - Promoting animal welfare and rural livelihoods.
  • The schedule aims to strengthen local self-governance by empowering Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
  • Government Schemes vs. Constitutional Provisions
  • Government schemes like Swatch Bharat are policy initiatives and not constitutional mandates unless explicitly mentioned.
  • Questions on the XI Schedule often aim to differentiate between constitutional provisions and recent government programs.

Question 10

The Public Services Guarantee Act for time-bound service delivery was first introduced in India in the year _______

  1. AOption (a)

    2005

  2. BOption (b)

    2010

  3. COption (c)

    2012

  4. DOption (d)

    2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2010

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 2010

Key Points

  • The Public Services Guarantee Act was first introduced in India in the year 2010.
  • This Act was first implemented in the state of Madhya Pradesh under the leadership of its Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
  • It aims to ensure time-bound delivery of public services to citizens by making government officials accountable.
  • Under this legislation, if services are not provided within the stipulated time frame, penalties can be imposed on the responsible officials.
  • The Act primarily focuses on improving the efficiency, transparency, and accountability in public administration.

Additional Information

  • Objective of the Act
  • To ensure that citizens have access to basic public services like issuance of certificates (birth, death, caste, etc.), ration cards, and other administrative services.
  • It aims to curb corruption and reduce delays in the delivery of services.
  • Key Features of the Act
  • Specifies a fixed time frame for the delivery of notified services.
  • Establishes a mechanism for grievance redressal if services are not delivered within the stipulated time.
  • Empowers citizens to hold government officials accountable.
  • Impact of the Act
  • Improved delivery of public services in states where it has been implemented.
  • Encouraged other states to adopt similar legislation, such as Bihar, Rajasthan, and others.

Question 11

Who among following authorises to make rules for more convenient transaction of business of Government of the state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Governor

  2. BOption (b)

    Cabinet

  3. COption (c)

    Chief Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    Chief Secretary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Governor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Governor

Key Points

  • Governor's authority
  • The Governor is empowered to make rules for the convenient transaction of business of the government of the state.
  • This authority is derived from Article 166 of the Indian Constitution, which outlines the conduct of business of the state government.
  • Role of the Governor
  • The Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state and ensures the smooth functioning of the government as per constitutional provisions.
  • While the Governor makes the rules, the state council of ministers assists and advises them in carrying out executive functions.

Additional Information

  • Article 166 of the Constitution
  • It specifies that all executive action of the state government shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor.
  • It allows the Governor to make rules for the allocation of business among the ministers of the state.
  • Distinction between Governor and Chief Minister
  • The Governor is the nominal executive head, while the Chief Minister is the real executive authority in the state.
  • The Chief Minister and the council of ministers are collectively responsible to the state legislature, whereas the Governor functions as per the advice of the council of ministers.
  • Other Constitutional Provisions Related to the Governor
  • Article 154: Executive powers of the state are vested in the Governor.
  • Article 163: The Governor is required to act on the advice of the council of ministers except in cases where discretion is permitted.

Question 12

Who among following appoints the Chief Minister of National Capital Territory of Delhi?

  1. AOption (a)

    President

  2. BOption (b)

    Lieutenant Governor of Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Chief Justice of Delhi High Court

  4. DOption (d)

    Prime Minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

President

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - President

Key Points

  • Appointment Authority
  • The Chief Minister of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi is appointed by the President of India.
  • The President acts based on the recommendation of the party or coalition that has the majority in the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
  • Role of the Lieutenant Governor
  • The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi administers the oath of office to the Chief Minister, but the power to appoint rests with the President.
  • Constitutional Provision
  • The appointment of the Chief Minister is governed by Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution, which provides a special status to the NCT of Delhi.

Additional Information

  • Special Status of Delhi
  • Unlike other Union Territories, Delhi has a Legislative Assembly with elected representatives, making it a quasi-state.
  • However, matters like public order, police, and land fall under the jurisdiction of the Central Government.
  • Role of the President
  • The President of India appoints the Chief Minister after the Legislative Assembly elections, typically inviting the leader of the majority party to form the government.
  • If no party secures a majority, the President may explore options for coalition governments or impose President's Rule temporarily.
  • Lieutenant Governor's Role
  • The Lieutenant Governor serves as the representative of the Central Government in Delhi.
  • While the Chief Minister handles day-to-day governance, the Lieutenant Governor has the authority to refer certain matters to the President for a final decision.

Question 13

The principle based on Zero-fossile fuel energy, zero waste and zero emission is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Green Urbanisation

  2. BOption (b)

    Intelligent Urbanisation

  3. COption (c)

    Balanced Urbanisation

  4. DOption (d)

    Developed Urbanisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Green Urbanisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Green Urbanisation

Key Points

  • Green Urbanisation
  • It is an approach to urban development that emphasizes environmentally sustainable practices.
  • Based on principles of Zero-fossil fuel energy, Zero waste, and Zero emissions.
  • Aims to reduce the environmental footprint of cities through the adoption of renewable energy sources and waste reduction measures.
  • Encourages the use of green technologies, such as energy-efficient buildings and sustainable transportation systems.

Additional Information

  • Zero-fossil fuel energy
  • Promotes the use of solar, wind, and other renewable energy sources.
  • Reduces dependency on non-renewable resources to combat climate change.
  • Zero waste
  • Aims to minimize waste generation through recycling and reuse.
  • Supports the circular economy where materials are continuously reused.
  • Zero emissions
  • Focuses on reducing carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Encourages the use of electric vehicles and other low-emission technologies.

Question 14

Which of the following statements is correct about the concept of Rural-Urban continuum?

  1. AOption (a)

    It means villages and towns are disconnected entities

  2. BOption (b)

    It means that village and towns are inter linked and yet different from each other.

  3. COption (c)

    It explain the process of urbanization

  4. DOption (d)

    It means migration of rural people to cities and of Urban people to the villages

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It means that village and towns are inter linked and yet different from each other.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - It means that village and towns are interlinked and yet different from each other.

Key Points

  • Rural-Urban continuum refers to the interconnection between rural and urban areas.
  • While villages and towns are distinct, they share economic, social, and cultural linkages.
  • This concept highlights that migration, trade, communication, and other interactions occur between rural and urban areas.
  • The continuum illustrates how rural and urban areas are part of a dynamic system, influencing and complementing each other.

Additional Information

  • Urbanization
  • Urbanization is the process through which rural areas transform into urban centers.
  • It involves growth in population density, infrastructure, and economic activities in towns and cities.
  • Migration
  • Migration between rural and urban areas reflects the mobility of people for better job opportunities, education, and living standards.
  • Both rural-to-urban migration and urban-to-rural migration contribute to shaping the rural-urban continuum.
  • Economic Linkages
  • Rural areas provide raw materials and labor for urban industries, while urban areas supply manufactured goods and services to rural areas.
  • This interdependence strengthens the rural-urban continuum.

Question 15

Fred Riggs in his seminal works 'Prismatic Society Revisited' did not include the discussion on :

  1. AOption (a)

    Developed Societies

  2. BOption (b)

    Structural Functionalism

  3. COption (c)

    Importance of citizen participation

  4. DOption (d)

    Need for Differenciation and Integration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Importance of citizen participation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Importance of citizen participation

Key Points

  • Fred Riggs' Work
  • Fred Riggs focused on the study of societies transitioning from traditional to modern structures in his seminal work "Prismatic Society Revisited."
  • His analysis emphasized the unique characteristics of prismatic societies, which exhibit overlapping traditional and modern attributes.
  • Discussion Scope
  • Riggs discussed various aspects such as structural-functionalism, the need for differentiation and integration, and developed societies.
  • However, the importance of citizen participation was not directly addressed in his seminal work.

Additional Information

  • Structural-functionalism
  • Fred Riggs used the structural-functional approach to analyze the interaction between social structures and their functions in prismatic societies.
  • He highlighted how societal structures in prismatic societies are neither fully traditional nor fully modern, leading to unique challenges.
  • Differentiation and Integration
  • Riggs emphasized the need for differentiation (specialization of functions) and integration (coherence among specialized parts) for societal development.
  • Prismatic societies often struggle to achieve this balance, leading to dysfunctions such as nepotism and corruption.
  • Developed Societies
  • Riggs compared prismatic societies with developed (fused) societies, where structures are more coherent and integrated.
  • Developed societies serve as a reference point to understand the challenges faced by prismatic societies.

Question 16

Which of the following theory is not propounded by Ferrel Heady

  1. AOption (a)

    Modified Traditional

  2. BOption (b)

    Development oriented

  3. COption (c)

    General system model building

  4. DOption (d)

    Institutional Effeciency improvement model

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Institutional Effeciency improvement model

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Institutional Efficiency Improvement Model

Key Points

  • Ferrel Heady is a prominent scholar in comparative public administration.
  • He proposed various models to understand and analyze administrative systems across different nations.
  • The Institutional Efficiency Improvement Model is not a theory propounded by Ferrel Heady. This model does not align with his recognized theories on comparative public administration.
  • Key theories by Ferrel Heady include:
  • Modified Traditional Model: Focuses on traditional administrative structures with some modifications to adapt to changing environments.
  • Development-Oriented Model: Emphasizes the role of administration in fostering national development, especially in developing countries.
  • General System Model Building: Applies a systems approach to understand the interactions and processes in administrative systems.

Additional Information

  • Comparative Public Administration
  • It is a subfield of public administration that examines and compares administrative systems across different countries.
  • Focuses on identifying patterns, similarities, and differences in administrative practices globally.
  • Development Administration
  • It is a concept closely related to Ferrel Heady's work, emphasizing the role of administration in achieving economic growth and social progress.
  • Primarily relevant in the context of developing nations.
  • Systems Approach
  • This approach views administrative systems as a set of interrelated components functioning together to achieve goals.
  • Heady's General System Model Building incorporates this perspective to analyze public administration.

Question 17

The last two states to join the United States of America are

  1. AOption (a)

    Alaska & Hawaii

  2. BOption (b)

    Atlanta & Hawaii

  3. COption (c)

    Wyoming & Atlanta

  4. DOption (d)

    Wyoming & Alaska

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alaska & Hawaii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Alaska & Hawaii

Key Points

  • Alaska and Hawaii were the last two states to join the United States of America.
  • Alaska became the 49th state on January 3, 1959.
  • Hawaii followed shortly after as the 50th state on August 21, 1959.
  • These two states are the only U.S. states that are geographically separated from the contiguous United States.
  • Alaska is located in the northwest corner of North America, bordered by Canada to the east.
  • Hawaii is an archipelago located in the central Pacific Ocean.
  • The incorporation of these states marked the completion of the current 50-state structure of the United States.

Additional Information

  • Historical Context of Alaska
  • Alaska was purchased from Russia in 1867 for $7.2 million, a transaction often referred to as "Seward's Folly" due to initial skepticism.
  • The discovery of gold and other natural resources later proved the purchase to be highly valuable.
  • Historical Context of Hawaii
  • Hawaii was annexed by the U.S. in 1898, following the overthrow of the Hawaiian monarchy.
  • It later became a U.S. state due to its strategic importance during World War II and its economic potential as a hub for tourism and agriculture.
  • Significance of Statehood
  • Statehood allowed Alaska and Hawaii to participate fully in federal governance, including representation in Congress.
  • It also enabled economic development and integration into the broader U.S. economy.

Question 18

The fifth republic constitutions of France was adopted in the year _______

  1. AOption (a)

    1946

  2. BOption (b)

    1953

  3. COption (c)

    1956

  4. DOption (d)

    1958

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1958

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 1958

Key Points

  • Fifth Republic Constitution
  • The Fifth Republic Constitution of France was adopted in 1958.
  • This constitution replaced the previous Fourth Republic, which faced political instability and governance challenges.
  • It marked the foundation of a new political regime with a strong executive branch under the leadership of Charles de Gaulle.
  • Key Features
  • The constitution established a semi-presidential system, combining elements of both parliamentary and presidential systems.
  • It granted significant powers to the President of France, including the ability to dissolve the National Assembly and call for referendums.
  • The primary objective was to ensure political stability and prevent the frequent government collapses experienced under the Fourth Republic.

Additional Information

  • Background of the Fifth Republic
  • The Fourth Republic (1946–1958) was characterized by political instability, with 24 different governments formed in just 12 years.
  • The Algerian Crisis (1954–1962), a conflict between France and Algerian independence movements, revealed the inefficiency of the Fourth Republic's governance.
  • In 1958, Charles de Gaulle was invited to lead the government, and he proposed the drafting of a new constitution.
  • Impact of the Constitution
  • The Fifth Republic brought political stability to France, with structured governance and a clear division of powers.
  • It strengthened the role of the President, making them the central figure in French politics.
  • The constitution has undergone several amendments but remains the basis of French governance today.

Question 19

Discretionary Grants to states for development is given by the Union Government Under Article ______ of the constitution

  1. AOption (a)

    275

  2. BOption (b)

    280

  3. COption (c)

    282

  4. DOption (d)

    268

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

282

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Article 282

Key Points

  • Article 282
  • Article 282 of the Indian Constitution allows both the Union and State governments to make discretionary grants for public purposes.
  • These grants are not restricted by the subjects listed in the Union, State, or Concurrent lists of the Constitution.
  • The purpose of such grants is to address specific needs or development projects that may not fall under routine budget allocations.
  • Discretionary grants under Article 282 are given for development purposes and are at the discretion of the Union Government.

Additional Information

  • Other Articles Related to Grants
  • Article 275: Provides for specific grants from the Union Government to states, especially for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and raising the level of administration in Scheduled Areas.
  • Article 280: Establishes the Finance Commission, which recommends grants-in-aid to states from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • Article 268: Deals with duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.
  • Importance of Discretionary Grants
  • These grants are used for addressing urgent needs, such as infrastructure development, disaster relief, or specific projects.
  • They offer flexibility to the Union Government to assist states in areas beyond routine financial allocations.

Question 20

The Union Government of India adopted the merger of Plan and Non-Plan classification in Budget and Accounts from the year:

  1. AOption (a)

    2015-16

  2. BOption (b)

    2016-17

  3. COption (c)

    2017-18

  4. DOption (d)

    2018-19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2017-18

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 2017-18

Key Points

  • Merger of Plan and Non-Plan classification
  • The Union Government of India decided to discontinue the distinction between Plan and Non-Plan expenditure in the Union Budget.
  • This change was implemented from the financial year 2017-18 to simplify the budgetary process and align it with modern accounting practices.
  • Objective of the merger
  • To provide a clearer picture of public expenditure by focusing on the nature of expenditure (e.g., revenue and capital) rather than its classification.
  • To improve transparency and ensure better linkage between expenditure and outcomes.

Additional Information

  • Challenges with Plan and Non-Plan classification
  • The earlier distinction led to imbalances in allocation, with Plan expenditure often prioritized over essential Non-Plan expenditures such as maintenance of assets.
  • It created confusion in analyzing the economic impact of government spending.
  • Advantages of the new system
  • Provides a holistic view of government spending by focusing on revenue and capital expenditure.
  • Helps in better targeting of resources for developmental and operational needs.
  • Aligns with global best practices in public financial management.

Question 21

Which one of the following is not a merit of Progressive Tax?

  1. AOption (a)

    Principle of Equality

  2. BOption (b)

    Equal distribution of income

  3. COption (c)

    Socialism

  4. DOption (d)

    Opportunities of Employment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Socialism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Socialism

Key Points

  • Socialism
  • Progressive taxation is primarily designed to achieve an equal distribution of wealth among different income groups, but it does not directly promote socialism as an ideology.
  • While progressive tax systems aim to reduce income inequality, they operate within the framework of a mixed economy rather than advocating complete government control over resources, which is a key feature of socialism.
  • Socialism is characterized by state ownership of resources and centralized economic planning, which is distinct from the goals of progressive taxation.

Additional Information

  • Principle of Equality
  • Progressive taxation adheres to the principle of equality, where individuals pay taxes proportionate to their income levels, ensuring fairness.
  • This system minimizes the burden on low-income earners while generating higher revenue from wealthier individuals.
  • Equal Distribution of Income
  • The goal of progressive taxation is to reduce income disparity by redistributing wealth, contributing to a more equitable society.
  • Opportunities of Employment
  • Progressive taxation indirectly supports employment opportunities by funding social welfare programs, infrastructure, and public services, which drive economic growth.

Question 22

Who among the following described the two situations i.e; “Unfavourable exclusion” and "infavourable exclusion" in the concept of Social exclusion?

  1. AOption (a)

    Amartya Sen

  2. BOption (b)

    Jagadish Bhagavathi

  3. COption (c)

    2nd Administrative Reforms Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    Arvind Subramanyam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Amartya Sen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Amartya Sen

Key Points

  • Amartya Sen is a renowned economist and philosopher known for his work on welfare economics, poverty, and social justice.
  • He introduced the concept of Social Exclusion, which refers to the systemic denial of access to resources, rights, and opportunities to certain groups.
  • Amartya Sen distinguished between two types of exclusions:
  • Unfavourable exclusion: Situations where individuals or groups are actively denied participation or access to resources.
  • Infavourable exclusion: Situations where individuals exclude themselves due to societal barriers or perceptions.
  • This concept is widely applied in analyzing inequality, poverty, and marginalization in society.

Additional Information

  • Social Exclusion:
  • It is a multi-dimensional concept that goes beyond income poverty to include lack of access to education, healthcare, political participation, and social acceptance.
  • Amartya Sen emphasized that exclusion can be both active (deliberate discrimination) and passive (due to systemic inequality).
  • Applications of Social Exclusion:
  • Used in policy-making to address issues of inequality and improve inclusivity.
  • Informs development programs aimed at marginalized groups like women, ethnic minorities, and economically disadvantaged populations.
  • Amartya Sen's Contributions:
  • Recipient of the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to welfare economics.
  • Author of works such as Development as Freedom, where he elaborates on the role of social freedoms in achieving economic development.

Question 23

The name of Untouchability (Abolition) Act was changed as ______ in 1976.

  1. AOption (a)

    Protection of Civil Rights Act

  2. BOption (b)

    National Untouchability (Abolition) Act

  3. COption (c)

    Minimum Social Rights Protection Act

  4. DOption (d)

    Human Rights Protection Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Protection of Civil Rights Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Protection of Civil Rights Act

Key Points

  • Protection of Civil Rights Act
  • The Untouchability (Abolition) Act, enacted in 1955, was renamed to Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976.
  • This change was made to emphasize the protection of fundamental rights, as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution, particularly Articles 15 and 17.
  • The Act aims to eliminate practices of untouchability and ensure equality among all citizens.
  • It provides legal safeguards against discrimination based on caste or untouchability.

Additional Information

  • Article 17 of the Constitution
  • Article 17 explicitly abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • It declares untouchability as a punishable offense under the law.
  • Scope of the Act
  • The Protection of Civil Rights Act covers offenses related to caste discrimination, including denial of access to public places and refusal of services.
  • It empowers authorities to take legal action against individuals or groups perpetuating untouchability.
  • Legal Provisions
  • The Act prescribes penalties for offenses, including imprisonment and fines, to deter discrimination and untouchability practices.
  • It reinforces the principles of social justice and equality in India.

Question 24

The Constitution of India has made for some special provisions for Weaker Sections of Society for their Upliftment in:

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 41

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 46

  3. COption (c)

    Article - 21

  4. DOption (d)

    Article - 38

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 46

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Article 46

Key Points

  • Article 46 is specifically aimed at the promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and other weaker sections.
  • It directs the State to provide special care and efforts to improve the condition of these marginalized groups in society.
  • This Article forms part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guides the government in policymaking to achieve social justice and equity.
  • Its goal is to reduce inequality and help weaker sections participate equally in societal development.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • These are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution of India (Articles 36 to 51).
  • They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts but provide guidance to the State in policymaking.
  • The objective is to establish a welfare state where social and economic justice prevails.
  • Other Articles in DPSP
  • Article 41: Focuses on the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.
  • Article 38: Directs the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which justice (social, economic, and political) is ensured.
  • Importance of Article 46
  • It plays a crucial role in the upliftment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups.
  • Specific schemes and policies, such as scholarships for SCs/STs and skill development programs, are implemented to fulfill the objective of this Article.

Question 25

The main reason for evolution of Welfare State emerged due to : 

  1. AOption (a)

    First World War

  2. BOption (b)

    Great Economic Depression

  3. COption (c)

    French Revolution

  4. DOption (d)

    Russian Revolution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Russian Revolution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Russian Revolution

Key Points

  • Russian Revolution
  • The Russian Revolution of 1917 played a pivotal role in the emergence of the Welfare State.
  • It introduced concepts like state responsibility for the well-being of its citizens, particularly focusing on equality and social justice.
  • The revolution emphasized the need for state intervention in areas such as healthcare, education, and worker's rights to ensure a fairer society.
  • The ideas of socialism, born out of the Russian Revolution, heavily influenced the development of welfare policies in various countries.

Additional Information

  • Welfare State
  • A Welfare State is a system in which the government assumes responsibility for the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
  • It focuses on providing basic social services such as healthcare, education, unemployment benefits, and pensions.
  • Key principles include equality, social justice, and the reduction of poverty.
  • Impact of the Russian Revolution
  • The Russian Revolution inspired many countries to adopt policies focusing on workers' rights and social equality.
  • It gave rise to ideologies like socialism, which advocated for state control over resources to ensure equitable distribution.
  • These ideas influenced the development of welfare states in Europe and other parts of the world.

Question 26

Which among the following is not a correct statement related to Group Theory

  1. AOption (a)

    The influence of group by their strength

  2. BOption (b)

    Group is determined by organizational strength

  3. COption (c)

    Individual center is powerful than group

  4. DOption (d)

    Interaction among groups is the central fact of politics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Individual center is powerful than group

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Individual center is powerful than group

Key Points

  • Group Theory emphasizes the importance of groups over individuals in political and organizational settings.
  • Interaction among groups is considered the central fact in politics, highlighting the role of collective behavior and dynamics.
  • Groups are formed based on shared interests, goals, or values, and they influence organizational and political outcomes.
  • Organizational strength determines the effectiveness and influence of groups, not individual power.
  • The idea that an individual is more powerful than the group contradicts the fundamental principles of Group Theory, making it an incorrect statement.

Additional Information

  • Central Features of Group Theory
  • Groups are the primary units of analysis in political science and sociology.
  • The behavior and decisions of individuals are often shaped by the groups to which they belong.
  • Groups exert influence through collective action, lobbying, and advocacy in organizational and political domains.
  • Interaction among Groups
  • Groups compete or collaborate based on shared goals or conflicting interests.
  • This interaction plays a key role in shaping political processes, policies, and outcomes.
  • Importance of Organizational Strength
  • The strength of a group is determined by factors such as leadership, resources, and unity.
  • Organized groups are more effective in influencing decisions compared to scattered individual efforts.

Question 27

Elite theory of public policy is related to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Society divided into classes and masses decide public policy

  2. BOption (b)

    Non elites, who have accepted the basic elite consensus can be admitted to governing circles

  3. COption (c)

    Elites are influenced by masses and their values

  4. DOption (d)

    Changes in public policy will be revolutionary rather instrumental

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Non elites, who have accepted the basic elite consensus can be admitted to governing circles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Non elites, who have accepted the basic elite consensus can be admitted to governing circles

Key Points

  • Elite Theory
  • Focuses on the role of a small, powerful group of elites in determining public policy.
  • According to this theory, elites hold authority and dominate decision-making processes in society.
  • Admission of Non-Elites
  • Non-elites can become part of governing circles if they align themselves with the values and consensus established by the elites.
  • This ensures that the elite consensus remains intact while allowing limited inclusion of new members.
  • Policy Decisions
  • Policy changes are incremental and maintain the status quo to reflect elite interests.
  • This controlled inclusion prevents large-scale disruption while allowing some degree of adaptability.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of Elite Theory
  • Society is divided into two classes: the elites and the masses.
  • The elites dominate power and influence, while the masses are largely passive participants in governance.
  • Masses and Policy Influence
  • The masses have limited influence on public policy as elites are the primary decision-makers.
  • Mass involvement is often symbolic, with real power concentrated within the elite group.
  • Criticism of Elite Theory
  • Critics argue that elite theory undermines democracy by concentrating power among a small group.
  • It is also criticized for ignoring the potential of collective action by the masses to influence policy.

Question 28

Identity the author of the book 'A Pre-View of Policy Sciences'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thomas R. Dye

  2. BOption (b)

    Harold D. Lasswell

  3. COption (c)

    Charles E. Lindbolm

  4. DOption (d)

    Elinor Ostrom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Harold D. Lasswell

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Harold D. Lasswell

Key Points

  • Harold D. Lasswell is the author of 'A Pre-View of Policy Sciences.'
  • He is widely regarded as one of the pioneers of the policy sciences field.
  • The book discusses the integration of social sciences into policy-making processes.
  • It emphasizes the importance of interdisciplinary approaches in addressing complex societal challenges.

Additional Information

  • About Harold D. Lasswell
  • He was a prominent political scientist and communication theorist.
  • His work explored the relationships between power, personality, and society.
  • He introduced the famous communication model: Who says What, in Which Channel, to Whom, with What Effect?
  • Policy Sciences
  • The field focuses on systematic, interdisciplinary analysis of public policy-making and implementation.
  • Lasswell's work laid the foundation for modern studies in policy analysis and governance.

Question 29

Which among the following is NOT an obstacle to rational policy making.

  1. AOption (a)

    Advanced computerized analytical techniques donot have sufficient intelligence to calculate the accurate cost and benefits:

  2. BOption (b)

    Large investments in existing programmes and Policies help the policy makers for reconsidering alternatives:

  3. COption (c)

    Many conflicting benefits and costs cannot be compared or weighed;

  4. DOption (d)

    Uncertainity about the consequences of various Policy alternatives couples the policy makers to stick as closely a possible.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Large investments in existing programmes and Policies help the policy makers for reconsidering alternatives:

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Large investments in existing programmes and Policies help the policy makers for reconsidering alternatives

Key Points

  • Rational policy making
  • Rational policy making involves a systematic, evidence-based process of weighing the costs and benefits of various alternatives.
  • Its core principle is to achieve the most optimal outcomes based on available data and analysis.
  • Incorrect assumption in the statement
  • The statement that "Large investments in existing programmes and policies help policy makers for reconsidering alternatives" does not align with the concept of rational policy making.
  • In reality, large investments often lead to a phenomenon called "path dependency", where decision-makers are reluctant to move away from the current policies due to sunk costs.
  • Other obstacles to rational policy making
  • Uncertainty about outcomes of policies and the inability to predict consequences.
  • Difficulty in comparing conflicting benefits and costs, as some impacts may be intangible or subjective.

Additional Information

  • Sunk cost fallacy
  • Decision makers may continue with a failing policy due to the significant resources already invested, even if alternatives would yield better outcomes.
  • This is known as the sunk cost fallacy and is a significant obstacle to rational decision making.
  • Role of uncertainty
  • Uncertainty arises when the outcomes of a policy cannot be predicted with complete accuracy due to incomplete data or unforeseen factors.
  • This often leads to a preference for maintaining the status quo rather than exploring new alternatives.
  • Advanced analytical techniques
  • While advanced techniques aid in assessing policies, they may lack the intelligence to fully account for all variables, especially intangible factors like public sentiment or long-term impacts.

Question 30

Which among the following are called as Peak Associations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Largest and most influential groups in a Policy domain.

  2. BOption (b)

    Corporate companies are to able to pump the wealth.

  3. COption (c)

    Strong communications network in a developed state

  4. DOption (d)

    Conflicting interests expressed by a community.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Largest and most influential groups in a Policy domain.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Largest and most influential groups in a Policy domain

Key Points

  • Peak Associations are umbrella organizations that represent large and influential groups in specific policy domains.
  • They play a critical role in shaping policy by acting as a collective voice for various entities, such as industries, labor unions, or professional groups.
  • Peak Associations often influence government decisions and contribute to policy frameworks by lobbying for their members' interests.
  • Examples include business councils or national-level trade unions that represent multiple smaller organizations.

Additional Information

  • Functions of Peak Associations
  • These organizations mediate between their members and government bodies to ensure equitable policy-making.
  • They facilitate collaboration within industries to address common challenges and promote growth.
  • Characteristics of Peak Associations
  • They are often recognized for having a strong influence on public policy due to their size and collective representation.
  • They possess a structured communication network that connects multiple smaller organizations.

Question 31

Which of the following are / is not related to 'Droit Administratif'

  1. AOption (a)

    French administrative law is known as 'Droit Administratif'

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a body of ruler which determine the organizations, power and duties of public administration

  3. COption (c)

    It represent the rule and principle enacted by the parliament

  4. DOption (d)

    It regulate the relation of administrator with citizens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It represent the rule and principle enacted by the parliament

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - It represents the rule and principle enacted by the parliament

Key Points

  • Droit Administratif
  • Droit Administratif refers to the French administrative law system, which governs the organization, powers, and duties of public administration.
  • It is distinct from legislative rules or principles enacted by the parliament. Instead, it is developed by administrative courts in France.
  • This system emphasizes the independence of administrative law and the specialized administrative courts, such as the Conseil d'État (Council of State).
  • Unlike parliamentary rules, it is based on case law and judicial precedents.
  • Incorrect association
  • The statement that Droit Administratif "represents the rule and principle enacted by the parliament" is incorrect because administrative law in France is not entirely dependent on parliamentary legislation.
  • Instead, it is formulated through judicial decisions and administrative practices.

Additional Information

  • Features of Droit Administratif
  • It regulates the relationship between administrators and citizens, ensuring the protection of citizens against administrative actions.
  • Administrative courts oversee disputes between citizens and public administration, ensuring justice and accountability.
  • The Conseil d'État acts as the supreme administrative court, addressing legal issues related to public administration.
  • Comparison with Common Law Systems
  • Unlike common law systems, Droit Administratif operates independently from regular judicial systems, with specialized courts for administrative matters.
  • It focuses on protecting public interest while ensuring administrative accountability.

Question 32

In administrative law, 'the right to fair hearing' is called-

  1. AOption (a)

    Natural Justice

  2. BOption (b)

    'Audi alteram Partem'

  3. COption (c)

    Delegated Legislation

  4. DOption (d)

    Equality before law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

'Audi alteram Partem'

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 'Audi alteram Partem'

Key Points

  • 'Audi alteram Partem'
  • This Latin phrase translates to "hear the other side" or "let the other party be heard," which is a fundamental principle of natural justice.
  • It ensures that no person is condemned or judged without being given a fair opportunity to present their case.
  • This principle applies in administrative law, judicial proceedings, and quasi-judicial processes.
  • The right to a fair hearing is essential to prevent bias and ensure justice is served objectively.

Additional Information

  • Principles of Natural Justice
  • 'Audi alteram partem': No one should be judged without being given an opportunity to be heard.
  • 'Nemo judex in causa sua': No one should be a judge in their own case to prevent bias or conflict of interest.
  • Application in Administrative Law
  • Administrative authorities must follow the principle of 'Audi alteram partem' when making decisions that affect individuals' rights or interests.
  • Failure to adhere to this principle may result in the decision being deemed invalid or subject to judicial review.
  • Distinction from Other Concepts
  • Natural Justice is a broader concept that encompasses principles like 'Audi alteram partem' and 'Nemo judex in causa sua.'
  • Delegated Legislation refers to laws made by an executive authority under powers given by primary legislation, not related to the right to a fair hearing.
  • Equality before law is a constitutional principle ensuring equal treatment, distinct from procedural fairness.

Question 33

Governance theorists identify the Governance is closely related to :

  1. AOption (a)

    Capacity of Government

  2. BOption (b)

    Elected representatives

  3. COption (c)

    Community Development activities

  4. DOption (d)

    Top down approach of Government

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Capacity of Government

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Capacity of Government

Key Points

  • Governance is fundamentally linked to the capacity of government to effectively plan, implement, and enforce policies.
  • It refers to the ability of governmental institutions to provide essential public services, uphold the rule of law, and ensure accountability and transparency.
  • The concept of governance goes beyond merely exercising power; it includes the institutional capabilities of the government to meet societal needs and challenges.
  • Efficient governance often depends on factors like resource allocation, administrative efficiency, and policy implementation frameworks.

Additional Information

  • Key components of governance:
  • Rule of Law: Ensures that laws are applied fairly and consistently, protecting citizens' rights.
  • Transparency: Public access to information about governmental decisions and actions.
  • Accountability: Holding public officials and institutions responsible for their performance and conduct.
  • Participation: Encouraging citizen engagement in decision-making processes.
  • Difference between governance and government:
  • Government: Refers to the formal institutions and structures through which decisions are made and authority is exercised.
  • Governance: Involves the broader processes and mechanisms for managing societal resources and addressing public issues, including non-governmental actors.
  • Effective governance is essential for achieving sustainable development, reducing inequality, and maintaining social order.

Question 34

Which of the following is not a principle of e-kranti?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transformation

  2. BOption (b)

    Integrate Services

  3. COption (c)

    Government process Re engineering

  4. DOption (d)

    Uniform language across nation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uniform language across nation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Uniform language across nation

Key Points

  • Uniform language across nation
  • This concept is not recognized as a principle under the e-Kranti framework.
  • The e-Kranti initiative focuses on digital transformation, integrated service delivery, and process re-engineering, but not language standardization.
  • India's digital governance efforts emphasize inclusivity and accessibility rather than enforcing uniformity in language across the nation.

Additional Information

  • Principles of e-Kranti
  • e-Kranti is part of the Digital India initiative, aimed at transforming governance through technology.
  • Key principles include:
  • Transformation: Focuses on transforming service delivery through digital platforms.
  • Integrated Services: Provides seamless and unified services across departments.
  • Government Process Re-engineering: Simplifies and redefines processes to enhance efficiency and transparency.
  • Digital India Vision
  • Aims to empower citizens by providing accessible, affordable, and sustainable digital infrastructure.
  • Encourages innovation in e-governance and service delivery models.

Question 35

Which among the following is NOT related to the characteristics of ISO certified "Sarvotham Model'.

  1. AOption (a)

    It is for the strengthening the new work of grievance redressal mechanism

  2. BOption (b)

    It is for effective system of citizen charter

  3. COption (c)

    It was recommended by II ARC

  4. DOption (d)

    It is related with Public Sector in India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is related with Public Sector in India.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - It is related with Public Sector in India.

Key Points

  • Sarvotham Model is an ISO-certified framework designed to promote effective governance and service delivery.
  • It focuses on the strengthening of grievance redressal mechanisms through systematic approaches.
  • The model is aimed at ensuring an effective citizen charter system, which enhances accountability and transparency in governance.
  • It was recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (II ARC), a government body responsible for improving public administration in India.
  • The claim that it is related to the Public Sector in India is incorrect, as the Sarvotham Model primarily focuses on governance mechanisms that are not exclusive to public sector entities.

Additional Information

  • Citizen Charter
  • It is a written declaration by a government organization that outlines its services, commitments, and grievance redressal procedures.
  • The Sarvotham Model ensures that citizen charters are implemented effectively, enhancing public trust in governance.
  • Second Administrative Reforms Commission (II ARC)
  • The II ARC was established in 2005 to suggest measures to revamp public administration and governance in India.
  • It recommended models like Sarvotham to improve service delivery and accountability in various administrative frameworks.
  • Grievance Redressal Mechanism
  • It is a system designed to address complaints and disputes promptly and transparently.
  • The Sarvotham Model emphasizes the role of technology and defined processes in resolving grievances efficiently.

Question 36

Scaling errors can be eliminated by

  1. AOption (a)

    Adjusting true values of population parameters.

  2. BOption (b)

    Avoiding Bias.

  3. COption (c)

    Increasing the Sample Size.

  4. DOption (d)

    Decreasing the Sample Size.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increasing the Sample Size.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Increasing the Sample Size

Key Points

  • Scaling errors refer to inaccuracies in data caused by small or insufficient sample sizes, leading to incorrect conclusions.
  • Increasing the sample size reduces the impact of random errors and enhances the accuracy of the estimate for population parameters.
  • With a larger sample size:
  • Statistical measures like the mean, variance, and standard deviation become more representative of the entire population.
  • The margin of error decreases, improving the reliability of results.
  • Other methods, such as simply adjusting values or avoiding bias, cannot fully eliminate scaling errors unless the sample size is adequate.

Additional Information

  • Sample Size and Accuracy
  • A larger sample size increases the statistical power, reducing the chances of Type I (false positive) and Type II (false negative) errors.
  • It ensures that the sample is more representative of the overall population, minimizing the impact of outliers or anomalies.
  • Bias in Sampling
  • While avoiding bias is essential, it cannot completely eliminate scaling errors. Bias refers to systematic errors caused by flawed sampling or data collection methods.
  • Combining unbiased sampling methods with an appropriate sample size leads to more accurate results.
  • Population Parameters
  • Population parameters, such as the mean or proportion, are fixed values that describe an entire population.
  • Scaling errors occur when the sample used is too small to accurately estimate these parameters.

Question 37

The Title of the book by Abraham Kaplan on behavioural Science in research is _______

  1. AOption (a)

    The Conduct of Inquiry

  2. BOption (b)

    The Conduct of enquiry

  3. COption (c)

    The Conduct of Social Inquiry

  4. DOption (d)

    The Conduct of behavioural research

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Conduct of Inquiry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - The Conduct of Inquiry

Key Points

  • The Conduct of Inquiry
  • Written by Abraham Kaplan, this book is a fundamental text on behavioral science research.
  • It focuses on the methodological principles and philosophical foundations of scientific inquiry.
  • The book is widely regarded as a cornerstone in the field of social sciences and serves as a guide for researchers to understand the conduct and nature of scientific research.

Additional Information

  • Behavioral Science
  • Behavioral science is an interdisciplinary field that studies human behavior through methods like observation, experimentation, and theoretical modeling.
  • It integrates concepts from psychology, sociology, anthropology, and other related disciplines.
  • Philosophy of Science
  • The book addresses the philosophical aspects of how scientific knowledge is constructed and validated.
  • It discusses the importance of critical thinking and empirical evidence in research.
  • Research Methodology
  • Kaplan emphasizes the role of systematic methods in ensuring the reliability and validity of scientific findings.
  • The book is often cited in discussions about the principles and ethics of conducting research.

Question 38

Which one of the following is not a tool of research?

  1. AOption (a)

    Library

  2. BOption (b)

    Statistics

  3. COption (c)

    Report writing

  4. DOption (d)

    Language

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Report writing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Report writing

Key Points

  • Report writing
  • It is the process of documenting the findings of a research study in an organized manner, but it is not considered a direct tool of research.
  • Tools of research are specific methods or instruments used to collect, analyze, and interpret data, such as surveys, statistics, or experiments.
  • While report writing is crucial for presenting research outcomes, it is a part of the post-research phase, not a tool used during the research process.

Additional Information

  • Tools of research
  • Library: A valuable source of information for researchers to review literature, gather background knowledge, and access academic resources.
  • Statistics: A crucial tool for analyzing data, identifying patterns, and validating research hypotheses.
  • Language: Essential for formulating research questions, interpreting findings, and effectively communicating results.
  • Phases of research
  • Planning phase: Involves defining the research problem and selecting appropriate tools.
  • Execution phase: Includes data collection and analysis using research tools.
  • Reporting phase: Involves presenting findings, typically through report writing, which is not a research tool but a deliverable.

Question 39

Reliability and validity in research reflects the _______

  1. AOption (a)

    Uniqueness

  2. BOption (b)

    Usefulness

  3. COption (c)

    Quality

  4. DOption (d)

    Accuracy soundness & replicability of Data

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Accuracy soundness & replicability of Data

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Accuracy, soundness, and replicability of data

Key Points

  • Reliability
  • Refers to the consistency of research results over time.
  • Ensures that repeated experiments or studies under the same conditions yield similar results.
  • Validity
  • Indicates whether the research measures what it is intended to measure (accuracy).
  • Ensures that the data collected is sound and interpretable.
  • Replicability
  • Refers to the ability to duplicate the study or experiment to achieve similar findings.
  • Strengthens the credibility of the research findings.

Additional Information

  • Types of Reliability
  • Test-retest reliability: Assesses the consistency of results when the same test is repeated over time.
  • Inter-rater reliability: Measures consistency between different observers or raters.
  • Internal consistency: Evaluates whether multiple items in a test measure the same concept.
  • Types of Validity
  • Content validity: Ensures the test covers all aspects of the concept being measured.
  • Construct validity: Confirms whether the test accurately measures the theoretical concept.
  • Criterion validity: Determines how well the test correlates with an established standard.
  • Importance of Replicability
  • Ensures that findings are not due to chance or external factors.
  • Promotes trustworthiness and acceptance in the scientific community.

Question 40

Which of the following has been described as the master key to Good Governance by the IInd Administrative reforms Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Promotion of e-governance

  2. BOption (b)

    Ethics in Governance

  3. COption (c)

    Right to Information

  4. DOption (d)

    People Participation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Right to Information

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Right to Information

Key Points

  • Right to Information (RTI)
  • The IInd Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) has identified RTI as the master key to ensure transparency and accountability in governance.
  • RTI empowers citizens to access information held by public authorities, promoting informed participation in governance.
  • By reducing corruption and ensuring that government actions are open to public scrutiny, RTI strengthens democratic processes.
  • The Act facilitates the creation of a system where citizens can demand explanations for decisions, ensuring ethical and responsible governance.

Additional Information

  • Other Key Recommendations of the IInd ARC
  • Promotion of e-governance: E-governance is vital for enhancing the efficiency, transparency, and citizen-centricity of public services.
  • Ethics in Governance: Stress is laid on developing a code of ethics for public officials, promoting integrity and reducing corruption.
  • People Participation: Encouraging active citizen engagement in governance processes fosters inclusivity and responsiveness.
  • Right to Information Act, 2005
  • The Act mandates public authorities to provide information to citizens within a stipulated timeframe.
  • It aims to create a transparent and accountable government by bridging the information gap between citizens and authorities.
  • RTI covers all constitutional authorities, including the executive, legislature, and judiciary, as well as public sector undertakings.

Question 41

Consider the following Characteristics of Hierarchy

(A) It is inherent with division of work

(B) It is a channel of Communication

(C) It is a path of delegation

(D) It determines the authority, structure of organisation

Choose the most correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B, C, D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - All of the above (A, B, C, D)

Key Points

  • Hierarchy and Division of Work
  • Hierarchy is inherently linked to the division of work, where tasks are divided among individuals or groups to improve efficiency.
  • This ensures that each organizational level has specific responsibilities.
  • Hierarchy as a Channel of Communication
  • A hierarchical structure provides a clear path for communication between different levels of an organization.
  • It ensures that messages flow in a structured manner, reducing ambiguity.
  • Hierarchy and Delegation
  • Hierarchy serves as the foundation for delegation, where authority and responsibility are assigned to subordinates.
  • This promotes accountability and task completion within the organization.
  • Hierarchy Determines the Authority Structure
  • It establishes the authority and power dynamics within an organization, clearly defining who reports to whom.
  • This is critical for maintaining organizational order and achieving goals.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Hierarchy
  • A hierarchical structure is a common feature in organizations, characterized by multiple levels of authority and responsibility.
  • It ensures smooth functioning by aligning tasks, communication, and decision-making processes within the organizational framework.
  • Benefits of Hierarchy
  • It provides a clear structure that ensures accountability and transparency.
  • Facilitates better coordination and decision-making at all levels of the organization.
  • Limitations of Hierarchy
  • Rigid hierarchical systems may lead to delayed decision-making and reduced flexibility.
  • Excessive levels of hierarchy can result in communication barriers and inefficiencies.

Question 42

Von Slyke, O'Leary and Kim listed which of the proactive steps for making public Administration a stronger and more robust -

(A) Supportive collaborative research

(B) Demand to maintain methodological and epistemological pluralism.

(C) Understanding non-western culture

(D) Promoting boundary spanning

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B, D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Supportive collaborative research, demand to maintain methodological and epistemological pluralism, and promoting boundary spanning

Key Points

  • Supportive collaborative research
  • Von Slyke, O'Leary, and Kim emphasized the need for collaborative research to strengthen public administration.
  • Collaborative research fosters innovation and problem-solving by bringing together diverse perspectives.
  • Methodological and epistemological pluralism
  • They advocated for maintaining pluralism in approaches to research and knowledge generation.
  • This ensures that the field remains inclusive and adaptable to various contexts and challenges.
  • Promoting boundary spanning
  • Boundary spanning involves crossing organizational and disciplinary boundaries to address complex issues.
  • It supports the integration of ideas and practices from different fields, making public administration more dynamic.

Additional Information

  • Understanding non-western culture
  • Although understanding non-western cultures is important in public administration, it was not explicitly highlighted by Von Slyke, O'Leary, and Kim in this context.
  • Boundary spanning in practice
  • It is particularly relevant in addressing global challenges such as climate change, where collaboration across sectors is essential.
  • This approach is increasingly recognized as a critical competency for public administrators.

Question 43

Consider the ideas of Peter Drucker about management

(A) He believed that the term 'management is generic

(B) He describe management as liberal act

(C) He introduced the concept of knowledge worker

(D) The concept of Management by Objectives given by him

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B, C & D 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - He believed that the term 'management' is generic, described management as a liberal act, introduced the concept of the knowledge worker, and gave the concept of Management by Objectives.

Key Points

  • Peter Drucker and his generic view of management
  • Drucker believed that management is a universal concept that can be applied across organizations, industries, and contexts.
  • He emphasized that the principles of management are not confined to business but extend to non-profits, government, and other institutions.
  • Management as a liberal act
  • Drucker described management as a liberal art, combining knowledge from various disciplines like economics, psychology, history, and philosophy.
  • He highlighted that management is a human-oriented practice and not just a technical or mechanical process.
  • Introduction of the knowledge worker
  • Drucker introduced the concept of the knowledge worker, referring to employees whose primary capital is knowledge.
  • This concept recognized the shift from manual labor to a knowledge-based economy, emphasizing the importance of intellectual capabilities.
  • Management by Objectives (MBO)
  • Drucker developed the concept of Management by Objectives (MBO), a strategic framework where managers and employees collaboratively set goals.
  • MBO focuses on aligning individual goals with organizational objectives to improve performance and accountability.

Additional Information

  • Contribution to modern management
  • Peter Drucker is often regarded as the father of modern management, with a significant impact on the development of management theory and practice.
  • His work emphasized the importance of people management, innovation, and adapting to change.
  • Focus on decentralization
  • Drucker advocated for decentralization in organizations, allowing decision-making authority to be distributed across various levels.
  • This approach fosters autonomy, accountability, and better decision-making within teams.
  • Customer-centric approach
  • Drucker emphasized that businesses exist to create and serve customers.
  • He underscored the importance of understanding customer needs and delivering value to remain competitive.

Question 44

Which of the following facts are correct about the primary responsibility of the Secretariat?

(A) Budgeting and Control of expenditure

(B) Making and modifying policies from time to time.

(C) Sectoral planning and programme formulation

(D) Planning legislation, Rules & Regulations

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    B & C Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B, C & D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, C & D

Key Points

  • Primary responsibilities of the Secretariat:
  • Budgeting and control of expenditure: The Secretariat ensures proper allocation and monitoring of funds to maintain financial discipline.
  • Making and modifying policies: Policies are created or updated periodically to align with dynamic governance needs.
  • Sectoral planning and programme formulation: The Secretariat designs sector-specific plans and programmes to achieve developmental objectives.
  • Planning legislation, rules, and regulations: Drafting legal frameworks and regulations for effective administrative functioning is a key duty.

Additional Information

  • Role of the Secretariat:
  • Acts as the administrative backbone of government operations, supporting policy implementation and coordination.
  • Ensures compliance with legislative frameworks and monitors execution of government programmes.
  • Budgeting:
  • Includes preparation, approval, and monitoring of financial plans for various sectors.
  • Maintains transparency and accountability in public expenditure.
  • Policy Formulation:
  • Involves identifying critical areas requiring intervention and drafting policies accordingly.
  • Focuses on achieving long-term developmental goals.
  • Legislation and Regulations:
  • Facilitates drafting of new laws and amendments to existing ones to meet emerging needs.
  • Ensures regulatory frameworks align with constitutional and administrative principles.

Question 45

Which of the following agencies work under Cabinet Secretariat?

(A) Research & Analysis wing

(B) National Authority for Chemical Weapons

(C) Special Frontier Force

(D) Central Bureau of Investigation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C & D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B & C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Research & Analysis Wing, National Authority for Chemical Weapons, and Special Frontier Force

Key Points

  • Research & Analysis Wing (R&AW)
  • R&AW is India's foreign intelligence agency, responsible for gathering external intelligence, counter-terrorism, and covert operations.
  • It operates under the Cabinet Secretariat and is not part of the Ministry of Home Affairs or Ministry of Defence.
  • National Authority for Chemical Weapons
  • This authority oversees the implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention in India.
  • It functions under the Cabinet Secretariat to ensure compliance with international obligations.
  • Special Frontier Force (SFF)
  • The SFF is a paramilitary organization that operates under the Cabinet Secretariat, specifically the Directorate General of Security.
  • It was established for specialized covert operations and is primarily composed of Tibetan refugees.
  • Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • The CBI does not function under the Cabinet Secretariat. It operates under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.

Additional Information

  • Cabinet Secretariat
  • The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for coordination between various ministries and departments of the Indian government.
  • It provides assistance to the Union Cabinet and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, who is the top-most civil servant in India.
  • Directorate General of Security
  • The Directorate General of Security operates under the Cabinet Secretariat and oversees organizations like R&AW and SFF.
  • It plays a pivotal role in national security and intelligence operations.
  • Role of R&AW
  • R&AW focuses on external intelligence and does not have any law enforcement role within India.
  • It was established in 1968 following the failure of intelligence during the 1962 Sino-Indian war and the 1965 Indo-Pak war.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Writs?

(A) Habeas Corpus cannot be issued where the proceedings is for contempt of a legislature or court.

(B) The Write Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body.

(C) The Supreme Court has ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities.

(D) Quo Warranto cannot be sought by any interested person. and necessarily, by the aggrieved Person only.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D Only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B, C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, C Only

Key Points

  • Habeas Corpus
  • The writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be issued in cases where proceedings relate to contempt of a legislature or a court. This is because these proceedings enjoy immunity under certain constitutional provisions.
  • Mandamus
  • The writ of Mandamus can only be issued to direct a public authority to perform a public duty. It cannot be issued against private individuals or bodies, as they do not have public duties under the law.
  • Certiorari
  • The Supreme Court has clarified that the writ of Certiorari can be issued against administrative authorities if they act in a quasi-judicial capacity and violate the principles of natural justice.
  • Quo Warranto
  • The statement about Quo Warranto is incorrect. This writ can be sought by any person, not just the aggrieved party, to challenge the authority of a person holding a public office without the requisite qualification or authority.

Additional Information

  • Writs under the Indian Constitution
  • Article 32 and Article 226 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and other purposes.
  • There are five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
  • Purpose of Writs
  • Habeas Corpus: To secure the release of a person unlawfully detained.
  • Mandamus: To compel a public authority to perform its legal duty.
  • Prohibition: To prohibit a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction.
  • Certiorari: To quash the decisions of lower courts or authorities acting in excess of jurisdiction.
  • Quo Warranto: To challenge the authority of a person holding a public office unlawfully.
  • Jurisdiction
  • The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction under Article 32 for fundamental rights, while High Courts can issue writs for both fundamental rights and other legal rights under Article 226.

Question 47

Which among the following are the functions of State Secretariat?

(A) Assisting ministries in Policy decisions

(B) Inplementation of Policies & Programmes on a day to day basis. 

(C) Budgetary control over expenditure

(D) Providing information to Legislative Committees

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B & D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, C & D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, C & D Only

Key Points

  • A: Assisting ministries in policy decisions
  • The State Secretariat plays a key role in helping ministries formulate and refine policies based on administrative expertise.
  • It ensures policies align with state governance priorities and legislative requirements.
  • C: Budgetary control over expenditure
  • The Secretariat monitors financial allocations and ensures adherence to budgetary limits.
  • This involves providing financial oversight and preventing mismanagement of state resources.
  • D: Providing information to legislative committees
  • It acts as the administrative link between the executive and legislature by supplying accurate and timely data to legislative committees.
  • This ensures informed decision-making and accountability in governance processes.

Additional Information

  • Implementation of policies
  • Implementation is typically handled by field agencies or subordinate offices rather than the Secretariat itself.
  • The Secretariat primarily focuses on administrative and policy-level tasks rather than day-to-day operational execution.
  • Role of State Secretariat
  • The Secretariat is the administrative nucleus of state governance, supporting executive functions and policy formulation.
  • Its roles include coordinating inter-departmental activities and providing a platform for efficient governance.
  • Legislative support
  • The Secretariat ensures smooth communication and collaboration between the executive and legislature.
  • It supplies information, reports, and feedback to legislative bodies for better policymaking and oversight.

Question 48

Which of the following correct regarding reservations of seats for representations of Certain section of population in Panchayat Raj institutions?

(A) Reservation of Seats for SCs as per the proportion of their population in the state. 

(B) Reservation of Seats for Scheduled Tribes is linked to their population in that Panchayat area.

(C) Reservation of Seats for Backward classes is not necessarily linked to their population.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C 

  2. BOption (b)

    A & B Only

  3. COption (c)

    A & C Only

  4. DOption (d)

    B & C Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B & C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Reservation of Seats for Scheduled Tribes is linked to their population in that Panchayat area and Reservation of Seats for Backward classes is not necessarily linked to their population.

Key Points

  • Reservation for Scheduled Tribes (ST)
  • Seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes in Panchayat Raj institutions are based on the proportion of their population in the respective Panchayat area.
  • This ensures adequate representation of Scheduled Tribes in local governance as per their demographic presence.
  • Reservation for Backward Classes
  • Reservation for Backward Classes is not necessarily linked to their population in the area.
  • The provision of such reservations is at the discretion of the state legislature, which decides the percentage of seats to be reserved.

Additional Information

  • Reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC)
  • Seats for Scheduled Castes are reserved in proportion to their population in the entire state, not specifically in the Panchayat area.
  • The aim is to ensure fair representation of Scheduled Castes in governance across the state.
  • Constitutional Provisions
  • Article 243D of the Indian Constitution provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in Panchayat Raj institutions.
  • It mandates that the state legislature can provide for the reservation of seats for backward classes.
  • Purpose of Reservations
  • To ensure inclusive governance by providing representation to marginalized sections of society.
  • To empower socially and economically weaker sections and give them a platform for participation in decision-making.

Question 49

Which of the following are the elements of Integrated Rural Development programme?

(A) Development of labour intensive agriculture

(B) Promotion of cash crops

(C) Employment generating through minor public works.

(D) Small Scale labour intensive industries.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D 

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, C, D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Development of labour intensive agriculture, Employment generating through minor public works, Small Scale labour intensive industries

Key Points

  • Development of labour intensive agriculture
  • This focuses on increasing rural employment by adopting labour-intensive agricultural practices.
  • It helps in addressing the issue of unemployment in rural areas while ensuring food security.
  • Employment generation through minor public works
  • Includes initiatives like construction of roads, bridges, and irrigation facilities.
  • Aims at providing temporary employment opportunities to rural workers.
  • Small-scale labour-intensive industries
  • Promotes local industries such as handicrafts, cottage industries, and other small-scale units.
  • Encourages the use of locally available resources to boost self-sufficiency and employment.

Additional Information

  • Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
  • Launched in 1978 in India to address poverty alleviation in rural areas.
  • Combines various aspects like agriculture, employment, and industrial development.
  • Objectives of IRDP
  • Increase the income levels of rural poor.
  • Promote self-reliance by developing local resources and skills.
  • Integrate various sectoral schemes for effective rural development.
  • Excluded elements
  • Promotion of cash crops is not an explicit focus of IRDP as it primarily aims at subsistence and employment generation.

Question 50

Which of the following are features of Sustainble development?

<br>

(A) Preservations of Environmental Diversity

(B) Use of local resources

(C) Social Justice

(D) Goegraphical equality

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B, C, D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, C, D Only

Key Points

  • Preservation of Environmental Diversity
  • Sustainable development aims to protect and conserve the environment and its biodiversity to ensure the planet's health for future generations.
  • It emphasizes maintaining a balance between development and the ecosystem.
  • Use of Local Resources
  • Encourages the utilization of locally available resources in a sustainable manner to reduce environmental degradation.
  • Promotes self-reliance and minimizes ecological footprints by reducing dependency on external resources.
  • Social Justice
  • Sustainable development aims to provide equal opportunities for all individuals, ensuring fair access to resources, education, and employment.
  • It fosters an inclusive society where the needs of marginalized groups are addressed.
  • Geographical Equality
  • Focuses on reducing the disparities between different regions by equitable distribution of resources and developmental opportunities.
  • Ensures that both rural and urban areas benefit equally from development initiatives.

Additional Information

  • Definition of Sustainable Development
  • Sustainable development refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • It integrates environmental, social, and economic dimensions.
  • Goals of Sustainable Development
  • To promote environmental conservation and reduce pollution.
  • To achieve social equity and eliminate poverty.
  • To ensure economic growth in harmony with nature.
  • Global Initiatives
  • The United Nations has set 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure peace and prosperity.
  • Key SDGs include clean energy, climate action, and reduced inequalities.

Question 51

Which of the following are Unitary (one) tier local bodies in United Kingdom?

(A) London Boroughs

(B) Country Councils

(C) Metropolition Borough

(D) City of district Councils

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - London Boroughs and Metropolitan Borough

Key Points

  • London Boroughs
  • London Boroughs are a type of unitary authority in the United Kingdom, operating as single-tier local government units.
  • They are responsible for providing all local government services within their areas, such as education, housing, and transportation.
  • There are a total of 32 London Boroughs in Greater London.
  • Metropolitan Boroughs
  • Metropolitan Boroughs are another example of unitary local authorities in metropolitan counties of the UK.
  • They handle all local government responsibilities, including social services, waste management, and local planning.
  • Examples include boroughs in cities like Manchester and Birmingham.

Additional Information

  • County Councils
  • County Councils operate in a two-tier system, where responsibilities are shared with district councils.
  • They are not unitary authorities as they do not provide all local services independently.
  • City or District Councils
  • Similar to County Councils, these operate in a two-tier structure in most areas.
  • They focus on specific responsibilities, such as housing and local planning, while other services are handled by county councils.

Question 52

Which of the following are the features of Privatization?

(A) Deregulation

(B) Contracting Public Services to Private Sector

(C) Encouraging Corporate Social Responsibility

(D) Disinvestment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C and D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, and D Only

Key Points

  • Deregulation
  • Deregulation refers to the removal of government-imposed restrictions in key sectors, allowing private players to enter and compete. It is a key feature of privatization as it fosters a competitive business environment.
  • Contracting Public Services to Private Sector
  • This involves allowing private entities to handle services traditionally managed by the government, improving efficiency and reducing public sector burden.
  • Disinvestment
  • Privatization often includes the process of disinvestment, where the government sells its stake in public sector enterprises to private investors, leading to a transfer of ownership and control.

Additional Information

  • Privatization
  • Privatization refers to the process of transferring ownership or control of a public sector enterprise to the private sector.
  • The aim is to improve efficiency, reduce the fiscal burden on the government, and encourage competition.
  • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
  • While CSR is encouraged in private enterprises, it is not a direct feature of privatization. CSR focuses on the ethical responsibilities of businesses towards society, which is a separate concept from the privatization process.

Question 53

Fiscal deficit in Government Budget can be reduced by ______

(A) Cutting down inefficiency

(B) Improving worker's productivity

(C) Adopting new methods of Budget making

(D) Rationalizing and economizing expenditure

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C & D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C & D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Cutting down inefficiency, Adopting new methods of Budget making, and Rationalizing and economizing expenditure

Key Points

  • Cutting down inefficiency
  • Inefficiencies in government operations lead to unnecessary costs and wastage.
  • Reducing inefficiency ensures optimized resource allocation and lowers fiscal deficit.
  • Adopting new methods of Budget making
  • Innovative approaches to budget formulation prioritize effective resource utilization.
  • Adoption of techniques like zero-based budgeting helps in identifying essential expenditures.
  • Rationalizing and economizing expenditure
  • Rationalization involves systematically reviewing and eliminating non-essential expenses.
  • Economizing ensures that expenditures are made prudently and within limits.

Additional Information

  • Fiscal Deficit
  • Fiscal deficit refers to the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total revenue, excluding borrowings.
  • It indicates the need for borrowing to meet expenditure.
  • Strategies to Reduce Fiscal Deficit
  • Increasing revenue generation through efficient tax collection and broadening the tax base.
  • Streamlining subsidies and reducing non-productive expenditures.
  • Adopting policies to boost economic growth, which indirectly enhances revenue.

Question 54

Which of the following statements concerning the functions of a public budget are correct:

(A) It is a policy statement

(B) Redistribution of wealth

(C) A source of information

(D) It considers non-financial outcomes,

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, D & B Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B and C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - It is a policy statement, Redistribution of wealth, and A source of information

Key Points

  • It is a policy statement
  • A public budget outlines the government's priorities and objectives for a financial year.
  • It reflects the policy framework for revenue generation and expenditure allocation.
  • Redistribution of wealth
  • The budget is a tool used by governments to address socio-economic inequalities.
  • It allocates funds for welfare programs, subsidies, and initiatives aimed at reducing the wealth gap among citizens.
  • A source of information
  • The budget provides comprehensive financial data and insights into government priorities.
  • It serves as a key document for stakeholders, including citizens, economists, and policymakers, to analyze fiscal performance.

Additional Information

  • Non-financial outcomes
  • While budgets primarily focus on financial goals, they may indirectly influence non-financial outcomes like education levels, health indicators, and environmental sustainability.
  • However, these outcomes are not explicitly considered as part of the budgeting process.
  • Role in economic stability
  • Public budgets are vital for ensuring macroeconomic stability by balancing revenue and expenditure.
  • They help in managing inflation, unemployment, and fostering economic growth.

Question 55

What are the voluntary provisions. which are observed by the state but are not binding on it?

(A) Providing reservation for Backward classes.

(B) Giving voting rights to members of the Union and state legislative in bodies.

(C) Giving financial powers is relation to taxes, duties, toll and fees.

(D) Providing reservation for women as chairperson.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A & B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B & C Only

  3. COption (c)

    B & C Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B & C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Providing reservation for Backward classes, Giving voting rights to members of the Union and state legislative bodies, and Giving financial powers in relation to taxes, duties, toll, and fees

Key Points

  • Voluntary provisions
  • Voluntary provisions are those which the state may observe but is not legally obligated to implement.
  • They provide flexibility to states for social and economic reforms without imposing strict mandates.
  • Providing reservation for Backward classes
  • Reservation for socially and economically backward classes is a measure of social justice but is not binding.
  • It is aimed at ensuring equal representation in education and employment opportunities.
  • Giving voting rights to members of legislative bodies
  • Enabling members of the Union and state legislative bodies to vote is not obligatory for the state to implement universally.
  • It enhances democratic participation within the governing framework.
  • Giving financial powers in relation to taxes, duties, toll, and fees
  • States are allowed to exercise financial authority under specific provisions but are not strictly bound to do so.
  • This ensures financial autonomy and promotes regional development.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)
  • These are guidelines for the central and state governments to implement social and economic reforms.
  • They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts but are fundamental for governance.
  • Reservation for women as chairpersons
  • Providing reservation for women in leadership roles, such as chairpersons, is a step toward gender equality.
  • However, this provision is binding in certain cases, such as in Panchayati Raj Institutions under the 73rd Amendment.
  • Role of flexibility in governance
  • Voluntary provisions allow states to adapt policies as per their socio-economic conditions.
  • They foster a balance between uniformity and diversity in implementing welfare measures.

Question 56

Which of the following statement is / are correct?

(A) Article 23 of the Constitution of India prohibits trafficking being in human beings and beggars.

(B) National Mission for empowerment of women was launched in 2010.

(C) The Government announced a National Policy for Older Persons in 2014.

(D) The Ministry of Welfare was established in 1985.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C and D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, and D Only

Key Points

  • Article 23 of the Indian Constitution
  • Article 23 explicitly prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labor or begar.
  • This provision safeguards individuals from exploitation and is enforceable by law.
  • National Mission for Empowerment of Women (2010)
  • This mission was launched by the Government of India in 2010 to ensure the empowerment of women across various sectors.
  • It is aimed at addressing issues such as gender inequality, violence against women, and access to education and employment.
  • Ministry of Welfare (1985)
  • The Ministry of Welfare was established in 1985 to address issues related to social welfare and development of marginalized communities.
  • This ministry was later reorganized and merged into other departments.

Additional Information

  • National Policy for Older Persons
  • The National Policy for Older Persons was announced in 1999, not in 2014.
  • Its objective is to provide a framework for the welfare of senior citizens, including financial security, healthcare, and protection against abuse.
  • Key Fundamental Rights
  • Article 23 is part of the Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution and aims to address exploitation.
  • It prohibits practices like human trafficking, forced labor, and begar while ensuring dignity and equality for all citizens.
  • Empowerment of Women
  • The National Mission for Empowerment of Women focuses on enabling women to access resources, rights, and opportunities for economic and social development.
  • It works in coordination with existing schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana.

Question 57

The basic objectives of Childline are:

(A) Respond to the emergency needs of the children in difficulty.

(B) Provide a forum for networking among Government agencies and non-Government agencies dedicated to child care and protection.

(C) Ensure protection of the child.

(D) Provide an opportunity to communities to respond to the needs of children in difficult circumstances.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C and D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B, C and D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, C, and D Only

Key Points

  • Childline is a national-level initiative aimed at supporting children in need of care and protection.
  • The objectives of Childline include:
  • Responding to emergencies: It ensures immediate intervention for children in difficult situations, such as abuse, neglect, or abandonment.
  • Networking: Childline provides a platform for collaboration between Government and non-Governmental organizations involved in child care and protection.
  • Child protection: One of its primary goals is ensuring the safety and security of children at risk.
  • Community involvement: It empowers communities to actively respond to the needs of vulnerable children.

Additional Information

  • Childline India Foundation (CIF)
  • It is the nodal agency responsible for operating the Childline service in India.
  • Childline operates the 1098 helpline, which is a toll-free number for children in distress.
  • Key services provided by Childline
  • 24-hour emergency outreach and assistance.
  • Providing shelter, medical aid, and counseling.
  • Rehabilitation of children through collaboration with various stakeholders.
  • National and international recognition
  • Childline's work aligns with the principles of the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC).
  • It has been instrumental in shaping policies for child protection in India.

Question 58

Knowledge Management in Public Policy refers to :

(A) Managing Information Technology

(B) Managing Information resources & systems

(C) Managing knowledge workers

(D) Decision support systems

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B, C, D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Managing Information resources & systems, Managing knowledge workers, and Decision support systems

Key Points

  • Managing Information resources & systems
  • This involves the systematic collection, organization, and utilization of data and information to support public policy processes.
  • It ensures that decision-makers have access to reliable and actionable data during policymaking.
  • Managing knowledge workers
  • Knowledge workers are professionals who handle critical information and expertise, such as researchers and analysts in public policy.
  • Effective management ensures their skills and insights are fully utilized for crafting and implementing policies.
  • Decision support systems
  • These are tools and frameworks designed to aid decision-making by providing insights through data modeling, analysis, and forecasting.
  • Such systems improve the quality and accuracy of policy decisions.

Additional Information

  • Knowledge Management in Public Policy
  • It is a process of capturing, distributing, and effectively using knowledge to improve public administration and policy formulation.
  • Focuses on the integration of people, processes, and technology to enhance decision-making and efficiency in governance.
  • Other Aspects
  • Managing Information Technology primarily deals with infrastructure and tools but is not the core focus of knowledge management in public policy.
  • Effective knowledge management ensures that policies are evidence-based and aligned with societal needs.

Question 59

The techniques of citizen control over administration are:

(A) Public opinion

(B) Election

(C) Advisory Committees

(D) Recall

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B, C, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Public Opinion, Election, Advisory Committees, Recall

Key Points

  • Public Opinion
  • Public opinion plays a critical role in a democracy as it reflects the views and preferences of citizens regarding administrative decisions and policies.
  • It can influence government actions and ensure accountability by expressing collective support or dissent.
  • Election
  • Elections serve as a direct means for citizens to choose their representatives and hold them accountable.
  • This process allows people to influence the administration and ensure their interests are represented in governance.
  • Advisory Committees
  • Advisory committees act as a bridge between citizens and administration, providing a platform for public participation in decision-making.
  • These committees often include representatives from the community who can voice public concerns and opinions.
  • Recall
  • Recall is a democratic mechanism through which citizens can remove elected officials from office before the completion of their term.
  • This ensures accountability and responsiveness from public officials to the electorate.

Additional Information

  • Citizen Control
  • Citizen control refers to the mechanisms through which the public can influence or monitor government actions and administrative decisions.
  • It ensures transparency, accountability, and responsiveness in governance.
  • Other Techniques of Citizen Participation
  • Public consultations: Direct interaction between citizens and policymakers to gather feedback.
  • Referendums: A direct vote by the electorate on a specific proposal, often related to constitutional or policy changes.

Question 60

Which of the following influence Public Policy making?

(A) Lobbying

(B) Social Media

(C) Think Tanks

(D) Public Interest Groups

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B, C, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, C, and D

Key Points

  • Lobbying
  • Lobbying involves advocacy by individuals or groups to influence public officials in the decision-making process.
  • It plays a critical role in shaping public policies by representing the interests of various stakeholders, such as industries, businesses, or unions.
  • Social Media
  • Social media platforms serve as powerful tools for disseminating information, mobilizing public opinion, and influencing policymakers.
  • They allow citizens to engage in discussions about public policy and hold governments accountable.
  • Think Tanks
  • Think tanks are research organizations that analyze and propose public policy solutions based on evidence and data.
  • They provide expert opinions, reports, and policy recommendations to guide decision-making processes.
  • Public Interest Groups
  • Public interest groups advocate for policies that benefit the general public, such as environmental protection, education reform, or healthcare access.
  • They play a significant role in creating awareness and influencing the legislative process.

Additional Information

  • Role of Stakeholders in Policy-Making
  • Stakeholders such as businesses, advocacy groups, and citizens influence public policy by voicing concerns and proposing solutions.
  • Effective stakeholder engagement ensures that policies are inclusive and representative of diverse interests.
  • Importance of Evidence-Based Policy
  • Think tanks and researchers provide data-driven insights to ensure public policies address real-world challenges effectively.
  • Evidence-based policy-making reduces the risk of biases and ensures that resources are allocated efficiently.
  • Public Opinion and Media
  • Public opinion, shaped through social media and traditional media, is a critical factor in influencing government priorities and policies.
  • Governments often consider public sentiment to maintain legitimacy and public trust.

Question 61

Which of the following factors has resulted in a major shift in the study of Public Policy?

(A) Keynesian Economic Theory

(B) Organisationas artifacts

(C) Neo-Liberal Pholosophy

(D) Development of concepts and theories in Public Policy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Keynesian Economic Theory and Neo-Liberal Philosophy

Key Points

  • Keynesian Economic Theory
  • Keynesian economics emphasizes government intervention in economic policy to stabilize and grow the economy.
  • This approach significantly influenced the study of Public Policy by promoting the role of the state in addressing societal issues like unemployment and economic inequality.
  • The theory underpins the formulation of policies aimed at managing demand and ensuring economic stability.
  • Neo-Liberal Philosophy
  • Neo-liberalism advocates for limited government intervention, deregulation, and the promotion of free-market principles.
  • It introduced a shift in Public Policy studies towards privatization, decentralization, and the role of non-state actors in policy implementation.
  • This philosophy has redefined the scope of public policies, emphasizing efficiency, competition, and market-driven solutions.

Additional Information

  • Development of Concepts and Theories in Public Policy
  • The evolution of Public Policy as a distinct field is marked by the integration of interdisciplinary approaches.
  • Key concepts include policy analysis, agenda-setting, implementation, and evaluation, which have broadened the understanding of policy-making processes.
  • Organizations as Artifacts
  • This perspective views organizations as instruments of policy implementation and institutional frameworks for delivering public services.
  • It highlights the structural and cultural dimensions of organizations that influence policy outcomes.

Question 62

The limit of probability sample is :

(A) It is not giving gurantee of representativeness of the sample from a population

(B) The data do not fulfil the standards of normal Probability curve.

(C) It has great risk of generalization of the results.

(D) It helps in draw of general conclusions.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B, C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - It is not giving guarantee of representativeness of the sample from a population, the data do not fulfil the standards of normal Probability curve, and it has great risk of generalization of the results

Key Points

  • Probability sampling
  • Refers to a sampling technique where every individual in the population has a known, non-zero chance of being selected.
  • Though it is designed to ensure randomness, it does not guarantee representativeness of the sample to the population.
  • Limitations of probability sampling
  • The collected data may not always align with the normal probability curve, especially in cases of small sample sizes.
  • There is a significant risk of generalizing results, especially when the sample does not accurately reflect the population.

Additional Information

  • Representativeness
  • Ensures that the sample accurately reflects the population in terms of characteristics like age, gender, and socio-economic status.
  • While probability sampling increases the likelihood of representativeness, factors like sample size and sampling errors can affect outcomes.
  • Normal probability curve
  • Refers to a bell-shaped curve where data is symmetrically distributed around the mean.
  • Many real-world datasets deviate from this curve due to outliers or skewed data distributions.
  • Generalization
  • Refers to the application of sample results to the entire population.
  • It is valid only when the sample is highly representative of the population; otherwise, it leads to inaccuracies.

Question 63

Which of the following are commonly referred to as measures of dispersion?

(A) Range

(B) Mode

(C) Quartile Deviation

(D) Arithemetic Mean

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A & B Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C & D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A & C Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A & C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Range and Quartile Deviation

Key Points

  • Measures of Dispersion
  • Dispersion refers to the degree to which data points in a dataset spread out around the mean or other central value.
  • Range measures the difference between the highest and lowest values in a dataset. It is a simple and widely used measure of dispersion.
  • Quartile Deviation (also known as Semi-Interquartile Range) measures the spread of the middle 50% of the data. It is calculated as half the difference between the first and third quartiles.

Additional Information

  • Other Statistical Measures
  • Mode: Mode represents the most frequent value in a dataset. It is a measure of central tendency, not dispersion.
  • Arithmetic Mean: The arithmetic mean (average) represents the central value of a dataset and is a measure of central tendency, not dispersion.
  • Measures of dispersion are used to describe the variability in data, while measures of central tendency are used to describe the central value.
  • Importance of Dispersion
  • Helps in understanding the reliability and consistency of data.
  • Provides insight into the spread and distribution of values in a dataset.
  • Useful in comparing variability between two or more datasets.

Question 64

Which of the following are the feature of Snowball Sampling?

(A) It is non-probability sampling

(B) Members of 'Population' have an equal chance of being selected for the study.

(C) It adopts the chain referral process.

(D) Sampling error can be quickly determined.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - It is non-probability sampling and adopts the chain referral process.

Key Points

  • Non-probability sampling
  • Snowball sampling is a type of non-probability sampling, meaning not all members of the population have an equal chance of being selected for the study.
  • This approach relies on subjective methods such as referrals by initial participants.
  • Chain referral process
  • Snowball sampling utilizes a chain referral process, where existing study subjects recruit future participants from their acquaintances.
  • This process is especially useful when studying hard-to-reach or hidden populations like drug users or undocumented immigrants.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Snowball Sampling
  • It is a cost-effective and efficient method for identifying and recruiting participants in specialized or hidden populations.
  • It can provide valuable insights into social networks and relationships within the population being studied.
  • Limitations of Snowball Sampling
  • It introduces selection bias, as the sample is dependent on the initial participants and their network.
  • Findings cannot be generalized to the entire population due to the lack of random sampling.
  • Other Sampling Methods
  • Probability Sampling: Every individual in the population has an equal chance of selection, e.g., simple random sampling.
  • Non-Probability Sampling: Selection is subjective or non-random, e.g., snowball sampling, convenience sampling.

Question 65

Which of the following statements are not correct regarding Social Welfare Administration?

(A) Promotion on full participation and equality of people with disabilities in Asia and Pacific Region adopted in May, 2008.

(B) Ministry of Social and woman Welfare has been renamed as Ministry of Social Justice and Employment in 1998.

(C) The Subject of Disability is enshrined in Vth Schedule of constitution.

(D) The caste Census in India has been discontinued from 1990

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B, D Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C Only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C, D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, C, D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, C, D Only

Key Points

  • Statement A is incorrect
  • The promotion of full participation and equality of people with disabilities in Asia and Pacific Region was adopted in December 1992, not May 2008.
  • Statement C is incorrect
  • Disability is not mentioned in the Vth Schedule of the Constitution; it is addressed under the State List (Entry 9) and various Acts such as the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
  • Statement D is incorrect
  • The caste census in India was discontinued after 1931, not 1990.

Additional Information

  • Statement B is correct
  • The Ministry of Social and Woman Welfare was renamed as the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 1998.
  • Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
  • This Act replaced the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
  • It recognizes 21 types of disabilities and ensures equal rights and opportunities for disabled individuals.
  • Vth Schedule of Constitution
  • This schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
  • It does not include provisions on disability or social welfare.

Question 66

Match List I with List II:

List I ThinkersList II Books
(A)Mary Parker Follett(I)Zone of Indifference
(B)Luther Gulick(II)Zone of Acceptance
(C)Chester I Barnard(III)Depersonalising Order
(D)Herbert Simon(IV)Bases of Departmentalisation

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Key Points

  • Mary Parker Follett
  • Associated with the concept of Depersonalising Order, emphasizing the importance of integrating human relations in organizational settings.
  • Luther Gulick
  • Known for his work on Bases of Departmentalisation, which focuses on how organizations can be structured efficiently.
  • Chester I Barnard
  • Developed the concept of the Zone of Indifference, which refers to the range within which an individual willingly accepts authority without questioning it.
  • Herbert Simon
  • Introduced the idea of the Zone of Acceptance, which relates to decision-making and the extent to which a person will accept decisions made by others.

Additional Information

  • Mary Parker Follett
  • Considered a pioneer in the field of organizational behavior and management thought.
  • Famous for advocating collaborative leadership and conflict resolution.
  • Luther Gulick
  • Popular for the POSDCORB framework: Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting.
  • Chester I Barnard
  • Highlighted the importance of communication and cooperation in organizations.
  • His book "The Functions of the Executive" is a classic in the field of management studies.
  • Herbert Simon
  • Introduced the concept of bounded rationality in decision-making.
  • Awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics for his work on decision-making processes in organizations.

Question 67

Match List I with List II:

List I WritersList II Books
(A)Woodrow Wilson(I)The papers on the Science of Administration
(B)W.F. Willoughby(II)Industrial and General Management
(C)Henri Fayol(III)The Study of Administration
(D)Gulick & Urwick(IV)Principles of Administration

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

  • Woodrow Wilson
  • He is credited with writing "The Study of Administration", which laid the foundation for the field of public administration.
  • Wilson emphasized the separation of politics and administration.
  • W.F. Willoughby
  • Known for his contribution to "Principles of Administration", which focuses on administrative processes.
  • He elaborated on the principles of efficiency and organization in public administration.
  • Henri Fayol
  • Authored "Industrial and General Management", which introduced the 14 principles of management.
  • His work is foundational in modern management theory.
  • Gulick & Urwick
  • Co-authored "The Papers on the Science of Administration", which focused on organizational structures and efficiency.
  • They introduced the POSDCORB principles: Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting.

Additional Information

  • Public Administration
  • Public administration focuses on the management of government policies and programs.
  • Writers such as Woodrow Wilson and W.F. Willoughby contributed significantly to its theoretical framework.
  • Management Principles
  • Henri Fayol introduced 14 principles of management, such as division of work, authority, and discipline.
  • These principles are widely applied in both public and private sector organizations.
  • Scientific Management
  • Gulick & Urwick's work focuses on efficiency in organizational structures.
  • Their POSDCORB framework is still relevant in administrative studies and practices.

Question 68

Match List I with List II:

List I ThinkersList II Terms used for bureaucracy
(A)Veblen(I)Bureau - rationality
(B)Victor Thompson(II)Occupational Psychosis
(C)Dewey(III)Bureau - Pathology
(D)F. W. Riggs(IV)Trained incapacity

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Key Points

  • Thorstein Veblen (A)
  • Associated with the term Trained incapacity, which describes how bureaucrats tend to become overly specialized and lose flexibility in applying solutions to new or unexpected situations.
  • Victor Thompson (B)
  • Coined the term Bureau-Pathology, referring to inefficiencies and dysfunctions that arise within bureaucratic organizations.
  • John Dewey (C)
  • Used the term Occupational Psychosis, explaining how repetitive bureaucratic work can lead to a fixed mindset, reducing adaptability and creativity.
  • F. W. Riggs (D)
  • Introduced the concept of Bureau-Rationality, describing the systematic and rule-based nature of bureaucratic functioning.

Additional Information

  • Bureaucracy as a concept
  • Bureaucracy is defined as a system of administration distinguished by its clear hierarchy, fixed rules, and specialized functions.
  • It was extensively analyzed by thinkers like Max Weber, who emphasized its rational-legal authority structure.
  • Criticism of bureaucracy
  • Critics argue that bureaucracy can lead to inefficiency, rigidity, and alienation, especially when workers lose sight of broader organizational goals.
  • The terms used by these thinkers highlight various aspects of bureaucratic shortcomings.
  • Relevance to Public Administration
  • Understanding these terms is crucial for analyzing the functioning of bureaucratic systems and improving their efficiency.
  • These concepts are frequently discussed in administrative theories and models.

Question 69

Match List I with List II:

List I ListList II No. of Subjects
(A)Union List(I)Originally 66 Subjects
(B)State List (originally)(II)Presently 98 Subjects
(C)State list(III)Presently 59 Subjects
(D)Concurrent list(IV)Presently 52 Subjects

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Key Points

  • Union List
  • The Union List originally included 66 subjects.
  • It now comprises 98 subjects, as per the present constitutional framework.
  • This list contains subjects of national importance, such as defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy.
  • State List
  • The State List originally included 66 subjects.
  • Over time, it has been reduced to 59 subjects, reflecting the transfer of some subjects to the Union or Concurrent List.
  • This list contains subjects of local or state importance, such as police, public health, and agriculture.
  • Concurrent List
  • The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both the Union and the State Governments can legislate.
  • It originally included 47 subjects but now has 52 subjects.
  • Examples include education, forests, and marriage laws.

Additional Information

  • Constitutional Framework
  • The division of subjects into Union, State, and Concurrent Lists is outlined in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  • The objective is to ensure a clear demarcation of legislative responsibilities between the Union and State Governments.
  • Amendments and Changes
  • Changes in the number of subjects in these lists have occurred due to constitutional amendments and judicial interpretations.
  • The 42nd Amendment of 1976 is a significant example, which transferred some subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List (e.g., education, forests).
  • Legislative Authority
  • In case of a conflict between Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails.
  • Subjects in the Union List take precedence over those in the State List or Concurrent List.

Question 70

Match List I with List II:

List I PositionList II Functions
(A)High Diwan(I)Religions endowment & Charity
(B)Chief Sadar(II)Public Morals
(C)Muhtasib(III)The Exchequer and Revenue.
(D)Imperial Bakshi(IV)Military Accounts

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Key Points

  • High Diwan (A)-(III): The Exchequer and Revenue
  • The High Diwan was responsible for managing financial matters, including the exchequer and revenue administration.
  • This position ensured the empire's financial stability through effective management of taxes and public treasury.
  • Chief Sadar (B)-(I): Religions Endowment & Charity
  • The Chief Sadar supervised religious endowments and charitable activities in the empire.
  • He ensured the proper management of funds allocated for religious and community welfare.
  • Muhtasib (C)-(II): Public Morals
  • The Muhtasib was tasked with maintaining public morals and enforcing ethical behavior in society.
  • He monitored compliance with laws related to social and religious conduct.
  • Imperial Bakshi (D)-(IV): Military Accounts
  • The Imperial Bakshi was responsible for overseeing military accounts and managing expenses related to the empire's armed forces.
  • This role involved maintaining accurate records of soldier salaries and other military expenditures.

Additional Information

  • Administrative Framework in Mughal Empire
  • The Mughal administration was organized into various departments, each managed by a specific officer with distinct responsibilities.
  • Key positions like High Diwan, Chief Sadar, Muhtasib, and Imperial Bakshi were designed to ensure efficient governance across financial, religious, social, and military domains.
  • Role of Muhtasib
  • The Muhtasib not only enforced public morals but also ensured adherence to Islamic principles in daily life.
  • His role extended to inspecting markets to prevent unfair practices and ensuring the purity of goods.
  • Military Administration
  • The Imperial Bakshi maintained detailed records of military personnel and their payments to ensure effective functioning of the army.
  • He coordinated logistics and supplies for the empire's military campaigns.

Question 71

Match List I with List II:

List I Models/conceptsList II Characteristics
(A)Agraria(I)Discrepency between norms and values
(B)Transita(II)High Level of Structural differentation
(C)Formalism(III)Traditional Agricultural Society
(D)Diffracted Society(IV)Transitional from Agriculture to Industry

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Key Points

  • Agraria (A) - Traditional Agricultural Society (III)
  • Refers to societies primarily dependent on agriculture.
  • These societies are marked by a lack of industrialization and a focus on traditional norms.
  • Transita (B) - Transitional from Agriculture to Industry (IV)
  • Represents societies transitioning from agricultural economies to industrial economies.
  • This phase involves structural changes such as urbanization and increased industrial production.
  • Formalism (C) - Discrepancy between norms and values (I)
  • Highlights a gap between accepted norms and actual societal values or practices.
  • Often observed during periods of social transition or upheaval.
  • Diffracted Society (D) - High Level of Structural Differentiation (II)
  • Characterized by advanced structural differentiation and specialization within society.
  • Often includes industrial and post-industrial societies with complex organizational structures.

Additional Information

  • Agraria
  • Such societies are pre-industrial and focus on subsistence-level farming.
  • Social structures are often rigid, with strong adherence to traditional norms.
  • Transita
  • This concept describes a dynamic shift in society's economic base and social organization.
  • Urbanization, industrialization, and changes in living standards are key features.
  • Formalism
  • Signifies the conflict between formally accepted norms and the values actually practiced by individuals.
  • Commonly studied in sociology and anthropology to understand societal changes.
  • Diffracted Society
  • Such societies are highly differentiated, with advanced technological and organizational capabilities.
  • They exhibit a high degree of specialization in economic and social roles.

Question 72

Match List I with List II:

List I Principles of BudgetList II Features
(A)Rule of Lapse(I)Variations between Budgetary estimate and actuals to be minimum and precise.
(B)Accuracy(II)Budget should be open & easy to understand
(C)Annualiy(III)Unspent money can't be carried forward
(D)Clarity & Transparency(IV)Budget preparations for Financial Year

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Key Points

  • Rule of Lapse (A)-(III)
  • Refers to the principle that unspent money from a financial year's budget cannot be carried over to the next financial year.
  • Ensures effective and timely utilization of allocated funds within the stipulated year.
  • Accuracy (B)-(I)
  • Highlights that the difference between the budget estimate and actual expenditure should be minimal and precise.
  • Ensures realistic financial planning and promotes accountability in budget execution.
  • Annuality (C)-(IV)
  • Emphasizes that the budget should be prepared for a specific financial year (usually 1 year).
  • This principle ensures that allocations and expenditures are limited to the financial year, promoting systematic planning and execution.
  • Clarity & Transparency (D)-(II)
  • Stresses that the budget should be open, clear, and easy to understand for all stakeholders.
  • Enhances accountability and builds trust in government financial processes.

Additional Information

  • Key Principles of Budgeting
  • Unity: All income and expenditure should be presented in a single document for better coordination and understanding.
  • Flexibility: A budget should be adaptable to changing circumstances, ensuring efficient allocation of resources.
  • Economy: Focuses on minimizing wastage and ensuring cost-effective use of resources.
  • Importance of Budget Principles
  • Provides a structured framework for financial planning and management.
  • Ensures transparency, accountability, and efficiency in the use of public funds.
  • Helps in achieving fiscal discipline and economic stability.

Question 73

Match List I with List II:

List I Forms for organizing PEsList II Characterstic
(A)Department Undertaking(I)Separate Legal entity
(B)Public Corporation(II)Body Corporate
(C)Government Company(III)Government Rules
(D)Holding Company(IV)Uniformity in Policies

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Key Points

Forms for Organizing PEs (List I)Characteristic (List II)
(A) Department Undertaking(III) Government Rules
(B) Public Corporation(I) Separate Legal Entity
(C) Government Company(II) Body Corporate
(D) Holding Company(IV) Uniformity in Policies

Additional Information

  • Department Undertaking:
  • Meaning: It is the oldest form of public enterprise operated directly under a government department.
  • Key Features: It follows strict government rules, budgeting procedures, and administrative control.
  • Significance: Suitable for strategic sectors like railways, defense production, and postal services where government secrecy and control are essential.
  • Public Corporation:
  • Meaning: A statutory corporation created through a special Act of Parliament or State Legislature.
  • Key Features: It enjoys the status of a separate legal entity with financial and managerial autonomy.
  • Significance: It combines public accountability with operational flexibility for efficient service delivery.
  • Government Company:
  • Meaning: A company in which at least 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the government.
  • Key Features: It is registered under the Companies Act and functions as a body corporate.
  • Significance: It allows greater commercial efficiency while maintaining government ownership and supervision.
  • Holding Company:
  • Meaning: A company that controls one or more subsidiary companies through majority ownership.
  • Key Features: It ensures uniformity in policies and coordinated management among subsidiaries.
  • Significance: It helps in centralized decision-making, better supervision, and efficient resource utilization.

Question 74

Match List I with List II:

List I Name of CommissionList II Year
(A)National Commission for Backward Castes(I)2004
(B)National Commission for Seheduled Castes(II)1994
(C)National Commission for Safai Karmachari(III)1978
(D)National Commission for Scheduled Tribes(IV)1993

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Key Points

  • National Commission for Backward Castes
  • Established in 1993 to address the issues of backward classes in India.
  • It ensures the welfare and development of socially and economically backward classes.
  • National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  • Formed in 2004 by bifurcating the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • Focuses on the rights and welfare of the Scheduled Castes under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
  • National Commission for Safai Karmacharis
  • Created in 1994 to monitor and promote the welfare of Safai Karmacharis (manual scavengers).
  • Works on eliminating the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitation of workers.
  • National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  • Established in 1978 under Article 338A to safeguard the rights of Scheduled Tribes.
  • Ensures the implementation of development plans and protection of their cultural identity.

Additional Information

  • Article 338
  • Provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
  • Empowers the commission to investigate and monitor issues related to Scheduled Castes.
  • Article 338A
  • Deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
  • Emphasizes the protection of the rights and culture of Scheduled Tribes.
  • Manual Scavenging Prohibition
  • The Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act, 1993 prohibits manual scavenging.
  • The National Commission for Safai Karmacharis ensures compliance and rehabilitation of manual scavengers.
  • Backwards Classes Commission
  • Identifies socially and economically backward classes.
  • Recommends measures for their advancement under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution.

Question 75

Match List I with List II:

List IList II
(A)Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva(I)2021
(B)Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission(II)1982
(C)National Mental Health Mission(III)2014
(D)Mission Indradhanush(IV)2016

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Key Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (A)
  • Launched in 2016 to provide free, comprehensive, and quality antenatal care to all pregnant women on the 9th of every month.
  • Focus on identifying high-risk pregnancies and ensuring safe delivery outcomes.
  • Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (B)
  • Initiated in 2021 to create a digital health ecosystem by providing unique health IDs and access to digital health records for citizens.
  • Aims to improve healthcare efficiency and accessibility.
  • National Mental Health Programme (C)
  • Started in 1982 to address the burden of mental illnesses in India.
  • Provides access to mental health services at the community level.
  • Mission Indradhanush (D)
  • Launched in 2014 to improve the immunization coverage by targeting unvaccinated or partially vaccinated children and pregnant women.
  • Aims to prevent life-threatening diseases through vaccination.

Additional Information

  • Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA)
  • Covers antenatal care services such as anemia testing, hypertension screening, and other maternal health parameters.
  • Aims to reduce maternal mortality and improve maternal health outcomes.
  • Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
  • Integrates hospitals, clinics, and diagnostics labs into a single digital platform.
  • Empowers citizens to manage their health records digitally using their Health IDs.
  • National Mental Health Programme
  • Focuses on mental health awareness, early detection, and treatment of mental illnesses.
  • Encourages the integration of mental health services into primary healthcare systems.
  • Mission Indradhanush
  • Targets diseases like diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles, and hepatitis B.
  • Special campaigns are conducted to vaccinate children in hard-to-reach areas.

Question 76

Which of the following books are written by Robert Golembiewski

(A) Men. Management and Morality

(B) Ironies of Organizational Development

(C) Hand book of Organizational Behaviour

(D) Encyclopedia of Policy studies.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Men. Management and Morality, Ironies of Organizational Development, Handbook of Organizational Behaviour

Key Points

  • Robert Golembiewski is a renowned author in the field of organizational development and behavior.
  • "Men. Management and Morality" explores ethical dilemmas in leadership and management.
  • "Ironies of Organizational Development" focuses on the paradoxes and challenges in organizational change and growth.
  • "Handbook of Organizational Behaviour" serves as a comprehensive guide to theories and practices in organizational behavior.
  • These works highlight Golembiewski's contributions to understanding organizational dynamics and ethical management.

Additional Information

  • Encyclopedia of Policy Studies
  • Although Robert Golembiewski contributed significantly to the field of organizational development, he is not credited for writing the "Encyclopedia of Policy Studies."
  • This book is a detailed resource on policy analysis and its applications across various domains.
  • Key Themes in Golembiewski's Work
  • His books often emphasize the importance of ethics, leadership, and organizational change.
  • He provides practical insights for managers and leaders to navigate complex organizational environments.

Question 77

Arrange the following positions in the ascending order of hierarchy.

(A) Joint Secretary

(B )Additional Secretary

(C) Director

(D) Under Secretary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    D, C, A, B

  2. BOption (b)

    D, B, A, C

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, B, D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

D, C, A, B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - D, C, A, B

Key Points

  • Hierarchy in Government Administration
  • Government positions follow a structured hierarchy for decision-making and administrative operations.
  • The order of positions from lowest to highest in this case is:
  1. Under Secretary (D)
  2. Director (C)
  3. Joint Secretary (A)
  4. Additional Secretary (B)
  • Under Secretary typically manages routine tasks and reports to higher positions.
  • Director handles specific divisions or units within a department, with broader responsibilities.
  • Joint Secretary oversees policy implementation and assists in high-level decision-making.
  • Additional Secretary holds significant authority, assisting the Secretary in departmental leadership.

Additional Information

  • Roles and Responsibilities
  • Under Secretary: Focuses on administrative tasks and preliminary decision-making.
  • Director: Responsible for departmental operations and implementing strategies.
  • Joint Secretary: Plays a critical role in policy formulation and bridging communication between officials.
  • Additional Secretary: Collaborates with the Secretary in overseeing departmental functioning and policy execution.
  • Key Differences
  • Higher positions (e.g., Additional Secretary) involve policy-level decisions, while lower positions focus on implementation-level tasks.
  • Promotions within the hierarchy depend on experience, performance, and administrative requirements.

Question 78

Arrange the following Governor-General of India in Chronological order.

(A) Lord Dalhousie

(B) William Bentinck

(C) Lord Chelmsford

(D) Lord Curzon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, B, D

  3. COption (c)

    B, A, D, C

  4. DOption (d)

    B, D, A, C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, A, D, C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B, A, D, C

Key Points

  • William Bentinck (1828–1835)
  • He was the first Governor-General of India under the Charter Act of 1833.
  • Known for his social reforms, such as the abolition of Sati and suppression of Thuggee.
  • Lord Dalhousie (1848–1856)
  • Famous for implementing the Doctrine of Lapse, annexing states like Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
  • Introduced modern infrastructure, such as railways and telegraphs, in India.
  • Lord Curzon (1899–1905)
  • Focused on administrative efficiency and conservation of Indian heritage (e.g., the restoration of the Taj Mahal).
  • Known for the controversial partition of Bengal in 1905.
  • Lord Chelmsford (1916–1921)
  • Presided over significant events like the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919).
  • Introduced the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, leading to the Government of India Act, 1919.

Additional Information

  • Governor-General of India
  • The position of Governor-General was established in 1773 under the Regulating Act, with Warren Hastings as the first Governor-General of Bengal.
  • In 1833, the Charter Act designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
  • Key Reforms and Policies
  • William Bentinck: Focused on social reforms like the abolition of Sati and promotion of education.
  • Lord Dalhousie: Known for aggressive territorial expansion through the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • Lord Curzon: Emphasized administrative reforms and preservation of Indian monuments.
  • Lord Chelmsford: Implemented reforms under the Montagu-Chelmsford scheme to introduce limited self-governance.

Question 79

Arrange the following in sequence in Research process:

(A) Research Questions

(B) Hypothesis

(C) Data collection

(D) Literature Review

(E) Further scope of study

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, D, E, C

  2. BOption (b)

    D, B, A, C, E

  3. COption (c)

    D, A, B, E, C

  4. DOption (d)

    A, D, B, C, E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, D, B, C, E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Research Questions, Literature Review, Hypothesis, Data Collection, Further Scope of Study

Key Points

  • Research Questions
  • Forming research questions is the first step in the research process. It helps identify the purpose and scope of the study.
  • These questions guide the direction of the research and provide a clear focus.
  • Literature Review
  • Literature review is conducted to understand existing knowledge, identify gaps, and set a foundation for the study.
  • It ensures that the research is connected to prior studies and avoids duplication.
  • Hypothesis
  • A hypothesis is formulated based on the literature review and research questions. It is a tentative assumption or prediction that the research will test.
  • It provides a clear framework for data collection and analysis.
  • Data Collection
  • Data collection involves gathering information or evidence to test the hypothesis.
  • It is performed using various methods such as surveys, experiments, or observations.
  • Further Scope of Study
  • After analyzing and interpreting the data, researchers identify the further scope for study based on findings and limitations.
  • This step contributes to advancing knowledge and suggests areas for future research.

Additional Information

  • Research Process
  • The research process consists of systematic steps to ensure the study is valid, reliable, and contributes to knowledge.
  • It typically follows a sequence: Problem identification, Literature review, Hypothesis formulation, Data collection, Data analysis, and Conclusion.
  • Importance of Literature Review
  • The literature review helps contextualize the study within existing knowledge.
  • It identifies gaps and ensures the research builds on prior work rather than duplicating it.
  • Hypothesis Testing
  • Testing the hypothesis involves statistical analysis to determine whether the assumption is supported by the data.
  • It provides conclusive evidence to answer the research questions.

Question 80

Arrange the following in correct sequence

(A) Mayo's Resolution

(B) Montegu's Declaration

(C) Rippon's Resolution

(D) Royal Commission on Decentralization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, D, B, C

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, A, D

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, D, B

  4. DOption (d)

    C, A, B, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, C, D, B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Mayo's Resolution, Rippon's Resolution, Royal Commission on Decentralization, Montagu's Declaration

Key Points

  • Mayo's Resolution
  • Introduced in 1870 under Lord Mayo, this resolution was aimed at promoting financial decentralization in India.
  • It delegated specific financial powers to provincial governments for the first time, marking the beginning of decentralized administration.
  • Rippon's Resolution
  • Passed in 1882 under Lord Rippon, this resolution focused on local self-government.
  • It established municipal boards and local councils, empowering Indians to participate in governance at the local level.
  • Royal Commission on Decentralization
  • Formed in 1907, the commission studied the administrative setup and recommended steps to enhance decentralization.
  • Its recommendations paved the way for further reforms in local governance and administration.
  • Montagu's Declaration
  • Issued in 1917 by Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India.
  • It declared the British intent to introduce responsible government in India, leading to progressive self-governance.
  • It laid the foundation for the Government of India Act, 1919.

Additional Information

  • Financial Decentralization
  • It refers to transferring authority over financial matters from central to provincial governments.
  • Both Mayo's and Rippon's resolutions were milestones in this process.
  • Local Self-Government
  • Introduced formal participation of Indians in municipal administration.
  • Marked the beginning of democratic processes at the grassroots level in British India.
  • Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
  • The reforms, based on Montagu's Declaration, introduced the dyarchy system in provinces.
  • Dyarchy divided provincial subjects into transferred and reserved categories.

Question 81

Consider the following techniques of Union Control over States.

(A) Power to appoint and dismiss the Governor.

(B) Previous Sanction for introducing certain bills in state assembly.

(C) Directions given by Union to State Governments.

(D) Formulation of Inter State Council

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B, C, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, B, C, D

Key Points

  • Power to appoint and dismiss the Governor (A)
  • The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India, who acts on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
  • The Union government has the power to dismiss a Governor before the completion of their term if deemed necessary.
  • Previous Sanction for introducing certain bills (B)
  • The Constitution mandates that certain bills, such as those affecting the powers of the High Court, require the prior approval of the President before being introduced in the State Legislature.
  • This ensures that the Union government has oversight over critical legislative matters.
  • Directions given by Union to State Governments (C)
  • As per Article 256, the Union can issue directions to a state to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament.
  • Article 257 further allows the Union to direct states on matters of national importance, such as the construction of railways or environmental policies.
  • Formulation of Inter-State Council (D)
  • The Inter-State Council is constituted under Article 263 to investigate and discuss issues of mutual interest between the Union and states or among states themselves.
  • This is an important mechanism for coordination and resolving disputes.

Additional Information

  • Governor's Role in the Federal Structure
  • The Governor acts as a link between the Union and the State Government.
  • They have a dual role: as a constitutional head of the state and as a representative of the Union government.
  • Union's Legislative Control over States
  • The Union has the power to legislate on matters in the State List under extraordinary circumstances (e.g., during a National Emergency or under Article 249).
  • Such powers ensure that the Union retains oversight over critical state matters.
  • Inter-State Council
  • This council is not a permanent body and is formed as and when needed.
  • Its objective is to promote cooperative federalism by fostering better coordination between the Union and the states.

Question 82

Arrange the following budgetary process in the correct Sequence

(A) Voting on Demands for Grants

(B) Passing of appropriation Bill

(C) Passing of Financial Bill

(D) Scrutiny by Departmental related Budget Committee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    D, A, B, C

  3. COption (c)

    B, A, C, D

  4. DOption (d)

    B, A, D, C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

D, A, B, C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Scrutiny by Departmental related Budget Committee, Voting on Demands for Grants, Passing of Appropriation Bill, Passing of Financial Bill

Key Points

  • Scrutiny by Departmental related Budget Committee
  • The first step in the budgetary process involves a thorough review of the budget proposals by the Departmental related Standing Committees of Parliament.
  • This ensures that the demands for grants are examined in detail and feedback is provided.
  • Voting on Demands for Grants
  • Once the scrutiny is completed, the demands for grants are put to vote in the Parliament.
  • Each Ministry’s expenditure is voted upon separately by the Lok Sabha.
  • Passing of Appropriation Bill
  • The Appropriation Bill is introduced to provide legal authority to the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • This step ensures that money is legally allocated for government activities.
  • Passing of Financial Bill
  • The Financial Bill contains provisions for imposing taxes and other financial measures.
  • It is the final step in the budgetary process and requires approval from both Houses of Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Budgetary Process in India
  • The Union Budget is presented annually by the Finance Minister in the Parliament, typically on 1st February.
  • It includes the Annual Financial Statement, which is a constitutional requirement under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Role of the Parliament
  • The Lok Sabha has the exclusive power to approve the budget and vote on demands for grants.
  • The Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget but cannot amend or reject it.
  • Types of Bills in Budget
  • Appropriation Bill: Authorizes the government to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund for specific purposes.
  • Finance Bill: Contains provisions related to taxation and other financial matters.

Question 83

Arrange the following Public Policy making models in correct sequence :

(A) Rational Choice – Public Choice model

(B) Techonology Assessment model

(C) Incremental Policy making

(D) Design for Policy Sciences

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    B, A, C, D

  3. COption (c)

    C, B, A, D

  4. DOption (d)

    C, A, D, B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

C, A, D, B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Incremental Policy making, Rational Choice – Public Choice model, Design for Policy Sciences, Technology Assessment model

Key Points

  • Incremental Policy making
  • It is the first step in public policy, often characterized by making small, incremental changes rather than drastic overhauls.
  • This approach emphasizes gradual adjustment and is rooted in practicality, minimizing risks and uncertainties.
  • Rational Choice – Public Choice model
  • This model applies economic principles to public decision-making, focusing on rational actors maximizing their preferences.
  • It assumes that individuals and groups make decisions based on logical calculations of benefits and costs.
  • Design for Policy Sciences
  • This stage focuses on designing policies with a scientific and systematic approach to address societal issues effectively.
  • It integrates multidisciplinary expertise to ensure policies are comprehensive and impactful.
  • Technology Assessment model
  • In the final stage, policies are evaluated for their technological implications and long-term sustainability.
  • This model ensures that technology is harnessed efficiently and responsibly in policy implementation.

Additional Information

  • Incrementalism
  • Proposed by Charles Lindblom, this approach advocates for small, manageable changes to existing policies.
  • It reduces the chances of failure by implementing policies in stages and evaluating their outcomes step-by-step.
  • Public Choice Theory
  • Developed by economists such as James Buchanan, it explains how public decisions are made through the lens of individual self-interest and market dynamics.
  • This model is used to understand how government officials and voters interact in policymaking.
  • Policy Sciences
  • Introduced by Harold Lasswell, this approach emphasizes a problem-solving perspective by combining social science knowledge with real-world applications.
  • It is a multidisciplinary framework for analyzing and designing effective policies.
  • Technology Assessment
  • This model evaluates the potential economic, social, and environmental impacts of a proposed technology before its implementation in public policies.
  • It ensures that technology aligns with long-term policy objectives and societal welfare.

Question 84

Arrange the following 'Cognitive levels in Descending order:

(A) Creating

<br>

(B) Analysing

(C) Evaluating

(D) Applying

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, B, D

  3. COption (c)

    D, C, A, B

  4. DOption (d)

    B, A, C, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C, B, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Creating, Evaluating, Analysing, Applying

Key Points

  • Bloom's Taxonomy
  • Bloom's Taxonomy is a hierarchical classification of cognitive skills used in education to structure learning objectives.
  • Descending Order
  • The term "descending order" means starting from the highest level of cognitive skill and proceeding to lower levels.
  • Correct Order of Cognitive Levels
  • Creating: The highest level of cognitive skill, involving generating new ideas or products.
  • Evaluating: Assessing and making judgments based on criteria and evidence.
  • Analysing: Breaking information into parts to explore relationships and patterns.
  • Applying: Using information in new but familiar contexts.

Additional Information

  • Details About Cognitive Levels
  • Creating: Involves activities such as designing, constructing, and producing. It requires synthesizing knowledge to form original ideas.
  • Evaluating: Requires critical thinking to judge the value or validity of ideas or materials.
  • Analysing: Focuses on identifying components, relationships, and organizational structures.
  • Applying: Entails implementing learned skills or knowledge in practical situations.
  • Purpose of Bloom's Taxonomy
  • Helps in designing curriculum and assessments that align with different levels of learning objectives.
  • Ensures progressive learning, starting from basic understanding to more complex problem-solving skills.

Question 85

Arrange the following steps of Research proposal is a Sequential order

(A) Problem Statement

(B) Hypothesis

(C) Context

(D) Significance of the Study

(E) Techniques

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B, A, E, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, B, D, E

  3. COption (c)

    C, B, A, E, D

  4. DOption (d)

    D, A, B, C, E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C, B, D, E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A, C, B, D, E

Key Points

  • Research proposal steps must follow a logical sequence for clarity and effectiveness:
  • Problem Statement: The research begins with identifying and stating the problem clearly to outline the focus of the study.
  • Context: Provides the background or setting of the study, explaining why the problem exists and its relevance.
  • Hypothesis: A testable prediction or solution is formulated based on the problem and context.
  • Significance of the Study: Highlights the importance and contribution of the research to academia, industry, or society.
  • Techniques: Specifies the methods or procedures used to carry out the research effectively.

Additional Information

  • Problem Statement:
  • Defines the core issue or gap in knowledge that the research aims to address.
  • Should be concise and specific.
  • Context:
  • Provides a literature review or background information to establish relevance.
  • Explains the environment or conditions influencing the problem.
  • Hypothesis:
  • A clear prediction or assumption based on previous studies and theories.
  • Serves as a foundation for testing and analysis.
  • Significance of the Study:
  • Demonstrates how the research adds value or impacts the field.
  • Encourages funding and approval by highlighting benefits.
  • Techniques:
  • Includes methodologies such as qualitative, quantitative, or mixed methods.
  • Ensures accuracy and reproducibility of results.

Question 86

Given below are two statements: One is labeled as assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R

Assertion A : Weber treated administrative systems as 'Steady State System'.

Reason R : The bureaucratic model is more appropriative for a prismatic system than diffracted Society.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is correct but R is not correct

  4. DOption (d)

    A is not correct but R is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A is correct but R is not correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A is correct but R is not correct

Key Points

  • Assertion A: Weber treated administrative systems as 'Steady State System'.
  • Weber viewed bureaucracy as a rational and efficient system that operates in a predictable and stable manner.
  • He emphasized that bureaucratic systems rely on formal rules, hierarchical structures, and impersonal relationships for their functionality.
  • The term "steady state" reflects Weber's belief in the consistency and order of bureaucratic systems.
  • Reason R: The bureaucratic model is more appropriative for a prismatic system than diffracted society.
  • This statement is not correct because a bureaucratic model is generally more suitable for a diffracted society, where institutional structures are highly differentiated and operate independently.
  • In contrast, a prismatic system is characterized by overlapping and conflicting structures, making it less compatible with the rigid and hierarchical nature of bureaucracy.

Additional Information

  • Weber's Bureaucracy
  • Max Weber identified bureaucracy as the most rational and efficient form of organization for large-scale administrative tasks.
  • It operates based on formal rules, specialized roles, and hierarchical authority.
  • Key features include division of labor, impersonal relationships, and documented procedures.
  • Prismatic Society
  • Introduced by Fred W. Riggs, the concept of a prismatic society describes a transitional stage between traditional and modern societies.
  • It is characterized by overlapping and contradictory institutional structures, leading to inefficiencies and conflicts.
  • Such societies are less suited to rigid bureaucratic models due to their lack of institutional differentiation.
  • Diffracted Society
  • A diffracted society is a modern, highly differentiated society with clear and independent institutional structures.
  • Bureaucracy functions more effectively in such societies due to the absence of overlapping roles and structures.

Question 87

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A) : Weber's Bureaucratic model is efficient when the organization deals primarily with Uniform events.

Reasons (R) : Weber's Bureaucratic model doesn't encompass the 'overlapping' and "Heterogeneous" structure in developing Societies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Weber's Bureaucratic Model
  • It is designed to handle uniform, repetitive tasks efficiently through a structured hierarchy and clear rules.
  • The model emphasizes order, predictability, and consistency, making it suitable for stable environments.
  • Assertion (A) is true
  • Weber's Bureaucratic Model is efficient when the organization deals with uniform events as tasks are predefined and routine.
  • This structured approach is less adaptable to dynamic, non-repetitive, or unforeseen scenarios.
  • Reason (R) is also true but is not directly explaining A
  • Reason (R) highlights that Weber's model does not address the challenges posed by overlapping and heterogeneous structures often found in developing societies.
  • However, this does not explain why Weber's model is efficient for uniform events, as it focuses on the model's limitations rather than its strengths.

Additional Information

  • Features of Weber's Bureaucratic Model
  • Defined by a formal hierarchical structure where each role has specific responsibilities.
  • Functions through clearly established rules and regulations for consistency.
  • Focuses on impersonal relationships to ensure fairness and objectivity.
  • Limitations of Weber's Bureaucratic Model
  • Struggles to adapt to dynamic environments with complex or unforeseen challenges.
  • May result in rigidity and lack of flexibility, especially in developing societies with overlapping structures.
  • Less effective in addressing heterogeneous cultural and societal dynamics.
  • Developing Societies
  • Often characterized by diverse and overlapping social, economic, and political structures.
  • Require a more adaptive and flexible approach than what Weber's model offers.

Question 88

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): Traditional approaches to comparative Studies in administration focuses on institution. procedures & functions.

Reasons (R) : Contemporary Studies on Governance & administration focuses more on Dynamic than on Static Structure

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Key Points

  • Traditional Approaches
  • Traditional approaches in comparative public administration focus on institutions, procedures, and functions, emphasizing the static nature of administrative structures.
  • These studies analyze how administrative systems are organized and how they operate within a particular framework.
  • Contemporary Approaches
  • Contemporary studies focus on the dynamic aspects of administration, including governance, adaptability, and responsiveness to environmental changes.
  • They shift the focus from rigid structures to the interaction between administration and its external environment.
  • Explanation of the Answer
  • Both statements are true, but the focus on dynamic aspects in contemporary studies (Reason) does not directly explain why traditional approaches focused on static structures (Assertion).
  • The two statements are related but address different aspects of comparative administration studies.

Additional Information

  • Comparative Public Administration
  • It involves the study of administrative systems in different countries to identify similarities and differences.
  • The goal is to improve governance by understanding how diverse systems operate under varying political, cultural, and economic conditions.
  • Governance
  • Governance refers to the processes and mechanisms through which decisions are made and implemented.
  • Modern governance emphasizes participation, accountability, and transparency.
  • Static vs. Dynamic Structures
  • Static structures focus on fixed organizational frameworks and hierarchical systems.
  • Dynamic structures deal with adaptability, innovation, and responsiveness to change, key in contemporary governance studies.

Question 89

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): Promotion has wider implications than advancement.

Reasons (R): Advancement involves only an increase in pay.

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Promotion
  • Promotion generally has wider implications as it often includes an increase in pay, higher responsibilities, and a rise in status or position within an organization.
  • It signifies both a vertical movement in the organizational hierarchy and recognition of one's contributions and capabilities.
  • Advancement
  • Advancement typically involves only a pay increase without significant changes in job title, responsibilities, or position in the hierarchy.
  • It is focused on monetary benefits rather than changes in role or status.
  • In this context, the Reason (R) correctly explains the Assertion (A) as the concept of promotion encompasses more aspects compared to advancement.

Additional Information

  • Key Differences between Promotion and Advancement
  • Promotion generally involves a change in designation, a higher level of responsibilities, and often a salary hike.
  • Advancement, on the other hand, might only involve monetary benefits without a formal change in position or responsibilities.
  • Organizational Implications
  • Promotions are often linked to organizational growth, as they motivate employees by recognizing their potential and providing career progression.
  • Advancements may be used to retain employees by offering financial incentives without altering their roles significantly.
  • Examples
  • A promotion might involve moving from a "Team Leader" role to a "Manager" role, which includes both a pay raise and additional responsibilities.
  • An advancement could be a raise in salary while remaining in the same role, such as a "Senior Software Engineer" receiving an annual increment without a change in title.

Question 90

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A) : Based on the bureaucratic and Post-Fordist notion of organization new local governance encouraged net working and negotiation over formalism.

Reasons (R) : In new local governance, institutions are viewed as the centre of development.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): Based on the bureaucratic and Post-Fordist notion of organization, new local governance encouraged networking and negotiation over formalism.
  • Post-Fordism refers to an economic and organizational model that emphasizes flexibility, decentralization, and collaboration, moving away from rigid hierarchical structures.
  • Networking and negotiation are central to modern governance practices where informal collaboration often replaces strict procedural formalism.
  • Reason (R): In new local governance, institutions are viewed as the center of development.
  • The idea of institutions being central aligns with the focus on decentralized and participatory governance models.
  • This statement is correct but does not fully explain why networking and negotiation are emphasized in the Post-Fordist model.

Additional Information

  • Bureaucratic Model vs. Post-Fordist Approach:
  • Bureaucratic Model: Focuses on hierarchy, formal rules, and rigid procedures for organizational management.
  • Post-Fordist Approach: Encourages decentralization, flexible processes, and collaboration to adapt to dynamic socio-economic contexts.
  • Role of Institutions in Local Governance:
  • Institutions act as facilitators for development by enabling stakeholder participation and resource mobilization.
  • They contribute to enhancing governance through policies, frameworks, and community engagement.
  • Networking and Negotiation:
  • Networking fosters collaboration among diverse stakeholders such as governments, private sectors, and civil society.
  • Negotiation ensures consensus-building, which is vital for implementing policies in decentralized governance structures.

Read the following passage carefully; and answer questions:

From the early 1900s. Follett was a very active social worker in Roxbury and she made a name for herself working with community programs. Follett's intimate knowledge of the economic, social and political problems faced by Roxbury's immigrant residents forced her to establish an organization called the Highland Union in 1902. Follett continued her community work after being elected chairperson of the Women's Municipal League's Committee on "Extended Use of School Buildings" in 1908. From 1909, Follett spent more than a decade working for the Women's Municipal League of Boston. As Follett's leadership in community centres received national acclaim, she accepted the position of Vice-President of the National Community Centre Association in 1917.

She synthesized the dynamics of the interactions she observed within the community in her book. The New State. which was published in 1918. Due to its multi-disciplinary perspective. the book drew attention from scholars in political science. philosophy, and sociology. From the early 1920s. Follett started thinking about management and administration in industry and public institutions: this eventually led to her book. Creative Experience in 1924. which helped explain her popularity as a speaker to business organizations and secured her reputation as a pioneering management theorist. Her philosophical and political views clearly explain her ideas on organizations dynamics. In 1925. Follett well respected for her intellect and foresight, was invited to speak at the Executive Conference Group by the Bureau of Personnel Administration and she continued to give lectures for several years thereafter, focusing on leadership, control. authority and conflict between individuals and groups. Follett demonstrated a contribution that reached from Government to private industry and blended "the scientific management and human relations approaches to management".

Follett felt the field of human relations is richer for its multiple sources of insights and sensitivity to the interactive effects of law and legal institutions with other social institutions. She believed that integration was the core skill, that the measure of a manager or leader is how much difference they can integrate. Follett said that a skilful leader does not only rely on personal force: he controls his group not by dominating it. but by expressing it. Moreover. Follett felt that integrating difference generates a certain kind of sustainable power, and it requires practice and skill. Follett and Mayo had met twice in the US at her Syracuse lectures and once at Harvard. Mayo acknowledged that he had not previously considered whether this integrative unity was an important conception in comparing one scientific research. or one part of human knowledge with another. In her 1926 lecture. Follett took as her subject the type of administrative leadership demanded by the present development of business management.

Question 91

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    High Land Union - A 1902

  2. BOption (b)

    New State - B 1925

  3. COption (c)

    Administrative Leadership - C 1926

  4. DOption (d)

    Creative experience - D 1924

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

New State - B 1925

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New State - B 1925.

Key Points The New State. which was published in 1918. Due to its multi-disciplinary perspective. the book drew attention from scholars in political science. philosophy, and sociology.

Question 92

Follett felt that integrating difference generates a certain kind of

  1. AOption (a)

    Research on Human Knowledge

  2. BOption (b)

    Conflicts between human beings

  3. COption (c)

    A kind of sustainable power

  4. DOption (d)

    Help to improve relations with various organizations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A kind of sustainable power

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A kind of sustainable power.

Key Points From the passage, Follett believed that integrating difference generates a certain kind of sustainable power. This power arises through cooperation rather than domination and depends on practice and skill. She viewed such integration as essential for effective leadership, human relations, and modern administrative management.

Question 93

Which one of the following is correct concerning Follett and Mayo interactions? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The measure of a manager or leader is how much difference they can integrate.

  2. BOption (b)

    Integrative unity was an important conception.

  3. COption (c)

    Interactive effects of law and legal institutions with other social institutions.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Scientific management and human relations approaches to management.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Integrative unity was an important conception.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Integrative unity was an important conception.

Key Points Follett and Mayo met twice in the United States at her Syracuse lectures and once at Harvard, and Mayo acknowledged that he had not previously considered the importance of integrative unity across different areas of scientific research and human knowledge.

Question 94

Consider the following statements regarding Follett :

(A) A skillful leader does really on personal force

(B) Leader Control his group by not dominating

(C) Leader express his opinion

(D) Administrative leadership development from business dynamics.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A & C Only

  3. COption (c)

    B & C Only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C & D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B & C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B & C Only.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, Follett clearly rejects the idea that a skilful leader relies on personal force, so statement-
  • statement (A) is incorrect. She explicitly states that a leader controls a group not by dominating it, but by expressing the group, which makes statement (B) correct. Statement (C) is incorrect because the passage does not say leaders merely express their own opinions, but rather express the group. Statement (D) is correct, as Follett’s 1926 lecture focused on administrative leadership required by the evolving dynamics of business management.

Question 95

Consider the following statements on Follett :

A. She believed that integration was the core skill.

B. Follett felt the field of human relations is richer for its multiple sources of insights.

C. Made a name for herself working with community programes at Boston

D. Follett and Mayo had met twice at Harvard.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C & D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B & D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B & D Only.

Key Points

  • A** is correct**: The passage clearly states that Follett believed integration was the core skill of leadership and management.
  • B is correct: It explicitly mentions that Follett felt the field of human relations is richer for its multiple sources of insights.
  • C is incorrect: She made her name through community programs in Roxbury, not Boston.
  • D is correct: Follett and Mayo met twice at Syracuse and twice at Harvard.

Read the following passage; and answer question:

Recent decades have seen a stark increase in the number of studies using cross country data on governance. Among the most widely accepted measures of governance are the World Bank Governance indicators or Transparency International (TI) corruption perception index etc. Surprisingly, there is currently no similar widely accepted measure of transparency. Although the governance indexes have received a fair amount of criticism. not least for being perception based. they are widely used among both researchers and policy makers. No transparency index has, however, so far attained a similar level of acceptance.

RTI stands for Right to Information. Right to information is a part of fundamental rights under Article 19(1) of the Constitution. Article 19(1) says that every citizen has freedom of speech and expression. As early as in 1976. the Supreme Court said in the case of Raj Narain vs State of UP. that people cannot speak or express themselves unless they know. There are more than 65 countries in the world. which have RTI laws. There are nine states in India. which had RTI laws, before this law was passed by the parliament. RTI just brings truth in public domain. It does not create any information. It just removes curtains and brings truth in public domain. Filling an RTI application and pursuing it takes time. energies and resources.

A citizen who desires to seek some information from a public authority is required to send. along with the application (a Postal order or DD (Demand draft) or a bankers cheque) or a court stamp payable to the Accounts Officer of the public authority as fee prescribed for seeking information. If the person is from a disadvantaged community. he/she need not pay. A digital portal has been set up. RTI Portal, a gateway to the citizens for quick search of information on the details of first Appellate Authorities. PIOs etc. Along with this. RTI related information disclosures published on the web by various Public Authorities under the government of India as well as the State Governments.

All private bodies, which are owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Government are directly covered under RTI. Others are indirectly covered. That is, if a government department can access information from any private body under any other Act. the same can be accessed by the citizen under the RTI Act through that government department. There is a debate as to how best the RTI can overcome the obstacles created by another statue which is the Official Secrets Act. However. Section 22 of the RTI Act 2005 clearly says that RTI Act would override all existing Acts including Officials Secrets Act.

Question 96

A stark increase in the number of studies using cross country data on governance is due to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Research on accountability issues.

  2. BOption (b)

    Popularity of RTI

  3. COption (c)

    Government support to openness

  4. DOption (d)

    World Bank indicators.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

World Bank indicators.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is World Bank Indicators.

Key Points The stark increase in studies using cross-country data on governance is due to the availability and widespread acceptance of governance indicators such as the World Bank Governance Indicators and Transparency International’s Corruption Perception Index. Despite criticism for being perception-based, these indexes are widely used by researchers and policymakers.

Question 97

Consider the following statements regarding transparency

(1) Acceptance of global indexes.

(2) Information Laws.

(3) Access to information freely provided by political and administrative institutions.

(4) No similar widely accepted measure of transparency.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A & C Only

  3. COption (c)

    B & C Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B & D Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, B & D Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B & D Only

Key Points

  • From the passage, transparency is discussed in relation to information laws, particularly the Right to Information (RTI) Act, making statement (2) correct. It also clearly states that no similar widely accepted measure of transparency exists, making (4) correct. and Statement (1)  correct refers to governance indexes.
  • Statement (3) is incorrect because access to information under RTI is not freely provided but obtained through a formal process.

Question 98

Consider the following statements on RTI?

(1) Right to information is a part of fundamental Right. 

(2) Supreme court said that people cannot speak or express unless they know.

(3) There are organizations covered directly and also indirectly under RTI.

(4) Section 22 of the RTI Act 2005 clearly says that the RTI Act would override all existing Acts excepts Official Secrets Act.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B & C Only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C & D Only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B & D Only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C & D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B & C Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B & C Only

Key Points

  • (1) is correct: The passage states that the Right to Information is part of the Fundamental Right under Article 19(1).
  • (2) is correct: It mentions the Supreme Court’s view in Raj Narain vs State of UP (1976) that people cannot speak or express unless they know.
  • (3) is correct: The passage explains that some organizations are covered directly and others indirectly under RTI.
  • (4) is incorrect: Section 22 of the RTI Act overrides all existing Acts including the Official Secrets Act, not excepting it.

Question 99

Which of the following is not correct concerning RTI?

  1. AOption (a)

    More than 65 countries in the world have RTI laws.

  2. BOption (b)

    Nineteen States in India had RTI laws, before this law was passed by the Parliament.

  3. COption (c)

    Filing an RTI application and pursuing it takes time, energy and resources.

  4. DOption (d)

    RTI just brings truth in public domain and does not create any information.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nineteen States in India had RTI laws, before this law was passed by the Parliament.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nineteen States in India had RTI laws, before this law was passed by the Parliament.

Key Points

  • **Option 2 is **not correct because the passage clearly states that nine states in India had RTI laws before the Act was passed by Parliament, not nineteen.
  • Options 1 is correct More than 65 countries in the world have RTI laws.
  • Option 3 is correct Filing an RTI application and pursuing it takes time, energy and resources.
  • Option 4 is correct RTI just brings truth in public domain and does not create any information.

Question 100

A citizen who desires to seek some information from a public authority:

  1. AOption (a)

    Application along with a Demand Draft only.

  2. BOption (b)

    Even a person is from a disadvantaged community. he/she also need to pay the fee.

  3. COption (c)

    Citizen can access private organization information through government department.

  4. DOption (d)

    Government of India is planning to establish a digital RTI portal to help public from 2023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Application along with a Demand Draft only.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Application along with a Demand Draft only.

Key Points A citizen who desires to seek some information from a public authority is required to send. along with the application (a Postal order or DD (Demand draft) or a bankers cheque) or a court stamp payable to the Accounts Officer of the public authority as fee prescribed for seeking information.

100 questions in the full paper