UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 10 Oct 2022 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct match of the given question are -

Hence, the correct answer is A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

Additional Information

• A categorical proposition is a simple proposition containing two terms, subject(S) and predicate (P), in which the predicate is either asserted or denied of the subject.
• Every categorical proposition can be reduced to one of four logical forms, named A, E, I and O.
• The 'A' proposition, is the universal affirmative usually translated as 'All S is P'.
• In the 'E' proposition, is the universal negative is usually 'No S is P'.
• The 'I' proposition, is the particular affirmative usually translated as 'Some S are P'.
• In the 'O' proposition, is the particular negative is usually translated as 'Some S are not P'
• Obversion is the inference in which the quality of the proposition is changed and the predicate is interchanged with its complement. It is valid for all four forms. The obverse is logically equivalent to the original proposition.

The positional value of alphabets are:-

The logic used in this question is:-

Logic - (Positional value of alphabets - 1)

As per question ‘BEAUTIFUL’ is coded as ‘ADZTSHETK’ 

Similarly, in ‘HANDSOME’ 

Hence, the correct answer is GZMCRNLD.

Given

The population of city A = 257400

Solution

The total population of all cities:

⇒ 257400/23.4 × 100

⇒ 1100000

The population of city D = 1100000 × 18.9%

⇒ 207900

The population of City A as a percentage of the population of City D is:

⇒ 257400/207900 × 100

⇒ 123.8% ≈ 124%

Given

23.4% population of city A = 257400

Solution

⇒ 23.4% = 257400

⇒ 1% = 257400/23.4 × 100

⇒ 100% = 1100000

The adult population of B:

⇒ 1100000 × 21.6% × 68%

⇒ 161568

The adult population of C:

⇒ 1100000 × 8.4% × 73%

⇒ 67452

The total adult population of B and C:

⇒ 67452 + 161568 = 229020

⇒ 229020/1100000 × 100

⇒ 20.8 ~ (21%)

Given:

The population of city A = 257400(23.4%)

The adult population of City F = 72%

∴ Non-adult population = 100 - 72 = 28%

Solution:

The total population of all cities:

⇒ 257400/23.4 × 100

⇒ 1100000

The Non-adult population of F:

⇒ 1100000 × 10.2/100 × 28/100

⇒ 31416

Given

The population of city A = 257400

Solution

The total population of all cities:

⇒ 257400/23.4 × 100

⇒ 1100000

The population of city D = 1100000 × 18.9%

⇒ 207900

The population of city E = 1100000 × 17.5%

⇒ 192500

The per cent difference between the two (w.r.t E):

⇒ (207900 - 192500)/192500

⇒ 15400/192500 × 100

⇒ 8%

Given

The population of city A = 257400

The per cent distribution of city A = 23.4%

Solution

The total population of all cities:

⇒ 257400/23.4 × 100

⇒ 1100000

The adult population of City C is:

⇒ 1100000 × 8.4% × 73%

⇒ 67452

Key Points

Statement I: Pesticides such as DDT are particularly disruptive to food chains.

Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)

• It is an insecticide used in agriculture.
• When an animal consumes food having DDT residue, the DDT accumulates in the tissue of the animal through a process called bioaccumulation.
• The higher an animal is on the food chain (e.g. tertiary consumers such as seals), the greater the concentration of DDT in their body as a result of a process called biomagnification.
• This eventually hampers the food chain that feeds upon those animals.

Hence Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Pesticides are very persistent and soluble in water

Persistent Pesticides:

• Like sugar and salt, some pesticides are very soluble in water. They dissolve easily. However, all pesticides are not soluble.
• Their molecules bond to water molecules. Highly soluble pesticides will travel with water as it moves in the environment.
• They can travel downstream and through the soil.
• This increases their probability of reaching groundwater.
• They are more likely to be absorbed by the roots of plants.
• They are not likely to be absorbed into our bodies through the skin.
• Persistent pesticides, which primarily consist of organochlorine pesticides, are considered persistent because they are stable in the environment and resist being broken down. Whereas as per the solubility not all pesticides are soluble in water.

Hence Statement II is incorrect.

Hence Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points

 Nyaya school

• It holds that there are four valid means of knowledge: perception (pratyaksha), inference (anumana), comparison (upamana), and sound, or testimony (shabda). Invalid knowledge involves memory, doubt, error, and hypothetical argument.
• Here inference is constituted with at least three sentences and these three sentences are again constituted of three different terms.
• These three sentences are named as; major premise, minor premise, and conclusion respectively
• An example will clarify the above analysis.
• Major Premise: All things which have smoke have fire.
• Minor Premise: This hill has smoke
• Conclusion:Therefore, this hill has fire
• Here ‘smoke’ is the middle term, ‘fire’ is the major term and ‘hill’ is the minor term.
• In any anumāna (inference) ‘vyāpti’ relation must subsist between hetu and sādhya.
• Vyāpti is defined as an invariable, unconditional and universal relation between middle term and major term of an inferential argument.
• In an inference, knowledge of an object is derived due to previous knowledge of some sign or mark. The previous knowledge is due to the universal relation between the major term and the middle term is being present in the minor term.
• To explain the above example, it is stated that an individual saw the smoke on a hill form a distant place. By seeing the smoke he/she relates his/her previous knowledge that wherever there is smoke there is fire, e.g.; in kitchen, in a lamp, etc. which is a universal truth.
• **Then, he/she claims that since the hill looks smoky, it implies there is fire. **Therefore in Nyaya logic  Inference is from the particular to the particular throught the universal.

Therefore we can conclude that correct answer is D only.

Key Points

Statement I: The contents of most forms of RAM are volatile, thus making them unsuitable for long term data storage.

Random Access Memory,

• It is a hardware device generally located on the motherboard of a computer and acts as an internal memory of the CPU. It allows CPU store data, program, and program results when you switch on the computer. It is the read and write memory of a computer, which means the information can be written to it as well as read from it.
• RAM is a volatile memory, which means it does not store data or instructions permanently.
• As soon as you shut down the computer, the RAM loses the data. So, the data remains in the RAM as long as the computer is on and lost when the computer is turned off.

Hence Statement I is true 

Statement II: Hard disk has faster access of data in comparison to RAM as well as processor registers.

Hard Disk Vs RAM and Register accesstime:

• RAM access times are measured in nanoseconds, while disk access time are measured in milliseconds. Nanoseconds are one million times faster than millseconds.
• .A Register is a fast memory used to accept, store, and transfer data and instructions that are being used immediately by the CPU.
• It is faster than Hard disk in terms of accessing data

Hence Statement II is false 

Therefore we can say that Statement I is true but Statement II is false ​

The correct answer is Phenomenology

Important Points

 Phenomenology

• It is the study of structures of consciousness as experienced from the first-person point of view.
• The central structure of an experience is its intentionality, its being directed toward something, as it is an experience of or about some object.
• We can use this methodology in situations such as: The experiences of every war survivor or war veteran are unique.
• Research can illuminate their mental states and survival strategies in a new world.

Additional Information

• Sociology is a social science that focuses on society, human social behavior, patterns of social relationships, social interaction, and aspects of culture associated with everyday life.
• Pragmatism is a philosophical tradition that considers words and thought as tools and instruments for prediction, problem solving, and action, and rejects the idea that the function of thought is to describe, represent, or mirror reality
• Structuralism s a general theory of culture and methodology that implies that elements of human culture must be understood by way of their relationship to a broader system.

The correct answer is Moderator.

Important Points

Moderator:

• In a nuclear reactor, a  moderator is a medium that reduces the speed of fast neutrons.
• The commonly used moderators are water, heavy water (D2O), and graphite.
• This reduces the speed of fast neutrons and helps in sustaining nuclear chain reactions.

Additional Information

Controller or Control Rods:

• Control rods are used in nuclear reactors to control the rate of fission of the nuclear fuel – uranium or plutonium.
• Control rods absorb neutrons and can control the rate of a nuclear reaction.
• Their compositions include chemical elements such as boron, cadmium, silver, hafnium, or indium, which are capable of absorbing many neutrons without themselves decaying.

Key Points

Therefore we can say that correct code is A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

The correct answer is 0.69%.

Research funding in India occurs through various fostering institutions, linked directly or indirectly to the Ministries of the Indian government.

Key Points

• The India Innovation Index 2021 has found that the overall spending on R&D by India has been relatively low across the country.
• This was reflected in the overall share of gross expenditure on R&D (GERD) as a percentage of GDP, at about 0.69%.
• Developed countries the United States, Sweden, and Switzerland spend about 2.9%, 3.2% and 3.4%, respectively.
• Israel spends 4.5% of its GDP on R&D, the highest in the world.
• The reasons cited for the low spending on R&D in developing countries like India are: 
• That investments in R&D take time to produce results.
• Countries like India tend to have bigger issues like hunger, disease control and raising the quality of life and authorities divert resources towards tackling them.
• However, in one of the studies it was found that these pressing concerns shouldn’t be viewed as a hindrance, but rather an opportunity to widen the ambit of R&D.

Additional Information

• Science and innovation will be crucial to India maintaining its economic growth out to 2035.
• Despite relatively low funding levels, India is making significant advances.
• It benefits from a large talent pool and several world-standard technology clusters and start-up ecosystems.
• India is attracting increasing rates of investment in research and development.
• The research ecosystem in India presents a significant opportunity for multinational corporations across the globe due to
• access to technical talent.
• low wages.
• proximity to the regional market.

The correct answer is Ozone.

Key Points

• People exposed to elevated levels of ozone may experience a variety of symptoms.
• The most common symptom is a feeling of irritation in the eyes, nose, and throat.
• Some people may also experience respiratory or heart symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and wheezing.

Thus,  ozone is considered as a surrogate for eye irritation.

Additional Information

• Nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and carbon monoxide are important ambient air pollutants.
• High-intensity, confined space exposure to NO2 has caused catastrophic injuries to humans, including death.
• Ambient NO2 exposure may increase the risk of respiratory tract infections through the pollutant's interaction with the immune system.
• Sulfur dioxide (SO2) contributes to respiratory symptoms in both healthy patients and those with underlying pulmonary disease.
• Both acute and chronic exposure to carbon monoxide is associated with an increased risk for adverse cardiopulmonary events, including death.

Key Points

 Statement I: Non-verbal signals are used to emphasize and support verbal communication

• Verbal communication
• Verbal communication is defined as communication to express our views, information, and ideas in the form of sound and words
• Nonverbal cues can emphasize or underscore a verbal message. For example, when you raise or lower your voice, or slow down your rate of speech so you can deliberately stress a series of words, you are using nonverbal cues to accentuate your words.

Therefore we can say that Statement I is true.

Statement II: Non-verbal signals are not a substitute for verbal communication.

• Non-verbal signals for nonverbal communication:
• It can substitute for a verbal message. For example, your facial expression often conveys a far more vivid message than words ever can.
• Nonverbal communication is also useful in a quiet situation where verbal communication would be disturbing; for example, you may use a gesture to signal to a friend that you’re ready to leave the library.

Hence Statement II is false 

Therefore we can say that Statement I is true but Statement II is false  ​

Key Points

• A case study is a comprehensive study of a social unit of society, which may be a person, family group, institution, community, or event.
• It focuses attention on a single unit thoroughly.
• The aim is to find out the influencing factors of a social unit and the relationship between these factors and a social unit.

Characteristics of case study research are:

• The number of units to be studied is small.
• It studies a social unit deeply and thoroughly.
• It is qualitative as well as quantitative.
• It covers a sufficient wide cycle of time.
• It is inductive as mostly depends upon inductive reasoning.
• Generalizations come out from the data evaluation.
• Case studies attempt to find out new relationships instead of verifying the hypotheses already in existence.
• It has continuity in nature.
• It is descriptive as offers an opportunity for intensive evaluation of the case.
• It is particularistic as It focuses its attention on a particular situation, program, phenomenon, or event.
• It is Heuristic as a case study enables people to understand what is being inquired with new perspectives, new insights, new meanings, and new interpretations.

Therefore the correct answer is B, C, and D only.

The correct answer is  Hansa Mehta Committee

Important Points

• Hansa Mehta Committee
• It was appointed by the national council for women education in 1962 under the chairmanship of smt Hansa Mehta to examine to suggest measures for the improvement of women's education.
• It aimed for providing differentiation of curriculum for boys and girls at all the stages of education.

Additional Information

• Bhaktavatsalam committee report (1963)
• It  was appointed by national council for women education under the chairmanship of Mr.M. Bhaktavatsalam to look into the causes for the lack of public support, particularly in rural areas for girl’s education and to enlist public cooperation.
• Durgabai Deshmukh Committee (1959) worked for the girls’ education.

The correct answer is Integrated Circuit.

Important Points

• Integrated circuit (IC):
• Integrated Circuit was introduced with the Third Generation of computers.
• They were the first steps toward computers as we know them today. Their main feature was the use of integrated circuits, which allowed them to be shrunk down to be as small as large toasters
• An integrated circuit (IC) is manufactured using silicon material and mounted in a ceramic or plastic container (known as Chip).
• The basic components of an IC consist of electronic circuits for the digital gates.

Additional Information

• A solid-state drive
• It is a solid-state storage device that uses integrated circuit assemblies to store data persistently, typically using flash memory, and functioning as secondary storage in the hierarchy of computer storage.
• Register:
• A Register is a collection of flip flops. A flip flop is used to store single bit digital data. It is used To take the instructions given by the users and  fetch the instruction stored into the main memory
• A vacuum-tube computer
• Now termed a first-generation computer,It  is a computer that uses vacuum tubes for logic circuitry

Key Points

Therefore we can conclude hat correct answer is A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Key Points 

Statement I: Global warming could lead to increased release of the greenhouse gas, Methane.

• Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon that is a primary component of natural gas.
• Methane is also a greenhouse gas (GHG), so its presence in the atmosphere affects the earth's temperature and climate system.
• Methane is emitted from a variety of anthropogenic (human-influenced) and natural sources.
• Methane is the primary contributor to the formation of ground-level ozone, a hazardous air pollutant, and greenhouse gas
• Over a 20-year period, it is 80 times more potent at warming than carbon dioxide

Hence  Statement I is correct 

Statement II: There is a large amount of Methane currently frozen in the permafrost in the far northern regions of the world.

Frozen Methane in Permafrost form in Arctic regions:

• The slope sediments in the Arctic contain a huge quantity of frozen methane and other gases – known as hydrates.
• The Arctic region is one of the many natural sources of the greenhouse gas methane.
• Global warming accelerates its release, due to both release of methane from existing stores, and from methanogenesis in rotting biomass
• Arctic methane release is the release of methane from seas and soils in permafrost regions of the Arctic.
• While it is a long-term natural process, methane release is exacerbated by global warming.
• This results in a positive feedback cycle, as methane is itself a powerful greenhouse gas.

Hence  Statement II is correct 

Therefore we can conclude that Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

Key Points

• Linear model of communication:
• In a linear model of communication, one person sends a message, and another person receives it. Therefore, it only moves in one direction. Linear models typically don't consider any feedback that the recipient may send back to the sender.Hence it is a sender centric communication
• The linear model is seen in everyday communication, such as television advertisements, radio commercials, and print materials.
• It is best used for mass communication.
• The linear model of communication is also sometimes referred to as the action model of communication or the transmission model of communication.

Additional Information

• In any communication process noise cannot be eliminated  hence it is all pervasive
• As linear communication do not consider any feedback hence option of manipulated feedback is eliminated

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is A, D and E only

Key Points

Statement I: Exploratory research is conducted for data indications.

Exploratory research 

• It is a methodological approach that investigates research questions that have not previously been studied in depth.
• It is often used when the issue the researcher is studying is new or when the data collection process is challenging for some reason.
• It is used when you have a general idea or a specific question that the researcher wants to study but there is no preexisting knowledge or paradigm with which to study it.
• Therefore Exploratory research is conducted for data indications.

Hence Statement I is true.

Statement II: The goal of exploratory research is to gather final data to find out causality.

Causal research

• Causal research, is the investigation of (research into) cause-relationships.
• To determine causality, variation in the variable presumed to influence the difference in another variable(s) must be detected, and then the variations from the other variable(s) must be calculated (s).
• The objective of causal research is to test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships.
• This would occur when there is a change in one of the independent variables, which is causing changes in the dependent variable.
• Thus casual research is used to gather final data to find out causality.

Hence Statement II is False.

Therefore we can conclude that Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

The correct answer is A, B, and C.

Important Points

• The Information Technology Act(2000) by making provisions for legal recognition of Electronic Records, Electronic Signatures, E-Contracts, Retention of records in Electronic Form, Audit of Records maintained in Electronic Form, and Publication of Rules in E-Gazette creates a strong architecture for E-Governance.

Key Points

• E-governance or Electronic/digital Governance is dealt with under Sections 4 to 10A of the IT Act, 2000.
• It provides for legal recognition of electronic records and Electronic signatures and also provides for legal recognition of contracts formed through electronic means.
• The use of Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs) is acting as the backbone for the implementation of E-Governance.
• E-governance is expected to play a significant role in reducing red-tapism and give way t a better bureaucracy in India, with a promise to reduce corruption and bring transparency.
• The goals of e-governance are better service delivery to citizens, ushering in transparency and accountability, empowering people through information, improved efficiency within governments, and improving the interface with business and industry.
• This IT Act is a watershed in conceptualizing administrative reforms in India.

Additional Information

• An Act to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out using electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication, commonly referred to as electronic commerce‖, which involves the use of alternatives to paper-based methods of communication and storage of information, to facilitate the electronic filing of documents with the Government agencies and further amend the Indian Penal Code, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Banker’s Books Evidence Act, 1891 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points

Statement I: Biodiesel can reduce Sulphur emissions significantly in comparison to gasoline.

• SO2 is a colorless poisonous gas with a terrible odor.
• SOx is emitted through the combustion of fuel, oil, and coal, in addition to other sulfur-containing materials.
• Various sources include smelting factories, electricity plants, and metal processing for various vehicles.
• The equipment, similar to diesel, is a significant producer of sulfur dioxide, but a recent federal law has lowered the sulfur content of biodiesel fuel, resulting in a significant improvement in the sector of gaseous emissions.
• Biodiesel provides excellent lubricity to the fuel injection system.
• Recently, with the introduction of low-sulfur and ultra-low sulfur diesel fuel, many of the compounds which previously provided lubricating properties to petro-diesel fuel have been removed.
• Biodiesel can reduce Sulphur emissions significantly in comparison to gasoline.
• Thus statement I is true.

Statement II: The energy density of biodiesel is much less than that of ethanol.

• Biofuels have been the primary focus of most energy experts nowadays.
• Biofuel is more efficient than ethanol because it can generate more energy (about 93% more) than the ones being used for its production. In the case of ethanol, it is just about 25%.
• Compared with ethanol, biodiesel releases just 1.0%, 8.3%, and 13% of the agricultural nitrogen, phosphorus, and pesticide pollutants, respectively, per net energy gain.
• Relative to the fossil fuels they displace, greenhouse gas emissions are reduced by 12%  by the production and combustion of ethanol and 41% by biodiesel.
• Biodiesel also releases fewer air pollutants per net energy gain than ethanol.
• Thus statement II is false.

Therefore we can conclude that Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

The correct answer is Concept Maps.

Important Points

• Concept mapping emerges directly from David P. Ausubel’s Assimilation Theory of meaningful verbal learning. The underlying basis of the theory is that meaningful (as opposed to rote) human learning occurs when new knowledge is consciously, and purposively linked to an existing framework of prior knowledge in a non-arbitrary, substantive fashion. In rote (or memorized) learning, new concepts are added to the learner’s framework in an arbitrary and verbatim way, producing a weak and unstable structure that quickly degenerates.
• Joseph Novak is widely credited as the creator of concept maps and has been writing, and researching them since the 1970s.

Key Points

• Concept maps are graphical tools for organizing and representing knowledge.
• They include concepts, usually enclosed in circles or boxes of some type, and relationships between concepts indicated by a connecting line linking two concepts.
• Concept maps have specific characteristics that distinguish them from other knowledge representation tools. Not every graph with text in its nodes is a concept map, and the literature (and the Web) are full of diagrams that are wrongly depicted as concept maps.
• In a concept map, propositions are connected to form a  hierarchical, branching, and dendritic structure that represents the organization of knowledge in long-term memory.
• Concept mapping has been put to many uses in education, business and government.  The process of concept mapping for educational purposes can foster the learning of well-integrated structural knowledge as opposed to the memorization of fragmentary, unintegrated facts.
• Concept mapping can be used for knowledge capture - for the elicitation of the expert knowledge that an organization might wish to preserve and share with others.

Additional Information

• A lesson plan is a teacher's detailed description of the course of instruction or "learning trajectory" for a lesson. A daily lesson plan is developed by a teacher to guide class learning. Details will vary depending on the preference of the teacher, the subject being covered, and the needs of the students.

The correct answer is A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II 

Key Points

• Accuracy: Regardless of the field of study or preference for defining data (quantitative, qualitative), accurate data collection is essential to maintaining the integrity of research. Both the selection of appropriate data collection instruments (existing, modified, or newly developed) and delineated instructions for their correct use reduce the likelihood of errors occurring.
• As a data collector, you enter information into a database and ensure that your data collection sources are accurate.
• Accessibility: The Data Collector Access role allows the Data Collector on the ITRS estate to access the required data on your estate. Access can be controlled by deauthorizing the role of the ITRS account. Access control is a security technique that regulates who or what can view or use resources in a computing environment, and the responsibility of the data collector to control access is known as accessibility.
• Privacy: The issue that deals with the collection and use of data about individuals are privacy. Data privacy is the protection of personal data from those who should not have access to it and the ability of individuals to determine who can access their personal information.
• Property: In today's technology-rich environment, companies increasingly recognize the value of data as a business asset that should be protected and can be exploited through licensing to third parties.
• This Data ownership and Software Usage Rights are property rights, Companies, and their counsel therefore can encounter a range of agreements that implicate the protection and treatment of data and related intellectual property (IP) rights.

Given

Average of 1 to 20 prime number

Concept

Prime number: Any number that is divisible by either itself or 1.

Formula Used:

Average = Total sum of all units/No. of units

Solution

The prime number between 1 to 20 are:-

⇒ 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19

Average = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 + 19)/8

⇒ 77/8

⇒ 9.625

If the statement, All human beings are mortal is given as true then some human beings are mortal can be inferred from it to be true.

Hence, the correct answer is Some human beings are mortal. 

Additional InformationModern logic accepts the Boolean interpretation of categorical propositions. This interpretation has the following consequences:

Because A and E propositions have no existential import, super-alternation is not valid

According to Boolean interpretation, the universal statement A is written as the conditional of the following type: 

For any x, if x is S then x is P.

Let us take examples of universal propositions A and E with their modern interpretation:

1. "All men are mammals" would mean "for any x, if x is a man then x is a mammal"
2. "All unicorns are mammals" would mean "for any x, if x is a unicorn then x is a mammal"

We see that none of these conditional statements make any assertion concerning the existence of members of a class.

• According to Boolean interpretation unlike "all" in universal propositions, the word "some" is an proposition makes the claim that there is a membership in the subject class.
• "Some" is interpreted to mean "at least one." Therefore if particular propositions are true then the subject class is not empty because particular propositions are analyzed in conjunction with an existential claim.
• For example, "Some roses are beautiful" would mean "There is at least one x such that x is a rose and x is beautiful". However, we should note that in the Boolean interpretation there is no claim to membership in the subject class of universal propositions.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Important Points

• Inference: According to Nyāya Philosophy, the second source of valid knowledge is ‘inference’. It is also known as ‘anumāna’. The expression ‘anumāna’ is conjoined of two terms; ‘anu’ and ‘māna’. Determinate Indeterminate Recognition (Pratibhijnana) Auditory Tactual Gustatory Olfactory Samanyalaksana Visual Jnanalaksana Yogaja Ordinary Extra Ordinary External Internal (Manas) 6 The word ‘anu’ stands for ‘after’ and ‘māna’ means ‘cognition’.
• So etymologically speaking, ‘anumāna’ (inference) means ‘after cognition’. Literally speaking, anumāna is such knowledge that follows from other knowledge.

Key Points

• An inference is constituted with at least three sentences and these three sentences are again constituted of three different terms. These three sentences are named; a major premise, minor premise, and conclusion respectively. The major term is found in the major premise.
• Similarly, a minor term is found in the minor premise. And, the term which is found in both major premise and minor premise is called a middle term.
• In the conclusion, only major terms and minor terms are found. The middle term makes a link between the minor term and the major term. Major, minor, and middle terms are used interchangeably as ‘sadhya’, ‘paksa’, and ‘hetu’ in Nyāya Philosophy.
• Inferring future rain from the dark clouds, Because there are dark clouds. (hetu), Wherever there are dark clouds there will be rain. (an example is trivial ), Dark clouds over a place are invariably associated with future rain in that place. (upanaya), Therefore we anticipate rain infuture. (nigamana).
• A purvavat inference is that in which we infer the unperceived effect from a perceived cause. The inference of future rain from the appearance of dark heavy clouds in the sky is an example of purvavat.
• A sesavat inference is that in which we infer the unperceived cause from a perceived effect, we Infer the past rain from the swift muddy water in the river.

The correct answer is Longitudinal Study.

Key Points

• In a longitudinal study, subjects are followed over time with continuous or repeated monitoring of risk factors or health outcomes, or both. Such investigations vary enormously in size and complexity. At one extreme a large population may be studied over decades.
• For example, the longitudinal study of the Office of Population Censuses and Surveys prospectively follows a 1% sample of the British population that was initially identified at the 1971 census. Outcomes such as mortality and incidence of cancer have been related to employment status, housing, and other variables measured at successive censuses.
• At the other extreme, some longitudinal studies follow up in relatively small groups for a few days or weeks. Thus, firemen acutely exposed to noxious fumes might be monitored to identify any immediate effects.
• Longitudinal surveys gather data over some time, which may be several months or even several years. The researcher may then analyze changes in the population’s demographic or epidemiological features as time passes, and attempt to describe and/or explain these changes.
• For example, a longitudinal survey could discover that the birth rate in a particular region was falling steadily over time and that this seemed to be related to a rise in the acceptance of family planning methods in the community.

Additional Information

• Experimental studies are ones where researchers introduce an intervention and study its effects. Experimental studies are usually randomized, meaning the subjects are grouped by chance. Randomized controlled trial (RCT): Eligible people are randomly assigned to one of two or more groups.
• A case study is an in-depth study of one person, group, or event. In a case study, nearly every aspect of the subject's life and history is analyzed to seek patterns and causes of behavior. Case studies can be used in various fields, including psychology, medicine, education, anthropology, political science, and social work.
• Historical Studies explore what happened in the past, to interrupt our present and build a better future. Our courses focus on the major transformations of the modern era, which we explore through varied theoretical perspectives and analytic approaches.

The correct answer is Logical simplicity.

Important Points

• Validity refers to two separate areas of concern in communication research. The first of those areas is the extent to which a measure reflects its intended concept. The term is distinct from reliability, although if a measure is valid this assumes that the measure is also reliable.
• Three established dimensions of validity exist: content, criterion, and construct validity. Statistical techniques such as confirmatory factor analysis and multitrait-multimethod modeling can provide empirical evidence of validity.

Key Points

• Parsimony is a guiding principle that suggests that all things being equal, you should prefer the simplest possible explanation for a phenomenon or the simplest possible solution to a problem. For example, if you hear barking from inside your house, and you own a dog, it is more reasonable to assume that you are hearing your dog right now than it is to assume that some other dog snuck in
• “In general, we consider it a good principle to explain the phenomena by the simplest hypotheses possible, in so far as there is nothing in the observations to provide a significant objection to such a procedure.”
• The concept of parsimony is used to help people identify the most reasonable explanation for a phenomenon or the best solution to a problem, based on the complexity of the available options. Specifically, according to the principle of parsimony, when looking for the best explanation or solution, you should select the simplest one, as long as no other criterion can be used to choose between the available options.
• Parsimony simply means that when conducting a scientific experiment always choose the logically simplest explanation. The classic example is, “If you hear hoofbeats, think horse -- not zebra.”
• The parsimony principle is basic to all science and tells us to choose the simplest scientific explanation that fits the evidence.

The correct answer is the Inquiry approach

Key Points

• The inquiry method is a student-centered learning approach with the concept of students who are actively involved in the teaching and learning activity under the monitoring and supervision of teachers. This study describes how to implement the inquiry method in the classroom.
• Inquiry-based learning is a learning and teaching approach that emphasizes students’ questions, ideas, and observations. Instructors actively encourage students to share their thoughts and to respectfully challenge, test, and redefine ideas.
• With inquiry-based learning, instructors and students share responsibility for learning.
• Inquiry-based learning refers to a transformation of the traditional classroom.
• Students are encouraged to take part in group work to learn from their peers and participate in forms of guided learning, which is delivered by an instructor.
• This form of learning enhances comprehension—rather than memorizing facts and taking notes, students are now encouraged to discuss ideas with their peers.
• This form of learning also allows students to take ownership of their learning and increases their engagement with the content.
• Teaching and Learning based on the inquiry method is an approach that helps students build their knowledge and understanding through research and exploration activities based on existing knowledge.
• The inquiry method requires higher-order thinking skills and critical thinking to make conclusions.

Additional Information

• In the lecture method, the teacher presents the learning concepts to the students. Teachers learn different concepts beforehand and explain the concepts in a classroom. The teacher will be actively involved in the lecture method and the students will be passively listening to the lectures. To make the lectures more engaging and captivating, teachers use different strategies.
• These strategies enhance the outcomes of the lecture method and improve the learning retention rate of the students.
• Team teaching can be defined as a group of two or more teachers working together to plan, conduct and evaluate the learning activities for the same group of learners.
• The demonstration method is a teaching technique where the teacher presents a concept or skill by performing a demonstration or a practical example. It involves the use of visual aids, hands-on activities, and real-life examples to engage students and facilitate their understanding of the topic.

Given

S.P of 10 articles = C.P of 15 articles

Formula

Profit = S.P - C.P

Profit% = (S.P - C.P)/C.P × 100

Solution

⇒ S.P of 10 articles = C.P of 15 articles

⇒ S.P × 10 = C.P × 15

⇒ S.P/C.P = 3/2

⇒ Profit = 3 - 2 = 1

Profit% = 1/2 × 100 = 50%

The correct answer is the Discussion forum.

Key Points

• MOOCs have become a popular and significant source of distance education due to the flexibility of course access and varied topics of courses. With these benefits, there are a million students who enroll in one or more MOOCs.
• Since MOOCs are typically offered with only video-based lectures from are not co-located with the professor, students usually lack the opportunity to have interactions with other students and the instructor relative to traditional resident courses. Therefore, technology-based interactions, such as blogs and forums, are introduced as potential solutions.
• A discussion forum offers a platform for asynchronous communications that facilitates interactions and communications among students and instructors, and it also helps students build a learning community within the MOOC. Prior work has noted that discussions among peers help students improve their learning performance.
• Additionally, discussions in a forum provide useful information for instructors to monitor course progress. Therefore, discussion forums are widely adopted by MOOCs for interaction enhancement. Due to the importance of the discussion forum to MOOCs, we conduct analyses to explore the interactions and communications in a MOOC forum.
• Forum users who actively participate in discussions are first identified based on their continuous participation, the number of replies they receive, and the number of responses they make. To verify whether active users are also influential users in the discussion forum, different measures of forum threads made by these active users are studied and compared with typical (i.e., non-active) forum users.
• Moreover, we analyze votes, both positive and negative, of posts and comments from active users to evaluate if active users make positive contributions to the MOOC forum.

The correct answer is A, C, and D only.

Important Points

• An operating system (OS) acts as a channel between hardware and its end users. An operating system (OS) is a type of system software that controls how computer hardware and software resources are used and offer essential services to other software applications. An operating system handles input and output, file management, memory management, and process management, and controls peripheral devices like disc drives and printers. In this article, we learn about Operating System Examples, Types, functions, and many more.

Key Points

• The management of files and folders is an operating system’s (OS) prime responsibility. The management of files on a computer is the responsibility of the operating system.
• Creating, opening, shutting, and deleting files are all included in this. The disk’s files are organized by the operating system as well.
• An Operating System is the interface between the computer hardware and the end user.
• Processing of data, running applications, file management, and handling the memory is all managed by the computer OS.
• Windows, Mac, Android, etc. These are examples of Operating systems that are generally used nowadays.

 Additional Information

• Compiler is software that converts the source code to the object code. In other words, we can say that it converts the high-level language to machine/binary language. Moreover, it is necessary to perform this step to make the program executable.
• This is because the computer understands only binary language. Some compilers convert the high-level language to an assembly language as an intermediate step. Whereas some others convert it directly to machine code. This process of converting the source code into machine code is called compilation.

The correct answer is A, B, and C only.

Important Points

• A research article is a journal article in which the authors report on the research they did.
• Research articles are always primary sources.

Key Points

The major components of a research paper are the

• selection of a title,
• abstract,
• introduction,
• literature review,
• research methodology,
• results,
• discussion,
• data and data analysis,
• managerial implications,
• conclusion,
• limitations, and
• future scope.

The introduction of a research article should state the problem being studied and the reason for the study.

• To place the research in proper context, the introduction should contain a summary of the previous research in the area covered by the study.

Data collection is gathering information from various sources, and data analytics is processing them for getting useful insights from it. 

Data analysis summarizes collected data.

• It involves the interpretation of data gathered through the use of analytical and logical reasoning to determine patterns, relationships, or trends.
• Data analysis in qualitative research is defined as the process of systematically searching and arranging the interview transcripts, observation notes, or other non-textual materials that the researcher accumulates to increase the understanding of the phenomenon.

The correct answer is the Fallacy of accident.

Important Points

• A logical fallacy is an error in reasoning that makes your argument less effective and convincing. And you want to be able to spot these fallacies in other people's arguments (and your own) so you can call them out or fix your strategy. There are two major types of logical fallacies, formal and informal.

Key Points

• A fallacy of accident is an informal fallacy in which a rule that includes exceptions is applied to a situation as though there were no exceptions to the rule.
• In other words, this fallacy occurs when a “rule of thumb,” which is created to include exceptions, is replaced with a universal generalization, which includes no exceptions.
• This type of fallacy can be attacked in an argument or debate by simply pointing out that the application of the rule is flawed and ignores noted or established exceptions to that rule. A fallacy of accident often occurs when someone attempts to use a cliché within an argument.
• In an argument under an appeal to force fallacy one imposes some reprisal on the listener if she or he disagrees. Manipulation comes under an appeal to emotion fallacy. A false authority as evidence is appealed or claimed to be true in an appeal to authority.
• Fallacy of an accident is when a general rule is applied to a case where rules are inapplicable. In Chandni's case rule was not to be applicable so it is termed under the fallacy of accident.

Additional Information

Example:

• “Taking a life is a crime and morally wrong; therefore, termite control is a crime and morally wrong”. “No one should ever go to war. After all, everyone knows that one should not kill another person.”
• “Birds can fly; therefore, emus must be able to fly too.” “Nuts are proven to have a variety of great health benefits to people. Thus, it must be right to say that everyone should be eating them.”

The correct answer is Ordinal Scale.

Important Points

• The ordinal scale is the 2^nd level of measurement that reports the ordering and ranking of data without establishing the degree of variation between them. Ordinal represents the “order.”
• Ordinal data is known as qualitative data or categorical data.
• It can be grouped, named, and also ranked.

Key Points

• The ordinal scale shows the relative ranking of the variables.
• It identifies and describes the magnitude of a variable.
• Original numbers are assigned to the order, such as first, second, third, and so on.
• For example, we might determine that runners in a race finished in a particular order, and this order would provide us with useful information.
• An ordinal scale does not convey precise quantitative information.
• With an ordinal scale, we know the rank order, but we do not have any idea of the distance or interval between the rankings.

Additional Information

• The nominal scale of measurement defines the identity property of data.
• The interval scale contains properties of nominal and ordered data, but the difference between data points can be quantified.
• Ratio scales of measurement include properties from all four scales of measurement.
• The data is nominal and defined by identity, can be classified in order, contains intervals, and can be broken down into exact values.

The correct answer is 2035.

Important Points

• Principles of this Policy: The purpose of the education system is to develop good human beings capable of rational thought and action, possessing compassion and empathy, courage and resilience, scientific temper, and creative imagination, with sound ethical moorings and values.
• It aims at producing engaged, productive, and contributing citizens for building an equitable, inclusive, and plural society as envisaged by our Constitution.

Key Points

• NEP 2020 stipulates that the Board of Governors, BoG, of an institution will be empowered to govern the institution free of any external interference, make all appointments including that of a head of the institution, and take all governance decisions.
• There shall be overarching legislation that will supersede any contravening provisions of other earlier legislation and would provide for the constitution, appointment, modalities of functioning, rules, and regulations, and the roles and responsibilities of the BoG.
• New members of the Board shall be identified by an expert committee appointed by the Board, and the selection of new members shall be carried out by the BoG itself.
• Equity considerations will also be taken care of while selecting the members. It is envisaged that all HEIs will be incentivized, supported, and mentored during this process, and shall aim to become autonomous and have such an empowered BoG by 2035.
• The BoG shall be responsible and accountable to the stakeholders through transparent self-disclosures of all relevant records. It will be responsible for meeting all regulatory guidelines mandated by HECI through the National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC).

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Important Points

• The seventh schedule under Article 246 of the constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states. It contains three lists- Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The union list details the subjects on which Parliament may make laws while the state list details those under the purview of state legislatures.
• The concurrent list on the other hand has subjects over which both Parliament and state legislatures have jurisdiction. However, the Constitution provides federal supremacy to Parliament on concurrent list items in case of a conflict.

Key Points

Statement I: To address inter-state variations at all levels of Education, it was brought onto the Concurrent list in the Constitution in 1976 is true, because-

• The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India includes powers that will be overseen by the union and the state government. The clause is divided into three categories: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Unlike the governments of the United States, Switzerland, or Australia, the remaining power remains in the Federal Government, as in the Canadian federal government.
• Through the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976, Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List. They are-  Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.

Statement II: The institutions approved under State Legislative Act are not empowered to award degrees is false, because-

• Institute under State Legislature Act is a type of university-level institution in India, established or incorporated by a state legislature act, empowered to award degrees.
• Although such institutes do not come under the higher education department of the state and are run and funded by another department, they enjoy the academic status and privileges of state universities. Other categories of university-level institutions in India include universities, universities, universities, and universities.

Solution

In the given series,

Every alternate term is added by 4 and multiplied by 4.

⇒ 4 + 4 = 8

⇒ 8 + 4 = 12

⇒ 12 + 4 = 16

⇒ 16 + 4 = 20

Other alternate series is:-

⇒ 16 × 4 = 64

⇒ 64 × 4 = 256

⇒ 256 × 4 = 1024

⇒ 1024 × 4 = 4096

The correct answer is to command respect from the students.

Important Points

• One of the most effective ways to your teacher's heart is by being engaged in class discussions, asking questions, and responding thoughtfully to new ideas and facts. In life, people respond positively to you when you show an interest in what they like or in what they are doing, making, or discussing.

Key Points

• You Make a Positive Contribution to Society: Teachers play a vital role in society. They are responsible for preparing students to make their way in the adult world.
• There can be a great deal of satisfaction in knowing that you are having a positive influence on the next generation.
• You Are Well Respected: Teaching is a profession that has been highly valued by society for many centuries in every culture.
• Teachers are valued for the benefits they provide to students and to the greater community, and command respect from the students.
• You Have the Satisfaction of Seeing People Learn: There is a unique satisfaction in seeing the look on students’ faces as they absorb new information and ideas. Learning does not come easily to all students and, as a teacher, you need a great deal of patience.
• However, there will be times when you see that your efforts have paid off and you’ve really gotten through to someone.
• Inspire the next generation: By becoming a teacher you'll get job satisfaction that few will experience. Other than parents, teachers have arguably the biggest influence on a child's life. The visible results you'll see from pupils are guaranteed to send you home with a sense of pride

​Hence we can conclude that a person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he commands respect from students.

The correct answer is Personal experience.

Key Points

• Interpretative Phenomenological Analysis Psychological phenomenology recognizes that a whole set of factors leads to differences in people’s perception of reality and is committed to the exploration of individual lived experiences.
• The interpretative phenomenological analysis is composed of a series of sets of factors that aim to interpret the accounts of people of their personal lived experiences and explicate an underlying structure in these accounts (see Smith and Dunworth, 2003).
• Its potential for developmental psychology lies in the focus on the subjective experience of individuals and the possibility of studying developmental processes in detail and is suitable for longitudinal designs (e.g., identity change during the transition to motherhood).
• Personal experience is the direct experience of an individual. This is a type of evidence and storytelling that is commonly used in public speaking, interviews, and academic work such as essays and research.

Additional Information

• collective experience: In group psychotherapy, the common body of emotional experience develops out of the individual members' identification with each other's problems and mutual support and empathy. There is huge value in capturing the collective experience of all who interact with knowledge.
• Secondary experience -- the mental model generated by an individual after integrating another's description of a primary experience, Secondary “reflective” experience through 'the intervention of systematic thinking'.

The correct answer is "Western standards as real benchmarks".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage:
• World woman leads an, essentially truncated life based on her feminine gender and her being ‘third world’ - ignorant, poor, uneducated, tradition bound, domestic, family oriented and victimised.
• This is in contrast to the self-representation of western women as educated, modern with freedom to make their own decisions.
• These representations assume western standards as the benchmark against which to measure the situation of Third World women.
• ​From the highlighted part of the above statement, it is evident that "the western feminist literature looks at Third World women with Western standards as real benchmarks".

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is "Modern and free".

Key Points 

• Let's consider the following statement from the passage:
• This is in contrast to the self-representation of western women as educated, modern with freedom to make their own decisions.
• ​From the highlighted part of the above statement, it is evident that "the western women consider themselves modern and free".

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is "Hegemonic ideas of western superiority".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statements from the passage:
• The result is paternalistic attitude on the part of western women toward their Third World counterparts.
• It is perpetuation of the hegemonic idea of west's superiority.
• It is in this process of homogenisation and systematisation of the oppression of women in the Third World, that power is excercised in much of the western feminist discourse.
• This power needs to be redefined, because of its subjective nature of interpretation.
• ​From the highlighted part of the above statements, it is evident that the passage is critical of the hegemonic ideas of western superiority.

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is "Quantification and categorisation".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following sentence from the passage:
• What emerges from such modes of analysis is the image of an average Third World woman constructed through the use of statistics and certain categories.
• ​From the highlighted part of the above statement it is evident that "The Third World women have an Image constructed through the parameters of quantification and categorisation".

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "Fewer choices and no freedom".

Key Points

• Let's consider the following statement from the passage:
• An Indian scholar has discovered that women in the Third World are represented in most feminist literature on development as having ' needs’ and ‘problems’ but few choices and no freedom to act.
• ​From the highlighted part of the above statement, it is evident that "the western feminist literature depicts Third World women as having fewer choices and no freedom".

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Given

Amount after 2 years = 1008

Amount after 3.5 years = 1164

Formula

S.I = PRT/100

where, P = principal, R = rate and t = time

Solution

The amount 1008 becomes 1164 in 1.5 years i.e:

In 3/2 years the interest earned = 1164 - 1008 = 156

Interest earned in 1 year = 156/(3/2) = 104

⇒ Amount in after two year = Principal + Interest of two year

⇒ 1008 = P + (2 × 104)

P = 1008 - 208 = 800

S.I = PRT/100

⇒ 208 = (800 × r × 2)100

⇒ r = 13%