Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Management July 2018 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2018

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Question 1

Match the items of List II with List I and select the correct code:

List-IList-II
(a)H.M.L. classification(i)To determine the criticality of an item and its effect on production and other services. It is specially used for classification of spare parts.
(b)V.E.D. classification(ii)Based on the pattern of issues from stores and is useful in controlling obsolescence and helpful in identifying active items and surplus items.
(c)SDE classification(iii)The classification unit value is the criterion and not the annual consumption.
(d)FSN classification(iv)Based on problems faced in procurements, availability of items and useful in the context of scarcity of supply.
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv, (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii). 

Key PointsInventory Control:

  • Inventory control refers to the activity of checking stock at a shop.
  • It requires maintaining the desired levels of inventories in the best economic interest of an entity. The objective is to keep the cost low while meeting consumer demand to maximize profits.
  • In simpler words, inventory control involves monitoring stock usage, movement, and storage in a business.

Important Points

List IList II
(a)H.M.L. classification - High-cost items (H), Medium Cost items (M), and Low-Cost items (L) help in bringing control over consumption at the departmental level.(iii)The classification unit value is the criterion and not the annual consumption. - The cost per item (per piece) is considered for this analysis. The items of inventory should be listed in descending order of unit value and it is up to the management to fix limits for these categories.
(b)V.E.D. classification- The classification is as follows: Vital (V), Essential (E), and Desirable(D)(i)To determine the criticality of an item and its effect on production and other services. It is specially used for the classification of spare parts. - This classification is applicable only for spare parts and is based on criticality. The VED analysis is done to determine the criticality of an item and its effect on production and other services.
(c)SDE classification- The classification is as follows: Scarce (S), Difficult (D), Easily Available(E)(iv)Based on problems faced in procurements, availability of items, and useful in the context of scarcity of supply. - This classification is carried out based on the lead time required to procure the items.
(d)FSN classification - FSN classification is based on the frequency of issues/use. F, S, and N stand for fast-moving, slow-moving, and non-moving items.(ii)Based on the pattern of issues from stores and is useful in controlling obsolescence and helpful in identifying active items and surplus items. - This form of classification identifies the items frequently issued; less frequently issued for use and the items which are not issued for a longer period, say, 2 years.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii).

Question 2

Statement (I): The critical path has been defined as the longest duration path between the first and the last nodes of a project.

Statement (II): The duration of a project is not always the same as the duration of its critical path.

Statement (III): The Earliest start and finish times of an activity are based on the condition that every activity will not be started and finished as early as possible.

Find the correct code for given statements being correct or incorrect.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) and (II) are correct but (III) is not correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (I) and (III) are correct but (II) is not correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct but (II) and (III) are not correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (II) is correct but (I) and (III) are not correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement (I) is correct but (II) and (III) are not correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is correct but (II) and (III) are not correct.

Critical Path Method (CPM):

  • The Critical Path Method (CPM) is a network analysis approach.
  • It finds out which sequence of activities has the least measure of scheduling resilience by which it predicts the duration of the project.
  • It is based on the estimation of the standard time needed for the execution of an activity.

Key Points

  • The critical path is the longest path time-wise which can be determined from the forward path method only.
  • The critical path is the longest path through the network and time along this path gives the project duration.
  • The critical path joins those activities which are critical.
  • Thus Statement I is correct.
  • The critical path (or paths) is the longest path (in time) from Start to Finish; it indicates the minimum time necessary to complete the entire project.
  • The duration of a project is the same as the duration of its critical path.
  • Thus Statement II is not correct.
  • The early start time refers to the time at which all activities start as early as possible.
  • The early finish time refers to the time at which all activities finish as early as possible.
  • The Earliest start and finish times of activity are based on the condition that every activity will be started and finished as early as possible.
  • Thus Statement III is not correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Statement (I) is correct but (II) and (III) are not correct.

Question 3

Statement (I) : Internal failure costs are generated after the product is dispatched as a result of non-performance to requirements.

Statement (II): External failure costs are generated before the product is dispatched as a result of non-conformance to requirements. Which of the following code is correct related to above statements being correct or incorrect ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statements (I) and (II) are not correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (II) is correct but (I) is not correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both Statements (I) and (II) are not correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Statements (I) and (II) are not correct.

Quality Costs:

  • Cost of quality (COQ) is defined as a methodology that allows an organization to determine the extent to which its resources are used for activities that prevent poor quality, that appraise the quality of the organization’s products or services, and that result from internal and external failures.
  • Having such information allows an organization to determine the potential savings to be gained by implementing process improvements.

Key Points Internal failure costs: 

Internal failure costs are incurred to remedy defects discovered before the product or service is delivered to the customer. These costs occur when the results of work fail to reach design quality standards and are detected before they are transferred to the customer. They could include:

  • Waste: Performance of unnecessary work or holding of stock as a result of errors, poor organization, or communication
  • Scrap: Defective product or material that cannot be repaired, used, or sold
  • Rework or rectification: Correction of defective material or errors
  • Failure analysis: Activity required to establish the causes of internal product or service failure

External failure costs:

External failure costs are incurred to remedy defects discovered by customers. These costs occur when products or services that fail to reach design quality standards are not detected until after transfer to the customer. They could include:

  • Repairs and servicing: Of both returned products and those in the field
  • Warranty claims: Failed products that are replaced or services that are re-performed under a guarantee
  • Complaints: All work and costs associated with handling and servicing customers’ complaints
  • Returns: Handling and investigation of rejected or recalled products, including transport costs

Important Points

  • Internal failure costs are incurred before the delivery of products while external failure costs are generated after the dispatch of products to customers.

Hence, the correct answer is Both Statements (I) and (II) are not correct.

Question 4

Which of the following code is correct for the given statements being correct or incorrect?

Statement (I): Method analysis is a technique in job design in which job is considered as a whole.

Statement (II): Principles of motion economy aim at minimizing the fatigue of workers due to repetitive motion of the different parts of body.

Statement (III): Work sampling is a method used to determine the idle time of machine or workers as a whole during the day.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) and (III) are not correct but Statement (II) is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (I) and (II) are not correct but Statement (III) is correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (II) and (III) are not correct but (I) is correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (I), (II) and (III) all are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Statement (I) and (III) are not correct but Statement (II) is correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) and (III) are not correct but Statement (II) is correct.

Key Points

Method Analysis:

  • Methods analysis is the study of tasks and how they are performed.
  • Methods analysis can be used where job design represents the structure of the job.
  • It is model which guides the performance of operational activities.
  • It involves the detailed process of doing a particular job.
  • Methods analysis is used by a company while developing new products and services and also for improving the efficiency and effectiveness of the methods which are currently in use.
  • Method analysis studies a job as part of different processes.
  • Thus Statement I is not correct.

Principles of motion economy: 

  • The principles of motion economy form a set of rules and suggestions to improve manual work in manufacturing and reduce fatigue and unnecessary movements by the worker, which can lead to a reduction in work-related trauma.
  • The principles of motion economy are grouped under three headings: Use of the human body, Arrangements of the workplace, and Design of tools and equipment.
  • It is necessary for a productivity analyst to know the laws of motion economy that are useful in both workshops and offices since they cannot develop an effective new method without such knowledge.
  • Thus Statement II is correct.

Work Sampling:

  • Work sampling is a method in which a large number of instantaneous observations are made at random time intervals over a period of time or a group of machines, workers, or processes/operations.
  • Each observation records what is happening at that instant and the percentage of observations recorded for a particular activity or delay/idleness is a measure of the percentage of time during which that activity or delay/idleness occurs.
  • Thus statement III is also not correct.

 

Hence, Statement (I) and (III) are not correct but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 5

‘Just In Time’ originally developed in 1970s by a Japanese company was initially known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Honda Manufacturing system

  2. BOption (b)

    Isuzu Manufacturing system

  3. COption (c)

    Mitsubishi Manufacturing system

  4. DOption (d)

    Toyota Manufacturing system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Toyota Manufacturing system

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Toyota Manufacturing system. 

Key Points 

 Just in Time:

  • `Just-in-time' is a management philosophy and not a technique.
  • It originally referred to the production of goods to meet customer demand exactly, in time, quality, and quantity, whether the `customer' is the final purchaser of the product or another process further along the production line.
  • It has now come to mean producing with minimum waste.
  • "Waste" is taken in its most general sense and includes time and resources as well as materials.
  • JIT originated in Japan.
  • Its introduction as a recognized technique/philosophy/way of working is generally associated with the Toyota motor company, JIT being initially known as the "Toyota Production System" or "Toyota Manufacturing system".

 

Additional Information Elements of JIT include:

  • Continuous improvement.
  • Eliminating waste.
  • Good housekeeping - workplace cleanliness and organization.
  • Set-up time reduction - increases flexibility and allows smaller batches. The ideal batch size is 1 item. Multi-process handling - a multi-skilled workforce has greater productivity, flexibility, and job satisfaction.
  • Leveled / mixed production - to smooth the flow of products through the factory.
  • Kanban - simple tools to `pull' products and components through the process.
  • Jidoka (Autonomation) - providing machines with the autonomous capability to use judgment, so workers can do more useful things than standing watching them work.
  • Andon (trouble lights) - to signal problems to initiate corrective action.

 

Hence, ‘Just In Time’ was originally developed in the 1970s by a Japanese company and was initially known as the Toyota Manufacturing system.

Question 6

Match the items of List - II with List - I to find the correct code:

List-IList-II
(a)Technological Processes(i)Building Design, Facility Layout
(b)Facilities(ii)Vendor Capabilities, Acquisition Decision
(c)Personnel Estimates(iii)Process Design, Process Linkage
(d)Vertical Integration Studies(iv)Skill Requirements, Supervision Requirements
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii). 

Important Points 

List-IList-II
(a)Technological Processes - Technological process. means a set of procedures where one or several products are produced from certain starting materials.(iii)Process Design, Process Linkage- Process design is a method a company can use to understand its processes and how it can improve them. A linkage between two processes is a link or connection between them.
(b)Facilities- Facility planning is the systematic process that smart organizations use to ensure they have the facilities and related resources necessary to meet both their short and long-term goals.(i)Building Design, Facility Layout- Facility layout and design is an important components of a business's overall operations, both in terms of maximizing the effectiveness of the production process and meeting the needs of employees.
(c)Personnel Estimates- It provides senior decision makers with a process to quickly and accurately assess the impact and risk of proposed changes to the distribution of forces and capabilities.(iv)Skill Requirements, Supervision Requirements- Production Supervision is the first line of management of a production team. It is primarily concerned with keeping a production line operational and maintaining the ongoing production of the end product.
(d)Vertical Integration Studies- Vertical integration is the business arrangement in which a company controls different stages along the supply chain. Instead of relying on external suppliers, the company strives to bring processes in-house to have better control over the production process.(ii)Vendor Capabilities, Acquisition Decision- By integrating various levels of the supply chain, companies can control supplies, reduce costs, ramp up production, and increase efficiency.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii).

Question 7

Following statements are given for plant location strategies :

Statement (I): White goods manufacturing companies have separate plants for colour TVs, washing machines, microwave ovens, etc.; for avoiding confusion and bringing about economies of scale.

Statement (II): Pepsi and Coke have bottling plants scattered all over the country which cater to different regions to avoid confusion at the main manufacturing set-up rather than reducing overall transportation costs and the lead time for supplying goods in the markets.

Find the correct code of the above statements being correct or incorrect.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) is not correct but (II) is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statements (I) and (II) both are correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statements (I) and (II) both are not correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

Divisional organizational structure:

  • A divisional organizational structure is a system in which a company segments its employees based on products or markets, as opposed to their job roles.
  • This is most useful for larger companies that benefit from organizing their workforce into relatively independent groups.

Key Points Businesses using a divisional structure may have one or more of the following characteristics:

  • Selling a wide range of customer-facing product lines
  • Offering both businesses-to-customer and business-to-business services
  • Advertising to a wide variety of demographics
  • Marketing their brand in different geographic locations
  • Serving major clients who need individualized attention

Important Points

  • White goods refer to heavy consumer durables or large home appliances, which were traditionally available only in white.
  • A company manufacturing Televisions, Refrigerators, Air-conditioners, Washing machines, etc. uses different productive resources and is at the threshold of growth, requiring more employees.
  • These companies use a divisional structure of the organization.
  • Thus Statement I is correct.
  • Pepsi and Coke have bottling plants scattered all over the country which caters to different regions mainly for reducing overall transportation costs and the lead time for supplying goods in the markets.
  • Thus Statement II is not correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Statement (I) is correct but (II) is not correct.

Question 8

​Despite differences in cost of production the oligopolists will not vary the prices of their products as per which combination of the following models?

(a) Collusion model

(b) Cournot’s model

(c) Kinked Demand model

(d) Price Leadership model

Select the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (c) and (d) only

  3. COption (c)

    (a) and (d) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (a), (b) and (c) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) and (d) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) and (d) only. 

  • Oligopoly Market is a system of Markets where there is more than one Vendor (or a firm) for the trading of a particular good but there are very few Vendors.
  • This is imperfect competition as the decision of one Vendor affects the decision of others in the Market, although the competition is very limited.
  • The main characteristic of this type of Market is the interdependence of the Vendors that urge them to collaborate and compete with each other to control the Market, affecting the demand and supply based on the prices.

Key Points

  • Collusion model: In order to avoid uncertainty arising out of interdependence and to avoid price wars and cutthroat competition, firms working under oligopolistic conditions often enter into agreement regard­ing a uniform price-output policy to be pursued by them. This is known as the collusion model.
  • Price Leadership model: Under price leadership, one firm sets the price and others follow it. The one who sets the price is a price leader and the others who follow it are its followers. Price cannot vary from firm to firm under this model.

Additional Information

  • Cournot's Model: In a Cournot equilibrium, the price-cost margin of each firm is that firm's market share divided by the elasticity of demand. Here the price of each firm depends on its market share and varies from firm to firm.
  • Kinked Demand Model: In an oligopolistic market, the kinked demand curve hypothesis states that the firm faces a demand curve with a kink at the prevailing price level. This means that the response to a price increase is less than the response to a price decrease.

Thus Under Collusion model and Price leadership model the oligopolists will not vary the prices of their products despite differences in cost of production.

Question 9

For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) suggest the correct code:

Assertion (A): Low initial price regarded as the principal means for entering into mass market for some new products.

Reasoning (R): Firms generally enter into production of new products with excess capacity of the plant initially.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

  • Pricing is a process of fixing the value that a manufacturer will receive in the exchange of services and goods.
  • The pricing method is exercised to adjust the cost of the producer’s offerings suitable to both the manufacturer and the customer.

Key Points

  • The penetration pricing strategy involves offering a new product or service at a low initial price to gain customers' attention.
  • The goal is to aggressively get customers in the door with low prices and gain market share.
  • Low initial price/penetration pricing is regarded as the principal means for entering into the mass market for some new products.
  • Thus Assertion A is correct.
  • Excess capacity is a condition that occurs when demand for a product is less than the amount of product that a business could potentially supply to the market.
  • When a firm is producing at a lower scale of output than it has been designed for, it creates excess capacity.
  • Firms generally enter into the production of new products with excess capacity of the plant initially.
  • Thus Reason R is also correct.
  • However, R is not the correct explanation of A since excess capacity does not necessarily result in low pricing.

Hence, the correct answer is (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

Question 10

The firm may go for defensive advertising as per which one of the following approaches?

  1. AOption (a)

    Percentage to sales approach

  2. BOption (b)

    Return on investment approach

  3. COption (c)

    Competitive parity approach

  4. DOption (d)

    Objective and task approach

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Competitive parity approach

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Competitive parity approach. 

An advertising strategy is the sum total of a company's outreach efforts to build brand awareness and drive sales; these goals can include introducing new products, priming sales conversion rates, gaining social media subscribers, accessing a target market, and engaging existing customers.

Key Points

  • Competitive parity is a budgeting method in which a company spends the same amount of money on advertising and marketing as its competitors.
  • As a business strategy, the competitive parity is designed to defend a competitive position by not overspending on promotion and marketing budgets.
  • A defensive strategy is defined as a marketing tool that helps companies to retain valuable customers that can be taken away by competitors.
  • When this rivalry exists, each company must protect its brand, growth expectations, and profitability to maintain a competitive advantage and adequate reputation among other brands.

Additional Information

  • The percentage of sales method is a forecasting tool that makes financial predictions based on previous and current sales data. This data encompasses sales and all business expenses related to sales, including inventory and cost of goods.
  • Return on investment (ROI) is a performance measure used to evaluate the efficiency or profitability of an investment or compare the efficiency of a number of different investments. ROI tries to directly measure the amount of return on a particular investment, relative to the investment’s cost.
  • The objective task method is a system in which a company allocates a certain amount of money to its marketing budget based on specific objectives, rather than choosing an arbitrary amount or basing its marketing budget on sales revenues or projections alone.

Hence, the firm may go for defensive advertising as per the Competitive parity approach.

Question 11

Assertion (A): Under stressful situations, a person is unable to listen to and understand the message correctly.

Reasoning (R): During stressful situations, the psychological frame of mind changes and the message gets distorted due to the beliefs, experiences, goals and values held by the receiver of the message.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct whereas (R) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    (R) is correct whereas (A) is incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 Key Points

  • The asertion stating that a person who are in a stressful situation and he not able to listen the message correctly because during stressful situation people are not able to listen and understand the message correctly
  • in such time the psychological frame of mind changes and the message gets distorted due to the  beliefs ,experiences ,goals and values held by the receiver of the message.
  • these happens because the person who loss thier concentration and focus and the end result who loss the eseence of meessege.
  • The both assertion and reason are logically correct and the reason mentioned here its explain assertion in clear way

Additional Information

  • In order to avoid the consequences of stressful situation there are stress mitigation are available and also we can ensure the mental capacity by become more focus and more open minded there by stress relive id possible  at certain end.

Hence the correct answer is  (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 12

Match the items given in List-I with those given in the List-II and suggest the correct code:

List-I (Source of resistance)List-II (Coping mechanisms)
(a)Perceived peripherality of change(i)Role redefinition and re-orientation
(b)Fear of loss of power(ii)Participation and involvement
(c)Fear of obsolescence(iii)Participation in diagnosis
(d)Fear of imposition(iv)Development of skills
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

List-I (Source of resistance)List-II (Coping mechanisms)
(a)Perceived peripherality of change(iii)Participation in diagnosis
(b)Fear of loss of power(i)Role redefinition and re-orientation
(c)Fear of obsolescence(iv)Development of skills
(d)Fear of imposition(ii)Participation and involvement

 Key Points

  • The reason for the resistance to change by employees because of fear and anxiety, in many cases resistance is came from persons rather than technical problems.
  • People resistance to change because of many reasons one of the main reasons is they think it will lead to discomfort if the current situation changes.
  • In order to overcome this issue, many organizations implement change management teams and they are ensuring proper orientation and awareness are provided and thereby changes are implemented without any difficulties.

Important Points (a) Perceived peripherality of change - Coping mechanism (iii) - Participation in diagnosis: When individuals perceive the change as peripheral or not directly affecting them, involving them in the diagnosis of the change and its impact can help overcome resistance.

(b) Fear of loss of power - Coping mechanism (i) - Role redefinition and re-orientation: Addressing the fear of losing power involves redefining and reorienting the roles and responsibilities of individuals to ensure their continued importance and influence.

(c) Fear of obsolescence - Coping mechanism (iv) - Development of skills: Overcoming the fear of obsolescence involves providing opportunities for individuals to develop new skills and acquire the knowledge needed to adapt to the change.

(d) Fear of imposition - Coping mechanism (ii) - Participation and involvement: To address the fear of imposition, involving individuals in the change process and decision-making can help alleviate resistance and increase acceptance.

Therefore, the correct matching is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), and (d) - (ii).

Hence the correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

Question 13

Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and indicate the code of correct matching.

List-I (Model of Organisational Behaviour)List-II (Employee Orientation)
(a)Autocratic(i)Responsible behaviour
(b)Custodial(ii)Security and benefits
(c)Supportive(iii)Job performance
(d)Collegial(iv)Obedience
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    ​(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    ​(a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    ​(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

List-I (Model of Organisational Behaviour)List-II (Employee Orientation)
(a)Autocratic(iv)Obedience
(b)Custodial(ii)Security and benefits
(c)Supportive(iii)Job performance
(d)Collegial(i)Responsible behaviour

 Important PointsThere are mainly four behaviour models available which is

Autocratic model

  • In this model, the power is rest with management and the employees in this model are oriented towards obedience and discipline.

Custodial model

  • In this model, the employees are oriented to the security and benefits provided to them and they are dependent on the organization.

Collegial Model

  • In this model, employees are more responsible, and they are self-disciplined.

Supportive model

  • In this model, the employees are oriented towards their job performance and their involvement.
  • The management orientation of support is more.

Hence the correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

Question 14

Which one of the following types of strike is without the consent of official of union?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jurisdictional strike

  2. BOption (b)

    Wild cat strike

  3. COption (c)

    Sympathy strike

  4. DOption (d)

    Slow down strike

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wild cat strike

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Wild cat strike

Key Points

  • The Wild cat strike is happening without any prior permission from the union and it is led by unionized employees only.
  • The main characteristics of these strikes are unpredictability and uncontrollable.
  • This kind of strike resulted in a work stoppage and which have no formal approval from the the official union.

Hence the correct answer is Wild cat strike

Question 15

Which one of the following describes the metamorphosis stage of employee socialisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Employee joins organisation with his values, attitudes and expectations.

  2. BOption (b)

    Employee studies the organisation culture.

  3. COption (c)

    Employee evaluates the dichotomy between expectations and reality.

  4. DOption (d)

    Employee becomes comfortable with organisation and internalises its norms.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Employee becomes comfortable with organisation and internalises its norms.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Employee becomes comfortable with organisation and internalises its norms.

 Key Points

  • Employee socialisations ensure that new employees are acquired the necessary behavior and attitudes and skills to become a productive organizational members.
  • There are mainly three stages included in this employee socialization process that are

 Important PointsAnticipatory socialization stage

  • occurs before the new joiner joined the organization by interacting with company representatives and thereby, they are framing a picture in their mind about the company.

Organization entry and assimilation stage

  • The new joiner seeks information about the organization that is prior to joining the organization.

Organization disengagement and exit 

  • stage where the employee is not able to manage their concepts with the organization's outcome and the ultimate result they exist the organization.

Hence the correct answer is  Employee becomes comfortable with organisation and internalises its norms.

Question 16

In case the profitability index of an investment is equal to one(=1), the net present value of the investment will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    More than one (>1)

  2. BOption (b)

    Equal to one (=1)

  3. COption (c)

    Less than one (<1)

  4. DOption (d)

    Equal to zero (=0)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Equal to zero (=0)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Equal to zero (=0). 

  • The profitability index shows the relationship between a company project's future cash flows and initial investment by calculating the ratio and analyzing the project viability.
  • The formula for the profitability index is as follows:

Present value of future cash flows ÷ Initial investment = Profitability Index

Key Points Decision criteria under the profitability index: 

  • A profitability index of 1 indicates that the project will break even.
  • If it is less than 1, the costs outweigh the benefits and are rejected.
  • If it is above 1, the venture should be profitable and accepted.

Net Present Value: 

  • Net present value (NPV) is the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a period of time.
  • NPV is used in capital budgeting and investment planning to analyze the profitability of a projected investment or project.
  • In general, projects with a positive NPV are worth undertaking while those with a negative NPV are not.

Important Points Relationship between Profitability Index and Net Present Value: 

  • Both NPV and PI measures consider an investment property’s future cash flow.
  • However, the net present value gives the difference in monetary terms, while the profitability index is a ratio.
  • The Profitability Index becomes greater than 1.0 when the net present value appears positive.
  • The Profitability Index becomes lesser than 1.0 when the net present value appears negative.
  • When the Net present value is equal to zero, the profitability index is equal to 1.

 

Hence, in case the profitability index of an investment is equal to one(=1), the net present value of the investment will be equal to zero (=0).

Question 17

For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) select the correct code:

Assertion (A): Risk analysis of capital investment is the most complex and controversial area in finance.

Reasoning (R): Capital investment decisions are based on estimates of future cash inflows.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Key Points

  • Capital investment analysis is a budgeting tool that companies and governments use to forecast the return on a long-term investment.
  • Capital investment analysis assesses long-term investments, including fixed assets such as equipment, machinery, or real estate.
  • Capital investment analysis is used to identify the option that can yield the highest return on invested capital.

Additional Information 

  • Capital investments are risky because they involve significant, up-front expenditures on assets intended for many years of service, and they will take a long time to pay for themselves.
  • Risk analysis of capital investment is the most complex and controversial area in finance.
  • Thus, Assertion(A) is correct.
  • Future cash flow estimates are important determinants of capital investment decisions.
  • Thus, Reason(R) is also correct.
  • Adjustment of risk is necessary to help make the decision as to whether the returns out of the project are proportionate with the risks borne and whether it is worth investing in the project over the other investment options available.
  • Risk adjustment is required to know the real value of the Cash inflows.
  • Thus, R is the correct explanation of A.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Question 18

Acquisition of firms is the same as:

(a) a merger

(b) an amalgamation

(c) a takeover

(d) an absorption

Select the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (b), (c) and (d) only

  3. COption (c)

    (a) and (b) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (c) and (d) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(c) and (d) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (c) and (d) only.

  • Business acquisition occurs when one company (the acquirer) buys most or all shares in another company (the target) to assume control of its assets and operations.
  • Acquisitions are often amicable, meaning both companies are on-board with and negotiate the terms of the transaction.

Key Points

  • Acquisitions either can be mutually agreed upon by the acquired and acquiring firm or completed through a hostile takeover.
  • An acquisition can be interchangeably used with the terms takeover and absorption.
  • In absorption, the absorbing company absorbs the other company and continues its existence. Acquired companies cease to exist and become part of acquiring companies.
  • A takeover occurs when one company makes a successful bid to assume control of or acquire another. Takeovers can be done by purchasing a majority stake in the target firm.

Additional Information

  • A merger refers to consolidating two or more business entities to create a single joint entity with a new management structure and new business owners. It is where both entities team up and merge as one unit with a new name to gain a competitive advantage and synergies in operations.
  • Amalgamation is the consolidation or combination of two or more companies known as amalgamating companies. Usually, the companies operate in the same or similar line of business to form a completely new company.

Hence, the acquisition of firms is the same as a takeover or an absorption.

Question 19

M-M Hypothesis for capital structure is based on which code of the following assumptions?

(a) Capital markets are perfect

(b) Firms belong to equal risk class

(c) There is 100% dividend payout ratio

(d) There are nominal corporate taxes

Select the correct code.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  3. COption (c)

    (b), (c) and (d) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (a), (b) and (d) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a), (b) and (c) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a), (b), and (c) only.

  • The capital structure of a company is the way a company finances its assets.
  • A company can finance its operations with either equity or different combinations of debt and equity.
  • The capital structure of a company can have a majority of the debt component or a majority of equity or an even mix of both debt and equity.

Key Points

  • The Modigliani and Miller approach to capital theory, devised in the 1950s, advocates the capital structure irrelevancy theory.
  • This suggests that the valuation of a firm is irrelevant to the capital structure of a company.
  • Whether a firm is highly leveraged or has a lower debt component has no bearing on its market value.
  • Rather, the market value of a firm is solely dependent on the operating profits of the company.

Important Points

ASSUMPTIONS OF MODIGLIANI AND MILLER'S APPROACH:

  • Perfect Capital Markets: The perfect market condition applies to the securities that are traded in a share market. It makes sure that the investors of the market can buy or sell securities without any restrictions.
  • Homogenous Risk Classes: There are companies in the market that fall within certain homogenous classes. These companies are believed to have similar operating risks and they fall within the same groups considering the risks they are subjected to.
  • No Taxes: The theorem considers that there is no tax payable by the firms. This means that there is no tax saving from the interest payable to debts.
  • 100% Dividend Payout: The theorem states that the companies must pay all net earnings to the shareholders. In other words, the company should distribute 100% of its net earnings as dividends.

Hence, the correct answer is (a), (b) and (c) only.

Question 20

The formula P0=DK+RK(E−D)KP_0=\frac{D}{K}+\frac{\frac{R}{K}(E-D)}{K} (Where P0 is market price of shares, E is earning per share, D is dividend per share, R is rate of Return and K is cost of equity) for determining the dividend of the firm has been given by: :

  1. AOption (a)

    Myron Gordon

  2. BOption (b)

    James E Walter

  3. COption (c)

    Modigliani - Miller

  4. DOption (d)

    David Durrand 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

James E Walter

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is James E Walter.

  • A dividend is the distribution of a company's earnings to its shareholders and is determined by the company's board of directors.
  • A company's dividend policy dictates the amount of dividend paid out by the company to its shareholders and the frequency with which the dividends are paid out.

Key Points Walter's Dividend Model: 

  • Walter’s Model, as the name suggests, was introduced by Prof. James E. Walter.
  • The model is based on share valuation and postulates that both prices of shares and dividends are interdependent.
  • Walter’s model is a dividend theory that considers the internal rate of return (IRR) and cost of capital to derive the valuation of a firm.

Application of Walter's Model: 

  • For Growth firms – Internal Rate of Return is greater than the cost of capital (r>k) - Zero payout ratio
  • For normal firms – Internal rate of return is equal to the cost of capital (r=k) - Any payout ratio is optimal
  • Declining Firms – Internal rate of return is less than the opportunity cost of capital (r<k) - 100% payout ratio

Important Points

Formulae: 

The formula that is used to determine the market price per share with Walter's model is,

P0=DK+RK(E−D)KP_0=\frac{D}{K}+\frac{\frac{R}{K}(E-D)}{K} 

Where,

  • P = Market Price of share
  • D = Dividend per share
  • E = Earnings per share
  • R = Internal rate of return
  • K = cost of capital

Hence, the correct answer is James E Walter.

Question 21

Indicate the correct code for the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R):

Assertion (A): Investors in the capital market now have a higher inclination for investment in debentures.

Reasoning (R): Debentures have active secondary markets now.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

  • A capital market is a place where buyers and sellers indulge in trade (buying/selling) of financial securities like bonds, stocks, etc.
  • The trading is undertaken by participants such as individuals and institutions.
  • The capital market trades mostly in long-term securities.

Key Points

  • Risk-averse investors will select portfolios close to the risk-free asset, preferring low variance to higher returns. These investors have a higher inclination for investment in debentures.
  • Less risk-averse investors will prefer portfolios higher up on the CML, with a higher expected return, but more variance. These investors have a higher inclination for investment in equity shares.
  • Thus the preference of investors will differ based on their risk-bearing capacity and investors in the capital market are not always inclined to debentures.
  • Hence, Assertion (A) is incorrect.
  • A secondary market is a platform wherein the shares of companies are traded among investors.
  • It means that investors can freely buy and sell shares without the intervention of the issuing company.
  • Currently, shares have a well-established secondary market in India while debentures still do not have an active secondary market.
  • Thus, Reason(R) is also incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Question 22

Which one of the following expresses the tendency of consumers to interpret information in a way that fits one’s preconceptions in the consumer buying behaviour?

  1. AOption (a)

    Selective Attention

  2. BOption (b)

    Selective Distortion

  3. COption (c)

    Selective Retention

  4. DOption (d)

    Subliminal Perception

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Selective Distortion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Selective Distortion.

  • Perception is the process by which an individual selects, organizes, and interprets information inputs to create a meaningful picture of the world.
  • Perception depends not only on the physical stimuli but also on the stimuli' relation to the surrounding field and on conditions within the individual.
  • People can emerge with different perceptions of the same object because of three perceptual processes: selective attention, selective distortion, selective retention, and subliminal perception.

Key Points

  • Selective distortion is defined as the tendency for people to interpret information in a way that supports previously established beliefs or perceptions.
  • For example, if you’re a dog lover and see a trailer for a movie about a dog, you may experience that trailer differently than someone who prefers cats.
  • For marketers and advertisers, knowing how selective distortion can change the interpretation of advertisements, it is important for them to understand their audiences and craft messaging that is meaningful and relevant.
  • This is why a customer-centric approach to marketing and advertising can be a key part of a brand’s strategy.

Additional Information

  • Selective attention is defined as “the capacity for or process of reacting to certain stimuli selectively when several occur simultaneously.”
  • Selective retention is the inclination for people to be more likely to remember information that closely aligns with their needs, beliefs, interests, and values.
  • Subliminal perceptions, also known as subliminal messages, are messages, either visual or auditory, that are presented just beyond the threshold of human perception.

Hence, Selective distortion expresses the tendency of consumers to interpret information in a way that fits one’s preconceptions in consumer buying behavior.

Question 23

A company in packaged tea business provides special service to its institutional buyers, apart from its consumer sales through market intermediaries, in order to encourage bulk buying and thus improving marketing efficiency, is an example of:

  1. AOption (a)

    No change strategy

  2. BOption (b)

    Profit strategy

  3. COption (c)

    Stability strategy

  4. DOption (d)

    Pause/Proceed-with-caution strategy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Stability strategy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stability Strategy

Key Points

  • Strategy refers to the tactical course of action which is specifically designed to achieve the pre- determined long term goals of the organization. There are mainly three types of strategies according to their levels, namely: 
  • Corporate Level Strategy
  • Business Level Strategy
  • Functional Level Strategy
  • Corporate Level Strategy : Under this level of strategy, an action is taken to get competitive advantage in the market and strategic decisions related with wider policies of an organization is taken place at this level. According to Michael Porter, there are basically four strategic alternatives available with corporate level strategy, namely: 
  • Stability Strategy
  • Expansion Strategy
  • Retrenchment Strategy
  • Combination Strategy
  • Stability Strategy: In this type of strategy, a company concentrates on maintaining its current market share as well as adopts an progressive approach which helps to keep them on safer side and also generates better revenue. 
  • For Example: Slightly update on product, Same product with special service etc.
  • Stability strategy can be further divided into three parts, such as: No change strategy, Profit strategy and Caution strategy.
  • Under No change strategy, a firm don't make any major changes in the process/ planning.
  • Profit strategy is suitable for achieving short term gains. It may include increase in the price of product, Cost cutting technique etc.
  • Caution Strategy is suitable when a firm want to proceed cautiously with regard to any strategy.

So, When a company in packaged tea business provides special service to its institutional customers through market intermediaries in order to encourage bulk buying and improving its marketing efficiency, then clearly it is an example of Stability Strategy.

Question 24

The willingness to reject unfamiliar as well as negative information is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Marketing Myopia

  2. BOption (b)

    Vision Myopia

  3. COption (c)

    Strategic Myopia

  4. DOption (d)

    Environmental Myopia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Strategic Myopia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Strategic Myopia

Key Points

<br>

Organizational Myopia refers to that situation in which an organization is not able to analyze the specified / particular facts as per their current situation.

  • Strategic Myopia refers to that situation in which the business management have only fuzzy/ rough idea about their future in the long term.
  • Under Strategic Myopia, there is cognitive distortions on the part of management.
  • Under Strategic Myopia, business management don't see the opportunities beyond their own knowledge. They usually reject that part of information/ knowledge which is not familiar to them.
  • Under Strategic Myopia, negative part of information is also rejected by the corporation.

So, We can say that "The willingness to reject unfamiliar as well as negative information is called Strategic Myopia".

Additional Information

  • Marketing Myopia refers to short sightedness in which a company has narrow minded approach , as it focuses only on the current needs of the organization rather than customer needs. (More Focus on Sale than Marketing).

Question 25

Match the items of List II with List I and select the correct code:

List-IList-II
(a)Mission(i)Aspiration expressed as strategic intent
(b)Vision(ii)Activities needed to accomplish plan
(c)Objectives(iii)Accomplishing results at certain time
(d)Programs(iv)Reason for existence
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a)- (iv), (b)- (i), (c)- (iii), (d)- (ii)

Explanation: Strategy acts like a blueprint with the help of which a company can achieve its long term goals. There are different components of strategy:

  • Vision
  • Strategic Intent
  • Mission
  • Objectives
  • Goals
  • Programs

Key Points

 

  • Strategic Intent: It gives an idea with regard to the desires of an organization which needs to be attain future. The basic purpose of strategic intent is to give the answer to the question, what is the purpose of existence of the organization in the market.
  • Vision: Vision is an abstract idea which talks about the aspirations of an organization. It motivates the employees of an organization to see the value in their efforts. It is a forward thinking process and if once it is formulated then it remains forever.
  • Mission: It gives brief description of organization with regard to who we are? what we do? etc. It is the unique purpose that sets it apart from other similar firms.
  • Objective: These are specific milestones/ goals that needs to be achieve in a small period of time. Objectives can only be achieved when attempts are made in a specific direction.
  • For Example: An organization wants to increase its sale by 20% in the upcoming one year.
  • Program: These are the activities that provides framework to accomplish the plan.

So, Mission states the Reason for existence, Vision describe the aspiration -expresses as strategic intent, Objectives are concerned with Accomplishing results at certain time and Programs states the Activities needed to accomplish plan.

Confusion Points

  • Goals are the long term purpose of an organization whereas Objectives are generally for short term to medium term.
  • Goals are the end result to be achieved whereas Objectives are the means to an end.
  • For Example: "To be become a most profitable agency is an example of Goal".
  • For Example: "To increase the sale by 10% in upcoming three months", is an example of Objective.

Question 26

Statement (I): According to Plato, a capitalist system is unjust because of many reasons including distributive injustice.

Statement (II): Capitalism leads to alienation of workers.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

Key Points

 Statement (I): According to Plato, a capitalist system is unjust because of many reasons including distributive injustice.

  • Capitalism: In a capitalist economy, private people or companies own the capital assets.
  • Workers employed by capitalists are paid simply wages; they do not own the means of production; rather, they merely use them on account of the capital owners.
  • There are four popular ideas of justice identified by PLATO are as follows; which shows that capitalist system is just and fair:
  • Radicalism
  • Traditionalism
  • Rationalism
  • Pragmatism

So, the first statement is wrong.

 

Statement (II): Capitalism leads to alienation of workers.

  • Workers are cut off from the outcomes of their effort.
  • Having ownership over the tools of production allows capitalists to enrich themselves without having to perform any labour themselves.
  • The action usually is not under the control of workers and it doesn't represent their own objectives.

So, the second statement is correct.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

Question 27

The “Polluters must pay” principle is commonly accepted practice that those who produce pollution should bear the cost of managing it to prevent damage to human health or the environment. This principle was adopted in:

  1. AOption (a)

    1996 Manila Declaration

  2. BOption (b)

    2002 Kyoto Declaration

  3. COption (c)

    1992 Rio Declaration

  4. DOption (d)

    2007 Paris Declaration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1992 Rio Declaration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1992 Rio Declaration

Key Points

  • During the Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992, the United Nations endorsed the Rio Declaration on environment and development.
  • According to the Rio Declaration, linking economic growth with environmental protection is the only way to ensure long-term success.
  • It gives 27 principles for the sustainable development.
  • According to principle 16, national authorities should work to encourage the internalization of environmental costs and the use of economic mechanisms, keeping in mind that the polluter is responsible for the cost of pollution.

 

Hence, the correct answer is 1992 Rio Declaration.

 

Confusion Points 

  • Kyoto Protocol:  In order to "stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system," the Kyoto Protocol is an amendment to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Question 28

Statement (I): For the improvement in the corporate governance, the Department of Company Affairs (DCA) proposed a code of behaviour for the public sector companies in the year 1998.

Statement (II): The Clause 49 of SEBI was amended on August 2001, which had made it mandatory for every public company listed on Indian stock exchanges to sign it.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

Key Points

 **Statement (I): For the improvement in the corporate governance, the Department of Company Affairs (DCA) proposed a code of behavior for the public sector companies in the year 1998.**​

  • As of March 31, 2003, these corporate governance norms were being gradually implemented for all listed businesses having paid-up capital of at least Rs. 3 crore or net worth of at least Rs. 25 crore at any point during the existence of company.
  • The CII (Confederation of Indian Industry Code) launched the first such initiative for the evolution of current governance practises and proposals for improvement and change about the same.
  • Rahul Bajaj was the committee's chairman when it was established in 1996 and they had delivered the code back in 1998.

Statement (II): The Clause 49 of SEBI was amended on August 2001, which had made it mandatory for every public company listed on Indian stock exchanges to sign it.

  • Corporate governance best practises were outlined by SEBI in a circular dated February 21, 2000, and a new item 49 was introduced to the Stock Exchanges' Listing Agreement.
  • The SEBI established two committees to address corporate governance-related issues.
  • The first committee, led by Kumar Manglam Birla, turned in its report in early 2000; the second, led by Narayan Murthy, turned in its report three years later. Via the creation of clause 49, the recommendations of these two committees serve as crucial tools for bringing about meaningful changes in corporate governance in India.

Hence, the correct answer is Both the Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

Question 29

Who among the following has not given a model on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Walker

  2. BOption (b)

    Friedman

  3. COption (c)

    Ackerman

  4. DOption (d)

    Carroll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Walker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Walker.

Key Points 

  • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is a self-policing corporate model that enables companies to be accountable to its stakeholders and the general public while also being socially responsible.
  • Over the years, a number of CSR models have been developed.

Important Points

  • James E. Walker proposed a theory on the dividend policy of a company. It states that a company’s dividend policy depends on the internal rate of return [r] and capital (k) cost.

Additional Information

  • Friedman argued in favour of a straightforward version of capitalism and opposed any actions that might stifle economic freedom.
  • Model of Carroll's cpyramid is One of the top CSR models is this one. It is officially referred to as the Carroll's four-part pyramid model. the model
  • The Ackerman Model is a good alternative to traditional, old-school negotiating schools of thought. It’s an offer-counteroffer system, but it crucially avoids the counterproductive “split the difference” approach that dissatisfies both parties.

Hence, the correct answer is Walker.

Question 30

The following statements relate to Badli workman. Indicate the correct code.

Statement (I): A ‘Badli Workman’ is employed in an industrial establishment in place of another workman whose name is borne on muster rolls of the establishment.

Statement (II): A ‘Badli workman’ ceases to be regarded as such if he has completed three month’s service in the establishment.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) is right, (II) is wrong.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (I) is wrong, (II) is right.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the statements are right.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the statements are wrong.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Statement (I) is right, (II) is wrong.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is right, (II) is wrong.

 Key Points

  • A "Badli workman" is a worker who replaces another worker whose name appears on the industrial establishment's muster records,
  • but who ceases to be recognised as such for the purposes of this section once he has worked there for a continuous period of one year.

Additional Information

  • Indeed, a badli workman has no right to claim employment in place of an absentee employee.
  • In any particular case, if there be some jobs to be performed and the...employee concerned is absent, the company may take in a badli workman for the purpose.
  • Badli workmen are really casual employees without any right to be employed.

 

Hence, with the help of above explanation we can say that Statement (I) is right, (II) is wrong.

Question 31

Co-determination is used for:

  1. AOption (a)

    Collective bargaining

  2. BOption (b)

    Industrial democracy

  3. COption (c)

    Industrial action

  4. DOption (d)

    Union leadership

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Industrial democracy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Industrial democracy

 Key Points

  • A form of corporate governance known as codetermination allows members of a company's staff to elect their peers to the board of directors.
  • The system of codetermination can help lessen workplace friction between employers and employees by allowing employees to be represented on the board of directors alongside shareholders because the latter are able to participate in operating the company.

Additional Information

  • Collective bargaining refers to the procedures through which the terms of payment within the workforce are negotiated.
  • Union leadership is forming a Union.
  • action taken by employees of a company as a protest, especially striking or working to rule.

Hence, the correct answer is Industrial democracy.

Question 32

A firm earns a return on investment at the rate of 20%, earning per share is Rs. 15, the payout ratio is 50%, and the cost of equity is 12%; the market price per share as per Walter’s model is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 300

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 240

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 75

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 166.67

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 166.67

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Rs. 166.67

Key Points

  • Walter’s Model Formula
  • Market Price (P) = D + (r / ke)(E − D) / ke
  • D = Dividend per share = 50% of Rs. 15 = Rs. 7.5
  • E = Earnings per share = Rs. 15
  • r = Return on investment = 20% or 0.20
  • ke = Cost of equity = 12% or 0.12
  • Calculation Steps
  • Step 1: Find retained earnings = E − D = 15 − 7.5 = Rs. 7.5
  • Step 2: Multiply retained earnings with (r / ke) → (0.20 / 0.12) × 7.5 = 1.6667 × 7.5 = 12.5
  • Step 3: Add dividend → 7.5 + 12.5 = Rs. 20
  • Step 4: Divide by ke → 20 / 0.12 = Rs. 166.67
  • The correct market price per share using Walter’s Model is therefore Rs. 166.67.

Additional Information

  • Assumptions of Walter’s Model
  • The firm finances all investments through retained earnings only; no external financing is used.
  • The internal rate of return (r) and cost of equity capital (ke) remain constant.
  • The firm has an infinite life.
  • All earnings are either reinvested internally or paid out as dividends immediately.
  • Interpretation of Walter’s Model
  • If r > ke, the firm should retain earnings (growth firm).
  • If r < ke, the firm should distribute earnings (declining firm).
  • If r = ke, dividend policy is irrelevant and does not affect market value.
  • Exam Tip: Always apply Walter’s formula directly for numerical questions where all variables are provided. Avoid conceptual shortcuts unless asked theoretically.

Question 33

Consider the below mentioned statements and state the correct code of the statements being true or false.

Statement (I): A debt-equity ratio of 2 : 1 indicates that for every 1 unit of equity, the company has raised 2 units of debt.

Statement (II): The cost of floating an equity issue is lesser than the cost of floating a debt

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are false.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the Statements (I) and (II) are true.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is false and Statement (II) is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (I) is true and Statement (II) is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement (I) is true and Statement (II) is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is true and Statement (II) is false. 

Key Points

  • Debt - equity ratio indicates the relative proportion of shareholder's equity and debt used to finance a company's assets.
  • Debt equity ratio of 2:1 indicates for every 1 unit of equity the company has raised 2 units as debt.
  • Cost of floating an equity share is higher than cost of floating a debt because dividend to equity holder are not tax deductible.

 

Hence, Statement (I) is true and Statement (II) is false.

Question 34

Debt Service Coverage Ratio indicates which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Effective utilisation of assets.

  2. BOption (b)

    Number of times fixed assets cover borrowed funds.

  3. COption (c)

    Excess of Current Assets over Current Liabilities.

  4. DOption (d)

    Number of times surplus covers interest and instalments of Term Loans.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Number of times surplus covers interest and instalments of Term Loans.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Number of times surplus covers interest and instalments of Term Loans.

 

Key Points

  • Debt Service Coverage Ratio is a financial metric used to measure a company's ability to pay its debts.
  • It is a ratio of a company's net operating income (NOI) to its debt service payments, which includes both principal and interest payments.

 

Additional Information 

  • In corporate finance, the term “DSCR” refers to the amount of cash flow that may be used to cover yearly interest and capital payments on debt, including floating fund payments.
  • Bank loan officers utilize a ratio called the DSCR to assess a borrower’s capacity for debt payment.
  • The debt service coverage ratio (DSCR) is a key indicator used to assess whether a property has enough cash flow to repay its debts. In the late 1990s and early 2000s, banks normally demanded a DSCR of at least 1.2, although more aggressive institutions would accept lower ratios.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Number of times surplus covers interest and instalments of Term Loans.

Question 35

Authorised capital of a company is Rs. 5 lacs; 40% of it is paid up. Loss incurred during the year is Rs. 50,000. Accumulated loss carried from last year is Rs. 2 lac. The company has a Tangible Net Worth of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2 lacs

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 2.50 lacs

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. (-)50,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 7,50,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. (-)50,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. (-)50,000

Key PointsTangible net worth is most commonly a calculation of the value of a company that excludes any value derived from intangible assets such as copyrights, patents, and intellectual property

TNW=Total Assets−Liabilities−Intangible Asset 

Authorised capital = Rs. 5 Lakhs

Paid up capital = Rs. 5,00,000 * 40% = Rs. 2,00,000

Total Loss = Rs 2,00,000 + Rs. 50,000 = Rs. 2,50,000

Tangible Net Worth = Rs. Paid up capital - Loss 

=Rs. 2,00,000 - Rs. 2,50,000

=Rs. (-) 50,000

 

Hence the correct answer is Rs. (-) 50,000

Question 36

Which one of the following is related to control function of the financial manager?

  1. AOption (a)

    To negotiate with bankers for a loan.

  2. BOption (b)

    To analyse variance between standard costs and actual costs.

  3. COption (c)

    To estimate the future cash flows from a proposed project.

  4. DOption (d)

    To advertise the public issue of the firm.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To analyse variance between standard costs and actual costs.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is to analyse variance between standard costs and actual costs.

Key Points

  • A financial manager is a professional who is responsible for overseeing the financial health of an organization.
  • They are responsible for creating financial reports, developing and implementing financial strategies, and managing investments.

 

And, Control refers to the comparison of actual cost with the standard cost and working for removing the deviations, if any.

Additional Information 

Variance analysis is the procedure of computing the differences between standard costs and actual costs and recognizing the causes of those differences.

  • With the help of above explanation control function of financial manager include variance between standard costs and actual cost.
  • Hence the correct answer is to analyse variance between standard costs and actual costs.

Question 37

A firm is currently earning Rs. 50,000 and its one share has a present market value of Rs. 175. It has 5,000 shares outstanding. The earnings of the firm is expected to remain stable and it has a payout ratio of 100%. The cost of equity is:

  1. AOption (a)

    10%

  2. BOption (b)

    5.71%

  3. COption (c)

    100%

  4. DOption (d)

    23.50%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5.71%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (2) 5.71%

The return that an investor anticipates from a business investment is known as the Cost of Equity.

Its price reflects the sum that the market considers fair compensation for taking on ownership risk by purchasing company shares.

Additional Information 

The dividend is the cost of equity.

The formula is:

(Dividends per share for next year ÷ Current market value of the stock)

Ke (In %) =  (10/175)x 100

               0.0571*100      

                = Rs. 5.71%

Question 38

With project cost of ₹300 lacs, profits after depreciation (straight line method) and tax for its lifetime of 5 years are estimated at ₹10 lacs, ₹10 lacs, ₹30 lacs, ₹40 lacs and ₹50 lacs respectively. The cost of capital is 12% and discount factors @ 12%, for the first five years are 0.89, 0.80, 0.71, 0.64 and 0.57 respectively. The Net present value of project is :

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹8.90 lacs

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹140 lacs

  3. COption (c)

    ₹(−)207.70 lacs

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹308.90 lacs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹8.90 lacs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (1) ₹8.90 lacs

Important Points

  • Net present value (NPV) refers to the difference between the value of cash now and the value of cash at a future date.
  • To evaluate the profitability of a proposed investment or project, NPV is used in capital budgeting and investment planning.

Depreciation :(300/5) = 60 for every year.

Profit after tax & dep.DepreciationCash flowP.V. @12%P.V. Cash flow
1060700.8962.3
1060700.856
3060900.7163.9
40601000.6464
50601100.5762.7
Total P.V. Cash flow308.9

 

Net Present value = P.V. of cash flow - Cash outflow

Net Present value = 308.9 lacs – 300 lacs = 8.90 lacs

Question 39

Match the items of List (II) with those of List (I) and choose the correct code of combination.

List-I (Credit Rating Agency)List-II (Year of Establishment)
(a)CRISIL(i)1860
(b)Moody’s Investors Service(ii)1909
(c)Standard and Poor(iii)1914
(d)Fitch Ratings(iv)1987
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

 

Additional Information 

1. CRISIL

  • An acronym for Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited, is the first Credit Rating Agency established in India in 1987.
  • It is a multinational analytical company whose major goal is to improve the efficiency of the financial markets.
  • Many businesses and financial institutions use its ratings, research, risk, and advice services.

 

2. Moody’s Investors Service

  • Risk assessment, research, and credit ratings are all offered by Moody's Investors Services. which was established in 1909.
  • The company provides services for enterprise risk management, valuation, training and certification, economic and consumer credit analytics, risk measurement, and risk management.

 

3. Standard and Poor Credit rating agency

  • It is one of the top index providers and sources of independent credit ratings data founded in 1860.
  • It is one of the biggest credit rating organizations, Standard & Poor's, assigns letter grades to businesses, nations, and the debt they issue on a scale from AAA to D, reflecting the level of investment risk.

 

4.  Fitch Ratings

  • Fitch ratings is a credit rating agency established in 1914 that assign ratings to investments based on how likely it is that they would default.
  • Fitch rates companies use a letter system; for instance, a firm rated AAA is very high quality and has consistent cash flows, whereas a company rated D has already experienced a default.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

Question 40

Which of the following statements are true? Select the correct code.

(a) WTO rules are mainly applied to trade in goods but other areas such as services, intellectual property, etc., are not covered by them.

(b) GATT had contracting parties, whereas WTO has members.

(c) The dispute settlement system under WTO is much more efficient, speedy and transparent unlike the GATT system which was highly susceptible to blockages.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b) and (c)

  3. COption (c)

    (a), (b) and (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) and (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b) and (c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is : (2) (b) and (c)

 

Important Points

Highlights on World Trade Organization (WTO)

  • WTO deals with trade in goods and other areas such as services, intellectual property, etc.
  • GATT had contracting parties, whereas WTO has member nations.
  • Unlike the GATT system, which was subject to delays, the WTO's dispute settlement procedure is far more successful, fast, and transparent.

 

Hence, (b) and (c) are true and (a) is false

Question 41

Match the items given in List-I with those given in the List-II and suggest the correct code:

List-IList-II
(a)Marginal Productivity/Average Productivity(i)Isoquant curve
(b)Substitutability of inputs(ii)Isocost line
(c)Constant Negative Slope(iii)Production Function
(d)Convex to origin(iv)Elasticity of Production
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i). 

  • The production function of an organization or enterprise is an association between inputs used and the utmost amount of outputs that can be manufactured.
  • In other words, the production function is the relationship that shows the relationship between inputs and outputs for any given amount of inputs invested and the maximum amount of outputs obtained in the production process.

Key Points 

List IList II
(a) Marginal Productivity/Average Productivity - Marginal productivity determines the net rewards for the factors of production when one-factor input increases. Average productivity is measured by taking the total output and dividing the quantity by the number of workers.(iv) Elasticity of Production - The elasticity of production, also called output elasticity, is the percentage change in production divided by the percentage change in the quantity of an input used for that production.
(b)Substitutability of inputs - Substitutability of inputs is an important characteristic of production functions. Factor substitution implies that, in the production process, a factor can be substituted for another factor of production.(iii) Production Function - The production function is a mathematical function stating the relationship between the inputs and the outputs of the goods in production by a firm.
(c)Constant Negative Slope - In general, the slope of the isocost line is negative of the given input price. Also, if the input prices are fixed then the slope of the isocost line becomes constant.(ii)  Isocost line - An isocost line is a curve that shows various combinations of inputs that cost the same total amount.
(d)Convex to origin - An isoquant must always be convex to the origin. This is because of the operation of the principle of diminishing the marginal rate of technical substitution.(i) Isoquant curve - An isoquant curve is a concave line plotted on a graph, showing all of the various combinations of two inputs that result in the same amount of output.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).

Question 42

Which one of the following is not a component of Bass’ Theory of Transformational Leadership?

  1. AOption (a)

    Idealized influence

  2. BOption (b)

    Inspirational motivation

  3. COption (c)

    Intellectual stimulation

  4. DOption (d)

    Team consideration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Team consideration

Why this answer is correct

The Correct option is Team consideration

 Key Points

  • The Bass transformational leadership founded by Bernard M Bass in the year 1985
  • as per this theory, leaders can influence their subordinates by making them aware of their goals and aligning that with the organizational goal.
  • Transformational leadership raises the leadership to the next level

Important Points There mainly four components

1)Inspirational motivation

  • Transformational leaders are trying in such a way to motivate and inspire the people around them by providing meaningful challenges and by they creating good spirits among them.

2)Intellectual stimulation

  • Transformational leaders try to encourage creativity by providing opportunities to Reframe the older problem and approaches in new ways and the ultimate result of creativity is increased.

3)Individualized influence 

  • Transformational leaders are active in such a way that they will consider role models for their followers and are admired and respected basis on their capabilities.

4)Individual consideration

  • Each individual gets better consideration and attention in detail because the leaders act like coaches and they and they help them to be improved themselves.

Additional Information

  • The transformational leadership theory aims to develop the subordinates as future leaders by developing leadership abilities and skills.

Hence the correct answer is Team consideration

Question 43

Which one of the following is a contract made through collusion between management and labour representatives and contains terms beneficial to management and unfavourable to union workers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Unilateral contract

  2. BOption (b)

    Aleatory contract

  3. COption (c)

    Sweetheart contract

  4. DOption (d)

    Invalid contract

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sweetheart contract

Why this answer is correct

The correct option Sweetheart contract

 Key Points

  • A sweetheart contract is a contract made through collusion between management and labour representatives
  • which contains terms beneficial to management and unfavourable to union workers.

Important Points

  • The management and labour representatives are the beneficiaries of such contracts and ultimately workers are not getting any benefit and it’s not in workers' best interest.

Hence the correct answer is the Sweathert contract.

Question 44

Match the items of List - II with the items of List - I and suggest the correct code:

List-I (Components of holistic marketing)List-II (Key constituent / Dimension)
(a)Internal marketing(i)Brand and customer equity
(b)Performance marketing(ii)Stakeholder
(c)Integrated marketing(iii)Marketing department
(d)Relationship marketing(iv)Communications
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii). 

Key PointsHolistic marketing: 

  • The holistic marketing concept considers all the different parts of a business as one single entity.
  • It is based on the premise that the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
  • As such, there is a shared aim and purpose for all the activities related to a business.
  • This ensures that each person in every department, from sales to operations to HR to marketing and others, works towards one common goal.

Important Points 

List-I (Components of holistic marketing)List-II (Key constituent / Dimension)
(a)Internal marketing- Internal marketing treats employees as customers who must be convinced of the company’s core values just as aggressively as its external customers.(iii)Marketing department - This ensures that the employees understand their role in the marketing process.
(b)Performance marketing- Performance marketing is focused on the different activities of a business, such as selling a product or service, ethical and legal responsibilities as a business, brand, customer equity, etc.(i)Brand and customer equity- Brand equity illustrates the worth of the brand, i.e. the value added to a product by branding it. Customer equity relates to lifetime values that are important to consumers.
(c)Integrated marketing- Integrated marketing creates a seamless experience for the consumer to interact with the brand by integrating various communication channels.(iv)Communications- This ensures that the communication is in sync and projects a strong and focused brand image.
(d)Relationship marketing - Relationship marketing is centered on the relationships you have with your potential and existing customers, employees, partners, and competitors.(ii)Stakeholder - The main goal is to focus on marketing activities that create a strong, emotional bond and cultivate loyalty from these stakeholders, rather than simply interacting with them only when required.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii).

Question 45

The following are the statements relating to the new product development. Indicate the statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): Most established companies do not focus on incremental innovation for new product development.

Statement (II): Most established companies enter new markets by tweaking products for new customers.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Key Points 

Incremental Innovation: 

  • Incremental innovation is the concept of growing or improving a company by making a series of minor improvements to existing products, services, processes, and tools.
  • These small changes focus on improving the productivity and performance of the company, as well as the efficiency and user experience of the products and services.

Important Points

  • Companies can use incremental innovation to save costs and differentiate from competitors.
  • Over time, businesses can use incremental innovation to improve their market position and build a bigger audience that gravitates to new and improved product features.
  • Most established companies focus on incremental innovation for new product development.
  • Thus Statement I is incorrect.
  • Most established companies focus on incremental innovation when they aim to enter new markets by tweaking existing products, or they want to stay one step ahead in the market by using variations on a core product.
  • Thus Statement II is correct.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Question 46

Which one among the following relates to the probability-based sampling technique?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quota sampling

  2. BOption (b)

    Snow-ball sampling

  3. COption (c)

    Stratified sampling

  4. DOption (d)

    Judgement sampling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Stratified sampling

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stratified sampling. 

Sampling techniques: 

  • The sampling method or sampling technique is the process of studying the population by gathering information and analyzing that data.
  • It is the basis of the data where the sample space is enormous.
  • There are several different sampling techniques available, and they can be subdivided into two groups.
  • Probability sampling involves random selection, allowing you to make strong statistical inferences about the whole group.
  • Non-probability sampling involves non-random selection based on convenience or other criteria, allowing you to easily collect data.

Key PointsTypes of Probability sampling: 

  • Simple random sampling
  • Cluster sampling
  • Systematic sampling
  • Stratified random sampling

Types of Non-Probability sampling: 

  • Convenience sampling
  • Judgmental or purposive sampling
  • Snowball sampling
  • Quota sampling

Important Points

Stratified random sampling: 

  • Stratified random sampling is a widely used statistical technique in which a population is divided into different subgroups, or strata, based on some shared characteristics.
  • The purpose of stratification is to ensure that each stratum in the sample and to make inferences about specific population subgroups.
  • This technique is beneficial in cases where the population is heterogeneous, and a simple random sample may not provide accurate results.
  • By dividing the population into strata, researchers can ensure that their sample is representative of the population and avoid sampling biases.

Additional Information

  • Judgmental or purposive sampling: Judgmental or purposive samples are formed at the researcher’s discretion. Researchers purely consider the purpose of the study, along with the understanding of the target audience.
  • Snowball sampling: Snowball sampling is a sampling method that researchers apply when the subjects are difficult to trace. For example, surveying shelterless people or illegal immigrants will be extremely challenging. In such cases, using the snowball theory, researchers can track a few categories to interview and derive results.
  • Quota sampling:  In Quota sampling, members in this sampling technique selection happens based on a pre-set standard. In this case, as a sample is formed based on specific attributes, the created sample will have the same qualities found in the total population.

 

Hence, of the above options Stratified sampling relates to the probability-based sampling technique. 

​

Question 47

What is “Block Chain” in the field of information technology?

  1. AOption (a)

    Motherboard protection device.

  2. BOption (b)

    Protection of details of electronic transaction.

  3. COption (c)

    Taking random snaps of electronic transactions.

  4. DOption (d)

    Blocking continuous electronic transactions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Protection of details of electronic transaction.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Protection of details of electronic transaction.

Key Points Block Chain Technology:

  • A blockchain is a decentralized, distributed, and often public, digital ledger consisting of records called blocks that are used to record transactions across many computers so that any involved block cannot be altered retroactively, without the alteration of all subsequent blocks.
  • This allows the participants to verify and audit transactions independently and relatively inexpensively.
  • A blockchain database is managed autonomously using a peer-to-peer network and a distributed timestamping server.
  • They are authenticated by mass collaboration powered by collective self-interests.
  • Blockchain security is a complete risk management system for blockchain networks, incorporating assurance services, cybersecurity frameworks, and best practices to mitigate the risks of fraud and cyber-attacks.
  • Blockchain technology's data structures have inherent security qualities because they are based on consensus, cryptography, and decentralization principles.
  • Each new block of information connects to all the previous blocks in a way that it's nearly impossible to tamper with.

Additional Information Information Technology : 

  • Information Technology is a field that manages and processes information for large-scale organizations or companies.
  • Information technology is now synonymous with any form of digital communications and technologies.
  • Everything falls under the grasp of Information Technology, from checking emails to running software on laptops to making a zoom call with colleagues.

Hence, "Block Chain” in the field of information technology means Protection of details of electronic transactions.

Question 48

When the organizational requirements advocate tight cost control; frequent, detailed control reports; structured organization and responsibilities and incentives based on meeting strict quantitative targets then it is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Differentiation strategy

  2. BOption (b)

    Focus strategy

  3. COption (c)

    Diversification strategy

  4. DOption (d)

    Overall cost leadership

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Overall cost leadership

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Overall cost leadership. 

Key Points Michael Porter's Generic Strategies: 

  • A firm's relative position within its industry determines whether its profitability is above or below the industry average.
  • The fundamental basis of above-average profitability in the long run is a sustainable competitive advantage.
  • A firm can possess two basic types of competitive advantage: low cost or differentiation.
  • The two basic types of competitive advantage combined with the scope of activities a firm seeks to achieve them, lead to three generic strategies for achieving above-average performance in an industry: cost leadership, differentiation, and focus.

Important PointsCost Leadership Strategy: 

  • In cost leadership, a firm sets out to become the low-cost producer in its industry.
  • The sources of cost advantage are varied and depend on the structure of the industry.
  • They may include the pursuit of economies of scale, proprietary technology, preferential access to raw materials, and other factors.
  • A low-cost producer must find and exploit all sources of cost advantage.

Additional Information

Differentiation Strategy 

  • In a differentiation strategy, a firm seeks to be unique in its industry along some dimensions that are widely valued by buyers.
  • It selects one or more attributes that many buyers in an industry perceive as important and uniquely positions itself to meet those needs.
  • It is rewarded for its uniqueness with a premium price.

Focus strategy 

  • The generic strategy of focus rests on the choice of a narrow competitive scope within an industry.
  • The focuser selects a segment or group of segments in the industry and tailors its strategy to serve them to the exclusion of others.
  • The focus strategy has two variants.

(a) In cost focus, a firm seeks a cost advantage in its target segment, 

(b) In differentiation focus, a firm seeks differentiation in its target segment. 

Hence, when the organizational requirements advocate tight cost control; frequent, detailed control reports; structured organization and responsibilities, and incentives based on meeting strict quantitative targets then it is called cost leadership strategy.

Question 49

Statement (I): Strategic turn around is a more serious form of internal retrenchment and leads to divestment or liquidation.

Statement (II): Divestment is usually a part of rehabilitation or restructuring plan and is adopted when a turn around has been attempted but has proven to be unsuccessful.

Statement (III): Combination strategies are the simple solutions that strategists have to offer when faced with the challenges of real life business.

Select the correct code for above mentioned statements being correct or incorrect.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statements (I) and (II) are correct but statement (III) is not correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (II) and (III) are correct but statement (I) is not correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct but statements (II) and (III) are not correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (II) is correct but statements (I) and (III) are not correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement (II) is correct but statements (I) and (III) are not correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- Statements (II) is correct but statement (I) and (III) are not correct.

Explanation:

  Strategy refers to a tactical course of action that is specifically designed to achieve the pre-determined long term goals of an organization. There are three different levels, on the basis of which strategy can be formulated:

  1. Corporate Level Strategy
  2. Business unit Level Strategy
  3. Functional Level Strategy

​ 

Key Points:

Corporate level strategy is considered as the highest level of strategic plan that defines the corporate goals and ways of the achieving these goals.

  • There are mainly four different Strategic alternatives which falls under which the category of Corporate Level Strategy, namely: 
  • Stability Strategy
  • Expansion Strategy
  • Retrenchment Strategy
  • Combination Strategy
  • ​Retrenchment Strategy follows when an organization aims at restructuring/ divestment/ contraction of its business activities.
  • There are three sub parts of Retrenchment Strategy, namely: 
  • ​Turnaround
  • Divestment
  • Liquidation
  • Turnaround Strategy is basically a restructuring strategy and the main purpose of this strategy is to transform a loss-making company into a profit-making company. This type of strategy is followed by the company when if feels that the earlier decision is wrong and needs to alter.
  • Divestment is followed when the turnaround strategy becomes ineffective. It is also known as divestiture/ retrenchment strategy and it includes downsizing the operations of the business to prevent the losses that a company has to face.
  • Liquidation refers to that stage when a company sells off its specific business units or shuts down those units.
  • Combination Strategies are followed when a company adopts different combinations of stability, expansion, and retrenchment either at the same time or at different times in the same business with the aim of improving its competitive position.

So, we can say that Strategic turnaround is a very serious form of internal retrenchment and lead to divestment. Whereas Divestment is part of the restructuring plan and it is adopted when turnaround has been attempted but has proven to be unsuccessful.

Additional Information

  • Stability Strategies are of three types, namely: No change strategy, Profit Strategy, and Caution Strategy. This type of strategy is used by small businesses in order to avoid risky situations.
  • Expansion Strategy is also known as Growth Strategy and there are five subtypes of Expansion strategy, namely: Concentration, Diversification, Cooperation, Integration, and Internationalization.

Question 50

A concept given for diversified corporations which advocates (a) What businesses should a diversified corporation own and why; and (b) What organizational structure, management processes, and philosophy will foster superior performance from the corporation’s individual business units, is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Corporate Portfolio Analysis

  2. BOption (b)

    Strategic Alternative Analysis

  3. COption (c)

    Corporate Parenting Analysis

  4. DOption (d)

    S.B.U. Analysis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Corporate Parenting Analysis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Corporate Parenting Analysis

Key Points

  • A Diversified Corporation refers to that company which deals in diversified/ unrelated business segments.
  • There are different types of diversification in business, such as: Product diversification, Service diversification, Joint Venture, Market diversification etc.
  • Corporate Parenting Analysis helps to analyze the different factors which determines the policies/ values, such as: Budget process, Organizational Structure etc.
  • Corporate Parenting Analysis helps to improve the effectiveness and performance of the business.
  • There are mainly three styles of Corporate Parenting Analysis, namely: Strategic Planning, Strategic Control and Financial Control.
  • Strategic Planning enhances synergies and facilitating cooperation across the business units.
  • Under strategic Control, the business parent makes the use of its capabilities to capture the growth opportunities.
  • Under Financial Control category, corporate parent evaluates and monitor the financial performance of business units.

So, Corporate Parenting Analysis advocates that , what businesses should be diversified corporation own and why and what organizational structure, management processes and philosophy will foster superior performance from the corporation's individual business units.

Question 51

Timely and adequate assistance and rehabilitation efforts to MSEs should begin on a proactive basis when early signs of sickness are detected. This stage is termed as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Supporting Stage

  2. BOption (b)

    Handholding Stage

  3. COption (c)

    Sustaining Stage

  4. DOption (d)

    Recovery Stage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Handholding Stage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Handholding stage

Key Points

  • A sick industrial unit is one which has accumulated losses  more than its entire net worth at the end of financial year.
  • There are two types of Sickness:
  • Actual Sickness : When there is erosion of 50% or more units during last six months or more and there is default in the loan installment payment, then it is called Actual Sickness.
  • Potential Sickness: When the capacity utilization of a firm is less than 50% during last five years, then it is called as Potential Sickness.
  • There are some Internal causes of Industrial Sickness:
  • Poor Production Policies
  • Ineffective Corporate Management
  • Inadequacy of Finance
  • There are some External causes of Industrial Sickness:
  • Marketing Constraints
  • Production Constraints
  • Personnel Constraints etc.
  • Rehabilitation refers to the process which enables a business unit to function at profitable level and make arrangements for recovery of due debts.
  • MSE (Micro and Small Scale Enterprise) is said to sick, when due to accumulated losses there is erosion in the net worth upto the extent of 50% or the borrowal account of company remains NPA (Non Performing Assets) for the period of three or more months.
  • Different Stages of MSE includes: Handholding Stage, Recovery Stage, Supporting Stage and Sustaining Stage.
  • Handholding Stage: This stage of MSE starts when banks detect the symptoms of sickness at the initial stage and starts intervention with the purpose of addressing the sickness at early stage.
  • For Example: When there is delay in commercial production for six or more months due to the reason beyond the control of the promoters.

                                                 OR

                     A company incurs losses from past two years or the capacity utilization of company is less than 50% of its value.

So, Timely assistance to MSEs and  rehabilitation effort should begin on a proactive basis when early sign of sickness is detected, that stage is called Handholding Stage.

Additional Information 

  • Recovery Stage basically deals with the recovery of fully loosed Micro and Small Scale Enterprises.
  • Supporting Stage deals with providing financial and technical assistance to MSEs.
  • Sustaining Stage deals with sustaining support to MSEs.

Question 52

Individuals who are the founders of the business and conceptualize a business plan by putting efforts to make the plan a success are known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Quasi entrepreneurs

  2. BOption (b)

    Bold entrepreneurs

  3. COption (c)

    Pure entrepreneurs

  4. DOption (d)

    Owner-manager

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pure entrepreneurs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Pure Entrepreneurs

Key Points

  • Entrepreneur refers to an individual who has power of sensing opportunities and exploit these opportunities by taking risk for an organization.
  • Entrepreneur is also called as innovator and wealth generator.
  • There are various types of entrepreneurs:
  • Pure Entrepreneurs
  • Induced Entrepreneurs
  • Drone Entrepreneurs
  • Fabian Entrepreneurs
  • Imitating Entrepreneurs
  • Trading Entrepreneurs etc.
  • Pure Entrepreneurs are known as the founder of business and they are highly motivated by psychological (mental satisfaction) and economic rewards (monetary). They conceptualize the business plan and make it successful by putting efforts into it. 
  • For Example: Dhirubai Ambai
  • Induced Entrepreneurs are those individuals who are induced/ inspired to take up entrepreneurial activities due to some external factors. Such as: Government Grant/ Concessions etc**.**
  • Drone Entrepreneurs are those individuals who are not open to any change. They are happy with their existing mode of business activities even at the cost of loss.
  • Fabian Entrepreneurs are called second generation entrepreneurs. They don't show any initiative in the  implementation of new ideas until there is imminent threat to their existence.
  • Imitating Entrepreneurs are those individuals who imitate/ copy the successful innovation. They usually copy the concept of already existing entrepreneurs for setting up their own business.
  • Trading Entrepreneurs are those individuals who are concerned with trading activities, i.e. buying and selling activities.

So, We can say that Individuals who are the founders of the business and conceptualize the business plan by putting his/ her efforts to make a successful plan are known as Pure Entrepreneurs.

Question 53

In which one of the following years, the Government of India did not bring an Industrial Policy Resolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    1948

  2. BOption (b)

    1956

  3. COption (c)

    1965

  4. DOption (d)

    1977

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1965

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1965

Key Points

  • For the entrepreneurial sector to flourish, government backing is required. The Indian government acted quickly to secure the expansion of this sector's economy.
  • Various policies and programmes are made by the government for the promotion of Small Scale Industries. It includes:
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1948
    • Industrial Policy Resolution 1956
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1977
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1980
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1990
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1991
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1948: IPR 1948 was introduced by the government in post independence period. The main objective of this policy was to liberalize the industrial sector in order to boost its competitiveness and industrial productivity.
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1956: IPR 1956 was created as result of changes that came about as a result of economic and political events in several fields that demanded modifications in industrial policy within a short period of 1948 industrial strategy's implementation. IPR 1956 can be divided into three categories namely; 
  • Schedule A ( with 17 Industries)
  • Schedule B (with 12 industries)
  • Schedule C (with Remaining industries)
  • Industrial Policy Resolution, 1977: This policy acts as an extension of IPR 1956 with main focus on decentralization. It divides small scale sector into: Cottage and Household Sector, Small Scale industries and Tiny sectors. The fundamental goal of this policy was to effectively promote small, widely distributed industries in rural/ small town areas.

So, it is clear from the above discussion that IPR 1948, IPR 1956 and IPR 1977 all comes under the category of government policies except IPR 1965.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1980 focuses on the effective utilization of installed capacity.
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1990 was formed with a view to enhancing the competitiveness of the products manufactured in the small scale sector.
  • Industrial Policy Resolution 1991 mainly focuses on providing facilities to the market forces  as well as increase its effeciency.

Question 54

Ethics are moral principles and values which:

  1. AOption (a)

    are legally enforceable

  2. BOption (b)

    guide a firm’s behaviour

  3. COption (c)

    provide employees with rules on how to behave

  4. DOption (d)

    govern the actions of an individual

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

govern the actions of an individual

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is govern the actions of an individual

Key Points 

  • Morality and ethics have a lot of similarities. Whereas it once would have been more accurate to speak of moral principles, it is now usual to refer to ethical principles.
  • The foundation of ethics is a set of well-founded moral principles that outline what is appropriate human behaviour, typically in terms of rights, obligations, fairness etc.
  • Actions of an individual is governed by ethics.
  • The term "ethics" refers to a set of moral guidelines, a sense of right and wrong, goodness and evil in our deeds and their effects.
  • People follow moral principles as guidance to ensure they are acting morally.
  • Moral principles include: fairness, honesty etc.

Hence, the correct answer is govern the actions of an individual.

Additional Information

  • Moral principles can be of two types:
  • Absolute
  • Relative
  • Absolute Moral principles: Universal truths regarding human nature serve as the foundation for all absolute moral rules.
  • For Example: Speaking the truth
  • Relative Moral principles: Relative morality is based on circumstances and attitudes that can change over time, from individual to individual, or in different contexts.

Question 55

Who among the following relatives of a deceased insured person is not “dependent” under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?

  1. AOption (a)

    Widow

  2. BOption (b)

    Widowed mother

  3. COption (c)

    Legitimate son who has attained the age of twenty five

  4. DOption (d)

    Widowed daughter-in-law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Legitimate son who has attained the age of twenty five

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Legitimate son who has attained the age of twenty five, he is not “dependent” under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.

Key Points 

  • As per section 2(6A) dependent includes His widow, a son under the age of 25, an unmarried daughter, and his widowed mother are among his dependents.
  • A son or daughter who is more than 25 years old and fully dependent on the worker may also qualify as a dependent.
  • In some circumstances, dependents can also include a minor sister, minor child, parent other than a widowed mother, etc.

Additional Information

  • Traditionally, the term legitimate child is defined as a child conceived or born during a marriage or to parents who are legally married to each other, and has complete filial rights and obligations by birth.
  • This means that the child was lawfully begotten.
  • The reason behind the expression ‘lawfully begotten’ was because marriage was considered a sacred and lawful union.

Therefore, as per the explanation stated above the correct answer is Legitimate son who has attained the age of twenty-five.

Question 56

Which of the following is not a principle of ‘Hot Stove Rule’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prior Warning

  2. BOption (b)

    Immediate Response

  3. COption (c)

    Consistent Action

  4. DOption (d)

    Personal Approach

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Personal Approach

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Personal Approach.

Important Points

  • Hot Stove Rule: A management term to explain the similarity between breaking company discipline and touching a hot stove.
  • According to Mc Gregor, The principle of the "Hot stove rule" can guide an employee to be in discipline with the prior given principles.

                             Let's say, you touch a red hot stove anyway, which will burn and hurt you, you may get angry on the stove but you know at the same time, it's your fault, the stove not trying to burn you intentionally. The same can happen if you'll repeat your mistake. The same goes for disciplinary action against an employee, with no exceptions.

 Additional Information     

When you touch a hot stove (breach the principles, your discipline is :

  1. Immediate (instant consequence)
  2. Prior warning (prior intimation)
  3. Consistent action (punishment)
  4. Impersonal (unbiased disciplinary action against the act, not against the person).

      All of the above are the principles of **the "**Hot stove rule" but not the Personal approach.

Hence, The correct answer is Personal Approach.

Question 57

The extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet customers’ psychological or social needs is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Brand judgments

  2. BOption (b)

    Brand resonance

  3. COption (c)

    Brand imagery

  4. DOption (d)

    Brand performance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brand imagery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brand imagery.

Important Points 

  • Extrinsic properties of the product or services refer to those properties that are related to the product or services but not a physical part of it like the brand image for brand loyalty.
  • Brand advertisement sales promotion etc. may increase the consumers' desire to buy the product and fulfill their psychological needs.
<br>

 Additional InformationBrand image shows the product is valuable and different from other brands due to which customers rely on and repurchase a product and become reliable and committed customers.

<br>

Brand judgments: Based on past experiences and with the brand itself allow us to generate opinions about a brand in the world of marketing this refers to brand judgment like Coca-Cola.

Brand resonance: When a brand creates an emotional connection with customers via its name image consistency refers to brand resonance. The more effective the emotional bond, the

higher the likelihood of purchase and hence create more loyal customers.

Brand performance: The measurement of a brand’s results against the target explains brand performance customers' growth customer interaction brand knowledge and brand awareness are some metrics to measure brand performance.

Question 58

In which one of the following types of store retailers, large, low-cost, low margin, high-volume, self-service store attributes are designed to meet total needs for food and household products?

  1. AOption (a)

    Supermarket

  2. BOption (b)

    Superstore

  3. COption (c)

    Discount store

  4. DOption (d)

    Convenience store

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Supermarket

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Supermarket 

  • Supermarket: A supermarket is a sizable retail store that specialises on selling food and other household items and is generally run on a self-service system.
  • This type of store is bigger and has a wider variety than older grocery stores, but it is smaller and offers a lower selection of goods than a hypermarket.
  • Due to their size and purchasing power, supermarkets are able to negotiate lower pricing from producers, allowing them to provide products at comparatively inexpensive costs.
  • A supermarket is a particular type of retail establishment with large, inexpensive, low-margin, high-volume, self-service shop features that are intended to cover all demands for food and household goods.
  • For Example: Big Bazar

 

Hence, the correct answer is Supermarket.

 

Confusion Points 

  • Superstore: Superstores are bigger than supermarkets, sell items at steep discounts, and also carry items for the house and apparel that are not really frequently seen in supermarkets.

​

  • Discount Store: Discount stores are a subset of department stores that sell a variety of goods, however others focus on particular products.
  • Discount retailers use a high-volume, low-profit-margin strategy to offer goods at a lower price than other stores in the area.
  • Convenience Store: A convenience store is a small, nearby, easily accessible store that sells packaged items and everyday essentials like milk, bread etc.

Question 59

Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and suggest the correct code:

List-I (Marketing and Business Practices)List-II (Meaning)
(a)Customer partnering(i)Working more closely with customers to add value to their operations.
(b)Uncovering(ii)Using data mining and other analytical methods to develop deep insights into customers and how they behave.
(c)Broadening(iii)Studying “best practice companies” to improve performance.
(d)Benchmarking(iv)Factoring the interests of customers, employees, shareholders, and other stakeholders into the activities of the enterprice.
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

Key Points

List IList IIImportant Points
Customer partneringWorking more closely with customers to add value to their operations.- Working together to build a future for both parties that is superior to what each could have accomplished separately is the aim of customer partnership. - The consumer, who affects all areas of the organization, is the foundation for its success.
UncoveringUsing data mining and other analytical methods to develop deep insights into customers and how they behave.- Uncovering and exploring market trends requires a close look at past as well as current market conditions to pinpoint dominant patterns. - It includes analyzing data related to competitors and consumers.
BroadeningFactoring the interests of customers, employees, shareholders, and other stakeholders into the activities of the enterprise.- A corporate plan that broadens the view and looks beyond the existing offering and customer interests to include shareholders, employees, and other stakeholders.
BenchmarkingStudying “best practice companies” to improve performance.- It is the process of comparing a company's performance with that of a competitor in the same industry. - As a result, we'll be able to understand our company's performance and potential better. - It entails establishing a benchmark against which the business will operate.

 

Hence, the correct answer is  (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

Question 60

Which trade group, among the following holds ‘Tamil’ as one of its official language?

  1. AOption (a)

    ASEAN

  2. BOption (b)

    SAARC

  3. COption (c)

    BRICS

  4. DOption (d)

    MINT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ASEAN

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is : (1) ASEAN

Additional Information 

Official languages of Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) are:  English, Burmese, Filipino, Tamil, Indonesian,  Lao, Malay, Mandarin, Khmer, Thai and Vietnamese.

Important Points 

  • The official language of SAARC is English.
  • The official languages of BRICS are - Portuguese, Mandarin, Russian, English, and Hindi.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (1) ASEAN.

Question 61

Assertion (A): The integration of domestic economy through the twin channels of trade and capital flows has accelerated in the past two decades which in turn led the Indian economy growing from ₹32 trillion in 2004 to about ₹153 trillion by 2016.

Reasoning (R): The Government of India is keen to grow exports and provide more jobs for the young, talented, well-educated and even semi-skilled and unskilled workforce in India.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are correct; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Important Points 

  • The integration of the domestic economy through twin channels of trade and capital flows has accelerated in the past two decades which in turn led the Indian economy to grow from 32 trillion rupees to 153 trillion rupees.
  • As per Suresh Prabhu, Minister of commerce and industry, the govt of India is keen to grow exports and provide more jobs to the young talented, semi-skilled, and unskilled workforce of India

.Hence the correct answer is both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Question 62

Which of the following is/are not true about linear shipping?

(a) It is used for cargo with higher unit value and manufactured or semi-manufactured goods.

(b) Its shipping lines offer slower shipping services.

(c) It operates regularly on a fixed schedule.

(d) Its document of transport contract is called ‘Charter Party’.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (c)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a), (b) and (d)

  3. COption (c)

    (d) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (b) and (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(b) and (d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (b) Its shipping lines offer slower shipping services and (d) Its document of transport contract is called ‘Charter Party’.

Important Points

 liner shipping:

  • liner shipping is the service of transporting goods by means of high‐capacity ocean‐going ships that transit regular routes on fixed schedules.
  • Nowadays, the majority of liner fleets use strong, contemporary ships that can keep up with the demand for speed and punctuality. As a result, these liner services' prices are likewise often consistent.

charter party:

  • A charter party, or charter-party, is a nautical agreement between a shipowner and a "charterer" for the hiring of a ship to transport people or goods or a yacht for pleasure.

 Hence the correct answer is  (b) Its shipping lines offer slower shipping services and (d) Its document of transport contract is called ‘Charter Party’.

Question 63

From the following determinants of the price elasticity of demand, indicate the correct code for the determinants having a positive relationship with the degree of the price elasticity of demand:

(a) Range of substitutes of the commodity

(b) Extent of the different uses of the commodity

(c) Portion of the income of the buyer spent on the commodity

(d) Income group of buyers purchasing the commodity

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (c) and (d) only

  3. COption (c)

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (b), (c) and (d) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a), (b) and (c) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a), (b), and (c) only.

  • Price elasticity measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded or supplied of a good to a change in its price.
  • It is computed as the percentage change in quantity demanded—or supplied—divided by the percentage change in price.
  • The price elasticity of demand is the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good or service divided by the percentage change in the price.

Key Points

  • Range of substitutes of the commodity: The greater the possi­bility of substitution, the greater the price elasticity of demand for it. If commodity substitutes are not available, people will have to buy it even when its price rises, and therefore its demand would tend to be inelastic.
  • The extent of the different uses of the commodity: The greater the number of uses to which a commodity can be put, the greater will be its price elasticity of demand. If the price of a commodity having several uses is very high, its demand will be small and it will be put to the most important uses and if the price of such a commodity falls it will be put to less important uses also and consequently, its quantity demanded will rise significantly.
  • A portion of the income of the buyer spent on the commodity: The greater the proportion of income spent on a commodity, the greater will be generally its elasticity of demand, and vice versa. The demand for common salt, soap, matches, and other goods tends to be highly inelastic because the households spend only a fraction of their income on each of them.

Additional Information

  • Income group of buyers purchasing the commodity: The income group of the buyer does not have a positive relationship with the price elasticity of demand.

Hence, the correct answer is (a), (b), and (c) only.

Question 64

Who proposed the Balance Theory of attitude formation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Festinger

  2. BOption (b)

    Fritz Heider

  3. COption (c)

    Charles Osgood and Percy Tannenbaum

  4. DOption (d)

    Rosenberg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fritz Heider

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fritz Heider. 

Key Points

  • Balance theory was developed by social psychologist Fritz Heider in 1946.
  • The theory was originally developed to explain patterns of interpersonal relations, but it has also been applied to study attitudes and opinions about many items such as physical objects, ideas, or events.
  • Heider explained that a balance must exist between interpersonal relationships, or for something specific between two or more individuals so that psychological harmony can be achieved.
  • If two or more people share similar ideas about something, there is not likely to be any tension or complication surrounding this idea in the relationship.

Additional Information

Balance Theory:

  • The key notion of balance theory is that certain structures are balanced, whereas others are imbalanced. Balanced structures are usually preferred over imbalanced ones.
  • Imbalanced structures are associated with uncomfortable feelings, and this is what leads people to seek to achieve balance.
  • Heider suggested that ‘likes’ and ‘dislikes’ are related to balance and imbalance.
  • Humans search for consistency between their attitudes and relations with others to make the balance neutral.
  • However, if there is an inconsistency between relations and a perceived imbalance, humans tend to seek modifications to reach consistency and thus cognitive harmony of the situation again.
  • In this way, balance theory describes how humans are motivated to change their attitudes.

 

Hence, Fritz Heider proposed the Balance Theory of attitude formation

Question 65

‘Employee relations’ include which of the following?

(a) Organisation’s efforts to manage relationships between employer and employees.

(b) The programs to prevent and resolve problems arising from work situations.

(c) Relations between management and trade unions.

(d) Organisation’s structure of managing rapport between boss and staff.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (c)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a), (b) and (d)

  3. COption (c)

    (b) and (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (c) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a), (b) and (d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2)A-B-D

  • Organisation’s efforts to manage relationships between employer and employees.
  • (b) The programs to prevent and resolve problems arising from work situations.
  • (d) Organisation’s structure of managing rapport between boss and staff.

 Key Points

  • The main moto employee relation is to maintain a good relationship with its employees the result of this act will make employees more loyal to the organization.
  • in every organization, there are responsible people who are maintaining this relationship by proactively interacting with workers and management and thereby they ensure that there zero issues and workers are on the right path.
  • The purpose of employee relations is to determine the rules that will govern employment relations.
  • If there is proper maintenance of employee relations that will Leeds to mutual benefit for both the workers as well as employers.

Hence the correct answer is option A-B-D

  • Organisation’s efforts to manage relationships between employer and employees.
  • (b) The programs to prevent and resolve problems arising from work situations.
  • (d) Organisation’s structure of managing rapport between boss and staff.

Question 66

When an employee is willing to go above and beyond what is typically expected in his or her role, it is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Employee Empowerment

  2. BOption (b)

    Employee Engagement

  3. COption (c)

    Employee Enhancement

  4. DOption (d)

    Employee Encouragement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Employee Engagement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Employee Engagement. 

Organizational Citizenship Behaviour:

  • Organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) is a term used to describe employees who go above and beyond their formal job requirements to help their organization.
  • OCB goes beyond the scope of what is expected of an employee, such as volunteering for extra tasks, helping co-workers, being helpful to customers, and offering solutions to organizational problems.

Key PointsEmployee Engagement:

  • Employee engagement is the extent to which employees feel passionate about their jobs, are committed to the organization, and put discretionary effort into their work.
  • Employee engagement describes the level of enthusiasm and dedication a worker feels toward their job.
  • Employee engagement can be critical to a company's success, given its links to job satisfaction and employee morale.
  • An engaged employee is in it for more than a paycheck and may consider their well-being linked to their performance, and thus instrumental to their company's success.

Additional Information

  • Employee empowerment refers to the manner in which companies provide their employees with anything and everything they need to succeed.
  • Employee enhancement is when an  employ with the resources needed to do their job is better equipped to do the job and, thereby, better able to perform it job .
  • Employee encouragement or employee motivation is the level of energy, commitment, and creativity that a company's workers bring to their jobs.

Hence, when an employee is willing to go above and beyond what is typically expected in his or her role, it is known as Employee engagement.

Question 67

Indicate the correct code for the following types of decisions to be incorporated within financial decisions.

(a) Investment decisions

(b) Financing decisions

(c) Pricing decisions

(d) Profit distribution decisions

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  3. COption (c)

    (a), (b) and (d) only

  4. DOption (d)

     (b), (c) and (d) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a), (b) and (d) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a), (b), and (d) only. 

Financing Decisions:

  • The decisions that have to be taken with respect to the capital structure are known as Financing Decisions.
  • Decision-making helps to utilize the available resources for achieving the objectives of the organization, unless minimum financial performance levels are achieved, it is impossible for a business enterprise to survive over time.

Key Points

There are three financial decisions that financial managers have to take:

  1. Investment Decision
  2. Financing Decision and
  3. Dividend /Profit distribution Decision
  • Investment decision. is concerned with how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. An investment decision can be long-term or short-term.
  • Financing decision is concerned with the amount of finance to be raised from various long-term sources of funds like equity shares, preference shares, debentures, bank loans, etc. In other words, it is a decision on the ‘capital structure’ of the company.
  • Dividend decisions or Profit distribution decision is concerned with deciding how much of the profit earned by the company should be distributed among shareholders (dividend) and how much should be retained for future contingencies (retained earnings).

Additional Information

  • Pricing decisions are the choices businesses make when setting prices for their products or services.
  • Pricing is considered part of a company’s marketing strategy because it influences its relationship with customers: When prices are fair and competitive, customers  come back, increasing the profitability of the business .
  • Thus pricing decisions are irrelevant to financial decision-making but are concerned with marketing decision-making.

Hence the correct answer is (a), (b), and (d) only.

Question 68

Which one of the following represents ‘Penetrated market’?

  1. AOption (a)

    The part of the qualified available market the company decides to pursue.

  2. BOption (b)

    The set of consumers who are buying the company’s product.

  3. COption (c)

    The set of consumers who have interest, income, and access to a particular offer.

  4. DOption (d)

    The set of consumers with a sufficient level of interest in a market offer.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The set of consumers who are buying the company’s product.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The set of consumers who are buying the company’s product.

Market:

  • A market is a place where parties can gather to facilitate the exchange of goods and services.
  • The parties involved are usually buyers and sellers.
  • The market may be physical like a retail outlet, where people meet face-to-face, or virtual like an online market, where there is no direct physical contact between buyers and sellers.

Key Points

Penetrated Market: 

  • Penetrated market refers to the set of customers who are already buying or using a particular product or service.
  • In a penetrated market, users are aware of the product already and most of them are active users.
  • Markets that are not penetrated are called target markets, potential markets, or available markets.
  • If the penetrated market for a particular product is high, it means that the brand or the category is popular in that market.
  • The size of the penetrated market for a product gives an estimate of the amount of scope of increasing sales in the un-penetrated market and the size of the target market.
  • If the size of your penetrated market is small, it means that more investment should go into the strategy of marketing that particular product.

Additional Information

  • Potential Market: It is the total population in the market that is interested to buy a product and service
  • Available market: Within the potential market all those people with enough money to buy products and services.
  • Qualified Available Market: People in the available market who are permitted to buy the available products and services.
  • Target Market: It is the segment of the available market that a company is ready to serve it.

Hence, the set of consumers who are buying the company’s product represents Penetrated Market.

Question 69

Match the items of List - II with the items of List - I and suggest the correct code:

List-IList-II
(a)Style(i)That comes quickly into public view, are adopted with great zeal, peak early, and decline very fast.
(b)Fashion(ii)Basic and distinctive mode of expression appearing in a field of human endeavour.
(c)Fad(iii)Currently accepted or popular style in a given field.
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i). 

Key Points

  • Our standard product life cycle goes through the stages of introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.
  • However not all products follow the standard product life cycle and will have a very short life or stay in the maturity stage and not progress to the decline stage.
  • One group of products was divided into three categories by Philip Kotler: fashions, fads, and styles.

Important Points 

List IList II
(a)Style - Style is distinctive and lasts long. It is a mode of expression that shows several periods of renewed interest. For example Laptops, there might be better features available in laptops from time to time, but they would not fade away unless a completely different gadget with better features is introduced.(ii)Basic and distinctive mode of expression appearing in a field of human endeavour.
(b)Fashion - It tends to grow and remain popular for a while, before declining slowly, like bell bottoms. Fashion is considered ‘trendy’, and is a talking point for quite some time. For example, when iPhone came with multiple camera features, a lot of brands jumped in the same boat.(iii)Currently accepted or popular style in a given field.
(c)Fad - Fads are temporary periods of unusually high sales driven by consumer enthusiasm and immediate product or brand popularity. Kindle is an Amazon product and it was extremely in demand when it came out. But soon its demand moved down.(i)That comes quickly into public view, are adopted with great zeal, peak early, and decline very fast.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i).

Question 70

In which one of the following probability distributions, the mean value of the distribution is the sole parameter of the distribution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Normal distribution

  2. BOption (b)

    Binomial distribution

  3. COption (c)

    Exponential distribution

  4. DOption (d)

    Poisson distribution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Poisson distribution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Poisson Distribution. 

Probability distribution : 

  • Probability distribution yields the possible outcomes for any random event.
  • It is also defined based on the underlying sample space as a set of possible outcomes of any random experiment.
  • These settings could be a set of real numbers or a set of vectors or a set of any entities.

Key Points

Poisson distribution : 

  • The Poisson distribution is a discrete probability function that means the variable can only take specific values in a given list of numbers, probably infinite.
  • A Poisson distribution measures how many times an event is likely to occur within an “x” period of time.
  • In other words, we can define it as the probability distribution that results from the Poisson experiment.
  • A Poisson experiment is a statistical experiment that classifies the experiment into two categories, such as success or failure.
  • Poisson distribution is a limiting process of binomial distribution.

Important Points The formula for the Poisson distribution function is given by:

f(x) =(e– λ λx)/x!

Where,

  • e is the base of the logarithm
  • x is a Poisson random variable
  • λ is an average rate of value

Thus, in Poisson distribution, the mean value of the distribution (λ) is the sole parameter of the distribution. 

Additional Information Binomial distribution: 

  • The binomial distribution is a probability distribution in statistics that summarizes the likelihood that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters or assumptions.
  • The underlying assumptions of the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, that each trial has the same probability of success, and that each trial is mutually exclusive or independent of one other.

Normal Distribution: 

  • Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean.
  • In graphical form, the normal distribution appears as a "bell curve".

Exponential distribution:

  • The exponential distribution is a continuous probability distribution that often concerns the amount of time until some specific event happens.
  • It is a process in which events happen continuously and independently at a constant average rate.

 Hence,  in Poisson distribution, the mean value of the distribution (λ) is the sole parameter of the distribution.

Question 71

According to Weighted-factor Approach to strategic incentive management, if for any strategic business unit, return on assets is 25%, cash flow is 25%, strategic funds programs (developmental expenses) is 25% and market share increase is also 25%, then this will fall in which category?

  1. AOption (a)

    High Growth

  2. BOption (b)

    Medium Growth

  3. COption (c)

    Low Growth

  4. DOption (d)

    Very High Growth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Medium Growth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- Medium Growth

Key Points

  • When the division/ department of a big organization is managed by its own  (independently) with its own framed vision and objectives, then it called as Strategic Business Unit.
  • There is possibility of autonomous Planning and Functioning due to separation of business units.
  • There are some advantages of Strategic business unit, i.e. Quick Decision Making, Increase in Profits etc.
  • SBU's can be created in any circumstances with having unique target market .
  • Although SBU's operate independently, but it has to report to the headquarter of an organization directly and inform them about the current status of its working/ operation.
  • For Example: LG (LG company deals in Washing machines, Purifier ,A.c. and other home appliances). All these units formed different SBU's so that its profit as well expenses can be tracked easily.
  • Boston Consultancy Group Matrix studied all the SBU's of the company, as there are four cells which represent the size of strategic business unit, namely: Stars, Cash Cows, Question Mark, Dog.
  • There are mainly three categories of SBU: High Growth, Medium Growth and Low Growth. When the weight of:
  • Return on Assets is 25%
  • Cash Flow is 25%
  • Strategic Fund Program is 25%
  • Market Share Increase is 25%

Then it lies under the category of Medium Growth. Similarly, there are different weights assigned to High Growth and Low Growth SBU's.

So, as per Weighted factor Approach to strategic incentive management, if for any SBU , Return on assets is 25%, Cash flow is 25%, Strategic fund program is 25% and Market Share increase is also 25%, then this will fall under the Medium Growth category.

Additional Information

  • High Growth Category represents, Return on Asset with 10%, Cash flow 0%, Strategic fund program 45% and Market Share increase 45%.
  • Low Growth Category represents, Return on Asset with 50%, Cash flow 50%, Strategic fund program 0% and Market Share increase 0%.

Question 72

Match the items of List (II) with the items of List (I):

List-IList-II
(a)Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity.(i)Fransis A. Walker
(b)An entrepreneur is an organizer and coordinator of various factors of production.(ii)Peter F. Drucker
(c)An entrepreneur is one who always searches for change, responds to it, and exploits it as an opportunity.(iii)Joseph Schumpeter
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a)- (iii), (b)- (i), (c)- (ii)

Key Points

  • According to Joseph Schumpeter, an entrepreneur is an individual who introduces something new to the market/ economy. According to him, Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity.
  • Creative activity means, when an entrepreneur creates a link between raw material and production of products according to the need of society.
  • According to Fransis A. Walker, an entrepreneur refers to that individual who is engaged in organizing and coordinating the  activities and becomes pioneer of the industry. In other words, an individual who has above average abilities in the task of arranging/ coordinating the various aspects of production is referred to as an entrepreneur.
  • According to Peter F. Drucker, an entrepreneur refers to an individual who looks for change, reacts to it and seizes the opportunity it presents. Because of the reason that there are no resources until someone discovers a use for something and gives its economic value, entrepreneurs innovate and generate resources.

So, here we can say that column I which states that Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity is given by Joseph Schumpter. An Entrepreneur is an Organizer and coordinator of various factor of production is given by Fransis A. Walker. An entrepreneur is one who always searches for change respond to it and exploits it as an opportunity, this statement is given by Peter F. Drucker.

Question 73

Who among the following bridges the gap between inventors and managers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Investor

  2. BOption (b)

    Entrepreneur

  3. COption (c)

    Industrialist

  4. DOption (d)

    Intrapreneur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Intrapreneur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Intrapreneur

Key Points

  • Intrapreneur: An employee who is entrusted with creating an innovative idea with an organization is known as intrapreneur.
  • One of the main objective of intrapreneur is to strengthen the company's sustainability.
  • The tools and technical assistance provided to intrapreneur by the organization, are up to them to employ as they see fit. (without any restriction).
  • An insider entrepreneur serves as a link between creators/ inventors and managers.
  • An intrapreneur will continue to receive payment in the form of salary, even if the product does not reach to the production level, unlike entrepreneur who takes personal risk when a product does not generate revenue.

So, we can say that an intrapreneur refers to that individual who bridges the gap between inventors and managers.

Confusion Points 

  • Investor refers to that individual who puts/ invest 

his money into the business in order to get financial return.

  • An entrepreneur refers to that individual who establishes a firm with the intention of inventing particular goods/ services while being willing to take all sort of risks attached with it. Whereas investor is a person who provides capital to business for the anticipation of future gains.
  • An entrepreneur is a person who establishes his business with some new ideas. Whereas an employee of the organization who is in charge of implementing product and service innovations is known to be an intrapreneur.

Question 74

Which one among the following is not a true statement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Accountability and transparency is not visible in less developed countries.

  2. BOption (b)

    A disciplined and controlled corporate governance can considerably reduce financial turmoil.

  3. COption (c)

    A good corporate citizenship is a sort of national pride.

  4. DOption (d)

    A good corporate governance can considerably reduce corporate frauds.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Accountability and transparency is not visible in less developed countries.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- Accountability and transparency is not visible in less developed countries.

Key Points

  • Corporate Governance refers to the collection of rules, procedures, legislation etc. that influences how a corporation is governed.
  • Corporate Governance contributes to creating a kind of climate which encourages the long term investment and gives financial stability.
  • There are some factors that influence the Corporate Governance, such as: Ownership Structure (specifies the management and control of the organization), Company Board Structure (accountability on the part of BOD with regard to corporate objectives and policies), Financial Structure (tells about the proportion between debt and equity)
  • Accountability and transparency are equally important for both developed as well as developing countries.
  • Good Corporate Governance always ensures the transparency and provides accurate information to all stakeholders of the company, i.e. public, shareholders, government etc.
  • Good Corporate Governance helps to reduce the financial turmoil and corporate frauds due to its transparency function. So, it becomes a sort of pride for the nation.
  • Good Corporate Governance also encourages the effective decision making through its policies.

 

So, here we can say that the above stated first statement is false because it says that Accountability and Transparency is not visible in less developed countries. Whereas all other statements are true with regard to the good corporate governance.

Question 75

Statement (I): Employee leasing is a contractual arrangement in which the leasing company is called Professional Employer Organisation (PEO).

Statement (II): In employee leasing contract, the leasing company provides employees for non-specialised areas of work.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement (I) is incorrect but (II) is correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the statements are correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the statements are incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

Key Points 

  • Employee leasing is a partnership between a professional employer organisation (PEO) and a client business where the PEO serves as the employee's formal employer while the employee is employed by the client business.
  • This has the advantage of giving the client firm a worker that does daily activities for the business.
  • For insurance and tax purposes, the PEO acts as the "Employer of Record" (EOR), which effectively means that the PEO hires the person on behalf of the client business. So, we can say that statement (i) is correct.
  • Using an employee lease agreement, a firm can establish the terms and circumstances for "leasing out" or contracting out an employee's services.
  • Employers might be leased out by companies to cut administrative or benefits costs.
  • This arrangement may be regarded as a contract between the employer leasing the employee and the party using the employee's services. So, we can say that statement (ii) is incorrect.

Hence, with the help of above we can prove that Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

Question 76

In India, tripartite bodies of industrial relations began on the recommendations of which one of the following commissions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Law Commission of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Whitley Commission

  3. COption (c)

    National Statistical Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    Kothari Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Whitley Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Whitley Commission.

 Key Points

  • Tripartite bodies of Industrial relations: The government, the employees, and the employer are three parties in an industry that creates tripartite bodies to study and solve industrial disputes and other matters and reach out to the best for the industry.
  • According to the recommendation of the Whitley Commission, three parties are named labour advisory boards, the Indian labour conference and the standing labour conference,
  • These are formed to bring about better ways of understanding between parties with the advice of the government to prevent disputes.

 

 Additional Information

Law Commission of India: It's an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice, which comprises legal experts. Its primary duty is to promote legal reforms.

National Statistical Commission: This body was set up in 2005 on the recommendation of the Rangarajan Commission, as a mandate to develop statistical policies, priorities, and standards.

Kothari Commission: In 1964, on the recommendation of Dr D. S. Kothari, a comprehensive education policy was introduced on the general principles, and guidelines for the development of education at all stages and in all aspects.

Hence, the correct answer is  Whitley Commission.

Question 77

Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and select the correct matching.

List-IList-II
(a)Liquidity Risk(i)Refers to the chance that the firm will be unable to recover its dues from its debtors.
(b)Financial Risk(ii)Refers to the possibility of adverse effect on firm’s assets, liabilities and income due to movement of interest rates.
(c)Exchange Risk(iii)Refers to the firm’s inability to pay its dues towards creditors.
(d)Default Risk(iv)Refers to the inability of the firm to meet its financial obligations on time owing to non-availability of ready cash.
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Key Points

  • Risk is defined in financial terms as the chance that an outcome or investment's actual gains will differ from an expected outcome or return.
  • Risk includes the possibility of losing some or all of an original investment.

Additional Information

 Types of Risk:

  • Liquidity risk is the risk that a company or individual will not have enough cash to meet its financial obligations (pay its debts) on time.
  • Financial risk is the possibility of losing money on an investment or business venture.
  • Exchange risk is an unavoidable risk of foreign investment, but it can be mitigated considerably through hedging techniques.
  • Default risk is the risk that a lender takes on in the chance that a borrower will be unable to make the required payments on their debt obligation.

 

Hence the correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Question 78

The statements relate to International Financial Environment. Denote the code of the statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): Foreign exchange risk denotes the variance of domestic currency value of assets, liabilities, or operating income attributable to anticipated changes in exchange rates.

Statement (II): Foreign exchange exposures denote the sensitivity of the real value of assets, liabilities and operating income to unanticipated changes in exchange rates expressed in its functional currency.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct. 

Important Points

Foreign exchange risk:

  • It refers to the risk that a business's financial performance will be affected by changes in exchange rates between currencies. ​
  • Foreign exchange risk can be caused by appreciation/depreciation of the base currency, appreciation/depreciation of the foreign currency, or a combination of the two.
  • The risk occurs when a company engages in financial transactions or maintains financial statements in a currency other than where it is headquartered

 Foreign exchange exposures :

  • refers to the risk associated with the foreign exchange rates that change frequently and can have an adverse effect on the financial transactions denominated in some foreign currency rather than the domestic currency of the company.

Hence the correct answer is Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Question 79

Which among the following firms having foreign trade qualifies for financial assistance under the Market Development Assistance (MDA) Scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Having annual turnover upto ₹10 crore.

  2. BOption (b)

    Having annual turnover upto ₹20 crore.

  3. COption (c)

    Having annual turnover upto ₹25 crore.

  4. DOption (d)

    Having annual turnover upto ₹30 crore.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Having annual turnover upto ₹30 crore.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Having annual turnover upto ₹30 crore.

Important Points 

Marketing Development Assistance (MDA) Scheme: 

  • It is under operation through the Department of Commerce to support the under-mentioned activities:
  • Assist exporters with export promotion activities abroad
  • Assist Export Promotion Councils(EPCs) to undertake export promotion activities for their product(s) and commodities ;
  • Assist approved organization/trade bodies in undertaking exclusive nonrecurring innovative activities connected with export promotion efforts for their members ;
  • Assist Focus export promotion programs in specific regions abroad like FOCUS (LAC), Focus (Africa), Focus (CIS), and Focus (ASEAN +2) programs; and
  • Residual essential activities connected with marketing promotion efforts abroad.
  • Firms eligible for this assistance are :

(a) companies with turnover upto 30 crore rupees.

(b) Assistance would be permissible on travel expenses by air.

(c) The company shall not be under investigation, charged or blacklisted etc

Hence the correct answer is Having annual turnover upto ₹30 crore

Question 80

From the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) suggest the correct code:

Assertion (A): The equilibrium price is decided at the level where the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

Reason (R): At this level excess of demand and excess of supply both remain zero.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A).

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

  • Supply and demand are economic forces of the free market that control what suppliers are willing to produce and what consumers are willing and able to purchase.
  • The term supply refers to how much of a certain product, item, commodity, or service suppliers are willing to make available at a particular price.
  • Demand refers to how much of that product, item, commodity, or service consumers are willing and able to purchase at a particular price.

Key Points

  • The market attains equilibrium when the market supply and market demand of a commodity become equal.
  • The price at which the market attains equilibrium is termed the equilibrium price and the quantity supplied or demanded (essentially equal at the equilibrium) at this price is known as the equilibrium quantity.
  • Thus Assertion (A) is correct.
  • When the quantity demanded is more than the quantity supplied, a situation of excess demand is said to arise in the market. Excess demand occurs at a price less than the equilibrium price.
  • Excess supply is a market condition when the quantity supplied is greater than the demand for a commodity at the prevailing market price. It occurs at a price greater than the equilibrium price level.
  • At equilibrium, there is no excess demand or excess supply.
  • Thus the Reason (R) is also correct.
  • When the quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied, there is no excess demand or supply. This point is the point of equilibrium.
  • Thus R is the correct explanation of A.

Hence the correct answer is (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Question 81

Match the items of List II with the items of List I and indicate the code of correct matching.

List-IList-II
(a)Organisation Man(i)Maximising self interest
(b)Self-actualising Man(ii)Using capabilities to develop a sense of creating certain things.
(c)Complex Man(iii)Sacrificing individuality for the sake of group.
(d)Rational-Economic Man(iv)Understanding human needs may not be the final step in understanding human behaviour
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i). 

There are five important models of individual behavior, i.e, (1) Rational Economic Man, (2) Social Man, (3) Organizational Man, (4) The Self Actuating Man, and (5) Complex Man.

Key Points 

The correct form of match is as follows: 

List IList II
a) Organisation Man The concept of organization man was introduced by William Whyte. The basis of this concept is that every individual should sacrifice his individuality for the sake of the group and the organization.iii) Sacrificing individuality for the sake of group.
b) Self-actualising Man The self-actuating man assumes that his inherent need is to use his capabilities and skills in such a way that he should be satisfied with creating certain things.ii) Using capabilities to develop a sense of creating certain things.
c) Complex Man Complex man presents the real picture of human behavior. Research has indicated that there are many complex variables, which determine human behaviour. So human behaviour which is based on these variables cannot follow a set pattern.iv) Understanding human needs may not be the final step in understanding human behaviour
d) Rational-Economic Man From the organizational perspective, managers have, for a long time, viewed their employees as rational beings who are primarily motivated by money. Thus a rational-economic man is assumed to be irrational of emotions and focus only on maximizing self-interest.i) Maximising self-interest

 

Hence the correct answer is (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i).

Question 82

Attributes or benefits that consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Competitive points-of-parity

  2. BOption (b)

    Relational points-of-parity

  3. COption (c)

    Correlational points-of-parity

  4. DOption (d)

    Points-of-difference

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Points-of-difference

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Points-of-difference. 

Key Points Points-of-difference: 

  • Points-of-difference (PODs) are attributes or benefits that consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand.
  • Associations that makeup points of difference may be based on virtually any type of attribute or benefit.
  • Points of differentiation, also known as points of difference, are characteristics of a product or service that distinguish it from competitors.
  • These unique characteristics are incentives that can persuade consumers to choose your business or offering over others.
  • Some examples are Apple (design, ease of use, and irreverent attitude) and Nike (performance, innovative technology, and winning).

 Additional Information

Points of Parity: 

  • Points of parity can be leveraged as both a defensive or offensive maneuver against your competitor, and fall under one of three areas: Category, Correlational, and Competitive.
  • A category point of parity means that the brand offers necessary category features. A bank will not be suitable, for example, unless it offers adequate ATM service.
  • Competitive points-of-parity are associations designed to overcome the perceived weakness of the brand. A competitive point-of-parity may be required to either negate competitors’ perceived point of difference or negate a perceived vulnerability of the brand as a result of its own points of difference.
  • Correlational points-of-parity are potentially negative associations that arise from the existence of positive associations for the brand.

Hence, Attributes or benefits that consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand are known as Points-of-difference.

Question 83

The following are the two statements relating to the theory of probability. Indicate the statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): The probability of the joint occurrence of independent events A and B is equal to the probability of A multiplied by the probability of B or vice versa.

Statement (II): The probability of the joint occurrence of independent event A and dependent event B is equal to the probability of event A multiplied by the conditional probability of B when A has occurred or vice versa.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both the statements are correct.

Joint Probability:

  • A joint probability is a statistical measure where the likelihood of two events occurring together and at the same point in time are calculated.
  • Because joint probability is the probability of two events occurring at the same time, it can only be applied to situations where more than one observation can be made at the same time.
  • The probability of two events, A  and B, both occurring is expressed as P(A, B) or P(A∩B)

Key Points

  • Conditional probability is the probability of one event occurring, given that another event occurs.
  • The following expression describes the conditional probability of event A  given that event B  has occurred: P(A∣B)
  • Joint probability relationship for dependent P(A, B)=P(B∣A)×P(A).
  • The probability of the joint occurrence of independent events A and B is equal to the probability of A multiplied by the probability of B or vice versa.
  • Thus Statement I is correct.
  • Using the multiplication rule, you can calculate the probability that events A and B occur jointly when you know the probability of events A and event B occurring individually.
  • With independent events, the occurrence of event A does not affect the likelihood of event B.
  • Thus the joint probability for independent events is P(A ∩ B) = P(A) * P(B)
  • The joint probability of A and B occurring equals the probability of A occurring multiplied by the probability of B occurring.
  • Thus Statement II is also correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Both the statements are correct.

Question 84

Which one of the following possibilities leads to Type I error in hypothesis testing?

  1. AOption (a)

    The hypothesis is true but our test leads to its rejection.

  2. BOption (b)

    The hypothesis is false but our test leads to its acceptance.

  3. COption (c)

    The hypothesis is true and our test leads to its acceptance.

  4. DOption (d)

    The hypothesis is false and our test leads to its rejection. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The hypothesis is true but our test leads to its rejection.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the hypothesis is true but our test leads to its rejection.

Key PointsHypothesis testing: 

  • Hypothesis testing is a form of statistical inference that uses data from a sample to draw conclusions about a population parameter or a population probability distribution.
  • First, a tentative assumption is made about the parameter or distribution.
  • This assumption is called the null hypothesis and is denoted by H0.
  • An alternative hypothesis (denoted Ha), which is the opposite of what is stated in the null hypothesis, is then defined.
  • The hypothesis-testing procedure involves using sample data to determine whether or not H0 can be rejected.
  • If H0 is rejected, the statistical conclusion is that the alternative hypothesis Ha is true.

Important Points

  • Any decision made based on a hypothesis test may be incorrect.
  • In the framework of hypothesis tests there are two types of errors: Type I error and type II error.
  • A type I error occurs if a true null hypothesis is rejected (a “false positive”), while a type II error occurs if a false null hypothesis is not rejected (a “false negative”).
  • In other words, a type I error is detecting an effect that is not present, while a type II error is failing to detect an effect that is present.
  • Conducting a hypothesis test always implies that there is a chance of making an incorrect decision.
  • The probability of the type I error (a true null hypothesis is rejected) is commonly called the significance level of the hypothesis test and is denoted by α.
H0 is TrueH0 is false
RejectedType I errorCorrect decision
AcceptedCorrect decisionType II error
<br>

Hence, Type I Error in hypothesis testing occurs when the hypothesis is true but our test leads to its rejection.

Question 85

Match the items of List-II with the items of List-I and denote the code of correct matching:

List-IList-II
(a)Testing the goodness of fit of a distribution(i)Z-test
(b)Testing the significance of the differences among the average performance of more than two sample groups(ii)Chi-square test
(c)Testing the significance of the difference between the average performance of two sample groups (Large-sized)(iii)F-test
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i). 

Key Points

Statistical tests: 

  • Statistical tests are used in hypothesis testing.
  • They can be used to:
  1. determine whether a predictor variable has a statistically significant relationship with an outcome variable.
  2. estimate the difference between two or more groups.
  • Statistical tests assume a null hypothesis of no relationship or no difference between groups.
  • Then they determine whether the observed data fall outside of the range of values predicted by the null hypothesis.

 

Important Points The correct match is as follows: 

List-IList-II
(a)Testing the goodness of fit of a distribution - The goodness of fit test  determines if a sample matches the population(ii)Chi-square test- 
A chi-square fit test for two independent variables: is used to compare two variables in a contingency table to check if the data fits
(b)Testing the significance of the differences among the average performance of more than two sample groups-  The F-test is used by a researcher in order to carry out the test for the equality of the two population variances.(iii)F-test -  If a researcher wants to test whether or not two independent samples have been drawn from a normal population with the same variability, then he generally employs the F-test.
(c)Testing the significance of the difference between the average performance of two sample groups (Large-sized) - A z-score is calculated with population parameters such as the population means and population standard deviation.(i)Z test - We use this test to validate a hypothesis that states the sample belongs to the same population. It is used for large-sized populations.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i).

Question 86

Which one among the following is not a factor external to an entrepreneur?

  1. AOption (a)

    Machinery on hire purchase

  2. BOption (b)

    Accommodation in industrial estates

  3. COption (c)

    Financial assistance from non-government sources

  4. DOption (d)

    Business experience in the same or related line

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Business experience in the same or related line

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Business experience in the same or related line.

Key Points

  • Entrepreneur refers to an individual who searches for change, exploit (make use of) opportunities and ready to take the risk for his/ her business/ organization.
  • There are many types of Entrepreneurs, such as:
  • Pure Entrepreneur
  • Drone Entrepreneur
  • Fabian Entrepreneur
  • Social Entrepreneur
  • Industrial Entrepreneur
  • Cognitive Entrepreneur etc.
  • There are some factors which affects the motivation level of an individual, namely: Internal and External Factors.
  • Internal factors are those that are internally connected with an individual's personality. It includes:
  • Educational Background of an individual
  • Field Experience
  • Be Recognized
  • Become Independent etc.
  • External factors are those which are out of control or not under the control of an individual. Such as:
  • Availability of Labour
  • Accommodation in Industrial estates
  • Government assistance
  • Availability of Raw Material etc.

So, we can say that Machinery on hire purchase, Accommodation in Industrial Estates and Financial Assistance from non- governmental sources all comes under the category of external factors except Business Experience in same/ related field.

Question 87

Match the items of List-(II) with those of List-(I); and choose the correct code of combination:

List-IList-II
(a)Procedural Justice(i)Justice to a particular community which has been suffering in the past from injustice.
(b)Commutative Justice(ii)Treat equal people equally and unequal people unequally.
(c)Communitarian Justice(iii)Justice is ensured at the beginning and all people are treated equally.
(d)Distributive Justice(iv)Actions performed complying to the law.
<br>

Codes:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Key Points People acting in a way that is fair, equal, and balanced for everyone is referred to as justice, which is an ethical and legal concept.

 

List IList IIImportant Terms
(a) Procedural Justice(iv)Actions performed complying to the law.- The focus of procedural justice is on how the public is interacted with by the police and other legal agencies. - Fair procedures and practises are the goal of procedural justice. - It includes the actions performed in order to comply with the law.
(b) Commutative Justice(iii)Justice is ensured at the beginning and all people are treated equally.- Commutative justice relates to what is owed between individuals, such as while doing business transactions. - In this case, justice is established right away, and everyone is treated fairly.
(c) Communitarian Justice(i) Justice to a particular community which has been suffering in the past from injustice.- Incorporating justice for the community is referred to as communitarian justice. - It refers of bringing justice to a specific community that has endured injustice in the past.
(d) Distributive Justice(ii) Treat equal people equally and unequal people unequally.- The term "distributive justice" refers to how people view what they receive or how they believe an allocation to be fair. - It includes treating equal people equally and unequal people unequally. - It is founded on socialism, where equality is the guiding principle.

 

Hence, the correct answer is  (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Question 88

The following statements relate to the functions of the marketing channel members. Indicate the statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): Channel members do not gather information about potential and current customers, competitors and other actors and forces in the marketing environment.

Statement (II): Channel members acquire the funds to finance inventories at different levels in the marketing channel.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Key Points

  • Channel members are people who participate in the supply of goods or services to consumers.
  • The two distinct types of channels are business-to-business (B2B) and business-to-consumer (B2C).
  • Business to business (B2B) channels are used to transact business-to-business (B2B) sales of goods or services.
  • Business to Consumer (B2C) describes the process of selling goods and services directly between a company and the customers who will ultimately use those goods or services.

 

Important Points Statement (I): Channel members do not gather information about potential and current customers, competitors and other actors and forces in the marketing environment.

  • The basic motive of channel members is to offer products or services to the customers, to gather information about the potential and current customers, competitors and all the other forces working in the marketing environment.
  • So, this statement goes wrong.

 

Statement (II): Channel members acquire the funds to finance inventories at different levels in the marketing channel.

  • Channel members perform various functions such as, risk-taking, financing, physical distribution of goods, inventory management, promotions, information, acquiring finance, purchasing and selling inventories using channels of distribution.
  • So, this statement is absolutely correct.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

Question 89

Indicate the correct code from the following that does not represent the Profitability Index for an investment proposal of a firm:

(a) Average annual net income earned divided by the investment

(b) Equating annual net cash inflows to investment

(c) Ratio of present value of future cash inflows to investment making it equal to zero

(d) Ratio of present value of future cash inflows to present cash outflows

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) and (c) only

  3. COption (c)

    (b) and (d) only 

  4. DOption (d)

    (a), (b) and (d) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a), (b) and (c) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a), (b), and (c) only. 

Key Points

  • A profitability index is a financial tool that tells us whether an investment should be accepted or rejected.
  • It uses the time value concept of money.
  • The profitability index helps in ranking investments and deciding the best investment that should be made.
  • PI greater than one indicates that the present value of future cash inflows from the investment is more than the initial investment, thereby indicating that it will earn profits.
  • PI of less than one indicates a loss from the investment. PI equal to one means that there are no profits.
  • The formula for the profitability index is as follows:

Profitability Index= Present value of future cash inflows ÷ Present value of cash outflows

Decision criteria under Profitability Index:

  • If PI is greater than 1, accept the investment.
  • If PI is less than 1, reject the investment.
  • If PI = 1, then indifferent (may accept or reject the decision)

In the above statements only statement d ie. The ratio of the present value of future cash inflows to present cash outflows is related to Profitability Index and all other statements are irrelevant to the profitability index. 

Hence, the correct answer is (a), (b), and (c) only.

Question 90

Which one of the following is an element of motivation according to Vroom’s Vector Valence theory?

  1. AOption (a)

    Involvement

  2. BOption (b)

    Equity

  3. COption (c)

    Instrumentality

  4. DOption (d)

    Existence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Instrumentality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Instrumentality.

Vroom’s expectancy theory also known as Vector Valence theory assumes that behavior results from conscious choices among alternatives whose purpose is to maximize pleasure and minimize pain.

Key Points

  • Vroom realized that an employee’s performance is based on individual factors such as personality, skills, knowledge, experience, and abilities.
  • He stated that effort, performance, and motivation are linked in a person’s motivation.
  • He uses the variables Expectancy, Instrumentality, and Valence to account for this.
  • Instrumentality: The perception of employees as to whether they will actually get what they desire even if it has been promised by a manager. Management must ensure that promises of rewards are fulfilled and that employees are aware of that.

Additional Information

  • Involvement or employee involvement can be defined as creating an environment in which an employee participates more in the day-to-day decision-making which leads to a better relationship with the manager.
  • Employment equity is a policy whereby staff will represent all segments of the population, including women, visible minorities, Aboriginal people, and persons with mental and physical challenges.
  • Existence is the ability of an entity to interact with reality. In philosophy, it refers to the ontological property of being.

Hence, instrumentality is an element of motivation according to Vroom’s Vector Valence theory and the other options Involvement, Equity and Existence are not elements of motivation as per Vroom's Vector Valence Theory.

Question 91

When employees work longer days in exchange for longer weekends or other days off, it is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Flexy time

  2. BOption (b)

    Job sharing

  3. COption (c)

    Compressed work week

  4. DOption (d)

    Extended timing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Compressed work week

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Compressed work week

 Key Points

  • In a Compressed work schedule, the employee works longer days in exchange for long weekends.
  • By considering an example when a full-time employee works four 12 hours days instead of six 8 hours days.
  • This method is more suitable for weekly paid employees.

Important Points

  • As a result of sacrificing extra hours in a day, they get an additional day to their account which will lead to good motivation among the employees.

Advantages of the compressed workweek

  • employees getting additional time spending family
  • Personal responsibility can be managed by utilizing the compressed workweek method
  • Giving an option to employees to manage their critical personal issues without losing their total work hours

Hence the correct answer is Compressed work week

Question 92

Which of the following statements relating to Correlation and Regression are true?

(a) The Coefficient of Correlation is independent of change of origin and scale.

(b) The Coefficient of Correlation between the two variables is the arithmetic average of the two Regression Coefficients.

(c) The probable error of the Coefficient Correlation is 0.6745 times its standard error.

(d) Coefficient of Correlation multiplied by the ratio between the standard deviations of the two variables denotes the slope of the regression line.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a), (c) and (d)

  3. COption (c)

    (b) and (d)

  4. DOption (d)

    (b), (c) and (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a), (c) and (d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (a), (c) and (d). 

Key PointsCorrelation Coefficient: 

  • The correlation Coefficient is a statistical concept, which helps in establishing a relation between predicted and actual values obtained in a statistical experiment.
  • The calculated value of the correlation coefficient explains the exactness between the predicted and actual values.
  • The correlation coefficient value always lies between -1 to +1.
  • If the correlation coefficient value is positive, then there is a similar and identical relation between the two variables.
  • Else it indicates the dissimilarity between the two variables.

Important PointsMain properties of Coefficient of correlation:

  • In case the correlation is present, then the coefficient of correlation would lie between ±1. If the correlation is absent, then it is denoted by zero or -1 ≤ r ≤ +1.
  • The coefficient of correlation is based on a suitable measure of variation as it takes into account all items of the variable.
  • Coefficient of correlation measures both the direction as well as the degree of change
  • It is independent of changes in scale and origin of the variables X and Y.
  • The coefficient of correlation is a geometric mean of two regression coefficients.
  • The coefficient of correlation is independent of the unit of measurement
  • The coefficient of correlation works both ways i.e., rxy = ryx
  • The probable error of the Coefficient Correlation is 0.6745 times its standard error.
  • The coefficient of Correlation multiplied by the ratio between the standard deviations of the two variables denotes the slope of the regression line.

Hence, options a, c, and d are true statements relating to Correlation and Regression.

Question 93

Assertion (A): When an industrial unit falls sick, those who depend on it have to face an uncertain future.

Reasoning (R): The sick units continue to operate below the break-even point and are, thus, forced to depend on external sources for funds of their long-term survival.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (R) both are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is**- Both (A) and (R) are correct; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).**

Key Points

  • A sick industrial unit is one which has more accumulated losses as compare to its entire net worth.
  • There are two types of Sickness, namely: Actual Sickness and Potential Sickness.
  • Actual Sickness : When the net worth of 50% or more than it being closed during the preceding six months or a year is said to actual sickness.
  • Potential Sickness: When utilization of capacity is less than 50% during the last five years then it is said to be potential sickness.
  • When an industrial unit falls under the category of sickness, then those who depend on it also have to face the future with uncertainty.
  • There are certain sign of Sickness, such as:
  • Turnover of key personnel
  • Downward sales
  • Fluctuation on Profits
  • Larger outstanding of bills accounts
  • Contraction in Market Share etc.
  • The sick industrial units are forced to depend on some external sources of finance in order to survive for long term.
  • External Sources of Finance include: Bank loan, Shares, Debentures, Mortgage etc.

So, here Assertion is true, which says that : When an industrial unit falls sick then those who depend on that particular unit also have to face an uncertain future and the Reason states that the sick units continue to operate below the BEP (Break Even Point), thus forced to depend on some external sources for funds of their long term survival is also correct, but Reason is not correct the explanation of assertion.

Additional Information

  • Break Even point refers to that situation in which the company is neither making any profit nor facing any loss, which means total sales is equal to total revenue.
  • Below the Break Even Point situation depicts that the company is operating at loss.

Question 94

In which of the following, the payment of bonus is linked to performance of specific employees or group of employees?

(a) Profit sharing

(b) Gain sharing plans

(c) Social system plans

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) only 

  2. BOption (b)

    (b) only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both (a) and (b)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a), (b) and (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b) only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Gain sharing plans

 Key Points

  • In Gain sharing the payment of bonus is linked to the performance of employees
  • The organization aims to enhance the performance of employees through involvement and participation. the result of performance improvement they get the financial benefit.
  • By comparing actual performance with the standard performance the gain is calculated.
  • The gain sharing happens on a different periodic interval based on each period result.

Advantages of gain-sharing plans

  • Enhances the sense of belongingness and morale of the workers towards the organization
  • Motivating the employees to achieve greater
  • Increase the level of involvement
  • Self-motivating monitory benefit leads to a higher level of performance

Hence the correct answer is gain sharing plan

Question 95

Which one of the following is not a factor that reduces price sensitivity of a product?

  1. AOption (a)

    The product is more distinctive.

  2. BOption (b)

    Buyers are fully aware of substitutes.

  3. COption (c)

    Buyers cannot store the product.

  4. DOption (d)

    The product is assumed to have more quality, prestige, or exclusiveness.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Buyers are fully aware of substitutes.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Buyers are fully aware of substitutes.

  • Price sensitivity is the degree to which demand changes when the cost of a product or service changes.
  • Price sensitivity is commonly measured using the price elasticity of demand, which states that some consumers won't pay more if a lower-priced option is available.

Key Points

  • Price sensitivity is a measure that shows how different prices for products or services influence consumers’ purchasing behaviors.
  • Simply put, it indicates how product demands change with an increase or decrease in a product price.
  • It helps companies determine how product alterations will affect their sales volume and uncover possible revenue by maximizing their price band.

Important Points

  • Customers appear to care less and less about the price of a product or service if they get the perception; it also delivers higher quality or prestige in return.
  • When goods are perishable, the products tend to be less sensitive, and essential product's demand does not change due to price changes.
  • When products are distinctive and do not have any close substitutes, the price sensitivity is less.
  • However, when the buyers are fully aware of substitutes, the price sensitivity is higher and buyers tend to switch their preference based on the change in prices.

Hence, Buyers are fully aware of substitutes is not a factor that reduces the price sensitivity of a product.

Question 96

Which of the following is a benchmarking tool to measure performance along the logistics supply chain among countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Logistics Preparedness Index

  2. BOption (b)

    Supply Chain Performance Index

  3. COption (c)

    Logistics Performance Index

  4. DOption (d)

    Supply Chain Preparedness Index

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Logistics Performance Index

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Logistics Performance Index

Key Points

  • Logistics: It is an act of collecting resources, storing them, and moving the resources to the desired destination.

Important Points

  • Logistics Performance Index: It is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance.
  • It is the weighted average of the country's rankings on six important criteria, including the efficiency of customs, the quality of the infrastructure, the simplicity of setting up shipments, the effectiveness of logistical services, and the timeliness of shipments.
  • based on a global survey of international freight forwarders and express carriers, The World Bank's Logistics Performance Index (LPI), is a benchmarking tool created by the Washington-based organisation that evaluates performance along the logistics supply chain inside a nation.

 Hence the correct answer is  Logistics Performance Index

Question 97

Which one of the following attributes of advertising regarding launching of a new product calls for spending all the advertising budget in a single period?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pulsing

  2. BOption (b)

    Continuity

  3. COption (c)

    Concentration

  4. DOption (d)

    Flighting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Concentration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Concentration

Key Points

  • CONCENTRATION: A concentration approach is a marketing tactic that entails concentrating on only one societal group.
  • If a company employs these tactics, it concentrates on market penetration, market development and product creation to expand and succeed in a sector.
  • As far as concentration strategy in advertising is concerned, it focuses mainly on one aspect that is, ADVERTISING.
  • In this strategy, rather than dividing the advertising budget among many years, the whole advertising budget is spent in the single period so that the entire focus can only be on advertising of the products.

Hence, the correct answer is Concentration.

 

Additional Information

  • PULSING: It is a strategy that involves perpetually advertising a product while increasing it at particular times of the year and reducing it at others: Seasonal products like sunscreen is the finest for pulsing.
  • FLIGHTING: A scheduling technique called "flighting" alternates between running a regular schedule of advertisements and stopping all runs entirely.
  • Flighting is the term for the time when advertisements are running, whereas a hiatus is the term for the time when they stop.
  • CONTINUITY: A way of offering consumers products or services that focuses on direct marketing and lasts forever is known as continuity marketing.

Question 98

Select the correct code of the Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R):

Assertion (A): Companies should measure the profitability of their products, territories, customer groups, segments, trade channels and order sizes.

Reasoning (R): Measure of profitability helps companies determine whether to expand, reduce, or eliminate any product or marketing activities to ensure profitability control.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

 Key Points

Assertion (A): Companies should measure the profitability of their products, territories, customer groups, segments, trade channels and order sizes.

  • A company's profitability position is the only reason for its existence.
  • For the purpose of understanding the company's financial status, profitability is periodically measured.
  • A business evaluates the profitability of its goods, clients, market segmentation, order sizes, distribution routes etc.

So, the Assertion is absolutely correct.

Reasoning (R): Measure of profitability helps companies determine whether to expand, reduce, or eliminate any product or marketing activities to ensure profitability control.

  • Profitability of every segment of the company must be measured so that any discrepancies can be deleted, if found.
  • This measure of profitability helps a company to decide whether to expand, reduce, diversify or eliminate any product.
  • Companies determine their competitive position within an industry using this profitability assessment.

So, the Reason is correct here.

Hence, the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Question 99

Assertion (A): One of the trends to build a sustainable competitive advantage are innovations and innovations management.

Reasoning (R): Human Resource Management has to be able to connect innovations with the traditional change management to design a true powerful weapon against competitors in the market.

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    (R) is correct but (A) is incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Important Points

Assertion (A): One of the trends to build a sustainable competitive advantage are innovations and innovations management.

  • To build a sustainable competitive advantage, it is important for Human resource management to be able to connect innovations with traditional change management to win over the market competitors.

Hence, the assertion is correct.

Reasoning (R): Human Resource Management has to be able to connect innovations with traditional change management to design a truly powerful weapon against competitors in the market.

  • Sustainable Competitive Advantage: The term sustainable competitive advantage refers to a company that is able to fulfill the needs of customers better than its competitors over a longer period of time.
  • With better profit margins, greater sales, and sustainable growth, the company is able to achieve more target customers than its competitors in the market. E.g. Coca-cola.

Hence, the Reason is correct 

Additional Information

  • Human Resource management plays a vital role in maintaining sustainable competitive advantage in the market through effective management of teams and individuals in an organization.
  • Implementing inventive ideas, new methods, worldwide technologies, and effective resource persons are necessary to meet the evolving needs of the company and in order to be more competitive.

Hence, the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

Question 100

Which one of the following is an example of ‘Real needs’ of a customer?

  1. AOption (a)

    The customer wants an inexpensive mobile phone.

  2. BOption (b)

    The customer wants a car whose operating cost, not initial price, is low.

  3. COption (c)

    The customer expects good service from the dealer.

  4. DOption (d)

    The customer wants friends to see him as a savvy consumer.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The customer wants a car whose operating cost, not initial price, is low.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  The customer wants a car whose operating cost, not the initial price, is low.

Additional InformationIn a consumer market, it is necessary to understand the three important things of your target customers. These are:

  1. Needs: Need is something that is essential to life. It varies according to different situations. 

  E.g. The customer wants a car with a low operating cost, not an initial price, which is low. It's a genuine need of the customer.

  1. Wants: Something which is not essential but gives satisfaction to the customer. Eg. The customer expects good service from the dealer.
  2. Demands: Something that you want to and are able to pay for. 

E.g. Buying a Mercedes car.

Hence, the correct answer is "The customer wants a car whose operating cost, not initial price, is low".

100 questions in the full paper