Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Management 29 Oct 2022 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

100 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

According to the Economic Times study, which one of the following is India's best company to work for in 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Blue Dart Express Limited

  2. BOption (b)

    DHL Express India Private Limited

  3. COption (c)

    NTPC Limited.

  4. DOption (d)

    Max Life Insurance Company Limited

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

DHL Express India Private Limited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is DHL Express India Private Limited. 

  • The Economic Times is an Indian English-language business-focused daily newspaper. It is owned by The Times Group.
  • The Economic Times began publication in 1961.
  • As of 2012, it is the world's second-most widely read English-language business newspaper, after The Wall Street Journal, with a readership of over 800,000.

Important PointsIndia's Best Company to work for in 2021 according to Economic Times Study:

RankOrganization NameNumber of EmployeesIndustry
1DHL Express India Private Limited2916Transportation
2Mahindra & Mahindra Automotive & Farm Equipment Sectors21837Manufacturing & Production
3Intuit India1050Information Technology
4Aye Finance P Limited3471Financial Services & Insurance
5Synchrony International Services Private Limited4027Financial Services & Insurance

 

Hence, According to the Economic Times study, DHL Express India Private Limited is India's best company to work for in 2021.

Question 2

Which one of the following is the most significant factor according to the Dunlop Model of Industrial Relations?

  1. AOption (a)

    External forces

  2. BOption (b)

    Management

  3. COption (c)

    Labour

  4. DOption (d)

    Government

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

External forces

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is External forces.

Key PointsDunlop theory of industrial relations:

  • The Dunlop theory of industrial relations states that the industrial system is comprised of three distinct parts: management organizations, workers, and government agencies.
  • These three entities cannot act completely independently of each other, but instead are intertwined, and the power each one holds is relative to its position within the market and political environment.
  • The theory was created by sociologist John Dunlop in 1958.
  • Dunlop’s theory basically states that the industrial relations system is really a social subsystem, and its actions are dependent on three factors: technology, the economy, and the distribution of political power.
  • All three of these environmental factors and the rules that are derived from them are what determine the relationship between employers and workers in the industrial context.

Important Points

  • This theory differs from the prevailing ideologies of the time, which mostly considered employers, workers, and the government as separate, autonomous agencies with separate and independent powers and processes.
  • By contrast, Dunlop’s theory paints the entire industrial relationship as a complex system with interconnected parts that cannot operate independently of each other.
  • Dunlop placed a lot of emphasis on external or environmental forces shaping the roles of each of the three principal parts.
  • Management, the labor force, and technology all coexist within the broader context of society and are governed by legal, political, social, and economic forces.

Additional Information 

Dunlop model considers the external factors that impact employment relationships. These external forces are commonly referred to as the environmental factors in the Dunlop model. These factors include economic, technological, political, legal, and social influences that shape and affect the employment relationship. They play a significant role in shaping the dynamics of industrial relations. Here's a breakdown of these external factors:

Economic forces: Economic factors include conditions such as economic growth, inflation, unemployment rates, and productivity levels. These factors influence the availability of jobs, wage levels, and the overall bargaining power of both employers and employees.

Technological forces: Technological advancements can have a profound impact on employment relationships. Changes in technology can lead to shifts in job requirements, skill demands, and the organization of work. Automation and digitalization, for example, can affect job security and employment opportunities.

Political forces: Political factors encompass government policies, laws, and regulations related to labor and employment. They include legislation on labor rights, minimum wage laws, workplace safety regulations, and labor market regulations. Political forces can shape the legal framework within which employment relationships operate.

Legal forces: Legal factors refer to the laws and regulations that govern employment relationships. This includes employment contracts, collective bargaining laws, anti-discrimination laws, and regulations related to working hours, overtime, and benefits. Legal forces provide the framework for the rights and obligations of both employers and employees.

Social forces: Social factors encompass societal attitudes, values, and social norms that influence employment relationships. This includes aspects such as cultural expectations around work, gender roles, diversity and inclusion, and the perception of fairness and equity in the workplace.

Hence, external forces are the most significant factor according to the Dunlop Model of Industrial Relations.

Question 3

Which one of the following is not an intramural function of trade unions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hike in wages

  2. BOption (b)

    Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties

  3. COption (c)

    Job security

  4. DOption (d)

    Providing more benefits

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties.

Trade Union - Definition:

“A trade union is a combination of persons. Whether temporary or permanent, primarily for the purpose of regulating the relations between workers and employers or between workers for imposing restrictive conditions on the conduct of any trade or business and includes the federations of two or more trade unions as per Sec. 2 (6) Trade Unions Act, 1926.

“A Trade Union is an organization of workers, acting collectively, who seek to protect and promote their mutual interests through collective bargaining”.

Key Points

Intra-Mural functions:

  • These functions are also termed militant functions because unions may resort to strikes & other pressure tactics to implement their demands.
  • The intramural function includes wage rise, proper working conditions, sanitation, safety, continuity in employment & so on.
  • The union tries to resolve its issues through collective bargaining.
  • Discussions and meetings do not help resolve union-wise strikes and other pressures as tools in getting these demands accepted.
  • Intramural refers to welfare schemes & activities within the framework of factory premises (safety, secure working environment, minimum wages, minimum working hours, and leave with wages)

Extramural functions:

  • Trade unions in HRM also undertake tasks that are required for the welfare of their members.
  • These functions include providing educational, recreational, and housing facilities.
  • The unions raise funds through subscriptions from members and spend them for the welfare of workers.
  • In case of untimely death, unions provide financial help to the deceased family members.
  • Extramural functions are essential as they inculcate the spirit of cooperation among members.
  • Extramural refers to the welfare schemes outside the factory premises (medical assistance, health care, education etc.)
  • Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties is an extramural function of trade unions.

Additional Information Trade unions, as organizations representing workers' interests, perform various intramural functions within their own structures to effectively advocate for and protect workers' rights. These intramural functions include:

Organizing and recruitment: Trade unions engage in organizing efforts to increase their membership base and strengthen their collective bargaining power. This involves reaching out to workers, explaining the benefits of union membership, and facilitating the enrollment process.

Collective bargaining: Trade unions negotiate collective agreements with employers on behalf of their members. This process involves discussing and bargaining for terms and conditions of employment, such as wages, benefits, working hours, and workplace policies. Trade unions aim to secure favorable agreements that safeguard workers' interests.

Grievance handling: Trade unions provide assistance and representation to workers in resolving individual or collective grievances. They support members in addressing workplace conflicts, disputes, or violations of labor rights. This includes filing grievances, representing workers in disciplinary proceedings, and seeking resolutions through negotiation or mediation.

Workplace representation: Trade unions act as the voice of workers within the workplace. They represent employees in discussions with management on matters related to employment conditions, workplace policies, health and safety, and other relevant issues. Unions serve as a platform for workers to express their concerns collectively and influence decision-making processes.

Member services: Trade unions offer various services to their members to support their well-being and development. These services may include legal assistance, educational and training programs, financial support, access to healthcare benefits, and career development resources. Trade unions strive to enhance the overall welfare and quality of life for their members.

Internal democracy: Trade unions practice internal democracy, allowing members to participate in decision-making processes. They hold regular meetings, elect representatives, and provide opportunities for members to voice their opinions and contribute to union strategies and policies. This fosters transparency, inclusivity, and accountability within the union.

Education and awareness: Trade unions provide educational resources and training programs to inform members about their rights, labor laws, and collective bargaining processes. They raise awareness about workplace issues, workers' rights, and social justice concerns. This empowers members to become more informed and active participants in their workplaces and communities.

Hence, the Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties is not an intramural function of trade unions.

Question 4

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of MBO as a performance appraisal tool?

  1. AOption (a)

    Difficult to develop

  2. BOption (b)

    Time-consuming

  3. COption (c)

    Difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another

  4. DOption (d)

    Can cause disagreements among employees

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Time-consuming

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is time-consuming.

Management by Objectives (MBO):

  • Management by Objectives (MBO), is a result-oriented, goal-setting management model that focuses on collaborative goal-setting between managers and employees.
  • It is also known as Management by Results, Goal Management, and Management by Planning.
  • With an emphasis on clear communication and a unified commitment to organizational objectives, the MBO technique measures employee performance against mutually determined goals, standards, and expectations.
  • The MBO style, which is based on management guru Peter Drucker’s 1954 book, The Practice of Management, is a full-scale organizational operational model that involves all employees in the goal-setting process.
  • The belief is that when individuals can pinpoint their contributions toward corporate goals they helped define, they are often more inclined to perform related tasks and duties.

Important Points Disadvantages of MBO:

  • Unanimous support from all levels of the organization is required: The success of Management by Objectives hinges on senior management’s complete support and acceptance. Many underlying issues may stall the process of unifying the goals of the ‘unequal’s,’ i.e. management and junior to mid-level employees. Cross-functional support is essential to overcome them.
  • Time-consuming: Integrating MBO is an investment that requires a concerted commitment to be beneficial. Additional time to define goals and evaluation processes is necessary, requiring meetings and paperwork that can infringe on daily work.
  • Some aspects are difficult to quantify: The emphasis on measuring everything that can be measured ignores non-measurable factors like teamwork, company culture, and other interpersonal activities. That could lead to those factors being devalued and less practiced. The extreme focus on numbers and metrics could have an anxiety-inducing impact on employees who feel they have to be ‘always on’ and performing optimally.
  • Emphasis on short-term goals: Goals are usually set based on six to 12-month intervals, which often means long-term objectives aren’t treated with the same level of importance. With this being the case, it’s possible to lose sight of and direction of overarching long-term goals.
  • Inflexibility: Fixation of particular goals could cause stakeholders to miss signs that the revision of a goal may be necessary or beneficial.
  • Potential gaps in management’s skillset: MBO, though deep-rooted in collaboration, rests heavily on the shoulders of leadership to create a sense of direction. If a manager lacks the skills, the potential benefits of the Management by Objectives model will not be realized.
  • Integration issues – Limited application: Seamless integration into an existing management system is unlikely, and businesses should be aware of this before attempting to do so.

Additional Information 

MBO has several advantages as a performance management system:

Goal alignment: MBO ensures that individual employee goals are aligned with the broader organizational goals. This helps create a sense of purpose and direction, as employees understand how their work contributes to the overall success of the organization. It promotes a shared vision and fosters a sense of ownership and accountability.

Clarity and focus: MBO provides clarity and focus by setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) objectives. This clarity helps employees understand what is expected of them and what they need to accomplish within a given timeframe. Clear objectives enhance performance by providing a roadmap for success.

Performance measurement: MBO establishes a framework for measuring and evaluating performance. By setting specific objectives, progress can be tracked and measured against predetermined targets. This allows for objective and data-driven performance evaluations, providing a basis for feedback, recognition, and rewards.

Employee involvement and empowerment: MBO encourages employees to actively participate in goal-setting and planning processes. Employees are involved in defining their own objectives and determining the action plans to achieve them. This involvement enhances employee engagement, motivation, and commitment to achieving their goals.

Improved communication: MBO promotes regular communication between managers and employees. Managers provide feedback, guidance, and support to employees throughout the goal-setting and performance evaluation process. Effective communication enhances understanding, collaboration, and problem-solving, leading to improved performance outcomes.

Development and growth: MBO provides opportunities for employee development and growth. By setting challenging yet achievable objectives, employees are motivated to enhance their skills, knowledge, and capabilities. MBO supports continuous learning and development as employees strive to improve their performance and achieve their goals.

Hence, Time-consuming is one of the disadvantages of MBO as a performance appraisal tool.

Question 5

Marston company sells a single product at a price of Rs.50 per unit, its fixed costs total Rs.15,000 and variable costs amount to Rs. 20 per unit. If management reduces the sales price of this product by Rs. 5 per unit, the sales volume needed for the company to break even will:

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase by Rs. 5,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Increase by Rs. 4,500

  3. COption (c)

    Increase by Rs. 2,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Remain unchanged

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increase by Rs. 2,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Increase by Rs. 2,000.

Break-even Point:

  • Break-even point (BEP) is a term in accounting that refers to the situation where a company’s revenues and expenses were equal within a specific accounting period.
  • It means that there were no net profits or no net losses for the company – it “broke even”.
  • BEP may also refer to the revenues that are needed to be reached in order to compensate for the expenses incurred during a specific period.
  • The accounting breakeven point is the sales level at which a business generates exactly zero profits, given a certain amount of fixed costs that it must pay for in each period.

 

Key Points 

Break Even Point (in units) = Fixed Cost / Contribution per unit Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Variable Costs

Break Even Point (in Value) = Break Even Point (in Units) x Selling Price

Important Points In the first case: 

  • Fixed Cost = Rs. 15,000; Selling Price = Rs. 50 ; Variable cost = Rs. 20
  • Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Variable Costs = Rs. 50 - Rs. 20 = Rs. 30
  • Break Even Point (in units) = Fixed Cost / Contribution per unit =   15000/30 = 500 units
  • Break Even Point (in Value) = Break Even Point (in Units) x Selling Price = 500 x 50 = Rs. 25000

In the second case: 

  • Fixed Cost = Rs. 15,000; Selling Price = Rs. 45 ; Variable cost = Rs. 20
  • Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Variable Costs = Rs. 45 - Rs. 20 = Rs. 25
  • Break Even Point (in units) = Fixed Cost / Contribution per unit =   15000/25 = 600 units
  • Break Even Point (in Value) = Break Even Point (in Units) x Selling Price = 600 x45 = Rs. 27000

Increase in break-even sales = Rs. 27,000 - Rs. 25,000= Rs. 2000

Hence, the break-even sales will increase by Rs. 2,000.

Question 6

Nobel Laureate (2013) Robert Shiller advocates price earning ratio based on:

  1. AOption (a)

    Trailing twelve months earnings

  2. BOption (b)

    Latest four quarters earnings

  3. COption (c)

    Analysts' forward earnings forecast

  4. DOption (d)

    Cyclically adjusted 10 years' earnings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cyclically adjusted 10 years' earnings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cyclically adjusted 10 years' earnings. 

Key PointsCyclically adjusted price-to-earnings ratio:

  • The cyclically adjusted price-to-earnings ratio, commonly known as CAPE, Shiller P/E, or P/E 10 ratio, is a valuation measure usually applied to the US S&P 500 equity market.
  • It is defined as a price divided by the average of ten years of earnings (moving average), adjusted for inflation.
  • As such, it is principally used to assess likely future returns from equities over timescales of 10 to 20 years, with higher-than-average CAPE values implying lower-than-average long-term annual average returns.
  • The ratio was invented by American economist Robert J. Shiller.
  • The ratio is used to gauge whether a stock or group of stocks, is undervalued or overvalued by comparing its current market price to its inflation-adjusted historical earnings record.
  • It is a variant of the more popular price-to-earning ratio and is calculated by dividing the current price of a stock by its average inflation-adjusted earnings over the last 10 years.
  • Using average earnings over the last decade helps to smooth out the impact of business cycles and other events and gives a better picture of a company's sustainable earning power.

Additional Information

  • Robert Shiller received the 2013 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences, sharing it with Eugene Fama and Lars Peter Hansen.
  • The three received the prize “for their empirical analysis of stock prices.”
  • Shiller argued that rational investors would price a stock at the present value of expected future dividends.
  • However, he found (assuming that the real interest rate is constant) that stock prices fluctuate more than can be explained by fluctuations in dividends.
  • Shiller attributed this larger-than-expected variance to psychological factors, arguing that investors must not be acting rationally (or, at least, not perfectly rationally).
  • Because of this, he concluded, the stock market must be inefficient.

 

Hence,  Nobel Laureate (2013) Robert Shiller advocates price earning ratio based on cyclically adjusted 10 years' earnings.

Question 7

The traditional accounting practice of resolving uncertainty by choosing the solution that leads to the lower amount of income being recognized in the current accounting period is based on which of the following accounting principles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Realization

  2. BOption (b)

    Matching

  3. COption (c)

    Conservatism

  4. DOption (d)

    Materiality

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Conservatism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Conservatism. 

Key PointsConservatism Principle:

  • The Conservatism Principle states that gains should be recorded only if their occurrence is certain, but all potential losses, even those with a remote chance of incurrence, are to be recognized.
  • Under GAAP accounting standards, the conservatism principle – also called the “prudence concept” – must be applied when preparing the financial statements of companies.
  • The financials of companies are expected to be presented fairly without any misleading stated values, so accountants must carefully verify and use caution when preparing and auditing financial statements.

The conservatism principle states that:

  • Potential Gain → If there is uncertainty regarding future revenue and profits, the accountant should avoid recognizing the gain.
  • Potential Loss → If there is uncertainty about incurring a loss, an accountant should be predisposed to record the loss on the financials.

Additional Information

  • Realization Principle: The realization principle is the concept that revenue can only be recognized once the underlying goods or services associated with the revenue have been delivered or rendered, respectively. Thus, revenue can only be recognized after it has been earned.
  • Matching Principle: The matching principle requires that revenues and any related expenses be recognized together in the same reporting period. Thus, if there is a cause-and-effect relationship between revenue and certain expenses, then record them at the same time.
  • Materiality Principle: Materiality is an accounting principle which states that all items that are reasonably likely to impact investors' decision-making must be recorded or reported in detail in a business's financial statements using GAAP standards.

Hence, the traditional accounting practice of resolving uncertainty by choosing the solution that leads to a lower amount of income being recognized in the current accounting period is based on Conservatism Principle.

Question 8

If a company's current ratio declined in a year during which its quick ratio improved, which of the following is the most likely explanation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Inventory is increasing

  2. BOption (b)

    Inventory is declining

  3. COption (c)

    Receivables are being collected more rapidly than in the past

  4. DOption (d)

    Receivables are being collected more slowly than in the past

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Inventory is declining

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inventory is declining. 

Key Points Current Ratio:

  • The Current Ratio, also known as the working capital ratio, is the ratio between Current Assets and Current Liabilities.
  • It is a measure of the short-term liquidity of a business.
  • Current Assets are those items on a company’s Balance Sheet that they can convert into cash within a year.
  • Current Liabilities are the obligations and debts of a company that they have to pay off within a year.
  • Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities

Liquid Ratio:

  • The Liquid Ratio, also known as the quick or acid test ratio, is the ratio between Liquid Assets and Current Liabilities.
  • Liquid Assets are a part of Current Assets, and it includes only those items that a company can convert into cash within 90 days or less.
  • It contains items like cash and cash equivalents, marketable securities, and accounts receivable.
  • Liquid Ratio= Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities
  • Where Liquid Assets = Current Assets - Inventory - Prepaid Expenses

Important Points

  • The primary difference between the current ratio and the liquid ratio is inventory.
  • Thus when in a firm, inventory value reduces, the current ratio declines since it takes into account inventory.
  • however liquid assets are not affected by the value of inventory.
  • Thus the liquid ratio can be improved even when the inventory value is declining.

Additional Information

  • If the current ratio declines, it means that the company's current assets relative to its current liabilities decreased.
  • This could be due to a decrease in current assets such as cash, accounts receivable, or inventory.
  • Since the quick ratio improved, it indicates that the decline in the current ratio is primarily due to a decrease in inventory.
  • A decline in inventory could suggest various scenarios, such as efficient inventory management, increased sales, or a shift in the company's business strategy.
  • It is important to further analyze the company's financial statements and consider other factors to fully understand the reasons behind the decline in the current ratio and the improvement in the quick ratio.

Hence, If a company's current ratio declined in a year during which its quick ratio improved Inventory is declining.

Question 9

Earnings per share of a company is Rs. 5 and the rate of return required by its shareholders is 16 percent. Assuming Gordon's valuation model, what rate of return should be earned on investment to ensure that the market price of its share is Rs. 50 and the dividend payout is 40 percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    20 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    16.67 percent

  3. COption (c)

    33.33 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    25 per cent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20 percent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20 percent. 

  • A dividend refers to that part of the net profits of a company that is distributed among shareholders as a return on their investment in the company.
  • Dividend policy means the broad approach according to which every year it is determined how much of the net profits are to be distributed as dividends and how much is to be retained in the business.
  • There are three theories for dividend policies: The Walter model, The Gordon growth model, and Modigliani and Miller’s dividend irrelevancy theory.

Key PointsGordon's model:

  • Myron Gordon proposed a dividend model that included some more assumptions than Walter's model.
  • Gordon's model increased the assumptions of Walter's model and it reflected the evaluation of projects of those firms that have palpable tax and cost of capital greater than the growth rate.
  • According to Gordon’s model, the market value of a stock is equal to the value of dividends that are infinite in number.
  • That means a firm’s share value is equal to the stream of dividends the corporation has in its portfolio.

The Gordon Model formula is written as:

P = D1 / r – g

P = Value of current stock price 

g = Constant growth rate 

r = Constant cost of equity capital  

D1 = Dividend value (at the end of 1st year)

Important Points In the given scenario, 

Earnings = Rs. 5

R = 16 percent.

P, Market price= Rs. 50

Payout ratio = 40%

<br>

Dividend = Earnings x Payout ratio 

= 5 x 40%

= Rs. 2

P = D1 / r – g

50 = 2/ R – 0.16

R-0.16 = 2/50 = 0.04

R = 0.04+0.16 = 0.20 

R= 20%

Hence, the correct answer is 20 percent.

Question 10

Which one of the following is not the assumption of Theory of Absolute and Comparative advantage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Countries are driven only by maximization of production and consumption

  2. BOption (b)

    Only two countries are engaged in the production and consumption of just two goods

  3. COption (c)

    There are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another

  4. DOption (d)

    Labour is the only factor of production that helps in converting the raw materials into finished products

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

There are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is There are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another.

Key Points

  • International trade refers to the process of exchanging goods/ services across the international territories.
  • There are various theories of International Trade, such as: Mercantilism Theory, Absolute Cost Advantage Theory, Comparative Cost Advantage Theory etc.
  • Mercantilism Theory: This theory is based on the idea that, it is gold and silver which reflects the national wealth of a country. It emphasize on self sufficiency concept through a favourable balance of trade by exporting more goods for accumulating gold and silver.

Important Points

  • Absolute Advantage Theory: This theory was propounded by Adam Smith in 1776. As per the principle of absolute advantage, each nation always has a distinct edge over another in the production of some specific good/ service.
  • Assumptions of Absolute Advantage theory are:
  • There are just two nations producing just two goods.
  • When one has completely cheap cost of producing one good, the trade will occur.
  • Labour cost becomes the base for calculating the cost of commodity.
  • There are no taxes.
  • There is no transportation cost for shipping products from one country to another country.
  • Comparative Advantage Theory: This theory of international trade was developed by David Ricardo in 1817.The ability of a party to produce a certain commodity or service at a lower marginal and opportunity cost than another is known as comparative advantage.
  • Assumptions of Comparative Advantage theory are:
  • There are just two nations producing two goods.
  • There is absence of transportation cost.
  • Labour is the only factor of production.
  • Countries are driven by maximization of the production and consumption.

Additional Information The Theory of Absolute and Comparative Advantage, developed by economists Adam Smith and David Ricardo, is based on certain key assumptions. These assumptions include:

Full employment: The theory assumes that all resources within an economy are fully employed, meaning there is no unemployment or underutilization of resources.

Fixed resources: It assumes that the quantities of labor, capital, and other factors of production available within an economy are fixed and do not change during the period of analysis.

Two countries, two goods: The theory simplifies the analysis by considering only two countries and two goods being produced. This allows for a clear comparison of production capabilities and advantages between the two countries.

Constant costs: The theory assumes that the costs of production, such as labor and materials, remain constant regardless of the quantities produced. This assumption allows for a simplified analysis of comparative advantage.

No transportation costs or trade barriers: It assumes that there are no transportation costs or trade barriers between countries, meaning goods can be freely traded without any additional costs or restrictions.

Hence, the correct answer is There are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another.

Question 11

Percentage of output lost for each one point reduction in the inflation rate is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Input and output ratio

  2. BOption (b)

    Capital-output ratio

  3. COption (c)

    Sacrifice ratio

  4. DOption (d)

    Technological quotient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sacrifice ratio

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is sacrifice ratio.

Key PointsSacrifice Ratio:

  • The sacrifice ratio is an economic ratio that measures the effect of rising and falling inflation on a country's total production and output.
  • Costs are associated with the slowing of economic output in response to a drop in inflation.
  • When prices fall, companies are less incentivized to produce goods and may cut back on production.
  • The ratio measures the loss in output per each 1% change in inflation.
  • By examining a country's historic sacrifice ratios through time, a governing body can predict what effect their fiscal policies will have on the country's output.

Additional Information

  • Input-output ratio: Input-output ratio is the ratio of raw materials going into production and raw standard material control of the actual output In industries where both raw material and finished products are capable of being measured in some units or quantities, e.g. foundries, cotton textile, jute textiles, chemical plants, oil refineries, etc.
  • Capital output ratio: The capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%.
  • Technology Quotient: Technology Quotient is defined as a person’s ability to adapt, manage and integrate technology based on the needs of the organization or project at hand.

Hence, the Percentage of output lost for each one-point reduction in the inflation rate is called the Sacrifice ratio.

Question 12

Which one of the following is the characteristic of organizational climate?

  1. AOption (a)

    There are policies that set forth the organization's beliefs about how employees and/or customers are to be treated

  2. BOption (b)

    Standards of behaviour exist

  3. COption (c)

    When organizational participants interact with one another, they use common language

  4. DOption (d)

    This is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

This is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is This is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact.

Important Points

Organizational climate:

  • Organizational climate is a concept that was introduced in the year the 1940s and has been able to describe the patterns that have an impact on human behavior as well as workplace behavior.
  • It is a reflection of the perceptions that an employee has about his work environment.
  • Organizational climate is also known as corporate climate as it quantifies the culture of a corporation.
  • It has a significant impact on job satisfaction, productivity, and motivational levels of the employees in the organization.
  • Organizational climate is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout, the way participants interact, and the way members of the organization are related to each other.

Key Points 

Characteristics of organizational climate:

  • General expression: Organizational climate is the general expression or the perception of the individuals about an organization as it depicts their thoughts and impression about the internal environment in the company
  • Unique identity: It is the organizational climate that gives the organization a unique or distinct identity
  • Multi-dimensional concept: Organizational climate is considered a multi-dimensional concept where its numerous dimensions include the degree of conflict, leadership style, authority structure, and autonomous nature
  • Intangible concept: A crucial characteristic of organizational climate is that it is considered a qualitative or intangible concept as it is quite challenging to explain its components in measurable units
  • Enduring quality: Organizational climate is built over a certain period and is the representation of the enduring quality of the internal environment of the company that is experienced by its employees.
  • Collaboration and teamwork: A positive climate encourages teamwork and collaboration among employees. It fosters an environment where individuals are willing to share knowledge, support one another, and work together towards common goals, enhancing productivity and innovation.
  • Recognition and rewards: An organizational climate that recognizes and rewards employee achievements and contributions fosters a positive and motivating work environment. Acknowledging and appreciating employees' efforts and accomplishments boosts morale and encourages high performance.
  • Flexibility and autonomy: A climate that allows flexibility and provides employees with autonomy in decision-making promotes a sense of ownership and empowerment. Employees feel trusted and are more likely to be innovative and engaged in their work.
  • Fairness and equity: A fair and equitable organizational climate treats employees impartially, ensuring equal opportunities and fair treatment for all. This includes fair policies, processes, and practices related to promotions, rewards, and resolving conflicts.
  • Learning and development: A positive climate emphasizes continuous learning and development opportunities for employees. It supports a culture of growth, where individuals are encouraged to acquire new skills, explore new ideas, and adapt to changing circumstances.
  • Work-life balance: A supportive climate recognizes the importance of work-life balance and promotes policies and practices that enable employees to effectively manage their personal and professional lives. This includes providing flexible work arrangements and promoting well-being initiatives.

Hence, Organisational Climate is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact.

Question 13

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a manager?

  1. AOption (a)

    Does the right thing

  2. BOption (b)

    Imitates

  3. COption (c)

    Asks how and when

  4. DOption (d)

    Accepts the status quo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Does the right thing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Does the right thing. 

Key Points

  • A manager manages all an organization’s work to fulfill that organization’s goals.
  • It is necessary for a manager also to have the quality of leads. Otherwise, he cannot lead his subordinates.
  • Good management aims to provide services to the community in an appropriate, efficient, equitable, and sustainable manner.
  • A manager administers, copies maintains, focuses on system and structure, relies on control, has a short-range view, asks how and when, has an eye on the bottom line, imitates, accepts the status quo, and is like a classic good soldier, and does things right.
  • Thus, a manager is expected to do things right and not does the right thing.

Additional InformationKey Characteristics of Manager:

  • Leadership
  • Experience
  • Communication
  • Knowledge
  • Organization
  • Time management
  • Delegation
  • Confidence
  • Respect
  • Company Culture

Mistake Points No person can always do the right thing always. It is never possible that a person will always do the right thing. A manager tries to do the right thing but it is not always true.

Hence, Does the right thing is not a characteristic of a manager.

Question 14

In which of the following methods of capital budgeting, cash flows are reinvested at the cost of capital?

  1. AOption (a)

    Internal rate of return (IRR)

  2. BOption (b)

    Net Present Value (NPV)

  3. COption (c)

    Payback period

  4. DOption (d)

    Accounting rate of return (ARR)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Net Present Value (NPV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Net Present Value (NPV).

Key Points

  • Internal rate of return (IRR):
  • The IRR method assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR itself, not at the cost of capital.
  • Net Present Value (NPV):
  • The NPV method assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the cost of capital, matching the project's discount rate.
  • Payback period:
  • This method does not consider reinvestment of cash flows; it simply measures the time taken to recover the initial investment.
  • Accounting rate of return (ARR):
  • The ARR method is based on accounting information and does not consider the reinvestment of cash flows.

Additional Information

  • Net Present Value (NPV):
  • The NPV method discounts future cash flows at the project's cost of capital, providing a measure of profitability in today's terms.
  • It helps in assessing whether the projected earnings (discounted back to the present) exceed the initial investment.
  • Considerations for Financial Enterprises:
  • Accurate use of the NPV method is crucial for making informed investment decisions and ensuring alignment with the firm's financial objectives.
  • Understanding the reinvestment assumption is key for financial analysts to accurately forecast project viability and returns.

Question 15

Which of the following is the correct explanation of resource-based approach?

  1. AOption (a)

    Internal sources are more important for a firm than external forces for competitive advantage

  2. BOption (b)

    Process whereby a firm determines the costs associated with organizational activities

  3. COption (c)

    External factors are more important than internal factors for competitive advantage

  4. DOption (d)

    Effective integration of both external and internal factors is the key to competitive advantage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Internal sources are more important for a firm than external forces for competitive advantage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Internal sources are more important for a firm than external forces for competitive advantage. 

Key Points

Resource Based approach: 

  • The Resource-Based View (RBV) is a group of theories proposing that companies are able to establish a competitive advantage through internal resources of the firm that are valuable, rare, not imitable, and organized for value capture.
  • Organizations use internal resources in new ways to exploit external resources and thereby establish competitive advantage rather than focusing on the competitive environment.
  • Research in support of the RBV includes the Knowledge-Based View of the firm, dynamic capabilities, and the relationship view.
  • RBV (Resource-Based View) theorists argue that a firm's internal resources and capabilities are more important than external factors in achieving and sustaining competitive advantage.
  • They believe that a firm's resources and capabilities, such as its brand, patents, and organizational structure, can give it a strategic advantage over its competitors.
  • Tangible assets are physical things, such as land, buildings, machinery, equipment, and capital.
  • Intangible assets are non-physical things, such as intellectual property, skills, knowledge, goodwill, brand reputation, etc.
  • Physical resources rarely offer a competitive advantage - as they can generally be acquired by competitors.
  • Intangible resources are difficult to imitate and generally offer the main source of sustainable competitive advantage.
  • If all of these elements align, the resources can be used by a company to create a sustainable competitive advantage.

 

Hence, Under the resource-based approach, Internal sources are more important for a firm than external forces for competitive advantage.

Question 16

A copier machine company provides better after sales service to its existing customer to improve its (company) and product image and increase sales of accessories and consumables. Above given statement is an example of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Stability strategy aimed at customer functions

  2. BOption (b)

    Stability strategy aimed at customer groups

  3. COption (c)

    Expansion strategy aimed at customer groups

  4. DOption (d)

    Expansion strategy aimed at customer functions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stability strategy aimed at customer groups

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stability strategy aimed at customer groups 

Corporate level strategy:

  • Corporate strategy is about strategic decisions about determining the overall scope and direction of a corporation and the way in which its various business units work together to attain particular goals.
  • Corporate-level strategy is an action taken to gain a competitive advantage through the selection and management of a combination of businesses competing in several industries or product markets.

Key PointsStability strategy:

  • A stability strategy in strategic management means an organization will retain its current strategy and continue focusing on its current products and markets.
  • An organization will only focus on its present business and products, maintains its level of effort, and have incremental growth, a company can analyze its position by portfolio analysis.
  • Another, reason for stability strategy in strategic management is when an organization goes through regular expansion policies and now wants to evaluate the position and strategies of an organization.
  • A stability strategy in strategic management is a type of strategy that is adopted by an organization that attempts to maintain its current position and focuses only on incremental growth.
  • In this type of strategy, there are merely changes that are one or more related to the business functions or related to customer segmentation or related to technology, or product uses.
  • Since in the given scenario, the strategy is aimed at improving a customer function, it is termed a Stability strategy aimed at customer functions.

Additional Information Expansion strategy: 

  • An expansion strategy is synonymous with a growth strategy.
  • A firm seeks to achieve faster growth, compete, achieve higher profits, grow a brand, capitalize on economies of scale, have a more significant impact, or occupy a larger market share.
  • This may entail acquiring more market share through traditional competitive strategies, entering new markets, targeting new market segments, offering new products or services, and expanding or improving current operations.

Below are common expansion strategies:

  • Expansion through Concentration
  • Expansion through Diversification
  • Expansion through Integration
  • Expansion through Cooperation
  • Expansion through Internationalization

 

Hence, the above-given statement is an example of a Stability strategy aimed at customer groups.

Question 17

How often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations, is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    brand salience

  2. BOption (b)

    brand resonance

  3. COption (c)

    brand feelings

  4. DOption (d)

    brand imagery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

brand salience

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is brand salience. 

Key PointsBrand Salience:

  • Brand Salience is the degree to which your brand is thought of or noticed.
  • Strong brands have high Brand Salience and weak brands have little or none.
  • Without brand salience, people would not choose your brand at the moment of truth.
  • At the moment of choice, brands are retrieved based on both memory & attention salience.
  • Memory salience: the mental network a brand has in a person’s mind as well as the mental availability of the brand (will people even have your brand in mind at the moment of choice?).
  • Attention salience: the ability of the brand to capture people’s attention at the moment of choice.

Brand salience refers to how often and easily customers think of a brand in different purchase or consumption situations. It represents the level of awareness and prominence a brand has in the minds of consumers.

Additional InformationBrand resonance:

  • Brand resonance refers to the nature of the relationship that customers have with the brand and the extent to which they feel that they are “in sync” with the brand.
  • Brand resonance can be defined as how well you connect with your customer both formally and casually.

Brand feelings:

  • What customers feel for the product or how they're emotionally attached to the product.
  • Consumers can develop feelings towards brands regarding fun, safety, self-esteem, social acceptance, etc.

Brand Imagery: 

  • Brand imagery refers to every type of visual that represents your brand.
  • It includes the aesthetic appearance of all the marketing materials that communicate a message about your brand.

 

Hence, How often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations is known as brand salience.

Question 18

Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval rate of 10 minutes and the receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. The average queue length is:

  1. AOption (a)

    8/10

  2. BOption (b)

    9/10

  3. COption (c)

    11/10

  4. DOption (d)

    7/10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9/10

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 9/10

Key Points

  • Average Interval rate is 10 minutes, i.e. 1 customer in 10 minutes. 

  • In 60 minutes = 60/ 10 , i.e. 6 customers in an hour

  • Here, 6 becomes  Lambda (λ )

  • Service rate is 6 minutes, i.e. 6 minutes for 1 customer.

  • Service rate in 60 minutes = 60/ 6 ,i.e. 10 customers (Mu)

  • Formula for calculating average queue length is:

  • Here λ is lambda (Arrival Rate) and Mu become (Service rate )

  • ​​By putting this formula, we get:

  • ​               62  / 10 (10 - 6)

  • 36 / 10 ( 4)

  • 36 / 40

  • 0.9  i.e. 9/ 10

  • We can also write the above given formula as:

  • ​             Lambda2 / Mu ( Mu - Lambda)

​

​Hence, the correct answer is 9/ 10.

Additional Information

  • We can also calculate Utilization factor with the help of Lambda and Mu.
  • Formula to calculate Utilization factor is:
  • ​Lambda / Mu
  • 6 / 10
  • 0.6
  • ​Waiting Time is the difference between Average arrival time and Spending time. 
  • ​Ws =   1 / Mu - λ , i.e. Ws  =   1 / (10- 6)

Question 19

A technique of building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an initial set of members as informants is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Quota sampling

  2. BOption (b)

    Convenience sampling

  3. COption (c)

    Snowball sampling

  4. DOption (d)

    Purposive sampling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Snowball sampling

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Snowball Sampling

Key Points Sampling refers to a statistical technique that helps to understand the nature of the universe by focusing on a small portion of it.

 

There are various steps to be followed while designing a sample:

  • Defining Target Population
  • Selection of Sample Frame
  • Selection of Sampling Technique
  • Determining the Sample Size

Important Points

  • Methods of Sampling can be divided into two parts, namely: Probability Sampling and Non- Probability Sampling.
  • Probability Sampling refers to that method, in which each and every item of population gets an equal chance of being selected. Methods of probability sampling includes:
  • Random Sampling
  • Stratified Sampling
  • Systematic Sampling
  • Cluster Sampling
  • Multistage Sampling
  • Non Probability Sampling refers to that method, in which each and every unit of population does not get an equal chance of being selected. Methods of Non probability sampling includes:
  • Quota Sampling
  • Convenience Sampling
  • Judgment Sampling
  • Snowball Sampling etc.
  • Non Probability Sampling methods are under as follows:
  • Quota Sampling : It is a practise of selecting a predetermined number of a specific group of people to be interviewed.
  • Convenience Sampling: When sample is drawn as per the convenience of the interviewer, then it is known as convenience sampling.
  • Judgment Sampling: This type of sampling is also known as Purposive sampling or Sample by opinion, which requires personal judgment on the part of interviewer.
  • Snowball Sampling: This type of sampling is also known as referral sampling or contact to contact sampling, in which current participants give names of other participants with having similar characteristics. It is a technique of building up a list or sample of special population by setting up an initial set of members as participants.

Here, the correct answer is Snowball Sampling.

Question 20

Which one of the following factors is not a factor in case of wide span of management?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fast changes in external and internal environment

  2. BOption (b)

    Well-defined plans for repetitive operations

  3. COption (c)

    Effective interaction between superior and subordinate

  4. DOption (d)

    Thorough training of subordinate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fast changes in external and internal environment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fast changes in external and internal environment.

Span of management:

  • Depending upon the complexity of organizational activities and relationships amongst superiors and subordinates, it becomes important the superiors manage an optimum number of subordinates that result in optimum organizational output.
  • All the subordinates cannot be managed by one superior.
  • There has to be a limit on the number of subordinates who can be effectively managed by one superior.
  • The number of subordinates that a superior can effectively supervise is known as the span of management or the span of control.

Key Points There are a number of factors that influence or determine the span of supervision in a particular organization, the most important of these are as follows:

  • Competence and Training of Subordinates: Subordinates who are skilled, efficient, knowledgeable, trained, and competent require less supervision, and therefore, the supervisor may have a wider span in such cases as compared to inexperienced and untrained subordinates who require greater supervision.
  • Nature of Work: The nature and importance of work to be supervised is another factor that influences the span of supervision. The work involving routine, repetitive, unskilled, and standardized operations will not call much attention and time on the part of the supervisor. As such, the supervisors at the lower levels of the organization can supervise the work of a large number of subordinates. On the other hand, at higher levels of management, the work involves complex and a variety of Jobs and as such, the number of subordinates that can be effectively managed should be limited to a lesser number.
  • Dynamism or Rate of Change: Certain enterprises change much more rapidly than others. This rate of change determines the stability of policies and practices of an organization. The span of control tends to be narrow where the policies and practices do not remain stable.
  • Effectiveness of Communication System: The span of supervision is also influenced by the effectiveness of the communication system in the organization. Faulty communication puts a heavy burden on managers’ time and reduces the span of control. On the other hand, if the system of communication is effective, a larger number of managerial levels will be preferred as the information can be transmitted easily. Further, a wide span is possible if a manager can communicate effectively.

Important Points

  • Thus, Fast changes in external and internal environments require a narrow span of management.
  • Well-defined plans for repetitive operations, Effective interaction between superior and subordinate, and Thorough training of subordinates require a wide span of management.

Hence, Fast changes in the external and internal environment is not a factor in the case of a wide span of management.

Question 21

Which one of the following principles of management states that for a group of activity having the same objective, there should be one head and one plan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Unity of command

  2. BOption (b)

    Division of work

  3. COption (c)

    Unity of direction

  4. DOption (d)

    Centralization

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Unity of direction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Unity of direction.

Principles of management:

  • Henry Fayol, also known as the ‘father of modern management theory’ gave a new perception of the concept of management.
  • He introduced a general theory that can be applied to all levels of management and every department.
  • The Fayol theory is practiced by managers to organize and regulate the internal activities of an organization.
  • He concentrated on accomplishing managerial efficiency.
  • Over a century ago, Henri Fayol promulgated 14 principles of management for general use that are still in force today.

Key Points

Unity of Direction:

  • Unity of direction suggests that all employees work towards the goal.
  • All activities must be headed and led by a manager responsible for carrying out the plan.
  • Unity of direction is dependent on good organizational skills and planning.
  • There cannot be unity of command without unity of direction.
  • The principle of 'unity of direction' states that each group having the same objectives must have one head and one plan.

Additional Information Division of Work:

  • Henry believed that segregating work in the workforce amongst the worker will enhance the quality of the product.
  • Similarly, he also concluded that the division of work improves the productivity, efficiency, accuracy, and speed of the workers.
  • This principle is appropriate for both the managerial as well as a technical work levels.

Unity of Command:

  • There needs to be clarity on the chain of command within the teams.
  • The unity of command means that every worker will always receive orders from a single boss or superior to avoid the duality of information, that is, receiving two contradictory orders and not knowing which one to obey.
  • The unity of command will help ensure no conflicts of authority.

Centralization:

  • In any company, the management or any authority responsible for the decision-making process should be neutral.
  • However, this depends on the size of an organization.
  • Henry Fayol stressed the point that there should be a balance between the hierarchy and the division of power.

 

Hence, the principle of unity of direction states that for a group of activities having the same objective, there should be one head and one plan.

Question 22

Which of the following is a pre-offer takeover defence employed by target companies in hostile takeovers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Green mail

  2. BOption (b)

    Pacman defence

  3. COption (c)

    Poison pills

  4. DOption (d)

    Liability restructuring

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Poison pills

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Poison pills. 

Key PointsDefensive Mechanism:

  • In Mergers & acquisitions transactions, a defense mechanism (also known as a defense strategy) is any set of procedures that are employed by a target company to prevent a hostile takeover.
  • A hostile takeover is a type of acquisition in which a bidder takes over a target company without the consent, and against the wishes, of the management or board of directors of the target.
  • Generally, defense mechanisms can be divided into two broad categories: pre-offer defense mechanisms and post-offer defense mechanisms.

Pre-Offer Defense Mechanisms: 

  • The pre-offer defense is a preemptive strategy.
  • It is primarily used to either make the company’s shares less attractive for a potential bidder (e.g., increase the overall acquisition costs) or set restrictions in corporate governance to limit the benefits to the potential bidder.
  • The pre-offer defense mechanisms include the following strategies: Poison pill, Poison put, Golden parachutes & Supermajority provisions.

Important PointsPoison pill: 

  • The poison pill defense includes the dilution of shares of the target company in order to make it more difficult and expensive for a potential acquirer to obtain a controlling interest in the target.
  • The flip-in poison pill is the issuance of additional shares of the target company, which existing shareholders can purchase at a substantial discount.
  • The flip-over poison pill provides an opportunity for target company shareholders to purchase shares in the acquiring company at a significantly discounted price.

Additional InformationPost-offer defense mechanisms:

Post-offer defense mechanisms are employed when a target company receives a bid for a hostile takeover. Examples of post-offer defense mechanisms are: White knight defense, Greenmail defense, Crown jewel defense, Pac-Man defense

  • Greenmail defense: Greenmail defense refers to the target company buying back shares of its own stock from a takeover bidder who has already acquired a substantial number of shares in pursuit of a hostile takeover.
  • Pac-Man defense: The Pac-Man defense occurs when a target company attempts to acquire its potential acquirer when a takeover bid has already been received.
  • Liability restructuring: Restructuring Liabilities means all unpaid costs and expenses (including Other Taxes and severance but excluding Income Taxes) of the Company or its Subsidiaries related to or arising out of the Commercial Restructuring.

 

Hence, Poison pill is a pre-offer takeover defense employed by target companies in hostile takeovers.

Question 23

In the absence of transactions costs, if a stock plots above the security market line (SML), it is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Overpriced

  2. BOption (b)

    Underpriced

  3. COption (c)

    Fairly priced.

  4. DOption (d)

    Efficiently priced

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Underpriced

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is underpriced.

Key PointsSecurity market line:

  • The security market line is an investment evaluation tool derived from the CAPM—a model that describes the risk-return relationship for securities—and is based on the assumption that investors need to be compensated for both the time value of money (TVM) and the corresponding level of risk associated with any investment, referred to as the risk premium.
  • The concept of beta is central to the CAPM and the SML.
  • The beta of a security is a measure of its systematic risk, which cannot be eliminated by diversification.
  • A beta value of one is considered the overall market average.
  • A beta value that's greater than one represents a risk level greater than the market average, and a beta value of less than one represents a risk level that is less than the market average.
  • The security market line is commonly used by money managers and investors to evaluate an investment product that they're thinking of including in a portfolio.
  • The SML is useful in determining whether the security offers a favorable expected return compared to its level of risk.

Important Points The formula for plotting the SML is:

Required return = risk-free rate of return + beta (market return - risk-free rate of return)

  • When security is plotted on the SML chart, if it appears above the SML, it is considered undervalued because the position on the chart indicates that the security offers a greater return against its inherent risk.
  • Conversely, if the security plots below the SML, it is considered overvalued in price because the expected return does not overcome the inherent risk.

The Security Market Line (SML) represents the expected return on a stock or portfolio based on its systematic risk as measured by beta. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the SML represents the equilibrium line where assets should be priced to provide an appropriate expected return given their level of risk.

Hence, In the absence of transaction costs, if a stock plots above the security market line (SML), it is underpriced.

Question 24

Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing a quality system that conform to ISO standards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Improvement in employee involvement

  2. BOption (b)

    Improvement in house keeping

  3. COption (c)

    Improvement in customer satisfaction

  4. DOption (d)

    Inefficient decision making

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Inefficient decision making

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inefficient decision making

Key Points

  • There are many standards that have been created to help businesses to meet the expectations of their customers, employees, government, shareholders etc., while also adhering to the legal specifications for a specific product.
  • ISO 9000 standards deals with the fundaments of Quality Management System.
  • Quality Management System ensures that all the processes of the organization are carried out on consistent basis and an  organization follows the policies and goals of good quality.
  • ISO 9000 Standards ensures comparability as well as consistency, as each and every company is guided by international standards.
  • There are various principles of ISO 9000:
  • Good Leadership  (ensures unity in action/ coordination)
  • Customer Focus (focus on the needs o0f customer)
  • Continual Improvement (upgradation)
  • Employee Involvement ( Motivated/ Committed workforce)
  • Quality Management ( reduction in cost)
  • Decision Making ( relevant data/ information for quality decision)
  • Management System (efficiency and consistency)
  • Relationship with Supplier (building mutual benefit relation with supplier)

 

Hence, the correct answer is Inefficient decision making

Question 25

In which of the following situation (s), a competitive firm is advised to shut down operations temporarily?

  1. AOption (a)

    P < AVC

  2. BOption (b)

    P < ATC

  3. COption (c)

    P < MC

  4. DOption (d)

    P < MR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P < AVC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is P<AVC.

Key Points

Shut Down Point:

  • A shutdown point is an operating level where a business does not benefit from continuing production operations in the short run when revenue from selling its product is unable to cover variable costs of production.
  • The shutdown point represents a point where a firm will incur higher and increasing losses if it continues production, as opposed to reduced losses if production is ceased.
  • The shutdown point occurs at a point where marginal profit reaches a negative scale.
  • Evaluate P <AVC>'s financial position, including available cash reserves, access to credit, and the ability to sustain the temporary shutdown without jeopardizing the firm's long-term viability. If the firm is facing severe financial constraints, a temporary shutdown might be necessary to regroup and restructure.

Important Points Short Run Shutdown Point:

  • The shutdown rule states that a firm should continue operations as long as the price (average revenue) is able to cover average variable costs.
  • The firm can continue operating, as it will be producing where marginal revenue (price, average revenue) is equal to marginal cost, a condition that ensures profit maximization or loss minimization.
  • A continuation of the shutdown rule states that in the short run, fixed costs are considered sunk costs.
  • In addition, in the short run, if the firm’s total revenue is less than variable costs, the firm should shut down. ie. when Price<AVC.

 

Hence, when P < AVC, a competitive firm is advised to shut down operations temporarily.

Question 26

Which one of the following is organizational process-related job stress?

  1. AOption (a)

    Little performance feed back

  2. BOption (b)

    Role ambiguity

  3. COption (c)

    No opportunity for advancement

  4. DOption (d)

    Rotating work shifts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Little performance feed back

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Little performance feed back.

Job Stress:

  • Stress is the body’s response to physical and mental demands.
  • Stress in general is defined as “a physical, chemical, or emotional factor that causes bodily or mental tension and may be a factor in disease causation.”
  • One type of stress is job stress.
  • With job stress, the stressors involved are work-related.
  • Job stress is a type of stress and is caused by conditions in the workplace that negatively affect an individual’s performance and/or overall well-being of his body and mind.

Important Points 

Receiving little feedback or limited feedback on job performance can indeed be a significant source of job-related stress for many individuals. Here are some reasons why this could be stressful:

Uncertainty: When employees receive little feedback, they may feel uncertain about their performance and have limited knowledge of how well they are meeting expectations. This lack of clarity can lead to anxiety and stress, as individuals may question their abilities and worry about making mistakes.

Lack of growth and development: Feedback is crucial for personal and professional growth. Without regular feedback, employees may find it challenging to identify areas for improvement or to develop new skills. This lack of developmental guidance can hinder career progression and contribute to feelings of stagnation and frustration.

Reduced job satisfaction: Feedback serves as a recognition of a job well done and can boost job satisfaction. When employees receive little or no feedback, they may feel undervalued and unappreciated, leading to decreased motivation and overall job satisfaction.

Key Points

Cooper and Marshall have identified six sources of stress for managers at work:

  • Factors Intrinsic to the Job: These factors usually include working conditions, work overload and work under load both qualitative as well as quantitative, long hours, excessive travel, too many decisions, deadlines, and time pressures.
  • Role in the Organization: Sources of stress in the organizational role include role ambiguity, role conflict, responsibility for people and things, and other stressors. Role ambiguity involves a lack of clarity about goals, expectations of peers, and the nature, scope, and responsibilities of the job.
  • Relationships at Work: Interpersonal relationships with colleagues, superiors, and subordinates form a major source of stress. Poor interactions generate poor human relations as a result of which people experience low trust, low cooperation, low supportiveness, and low interest in listening to others.
  • Career Development: Feeling of getting stagnated in one’s career is highly frustrating and stressful. Again, if there is under or over-promotion, status incongruity results.
  • Organizational Structure and Climate: This source of stress includes factors like line-staff conflicts, little opportunity for advancement, a high degree of specialization, and centralization.
  • Extra-Organizational Sources of Stress: These sources of stress include varying factors like social change, technological change, family problems, life strains, financial difficulties, relocation, residential conditions, conflict in the work-home interface, and life crises.

 

Hence, Little performance feedback is organizational process-related job stress.

Question 27

A salesperson who relies on creative methods for selling products and services is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Demand creator

  2. BOption (b)

    Missionary

  3. COption (c)

    Solution vendor

  4. DOption (d)

    Deliverer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Demand creator

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Demand creator

Key Points

  • A Salesperson is an individual, whose responsibility is to offer goods and services to the prospective customers/ clients.
  • There are various roles that a salesman can choose from within the sales Industry, such as: 'Hunters' and 'Farmers'.
  • Hunters: It includes those individuals who are highly motivated by extra income, i.e. commission and they run after new customers to crack the deal and get commission.
  • Farmers: It includes those individuals whose focus is on establishing long term relation with their existing customers.
  • A Salesperson should have following qualities:
  • Good Knowledge of the product
  • Good Communication/ Explanation Skills
  • Negotiation Skill
  • Empathy
  • Teamwork
  • Professionalism
  • Listening Ability etc.
  • Creative selling refers to that method of selling in which a salesperson actively seeks out the customers and employ well thought out tactics to close the deal.
  • An individual who relies on the creative techniques for selling its products or services is said to be a demand creator salesperson.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Demand Creator.

Question 28

Which one of the following is a taxable perquisite in the hands of all categories of employees?

  1. AOption (a)

    Insurance premium

  2. BOption (b)

    Salary of servant employed by an employee

  3. COption (c)

    Loan to employees

  4. DOption (d)

    Accommodation provided by the employer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Salary of servant employed by an employee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Salary of servant employed by an employee.

For Income-tax purposes, perquisites may be divided into:

  • Perquisites that are taxable in the hands of all categories of employees.
  • Perquisites are taxable only when the employee belongs to a specified group i.e. he is a specified employee.
  • Tax-free perquisites.

Key PointsPerquisites which are Taxable in the hands of All Categories of Employees:

  • Rent-free accommodation is provided by the employer to the employee. Such accommodation may be furnished or unfurnished.
  • Any concession in the matter of rent in respect of the accommodation provided or granted by the employer to the employee.
  • Any sum paid by the employer in discharging the monetary obligation of the employee which otherwise would have been payable by the employee e.g. the school fees of the children of the employee paid by the employer or the Income-tax of the employee paid by the employer.
  • Any sum payable by the employer whether directly or through a fund (other than a recognized provident fund (RPF), Approved Superannuation Fund, or Deposit Linked Insurance Fund) to effect an assurance on the life of the assessee or to effect a contract for an annuity.

Additional InformationPerquisites which are Taxable only in the case of Specified Employees: 

  • services of a sweeper, gardener, watchman, or personal attendant,
  • free or concessional use of gas, electric energy, and water for household consumption,
  • free or concessional educational facilities,
  • use of a motor car,
  • the personal or private journey provided free of cost or at a concessional rate to an employee or member of his household,
  • the value of any other benefit or amenity, service, right, or privilege provided by the employer.

Non-Taxable Perquisites:

  • Leave travel concession subject to conditions & only the actual amount spent.
  • Comp / Laptop for official/personal use.
  • Initial fees paid for corporate membership
  • Refreshments are provided during working hours on office premises.
  • Payment of annual premium on personal accident policy.
  • Subscription to periodicals and journals required for the discharge of work.
  • Provision of Medical Facilities.
  • Gift not exceeding Rs. 5000 p.a.
  • Use of health club, sports facility.
  • Free telephones: fixed or mobiles.
  • Interest-free/concessional loan not exceeding Rs. 20,000 (limit not applicable for medical treatment).
  • Contribution to Medical Insurance Policy by the employer is exempt from tax in the hands of employees to any extent.
  • Contribution to recognized Provident Fund / approved super annuation fund, pension or deferred annuity scheme & staff group insurance scheme.

Hence, Salary of servant employed by an employee is a taxable perquisite.

Question 29

Concept of 'fit' is central to which of the following schools of thought on strategy formulation?

  1. AOption (a)

    The positioning school

  2. BOption (b)

    The cognitive school

  3. COption (c)

    The planning school

  4. DOption (d)

    The design school

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The positioning school

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the positioning school. 

Ten Schools of Thought model:

 In strategic management, the Ten Schools of Thought model by Henry Mintzberg is a framework that explains approaches to defining a strategy.

It can be in the form of a design, a plan, positioning, consumerist, or cognitive (subjective); it can be learning; it can be power-centric; it can be culture-centric; it can be environment-centric; or it can also be configured (formative).

 Key Points

The positioning school:

  • In this process of strategy formulation, the management decides that they want to position the product at the top of the mind and makes decisions accordingly.
  • The management has to determine the competition already present in the market, and where is their own company positioned.
  • It can use tools like Five forces, Value chain, BCG matrix, and others to position its products.
  • Once the market has been analyzed, the right strategy is needed to improve the positioning of the product.
  • The concept of 'fit' is central to the school of thought known as the "Positioning School" of strategy formulation.
  • The Positioning School emphasizes the importance of aligning an organization's internal resources and capabilities with the external environment to achieve a competitive advantage.
  • It emphasizes that strategy should be based on finding a unique and favorable position in the market where an organization's capabilities can be effectively utilized and leveraged to meet customer needs and beat competitors.

Additional InformationThe planning school: 

  • In this case, the thought process runs towards planning the entire strategy in a rigorous manner, so that the firm advances forward.
  • The complete process and the plan which the company will implement are documented from the start to finish.
  • At all times the plan is referred to whenever the management wants to take new decisions.
  • With the plan in hand, the management gets a clear direction to move in, helping the company to move forward unanimously.

The Design School:

  • It is responsible for the development of the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) model.
  • The strengths and weaknesses of a company are mapped, along with opportunities and threats.
  • The strategy is a fit between internal capabilities and external potentials.
  • The CEO is a strategist who develops strategy and controls execution.
  • Design thinking is a process that uses creative approaches from designers’ toolkits to solve problems.
  • The design school views strategy formulation as a process of conception where the central challenge is to establish a fit between the firm's qualities and the opportunities present in the environment.

The cognitive school:

  • In this thought process, people’s perception and information is studied.
  • One of the best examples of cognitive studies is the Johari window. Wherein, you can better your business by understanding your customers.
  • It is a mental and psychological process to find out what is in the minds of the consumer and how we improve on that or use that information.

Hence, the concept of 'fit' is central to the positioning school of thought on strategy formulation

Question 30

Which one of the following is not the disadvantage of international licensing?

  1. AOption (a)

    Inviting a potential competitor in third country markets

  2. BOption (b)

    High agency costs

  3. COption (c)

    Possible loss of quality control

  4. DOption (d)

    No detailed involvement with foreign customers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No detailed involvement with foreign customers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is No detailed involvement with foreign customers.

Key Points

  • International Licensing gives the permission to foreign firms to manufacture, market and sell the products of other company in a foreign country.
  • A license to produce and market the goods in their nation is granted by the firm that own the product or IP (Intellectual Property).
  • The foreign corporation often agrees to pay the royalty for each unit sold in exchange.
  • Without incurring any high cost for setting up of own manufacturing / distribution operations, one can enter into the  new market with the help of international licensing.
  • There are many factors, which need to consider while setting up a foreign licensing agreement, such as: amount paid by company, Jurisdiction of the country and other limitations associated with it.
  • International licensing also gives permission to potentially sub license the technology to any other company.
  • There are some disadvantages of International Licensing:
  • High Agency Cost
  • Possible loss of quality control
  • Inviting potential competitor in third country market.

Additional Information Detailed involvement with foreign customers is not a disadvantage of international licensing. International licensing refers to a business arrangement where a company (licensor) grants another company (licensee) the rights to use its intellectual property, such as trademarks, patents, or technology, in exchange for royalties or fees.

Disadvantages of international licensing can include:

Loss of control: The licensor may have limited control over how the licensee uses and represents their intellectual property, which can impact brand image and quality.

Limited market entry: Licensing may provide limited market access, as the licensee typically operates in a specific territory or market, restricting the licensor's ability to expand globally.

Dependence on licensee: The licensor relies on the licensee's capabilities and efforts to effectively market and distribute the licensed products or services, which may not always align with the licensor's expectations.

Risk of competition: By licensing their intellectual property to a foreign company, the licensor may inadvertently create a competitor who gains knowledge and expertise from the licensing arrangement.

Lack of direct profits: The licensor receives royalty payments or fees from the licensee, which may not generate as much profit compared to directly entering and operating in the foreign market.

Hence, the correct answer is No detailed involvement with foreign customers.

Question 31

Central focus of which of the following models is five-stage consumer decision process?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nicosia Model

  2. BOption (b)

    Hovard-Sheth Model

  3. COption (c)

    Engel-Kollat Blackwell model

  4. DOption (d)

    Sheth-Newman-Gross Model

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Engel-Kollat Blackwell model

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Engel- Kollat Blackwell model

Key Points

 Consumer Behaviour refers to the process in which a consumer takes decision with regard to what to buy, when to buy, how to buy, where to buy and how much to buy.

Important Points

  • Consumer Buying Behaviour model includes:
  • Engel- Kollat Blackwell Model
  • Nicosia Model
  • Hovard- Sheth Model
  • Economic Model etc.
  • Engel- Kollat Blackwell Model: This model was created in 1968 and it helps to describe the fast growing / increasing body of knowledge with regard to consumer behaviour.
  • This model mainly consists of three stages, namely:
  • Information Input Stage
  • Information Processing Stage
  • Decision Processing Stage
  • Information Input Stage : During this phase, a consumer collects information from the outside world with regard to  brand identification, price of the product, availability of product etc. with the help of different sources, such as: Radio, Television etc.
  • Information Processing Stage: This stage includes Exposure, Attention, Comprehension, Acceptance and Retention of information about the product.
  • Decision Processing Stage: The main focus of this model is on five basic decision process stages, namely:
  • Problem Recognition (Need arises)
  • Information Search (Finding out information through various sources)
  • Evaluation of Different Alternatives (Assessing merits and demerits of products)
  • Purchase Decision (Buying product)
  • Post Purchase Behaviour (Monitoring Satisfaction)

Hence, the correct answer is Engel Kollat Blackwell Model.

Confusion Points

The Engel-Kollat-Blackwell Model is a comprehensive model that explains consumer behavior and the decision-making process. It consists of four main components or stages:

  • Input: In this stage, the consumer receives various stimuli from the internal and external environment, such as marketing messages, personal needs, and environmental factors.
  • Information Processing: The consumer processes the received information through exposure, attention, comprehension, and retention. This stage involves gathering and interpreting relevant information related to the purchase decision.
  • Decision Process: In this stage, the consumer evaluates alternatives based on their needs, preferences, and the information gathered. They engage in activities such as product evaluation, brand comparison, and selection.
  • Variables Influencing the Consumer Decision Process: This stage considers various internal and external factors that influence the consumer's decision-making process, including individual characteristics, social influences, cultural norms, and situational factors.

Additional Information 

  • Nicosia Model was developed by Francesco Nicosia in 1966. This model helps to identify the relation between firm and  its consumer. It has four stages, namely: Firm Attribute and Customer Attribute, Search and Evaluation, Purchase Act, Feedback.
  • Hovard Sheth Model was established in 1969 by Howard and Jagadish Sheth. The main aim of this model is to provide an empirically testable depiction of consumer behaviour and its outcomes as well. It has four variables, namely: Input, Learning and Perceptual Constructs, Output, Exogeneous Variables.

Question 32

Retailer cooperatives belong to which of the following distribution channel systems?

  1. AOption (a)

    Contractual

  2. BOption (b)

    Administered

  3. COption (c)

    Horizontal

  4. DOption (d)

    Corporate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Contractual

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Contractual.

Retail Cooperatives:

  • A retailers' cooperative is a type of cooperative that employs economies of scale on behalf of its retailer members.
  • Retailers' cooperatives use their purchasing power to acquire discounts from manufacturers and often share marketing expenses.
  • A retailers' cooperative is essentially a group of independently owned businesses that pool their resources to purchase in bulk, usually by establishing a central buying organization and engaging in joint promotion efforts.
  • It is common for locally-owned grocery stores, hardware stores, and pharmacies to participate in retailers' cooperatives.

Key Points

Contractual Vertical Marketing System:

  • Under contractual vertical marketing systems, the pieces of the distribution channel continue to operate as individual entities.
  • The businesses enter into contractual relationships with other elements in the distribution channel with their respective obligations and benefits spelled out ahead of time.
  • This approach allows all of the participants to leverage economies of scale that enable more competitive pricing.

 

Additional InformationVertical marketing systems are a way for companies to work together to meet consumer needs, earn more profit, help reduce costs, and have more efficiency between companies.

There are three different types of vertical marketing systems: a corporate system, a contractual system, and an administered system. 

Corporate Vertical Marketing System:

  • A corporate vertical marketing system streamlines the process by bringing all of the elements of the distribution channel, from manufacturing to the stores, under the ownership of a single business.
  • The ownership of the distribution channel can happen from any point in the chain.
  • A well-financed retail outlet might buy a wholesaler and production facilities, or a producer could purchase its main wholesaler and retail outlets.

Horizontal Marketing System:

  • A horizontal Marketing System or HMS is a distribution system wherein two or more firms join hands to combine their efforts to maximize marketing opportunities.
  • When two or more companies operating at the same level come together to gain efficiencies and economies of scale, this system is a Horizontal Marketing System.
  • In this way, they have an alternative to combine their financial, production, marketing, and human resources, etc., so as to have the edge over all the companies operating solely.

In this marketing system, the collaboration can be between:

  • Two or more Manufacturers: With an objective of making optimum utilization of scarce resources.
  • Two or more Wholesalers: To cover a larger area of the distribution of goods and services.
  • Two or more Retailers: It aims to provide bulk quantities in a particular area.

Administered Vertical Marketing System:

  • Administered vertical marketing systems employ neither formal contractual obligation nor corporate ownership of the distribution channel.
  • Instead, one member of the distribution channel wields enough power, generally though the sheer size, to effectively control the activities of the other members of the distribution channel.
  • Massive retail chain stores, such as Walmart, often preside over administered vertical marketing systems.

Hence, Retailer cooperatives belong to contractual distribution channel systems.

Question 33

Huge stores that combine supermarket, discount and warehouse retailing are called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Discount store

  2. BOption (b)

    Category killer

  3. COption (c)

    Hyper market

  4. DOption (d)

    Off-price retailer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hyper market

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hyper market.

Key Points 

Retail Marketing: The activities and process of selling products to final customers for their own use or domestic use is regarded as retail marketing. Retailers acts as a middlemen between producer and end user of the product.

Important Points

  • There are various types of "Retail Outlets":
  • Departmental Store
  • Convenience Store
  • Supermarket
  • Discount Store
  • Hypermarket
  • Superstore
  • Warehouse Retailing
  • Departmental Store: It is a retail establishment which offers various product lines, such as: Household Goods, Clothing etc. under single roof and each product line is operated as a different department.
  • Convenience Store: Conveniently located near residential areas, a convenience store has a somewhat higher price point and sells groceries as well as non food items in their store.
  • Supermarket: It is a self service store that provides wide variety of products at low cost and low margin with high volume. Example: D Mart, Big Bazar etc.
  • Discount Store: It is a kind of retail establishment that sells common items for low price with high volume and low margin.
  • Hypermarket: It is a sizable retail space that combines supermarket, discount and warehouse retailing store. A buyer is able to purchase every item in one location under hypermarket.
  • Superstore: It is a very big retail outlet with around 35000 square feet that often sells home appliances, clothes and other routine based products.
  • Warehouse Retailing: It is a place wherein goods with large quantity sells at discount (Low Cost) in a warehouse format.

Hence, the correct answer is Hypermarket.

Question 34

Which of the following is true for the coefficient of correlation?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is not dependent on the change of scale

  2. BOption (b)

    It is not dependent on the change of origin

  3. COption (c)

    It is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin

  4. DOption (d)

    It is dependent upon change of scale, but not dependent upon change of origin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin.

Key Points

  • Analysis of the co-variation between two or more variables is known as correlation.
  • If a change in one variable causes a corresponding change in the other, then the two variables are said to be correlated with each other.
  • Coefficient o0f correlation helps in establishing a relation between two values, i.e. one is predicted value and other one is actual value.
  • The value of coefficient of correlation always lies between - 1 to +1.
  • There are mainly two most famous coefficient of correlation, i.e.  Spearman's technique of correlation and Pearson's technique of correlation.
  • We choose the spearman technique at the time of calculating the correlation coefficient for ordinal data.
  • We choose Pearson's technique when calculating the correlation coefficient for interval data or ratio type data.
  • Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation is also known as Pearsonian coefficient of correlation.

 

Properties of Correlation Coefficient are as follows:

  • The coefficient of correlation is independent of both change in origin as well as change in scale.
  • There is symmetric degree of relationship between two variables, i.e.  rxy = ryx.
  • Value of coefficient of correlation lies between minus 1 to plus 1, not more than that.
  • Correlation coefficient is a geometric mean of two regression coefficient.

Hence, the correct answer is It is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin.

Question 35

Which of the following constitutes Foreign Direct Investment?

  1. AOption (a)

    A speculator trying to make a profit by buying company shares on a foreign stock exchange

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve

  3. COption (c)

    A tourist purchasing foreign currency to spend on a holiday abroad

  4. DOption (d)

    A company signing an agreement with a wholesaler to distribute its products in foreign markets

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve.

Key Points

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): When a country makes a manufacturing or business investment in another country, either by buying a company there or expanding its operations there is known as Foreign direct investment.
  • Actual FDI inflows does not include undistributed profits that are invested in affiliates in the host nation.
  • There are basically three components of FDI, namely: reinvested earnings, equity capital and intra company loans.
  • When an Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve then it is said to be a foreign direct  investment.
  • Here, the energy company will buy and control the territory and its oil reserves.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve.

 

Additional Information 

  • There are various types of FDI, namely: Greenfield Investment, Brown field Investment, Horizontal FDI, Vertical FDI, Conglomerate FDI etc.
  • Greenfield Investment: When a parent company chooses to start operations in foreign country from scratch is known as greenfield investment.
  • Brownfield Investment: When a company chooses to buy an already existing entity in the host country is known as brownfield investment.
  • Horizontal FDI: When FDI is horizontal, a corporation conducts all of its operations domestically and internationally.
  • Vertical FDI: It is the phrase when foreign corporations engage in operations that are distinct but yet connected to the primary functions carried out by the home country company.
  • Conglomerate FDI: In this type of FDI, the investment is made by the company to acquire an unrelated business.

Question 36

Diffusion of innovation theory is associated with:

  1. AOption (a)

    Peter Drucker:

  2. BOption (b)

    Schumpeter

  3. COption (c)

    Everett Rogers

  4. DOption (d)

    Fredrick Taylor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Everett Rogers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Everett Rogers

Key Points

  • Diffusion of innovation is one of the oldest theory which was developed by Everett Rogers in 1962.
  • This theory explains the manner and rate at which new concepts and products circulate among the people.
  • There are mainly four components of diffusion theory of innovation, namely: innovation, channels of communication, social system and time.
  • There are mainly five established adopters categories:
  • Innovators
  • Early Adopters
  • Early Majority
  • Late Majority
  • Laggards
  • Innovators: It includes those individuals who want to be the first to try out the new technology. They are bold and curious about novel concepts.
  • Early Adopters: These individuals represent opinion leaders. They like taking on leadership responsibilities and embracing change as well. They are quite at ease implementing new concepts, as they are already conscious of the need for change.
  • Early Majority: Even though these people don't often take the lead position, but they frequently do it (adopting ideas) before the majority of people.
  • Late Majority: These individuals are resistant to change and they won't adopt a new idea until the majority of people has given it a go.
  • Laggards: These individuals are exceedingly traditional and conservative by nature. They are the hardest group to convince to accept change since they are so resistant to it.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Everett Rogers.

Question 37

Currently, the country with the highest level of entrepreneurial activity, represented by Global Entrepreneurship Index is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Korea

  2. BOption (b)

    Norway

  3. COption (c)

    US

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

US

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is US

Key Points

  • The Global Entrepreneurship Index is a measure of economic activity that is created by a US-based institute, which examines the resources with various nations throughout the world, if any, devote to fostering (boost up) entrepreneurship.
  • Basically, Global Entrepreneurship Index is an annual index which measures the health of entrepreneurship ecosystem.
  • Currently, the country with the highest level of entrepreneurial activity, represented by Global Entrepreneurship Index (GEI)  is US .

 

Hence, the correct answer is US.

Question 38

The first and foremost important feature for a project to be successful is:

  1. AOption (a)

    It should have a legal support

  2. BOption (b)

    It should have adequate financing

  3. COption (c)

    It should have a market

  4. DOption (d)

    It should benefit society

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It should have a market

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It should have a market.

Key Points

  • The concept "market" refers to the total of all demand for a particular good or service, which results from the total of all customers, i.e. actual and potential customers.
  • Market segmentation is an important concept of market, which describes as a technique for breaking up a big market into smaller groups of customers, where each segment shares a common trait.
  • A market is made up of all the possible buyers who have similar needs/ wants and who might be willing and able to engage in an exchange to meet those needs or wants.
  • It is very important to keep in mind that individuals and businesses do not purchase goods purely for selfish/ own  reasons.
  • Goods are purchased/ bought because they provide benefits to their owners or address some problems.
  • Market structure describes how consumers and sellers interact with each other, how businesses in the same industry compete with each other and how a market's unique characteristics influence the forces of supply and demand.
  • Some highlighted points with regard to Importance of Market:
  • Employment Generation
  • Gives Incentive to Manufacturers
  • Advancement of Economy etc.
  • So, the first and foremost important feature for a project to be successful is the presence of suitable market.

​

Hence, the correct answer is It should have a market.

Question 39

Which one of the following factor does not influence the flow of FDI under Demand factors?

  1. AOption (a)

    Customer access

  2. BOption (b)

    Follow rivals

  3. COption (c)

    Resource availability

  4. DOption (d)

    Exploitation of competitive advantage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Resource availability

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Resource availability

Important Points

  • MNEs often seek locations with abundant and strategic resources, such as natural resources, skilled labor, technological expertise, or infrastructure.
  • The availability and quality of these resources can attract FDI as they contribute to the competitiveness and profitability of the investment.
  • Other demand factors that can influence FDI include market size, growth prospects, consumer purchasing power, and access to distribution networks.
  • These factors collectively determine the potential demand for the goods or services provided by the MNE, making a country an attractive investment destination.

Key Points

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): When a country makes a manufacturing or business investment in another country, either by buying a company there or expanding its operations there is known as Foreign direct investment.
  • Actual FDI inflows does not include undistributed profits that are invested in affiliates in the host nation.
  • There are various types of FDI, namely: Greenfield Investment, Brown field Investment, Horizontal FDI, Vertical FDI, Conglomerate FDI etc.
  • Greenfield Investment: When a parent company chooses to start operations in foreign country from scratch is known as greenfield investment.
  • Brownfield Investment: When a company chooses to buy an already existing entity in the host country is known as brownfield investment.
  • Horizontal FDI: When FDI is horizontal, a corporation conducts all of its operations domestically and internationally.
  • Vertical FDI: It is the phrase when foreign corporations engage in operations that are distinct but yet connected to the primary functions carried out by the home country company.
  • Conglomerate FDI: In this type of FDI, the investment is made by the company to acquire an unrelated business (without any similar production activities).
  • There are various factors that influences the flow of FDI under demand factors, such as: Customer Access, Political Stability, Follow Rivals, Exploitation of competitive advantage etc**.**

 

Hence, the correct answer is Resource Availability.

Question 40

Which scheme on performance and credit rating has been launched by Union MSME Ministry to assess the credit worthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zero Defect Scheme

  2. BOption (b)

    Certification Performance and Economy Rating Scheme

  3. COption (c)

    Performance and Credit Rating Scheme

  4. DOption (d)

    Industrial Incentive Scheme

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Performance and Credit Rating Scheme

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Performance and Credit Rating Scheme

Key Points

  • The Performance & Credit Rating Scheme was introduced by the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) to help those businesses/ enterprises by identify their operation's strengths and weaknesses and take remedial actions to strengthen them.
  • The National Small Industries Corporation serves as the Performance & Credit Rating Scheme's nodal agency.
  • The main objective of the Performance and credit rating scheme is to provide a reasonable assessment of the capacities and creditworthiness of micro and small businesses, so that they are informed about the advantages and drawbacks of their operations.
  • This scheme also aims at making these type of enterprises more acceptable to banks, customers, suppliers etc.
  • High-rated micro and small firms are qualified for MSME loans with more benevolent terms and lower rate of interest.
  • Performance and Credit Rating Scheme has been launched by Union MSME Ministry to assess the credit worthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector

 

Hence, the correct answer is Performance and Credit Rating Scheme.

  

Additional Information​

Zero Defect Zero Effect Scheme was launched by MSME with the aim of making Indian companies / enterprises globally competitive and assist them to get easy access to the capital.

Question 41

What are the problems commonly associated with the scientific management?

(A) Managers often implement only the increased output part of the plan

(B) Managers allow workers to share the benefit thus increased labour costs

(C) Jobs become over-simplified and repetitive, often replaced by new technology

(D) Workers feel comfortable due to job security and practiced work

(E) Workers do not feel comfortable because of heavy pressure of work

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) and (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (C)

Key Points

  • Scientific Management theory was given by F.W. Taylor in 1911. (Known to be as Father of Scientific Management).
  • Unlike the rule of thumb, scientific management takes a deliberate, well-organized and dual approach to management.
  • This theory laid emphasize on finding out the most efficient way to perform a job in the workplace.
  • There are some Principles of Scientific Management:
  • Science, not Rule of thumb (choose best method to increase efficiency)
  • Standardization (setting of standards in advance)
  • Harmony, not Discord (no conflict between manager and employees)
  • Scientific Task Planning (amount of work to be perform by an average worker)
  • Cooperation, not Individualism (mutual cooperation; an extension of Harmony, not Discord)
  • Maximization of Output (more output generation)
  • Differential Piece Rate System ((high rate for high production level)
  • The problems commonly associated with the scientific management are:
  • ​Managers often implement only the increased output part of the plan.
  • Jobs become over-simplified and repetitive, often replaced by new technology.

 

​Hence, the correct answer is (A) and (C).

Question 42

The assumptions of rational decision making are:

(A) Preferences are not clear

(B) Preferences are not constant and stable

(C) Problem is clear and unambiguous 

(D) No time or cost constraint exist

(E) Final choice will maximize pay off

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C), (D), (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (D), (E) only

Key Points

  • Rational Decision making refers to the process wherein decision makers reasonably go through by the various steps and select the optimum/ best solution to a given problem.
  • It entails the capacity to assist the decision-maker by making the relevant information accessible and specific, which is made possible by the choice to make logical decisions.
  • Making decisions will help to proceed in an organized manner from problem to solution.
  • Utility is the goal of rational decision-making.
  • When making a sensible/ rational decision, structured questions are used to encourage in-depth investigation of the  issue that has to be solved.
  • The assumptions of rational decision making are:
  • ​An individual has cognitive ability to evaluate each alternative.
  • Problem is clear and unambiguous
  • There is no time or cost constraint exist
  • Final choice will maximize pay off

 

Hence, the correct answer is (C), (D), (E) only.

Question 43

Efficacy of written communication depends upon:

(A) Lengthy presentation 

(B) Editing after writing

(C) Brevity in sentences

(D) Use of strong words

(E) Effective use of words

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C) and (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B), (C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C) and (E)

Key Points 

The word Communication is derived from the Latin term 'Communis'.

In the process of communication, the messages are sent and received using both verbal (oral/ written) and non-verbal (gestures) cues.

Important Points

  There are various types of Communication. i.e. Formal communication, Informal communication, Oral communication, Written communication, Downward and Upward communication.

Some of these types are discussed under as follows:

 (a) Oral Communication: Verbal communication can be divided into two parts, i.e. oral communication and written communication. Oral communication refers to the spoken way of communication in which information/ message is transmitted with the help of spoken words. Methods of oral communication includes: T.V., Radio etc.

(b)Written Communication: It refers to that form of verbal communication in which message is transmitted through various different mediums, such as: Letters, Advertisement, E-mail etc.

Efficacy in written communication depends upon some factors; 

                          Editing after writing

                          Brevity in Sentences

                          Effective use of words

(c)Downward Communication: When a message is transmitted from high level authority to low level authority, then it is said to be downward communication. Another name to be used for downward communication is downstream communication.

(d)Upward Communication: When the information passes from the low level authorities ( subordinates ) to high level authorities (managers), then it is said to be upward communication. Another name to be used for upward communication is upstream communication.

Hence, the correct answer is (B), (C), (E) only.

Question 44

Talent management process include(s):

(A) Human resource planning

(B) Selection of employees

(C) Development of employees

(D) Employee compensation

(E) Employee seperation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is option 4.

Key PointsTalent management

  • The concept of talent management  is considered the set of functions and practices
  • it refers to recruiting, developing maintaining talent in the organization
  • it is a process of planning human resources to meet up with the demand of the organization under the terms of employing talented personnel

Important Points

  • Talent management is considered to be an essential asset of the organization.
  • Retaining talented work is the backbone success reason of every business.
  • Maintaining a talented workforce will reduce the cost of the hiring process
  • In order to maintain the talented workforce force human resources are the most essential requirement
  • By analyzing the current workforce talent and making proper arrangements for procuring the required talent force for the near future by implementing HR planning
  • pooling talented workforce is also decided the success of the business, the process of recruiting, and till the point of work incurring a lot of cost element.

Hence the correct answer is  (A) Human resource planning,((B) Selection of employees

(C) Development of employees

(D) Employee compensation

Question 45

Which of the following are the examples of need for status?

(A) Being in a position of authority over others

(B) Having executive privileges

(C) Participating in pleasant social activities

(D) Working for the right company in the right job

(E) Living in the right neighbourhood

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B), (D), (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (D), (E) only

Key Points

 1. Those people who take the group's leadership roles, manage its financial resources, or significantly contribute to its success typically enjoy high status in the organization. 2. There are some sources, with the help of status can be achieved in an organization. such as: Good Performance, Participation, etc. 3. Physiological needs are the basic needs of an individual, that are most essential for survival of an individual. e.g. food, shelter etc.

4.Safety needs are related with an individual's need to feel secure in the surroundings. It includes: Job Security, Safe Working Environment etc.

5.Social needs are comes under the category of affiliation needs, just as: relations with family, friends, colleagues etc.

6**.Esteem needs** are somewhere connected with status needs. These are egoistic needs. These are related with person's need for recognition, status, respect etc.

7**.Self Actualization** needs are related with the full potential of an individual. It includes: Pursuing life dreams, Obtaining different skills for bringing out their best version etc.

  1. Some examples of Status needs are :

                           Having executive privileges

                           Working for the right company in the right job

                           Living in the right neighbourhood etc**.**

Hence, the correct answer is (B), (D), (E) only.

Question 46

Which of the following are the underlying assumptions of cost-volume profit (CVP) analysis?

(A) Number of units produced and sold are equal

(B) Cost inputs and the output produced are linearly related

(C) Sales price and sales mix remain constant

(D) Zero base budgeting underly costs and pricing decisions

(E) Total fixed costs and variable cost per unit are constant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (C), and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 

(A) Number of units produced and sold are equal

(C) Sales price and sales mix remain constant

(E) Total fixed costs and variable cost per unit are constant

Key Points CVP analysis

  • CVP analysis is also known as Break-even analysis
  • it is a technique to study the interrelationship between cost, sales, profit
  • A higher volume of output will lower the cost of production
  • Fixed overhead cost reminds the same even the changes in the volume of output.

Important Points

  • CVP analysis shows the net effects that fluctuation in the cost, price, and volume as its profit.
  • The BEP point can be determined using the formula

         BEP=Total fixed cost/contribution per unit

  • The optimum level of production can be determined using CVP analysis
  • The total number of units produced  and sold are equal in BEP
  • The sales price and fixed and variable cost per unit are constant

Hence the correct answer is 

(A) Number of units produced and sold are equal

(C) Sales price and sales mix remain constant

(E) Total fixed costs and variable cost per unit are constant

Question 47

An approach of managing international operations in which nationality is down-played and the firm actively searches on world-wide or regional basis for the best people to fill key positions, is known as:

(A) Geocentric approach

(B) Ethnocentric approach

(C) Polycentric approach

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) only

Key Points 

 1. International Business engages in global business dealings involving goods, services, technology, etc. 2. International Business also known as Global Business.

3.International Business is mainly dominated by developed countries yet it gives benefits to all participating countries.

Important Points 

1.There are different approaches of International business, namely: 

                                Ethnocentric Approach

                                Polycentric Approach

                                Geocentric Approach

  1. Ethnocentric Approach:

a)The Ethnocentric Approach is one of the techniques used in international hiring, and it relies on a candidate's ability to blend in with the company's culture as well as their knowledge of the skills needed for the position.

b)According to the this approach, employees from the parent nation hold the important roles in the company.

  1. Polycentric Approach: A polycentric strategy involves hiring local staff for operations in the host nation through worldwide recruitment.
  2. Geocentric Approach: It refers to an approach of managing international operations in which nationality is down-played and the firm actively searches on world-wide or regional basis for the best people to fill key positions.

For Example: Consider the scenario where a company has a worker in Japan with unique skills that are needed in the UK. In that instance, the company can swiftly transfer this person to the United Kingdom.

Hence, the correct answer is (A) only.

Question 48

Which of the following technologies are fast changing the accounting ecosystems?

(A) Blockchain technology

(B) Enterprise Resource planning (ERP)

(C) Cloud computing

(D) Robotics

(E) Machine learning

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (D) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (C) and (E) only.

Key Points Technologies that are fast changing the accounting ecosystems are:

1. Cloud-based communication platforms

Cloud-based communication platforms allow for not only a better way of communicating with clients, but also a less clunky way to store and access an ever-growing amount of data online in “the cloud.” The cloud is essentially what allows you to work from anywhere.

2. Blockchain 

Blockchain is a technology that’s rapidly gaining traction in the accounting business. Blockchain refers to the distribution and decentralization of database technology and protects encrypted data while recording and adding transactions to participants’ ledgers. 

3. Automation and machine learning

As the business world grapples to balance employee expectations with artificial intelligence, it’s the right moment for CFAs to consider how the two can work alongside each other to streamline business operations. Accounting is moving towards being codeless, which means that soon enough, time-consuming data-entry tasks will be redundant.

Additional Information Robotics- Robotic process automation (RPA) is a software technology that makes it easy to build, deploy, and manage software robots that emulate humans' actions interacting with digital systems and software.

ERP- Enterprise resource planning (ERP) refers to a type of software that organizations use to manage day-to-day business activities such as accounting, procurement, project management, risk management and compliance, and supply chain operations.

Hence, the correct answer is (A), (C), (E) only.

Question 49

Which of the following focus of OD interventions are relevant if the nature of intervention is structured?

(A) Reorganization

(B) Team development

(C) Counselling

(D) Work review

(E) MBO

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (D), (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is '(A), (D), (E) only'.

Key Points

  • Reorganization:
  • This is correct.
  • Reorganization involves a structured approach to redesigning the organizational framework to improve efficiency and effectiveness.
  • Work review:
  • This is correct.
  • Work review involves a structured assessment of work processes and outcomes to ensure alignment with organizational goals and identify areas for improvement.
  • Management by Objectives (MBO):
  • This is correct.
  • MBO is a structured approach where managers and employees collaborate to set, monitor, and achieve specific objectives, ensuring accountability and performance improvement.

Additional Information

  • Team development:
  • This is incorrect.
  • Team development focuses on enhancing team dynamics and performance, often using less structured and more adaptive approaches.
  • Counselling:
  • This is incorrect.
  • Counselling in an organizational context typically involves personalized support and guidance, which is less structured and more individualized compared to other interventions.

Question 50

While preparing a budget, which of the following activities enable managers to do a better job of managing:

(A) Advance warning of and assignment of responsibility for conditions that require corrective action

(B) Develop new policy to improve control of inventory management

(C) Adjusting the budget to reflect different levels of sales or production

(D) Coordination of activities among all departments whithin the organization

(E) Creation of standards for evaluating performance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (D) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (D) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

​​​The correct option is (A), (D) and (E) only.

Key Points Budget

  • A budget is a financial blueprint or action plan for a department or organization.
  • Forecasting future business results
  • Managing the subsequent activities to achieve the budgeted result.

Important Points

  • The process of preparing a budget includes

1)Setting goals

2)Evaluating and choosing options

3)Identifying the budget impacts

4)Coordinating departmental budget

5)preparing the budget

  • The management should have oversight on the budget that they are going to implement
  • For the successful implementation of the budget, they need to assign all necessary duties in advance and coordinate all the elements of the workforce, and also need to take corrective action where ever it requires.
  • in order to manage the inventory level throughout the budget process and effective controlling measures to be taken.
  • for achieving the desired level of sales the budgets are adjusted
  • Successful budget implementation is possible by unifying these activities and bringing all together there budgeted goals are achived.

Hence the correct answer is (A), (D) and (E) only

Question 51

Which of the following are essential characteristics of financial markets?

(A) Price continuity and depth

(B) Liquidity and marketability

(C) Normative governance and regulation

(D) Timely and accurate information flow

(E) Minimum transaction cost and informational efficiency

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B) and (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 

(A) Price continuity and depth

(B) Liquidity and marketability

(C) Normative governance and regulation

Key Points

  • A financial market is a place that provides buying and selling of financial instruments such as shares, dentures derivatives, bonds, etc

Important Points

  • There are different types of financial markets available  that are

1) Stock market 

  • stock markets trade shares of ownership of public companies ,trade taken place from seller to the buyer on specific price.

2) Bond market

  • Capital raising through the issuance of bonds having different maturity periods with specific terms and conditions regarding payment of interest as well as payment of principal amount at the time of maturity.

3) Commodity market

  • Market in which traders buy and sell commodities, the market helps in reducing the uncertainty regarding the price value of the commodities.

4) Derivatives market

Derivatives are instruments whose value is derived from an underlying asset.

Characteristics of financial market

  • Financial market provides liquidity and marketability of financial instruments such as bonds ,shares etc
  • Intimation on price level changes can be determined easily
  • By analyzing demand and supply factors the fluctuation can be  managed  in advance
  • Risk reduction by undertaking systematic analysis
  • The market regulated an governed under specific rules and regulations
  • Analysing market both past as well present data the level of price changes can be predic in accurate manner.

Hence the correct answer is 

(A) Price continuity and depth

(B) Liquidity and marketability

(C) Normative governance and regulation

Question 52

Which of the following statements are true in context of customer value and satisfaction concept?

(A) Value perceptions increase with quality, service and price

(B) Customer value triad is primarily a combination of quality, service and price

(C) Marketing is the identification, creation, communication, delivery and monitoring of customers value

(D) If the perceived performance of the product matches with perceived expectations, the customer is delighted

(E) Satisfaction reflects a person's judgement of a product's perceived performance in relation to expectations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 

(B) Customer value triad is primarily a combination of quality, service, and price

(C) Marketing is the identification, creation, communication, delivery, and monitoring of customers' value

(E) Satisfaction reflects a person's judgement of a product's perceived performance in relation to expectations

Key Points

Customer value

  • Customer value is the benefit that the customer gets from a product in comparing its cost
  • organization has a strong focus on customer value will form a sustainable competitive advantage.
  • customer is valuing a product based on how their requirement is met by the product and they compare the cost incurred for the same with their value.

Customer satisfaction

  • Customer satisfaction is nothing but the reflection that how the customer satisfaction with the product
  • if the product meets the requirement of the customers and they are happy with its usage bans are considered customer satisfaction
  • customer satisfaction achieving not only from sales but also from after-sales services.Eg-product which required service during their lifetime such as electric products.

Hence the correct answer is 

(B) Customer value triad is primarily a combination of quality, service, and price

(C) Marketing is the identification, creation, communication, delivery, and monitoring of customers' value

(E) Satisfaction reflects a person's judgement of a product's perceived performance in relation to expectations

Question 53

Which of the following statements characterise the growth phase of product life-cycle?

(A) Build intensive distribution

(B) Maximize profit while defending market share

(C) Build awareness and interest in the mass market

(D) Diversify brand and items models

(E) Price to penetrate market

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The option is 

A) Build intensive distribution

(C) Build awareness and interest in the mass market

(E) Price to penetrate the market

Key Points

  • product life cycle model describes the pattern of sales of a product over time.
  • American economist Theodore Levitt founded the PLC model
  • a product passes through different stages and each stage has its own importance

Important Points \Stages Of Product life cycle

1)Introduction

  • a new product introduced and people are unaware of this product and there is a requirement to take proper promotion measures to popularize the product among the customers.

2)Growth

  • As result, rapid promotion measures the demand for the product increasing and the price level decreasing.
  • The competitors who entered with new products and in order to compete with them need to take proper promotion measures there so they can achieve the growth of the products.

3)Maturity

  • as a result of stable promotions and marketing measures, the product become more popular and it had stable demand in the market the sales will increase at decreasing rate and the market having many competitors
  • The business remains attractive as a result of prior promotions and development measures.

4)Saturation

  • In saturation, stage products become less favorable to the customers
  • in order to attract the customers proper developmental measures to take.
  • ravialfirms become more profitable during this stage.

5)Decline

  • as a result of the rapid decline in sales volume, the business become incompetent
  • business no longer sustain in the market they will sell out the business or product or by declining the investment for the particular product category.

Hence the correct answer is

A) Build intensive distribution

(C) Build awareness and interest in the mass market

(E) Price to penetrate the market

Question 54

Which of the following tests/studies are related to testing of the weak form stock market efficiency?

(A) Event studies

(B) Size effect

(C) Runs test

(D) Price-Earnings (P/E) ratios

(E) Autocorrelation tests

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is (C) and (E)

Key Points

  • Weak form efficiency referees to a marketwhere share price is fully and fairly reflect with all past data.
  • By determining the weakness of market efficiency the investor can make wise decision before making investment regarding the scope earning abnormal gain.

Run Test

  • Run test is a non-parametric test designed to examine whether or not an observed sequence in random
  • its sequence of consecutive price changes with the same sign

Autocorrelation Tests:

  • Description: Autocorrelation tests measure the correlation between a series of stock price returns and lagged values of the same series.
  • Procedure: By calculating the autocorrelation coefficients of return series at different lags, researchers can identify whether past price changes have a predictive relationship with future price changes.
  • Significance: In a weak form efficient market, the autocorrelation coefficients should be close to zero, indicating no predictable pattern. Significant positive or negative autocorrelation would imply that past returns are related to future returns, suggesting inefficiency.

Important Points

 The techniques for studying the weeknes of market are

1)Event studies

  • its statistical method to study and asess the impact of an event on the value of a firm .

2)Size effect

  • Its a statistical method where it measures the strength of relationship between two varibales in population.

Hence the correct answer is (C) and (E).​

Question 55

Which of the following are the myths of brand communities?

(A) Build the brand and the community will follow

(B) Focus on opinion leaders to build a strong community

(C) Brand communities exist to serve the business

(D) Online social networks are the best way to build community 

(E) Social networks are one community tool, but the tool is not the strategy

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (E) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D)only.

Key Points Myths of Brand Communities:

Myth 1: Community building is a marketing strategy

Brand communities are often mistakenly relegated to the marketing department, when managers should rather think of them as a business strategy. Community management needs to think all-encompassing and aligned with the entire business. Sufficient time should be invested in this concept.

Myth 2: A brand community primarily serves the company

Community building serves customers, and they are nothing but people. They have needs and interests. Transactions such as purchases or registrations do not create loyalty – understanding and representation of interests, on the other hand, do. Such a community can offer a customer many things. Mental support and learning new skills are just two of the many possibilities.

Myth 3: Community building follows the brand

Brand communities only become strong through their customers and need to be structured. The three most important types of structure are pools, webs, and hubs. In a pool, an emotional bond is created through shared values and goals.

Myth 4: Brand communities are only built on shared love

Conflict can also make a group strong. Unfortunately, it is in our nature to avoid disagreements. However, in community building, it can be useful to highlight them instead. This can create a closer bond and remind customers why they stick together. Over time, this community building can even result in its own competitive advantage.

Myth 5: Rely on the leader instead of the community itself for community building.

Opinionated leaders are important. Yet brand communities are strongest when every member of the community plays a role. Studies have shown that in brand communities, different social roles exist in which different tasks are performed.

Myth 6: The Internet is the best strategy for community building

Using the power of the Internet is one way, but not an entire business strategy. Social networks are, of course, very good for spreading information, getting new feedback and ideas, and creating connections.

Hence, the correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D)only.

Question 56

Which of the following statements are true?

(A) A good measure of dispersion is not duly affected by extreme observations

(B) Standard deviation incorporates the effect of extreme values thus making it most reliable measure of dispersion

(C) Co-efficient of determination (R2) is always positive and less than one

(D) Non parametric tests do not require us to make restrictive assumptions about shape of population distribution

(E) Z-test can not be applied when population is normal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (C), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (C), (D) only.

Key Points (A) A good measure of dispersion is not duly affected by extreme observations

The important advantage of interquartile range is that it can be used as a measure of variability if the extreme values are not being recorded exactly (as in case of open-ended class intervals in the frequency distribution)

(C) Co-efficient of determination (R2) is always positive and less than one

The coefficient of determination (R²) is a number between 0 and 1 that measures how well a statistical model predicts an outcome.

(D) Non parametric tests do not require us to make restrictive assumptions about shape of population distribution

  • Nonparametric statistical tests rely on no or few assumptions about the shape or the parameters of the population distribution from which the sample was drawn.
  • If the data are indeed normal, a nonparametric test will generally have less power for the same sample size compared to the corresponding parametric test.

Additional Information (B) Standard deviation incorporates the effect of extreme values thus making it most reliable measure of dispersion

This statement is incorrect. Standard deviation (SD) is the most commonly used measure of dispersion. It is a measure of spread of data about the mean.

SD is the square root of sum of squared deviation from the mean divided by the number of observations.

The reason why SD is a very useful measure of dispersion is that, if the observations are from a normal distribution, then[3] 68% of observations lie between mean ± 1 SD 95% of observations lie between mean ± 2 SD and 99.7% of observations lie between mean ± 3 SD

(E) Z-test can not be applied when population is normal:

This statement is incorrect. A z-test can only be used if the population standard deviation is known and the sample size is 30 data points or larger. 

Hence, the correct answer is (A), (C), (D) only.

Question 57

Indicate correct options of the following statements on data collection and questionnaire design.

(A) In order to ensure sufficiency of data, the field questionnaire must be 10% above the required number

(B) In structured interviews, interviewers attributes can significantly affect the respondent's replies

(C) Presentation of closed-ended questions and the general layout constitute important considerations in preparing a self administrated questionnaire

(D) In computer assisted data collection, degree of control over the interview process is high

(E) Description of important terminologies/jargons helps to improve the efficiency of respondent in filling the questionnarie

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (D), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (C), (D), (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C), (D) (E)only.

Key Points The design of a questionnaire will depend on whether the researcher wishes to collect exploratory information (i.e. qualitative information for the purposes of better understanding or the generation of hypotheses on a subject) or quantitative information (to test specific hypotheses that have previously been generated).

  • A well-designed questionnaire should meet the research objectives. This may seem obvious, but many research surveys omit important aspects due to inadequate preparatory work, and do not adequately probe particular issues due to poor understanding.
  • To a certain degree some of this is inevitable. Every survey is bound to leave some questions unanswered and provide a need for further research but the objective of good questionnaire design is to 'minimise' these problems.
  • It should obtain the most complete and accurate information possible. The questionnaire designer needs to ensure that respondents fully understand the questions and are not likely to refuse to answer, lie to the interviewer or try to conceal their attitudes.
  • A good questionnaire is organised and worded to encourage respondents to provide accurate, unbiased and complete information.
  • A well-designed questionnaire should make it easy for respondents to give the necessary information and for the interviewer to record the answer, and it should be arranged so that sound analysis and interpretation are possible.
  • It would keep the interview brief and to the point and be so arranged that the respondent(s) remain interested throughout the interview.

Hence, the correct answer is (B), (C), (D). (E) only.

Question 58

Which of the following statement(s) are true in the context of quality standards?

(A) KAIZEN approach deals with continuous improvement

(B) BIS represents India in ISO

(C) TQM cannot applied to crude oil refining

(D) Six sigma allows 3.4 defects per one million cases

(E) Statistical quality control applications are limited to manufacturing industries

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (D), (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (D) only.

Important Points(A) KAIZEN approach deals with continuous improvement

  • Kaizen, or rapid improvement processes, often is considered to be the "building block" of all lean production methods.
  • Kaizen focuses on eliminating waste, improving productivity, and achieving sustained continual improvement in targeted activities and processes of an organization.

(B) BIS represents India in ISO

  • BIS is a founder member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
  • It represents India in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and the World Standards Service Network (WSSN).

(D) Six sigma allows 3.4 defects per one million cases

  • Six Sigma is a statistical term used to measure the number of defects that processes create.
  • The term implies high-quality performance because a process performing at a Six Sigma level allows only 3.4 defects per one million opportunities.

Hence, only (A), (B) and (D) only is correct.

Additional Information(C) TQM cannot be applied to crude oil refining

  • TQM originated in the manufacturing sector, its principles can be applied to a variety of industries.
  • With a focus on long-term change rather than short-term goals, it provides a cohesive vision for systemic change.
  • With this in mind, TQM is used in many industries, including, but not limited to, manufacturing, banking and finance, and medicine.

(E) Statistical quality control applications are limited to manufacturing industries

  • Statistical quality control, the use of statistical methods in the monitoring and maintaining of the quality of products and services.
  • One method, referred to as acceptance sampling, can be used when a decision must be made to accept or reject a group of parts or items based on the quality found in a sample.

 

Hence, (C) and (E) is not correct.

Question 59

Business intelligence is to improve the timeliness and quality of the input for decision-making. It helps the managers to understand which of the following:

(A) Internal capabilities of the organization

(B) Trends and future directions in the markets

(C) External environment such as economic, political, social and demographic environment

(D) Behaviour of the competitors

(E) External capabilities of the organization

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D) only.

Important Points Business Intelligence:

  • Business intelligence (BI) is a technology-driven process for analyzing data and delivering actionable information that helps executives, managers, and workers make informed business decisions.
  • As part of the BI process, organizations collect data from internal IT systems and external sources, prepare it for analysis, run queries against the data, and create data visualizations,
  • BI dashboards, and reports to make the analytics results available to business users for operational decision-making and strategic planning.
  • The ultimate goal of BI initiatives is to drive better business decisions that enable organizations to increase revenue, improve operational efficiency, and gain competitive advantages over business rivals.
  • To achieve that goal, BI incorporates a combination of analytics, data management, and reporting tools, plus various methodologies for managing and analyzing data.

Hence, the correct answer is (A), (B), (C), and (D) only.

Question 60

Arrange the following bond issues in increasing order of the underlying risk:

(A) Convertible bonds

(B) Callable bonds

(C) Mortgage bonds

(D) Unsecured bond

(E) Junk bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (B), (A), (D), (E). 

Key Points 

  • A mortgage bond is a bond backed by real estate holdings or real property. In the event of a default situation, mortgage bondholders could sell off the underlying property backing a bond to compensate for the default. Mortgage bonds tend to be safer than corporate bonds and, therefore, typically have a lower rate of return.
  • A callable bond, also known as a redeemable bond, is a bond that the issuer may redeem before it reaches the stated maturity date. A callable bond allows the issuing company to pay off its debt early. A business may choose to call its bond if market interest rates move lower, which will allow them to re-borrow at a more beneficial rate.
  • A convertible bond is a fixed-income corporate debt security that yields interest payments but can be converted into a predetermined number of common stock or equity shares. The conversion from the bond to stock can be done at certain times during the bond's life and is usually at the discretion of the bondholder.
  • An unsecured bond is an obligation of an organization or government that is not backed by any assets. An unsecured bond is also not backed by the stream of cash flows from any revenue-generating operations. Instead, investors are relying upon the general creditworthiness of the issuer in deciding whether to purchase such a bond.
  • Junk bonds are bonds that carry a higher risk of default than most bonds issued by corporations and governments. A bond is a debt or promises to pay investors interest payments along with the return of invested principal in exchange for buying the bond. Junk bonds represent bonds issued by companies that are financially struggling and have a high risk of defaulting or not paying their interest payments or repaying the principal to investors.

Hence, The correct answer is (C), (B), (A), (D), (E).

Question 61

Arrange the following in the ascending order in terms of their equity market capitalisation:

(A) India

(B) United States (USA)

(C) Hong Kong

(D) Japan

(E) China

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D), (B), (C), (E), (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (E), (D), (C), (A)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (C), (D), (E), (B).

Key Points Equity Market Capitalisation: 

  • Equity market capitalization refers to the total value of all shares traded on the equity market.
  • It is derived by adding up the individual market caps of all stocks in the market, providing an aggregate figure.
  • Equity market cap is used to roughly gauge changes in the size of the economy, to track inflows or outflows from equities to other markets, and to compare the size of the stock market to other asset classes.
  • Because an individual company's market cap is a moving target, equity market capitalization is only a rough measure.

Important Points 

List of countries in ascending order in terms of their equity market capitalisation:

CountryTotal Market Capitalisation(in mil. US$)Total market cap
(% of GDP)
India2,595,46597.3
Hong Kong6,130,4201768.8
Japan6,718,220122.2
China13,214,31183.0
United States44,719,661194.5

 

Hence, The correct answer is (A), (C), (D), (E), (B).

Mistake Points Here the question has two parts into it. FirstThe first is talking about the equity market Capitalisation and the second major part is sequencing the options in ascending order. So, first we look at the position of equity market capitalization and then we arrange them in order. The table provides the data on the basis of which we can arrange the countries in ascending order.

Question 62

Arrange the following steps in the segmentation process in sequential order:

(A) Determine which demographics, life styles and usage behaviour make the segment distinct and actionable

(B) Create a "value proposition" and product-price positioning strategy for each segment

(C) Group customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by them

(D) Determine overall attractiveness of each segment based on some predetermined criteria

(E) Create 'segment story board' to list the attractiveness of each segment's positioning strategy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

Key Points 

Market Segmentation: 

  • Market Segmentation is the term given to the grouping of customers with similar needs by a number of different variables.
  • Once this has been done, segments can be targeted by a number of targeting strategies.
  • The stage that then follows is known as positioning which is the place that products or services occupy in the marketplace in relation to the competition, as perceived by the target market.
  • The underlying principle of market segmentation is that individual customers have different product and service needs.
  • Mass marketing, the marketing of a single product to everyone, is rarely a viable strategy, just as it is to customize products to an individual.

Important Points

Steps in Segmentation Process: 

(C) Group customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by them

(A) Determine which demographics, lifestyles, and usage behavior make the segment distinct and actionable

(D) Determine the overall attractiveness of each segment based on some predetermined criteria

(B) Create a "value proposition" and product-price positioning strategy for each segment

(E) Create a 'segment storyboard' to list the attractiveness of each segment's positioning strategy

Hence, the correct answer is (C), (A), (D), (E), (B).

Question 63

Arrange the following modes of entry in foreign markets starting with the mode of entry having least commitment, risk, control and profit potential:

(A) Company hires a local manufacturer to produce the product.

(B) Company starts exports working through domestic export agents and exports management companies.

(C) Company joins hands with local investor and forms a company in which both share ownership and control.

(D) Company starts export using domestic export department and overseas sales branch.

(E) Company offers a complete brand concept and operating system to an investor in return of certain fee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (B), (E), (C), (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (D), (E), (A), (C)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B), (D), (E), (A), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (D), (A), (E), (C). 

Key Points 

 

B) Company starts exports working through domestic export agents and exports management companies:

In this strategy, the company leverages the expertise of domestic export agents and exports management companies to enter international markets. These intermediaries help facilitate the export process, handle documentation, logistics, and distribution, and assist with market research and finding potential customers abroad. This approach allows the company to tap into the knowledge and networks of established export professionals, minimizing the complexities and risks associated with international expansion.

D) Company starts export using domestic export department and overseas sales branch:

This strategy involves the company establishing its own export department to handle international sales and marketing activities. The company sets up a dedicated team within its organization to manage export operations, including identifying target markets, building relationships with customers abroad, handling logistics and shipping, and overseeing export-related documentation and compliance. Additionally, the company may establish an overseas sales branch or office to have a local presence in target markets, enabling better customer support and market penetration.

E) Company offers a complete brand concept and operating system to an investor in return for a certain fee:

In this strategy, the company licenses or franchises its brand concept and operating system to an investor or partner in another country. The company provides a comprehensive package that includes its brand identity, marketing strategies, operational guidelines, and intellectual property rights. In return, the investor pays a fee or royalties to the company for using its brand and system. This approach allows the company to expand its brand presence globally without directly managing operations in every location, leveraging the expertise and resources of local partners.

A) Company hires a local manufacturer to produce the product:

This strategy involves the company outsourcing the manufacturing process to a local manufacturer in the target market. By partnering with a local manufacturer, the company can benefit from lower production costs, access to local supply chains, and better understanding of local regulations and market preferences. This approach allows the company to adapt its products to the specific needs and preferences of the target market while reducing production and transportation costs.

C) Company joins hands with a local investor and forms a company in which both share ownership and control:

In this strategy, the company forms a partnership with a local investor or business entity to establish a joint venture or a subsidiary in the target market. Both the company and the local investor contribute capital, resources, and expertise to the new entity, sharing ownership and control. This approach allows the company to leverage the local investor's knowledge of the market, distribution networks, and regulatory landscape while maintaining a level of control and influence in the operations.

Important PointsThe sequence of modes of entry in foreign markets starting with the mode of entry having the least commitment, risk, control and profit potential:

 

(B) Company starts exports working through domestic export agents and export management companies.

(D) Company starts exporting using the domestic export department and overseas sales branch.

(E) Company offers a complete brand concept and operating system to an investor in return of a certain fee.

(A) Company hires a local manufacturer to produce the product.

(C) Company joins hands with a local investor and forms a company in which both share ownership and control.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (B), (D), (A), (E), (C).

Question 64

What is the correct sequence of steps involved in the master production schedule preparation?

(A) Obtaining the net requirement of materials

(B) Revising the preliminary master production schedule to accommodate the inadequacy of materials

(C) Obtaining the specification on required production

(D) Assessing the inventory in hand and on order

(E) Determining the gross requirements of materials using MRP

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (E), (C), (D), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (E), (D), (A), (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(C), (E), (D), (A), (B)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C), (E), (D), (A), (B)

Key Points Master production schedule:

  • Master production scheduling is a production planning process that creates a central document a master production schedule or MPS that tells you what make-to-stock or sales orders you need to manufacture, what quantity of these products your factory needs to produce, and when these products need to be completed.
  • As the name implies, a master production schedule determines what products are manufactured, when they are produced, and in what quantities.
  • The required raw materials are identified by the finished goods BOM, the data from which is integrated with current inventory data to create the MRP for raw materials procurement.
  • The master production schedule forms the basis of communication between sales and manufacturing.
  • A master production schedule is a dynamic plan and can be adjusted when there are changes in demand or capacity.

Important Points

The correct sequence of steps involved in the master production schedule preparation are:

(C) Obtaining the specification on the required production

(E) Determining the gross requirements of materials using MRP

(D) Assessing the inventory in hand and on order

(A) Obtaining the net requirement of materials

(B) Revising the preliminary master production schedule to accommodate the inadequacy of materials

Hence, the correct answer is (C), (E), (D), (A), (B).

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow:

Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units, constitution of task force for animation, visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC), launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker. Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education, health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar. UPI. Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning, internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

Question 65

Which of the following could be the most appropriate title of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Digital Transformation

  2. BOption (b)

    Digital India: Way Ahead

  3. COption (c)

    India: Digital and Skill Capital

  4. DOption (d)

    Vishava Guru Bharat: Digital Challenge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Digital India: Way Ahead

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Digital India: Way Ahead. 

Key Points Digital India:

  • Digital India is a campaign launched by the Government of India to ensure that the Government's services are made available to citizens electronically through improved online infrastructure and by increasing Internet connectivity or making the country digitally empowered in the field of technology.
  • The initiative includes plans to connect rural areas with high-speed internet networks. It consists of three core components: the development of secure and stable digital infrastructure, delivering government services digitally, and universal digital literacy.
  • Launched on 1 July 2015, by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, it is both enabler and beneficiary of other key Government of India schemes, such as BharatNet, Make in India, Startup India, Standup India, industrial corridors, Bharatmala and Sagarmala.
  • The passage explains on How Digital India is to be taken forward in the upcoming financial year and emphasis the importance of the same.

 

Hence, Digital India: Way Ahead could be the most appropriate title of the passage.

Question 66

According to the passage, which one is the most crucial for the universalization of digital inclusion?

  1. AOption (a)

    Artificial intelligence. machine learning and internet of things

  2. BOption (b)

    New Laws to promote accountability, cyber security and privacy

  3. COption (c)

    Digital promotion in education, health, agriculture and logistics

  4. DOption (d)

    Digital skilling and capacity building

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

New Laws to promote accountability, cyber security and privacy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Laws to promote accountability, cyber security and privacy.

Key Points 

  • There is an equally strong need to modernize digital laws in India to support the growth of the digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world.
  • A national policy on data governance is the need of the hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.
  • The above statements from the passage clearly explain that strong laws on digital inclusion very crucial for its universalization.

 

Hence, New Laws to promote accountability, cyber security, and privacy is the most crucial for the universalization of digital inclusion.

Question 67

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): India needs to modernize its digital Laws to support the rapid growth of the digital economy.

Reasons (R): New digital Laws are needed for digital inclusion and bringing more people to the digital world thus to increase digital users.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

Important Points

  • There is an equally strong need to modernize digital laws in India to support the growth of the digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world.
  • A national policy on data governance is the need of the hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India's skill and talent capital of the world.
  • Thus based on the above statement, Assertion A and Reason R is true.
  • It also shows that R is the correct explanation of A.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 68

What has been the focus for digital transformation in the India Union Budget, 2022?

(A) High speed broadband connectivity

(B) Accountability of online platforms

(C) Infrastructure status to data centres

(D) Increasing data and intellectual property security

(E) Task force for Animation, Visual effects, Gaming and Comics (AVGC)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(C) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (C) and (E) only. 

  • A Union budget is an estimation of the revenue and expenditure of the Central Government over a specified period of time which is usually one year.
  • The Union Budget seeks to complement macro-economic level growth with a focus on micro-economic level all-inclusive welfare.
  • The Union Minister for Finance & Corporate Affairs, Smt Nirmala Sitharaman tabled the Union Budget 2022-23 in Parliament 01.02.2022.

Important Points 

Infrastructure status to data centres:

  • The capacity of data centres is measured in terms of the power they consume which reflects on the scale of the server they are hosting in their facilities.
  • Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman made an announcement in the budget speech for 2022-23, that data centres would be granted infrastructure status.

Task force for Animation, Visual effects, Gaming and Comics (AVGC):

  • The Union Budget 2022-23 announced the formation of an AVGC Promotion Task Force to realise and develop – local capacity, and local and global demand, to widen the scope of the AVGC industry.
  • Accordingly, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (I&B) has established an AVGC Promotion Task Force.

The Task Force’s Terms of Reference include:

  • Developing a national AVGC policy.
  • Recommend a national curricular framework for AVGC-related graduate, postgraduate, and doctoral courses.
  • Collaborate on skilling initiatives with academic institutions, vocational training centres and industry.
  • Increase employment opportunities.
  • Increase exports and recommend incentives to attract FDI in the AVGC sector, etc.

Hence, the correct answer is (C) and (E) only.

Question 69

Which of the following initiatives have already initiated India's digital transformation process in governance, economy and society?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aadhaar, UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs)

  2. BOption (b)

    Production Linked Incentive Scheme

  3. COption (c)

    PM Gati Shakti Initiaives

  4. DOption (d)

    Industry academia participation for digital technologies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Aadhaar, UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aadhaar, UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs).

Key Points Digital India:

  • Digital India is a campaign launched by the Government of India to ensure that the Government's services are made available to citizens electronically through improved online infrastructure and by increasing Internet connectivity or making the country digitally empowered in the field of technology.
  • The initiative includes plans to connect rural areas with high-speed internet networks. It consists of three core components: the development of secure and stable digital infrastructure, delivering government services digitally, and universal digital literacy.
  • Launched on 1 July 2015, by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, it is both enabler and beneficiary of other key Government of India schemes, such as BharatNet, Make in India, Startup India, Standup India, industrial corridors, Bharatmala and Sagarmala.

Important Points

  • Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in a digitally driven transformation in governance, economy, and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker.
  • Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores.
  • The above statement makes it clear that Aadhaar, UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs)  have already initiated India's digital transformation process in governance, economy and society.

Hence, the correct answer is Aadhaar, UPI, and Common Service Centers (CSCs).

Question 70

Which of the following statements are true in the context of CRM (Customer Relationship Management) 2.0?

(A) Customer interactions are not pre planned but happen in real time

(B) Software as a service is the dominant CRM model particularly in small and medium-sized businesses

(C) Customer data is typically stored on corporate servers only

(D) Means available for analytics are only standard multivariate statistical procedures such as cluster analysis and logistic regression

(E) CRM 2.0 uses massive amounts of structured and unstructured data

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (D) and (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B) and (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is (A) Customer interactions are not pre-planned but happen in real-time, (B) Software as a service is the dominant CRM model particularly in small and medium-sized businesses

(E) CRM 2.0 uses massive amounts of structured and unstructured data,

 

Key Points Customer Relationship management

  • Relationship marketing was first introduced by Leonard berry in 1983
  • CRM is a business strategy that aims to understand and anticipate and manage the needs of the organization's current and potential customers.
  • CRM touches every area of the business including sales, customer service, and field support through the integration of people, processes, and technology.
  • it is concerned with the enhancement of individual customers.

Important Points

  • The present requirement of the business is to compete with multiproduct offerings created and delivered by the networks.
  • The main object behind adopting  CRM is to maintain long-term relationships with customers.
  • The customer interaction is not preplanned but it happens in real-time as they are treated as key point business and interaction happens so on
  • The information related the end customers are stored and which can be utilized for making good relation through out the periods
  • By using differents statistical tools we can analyst the data in effective manner.

Additional Information

  • Here is a summary of the characteristics of CRM 2.0:
  • Customer-centric: CRM 2.0 is focused on building relationships with customers. It does this by understanding the customer's needs and expectations, and then providing them with a personalized experience.
  • Social media-enabled: CRM 2.0 uses social media and other online channels to interact with customers. This allows businesses to connect with customers on a more personal level and build relationships with them.
  • Data-driven: CRM 2.0 collects and analyzes large amounts of data about customers. This data is used to gain insights into customer behavior and preferences. These insights can then be used to personalize the customer experience and improve customer satisfaction.
  • Collaborative: CRM 2.0 is collaborative. It allows different departments within a business to share information about customers. This helps to ensure that customers receive a consistent experience across all channels.
  • Cloud-based: CRM 2.0 is often cloud-based. This means that it is hosted on the internet and can be accessed from anywhere. This makes it easy for businesses to use CRM 2.0 to manage their customer relationships.

Question 71

Innovative small firms are more likely to be in existence in which of the following sectors?

(A) Knowledge-based services

(B) Biotechnology

(C) Information technology

(D) Automobiles

(E) Cement

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (C) only.

Key Points Innovation in knowledge based services:

  • Knowledge  based  economies  give  importance  to  the  role  of  knowledge  and  also  technology  fo  economic growth.
  • Knowledge is one of the most  important factors which  supports economic development. Hence there are  many  factors  which  has  an  important  contribution  of  such  a  development.
  • Some  of  those  factors  are technological progress, globalization of  the  world economy, increased  importance  of specialized knowledge, increased  awareness  of  the  importance  of knowledge  for  country´s  economic  development  and  creation  of new jobs.

Innovation in Information Technology:

  • IT innovation can be used to support a variety of enterprise needs including product, process, or business model development or improvement.
  • Product development: developing new and innovative products or innovating existing products.
  • Process improvement: developing new processes and solutions for existing problems.

Hence, the correct answer is (A) and (C) only.

Question 72

Given below are two statements:

Statements I: Employers use human resource management activities to help employees realize their full career potential.

Statements II: Employers do this just because they gain by making better utilization of employees potential.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points Human Resource Management:

Human Resource Management deals with management functions like planning, organizing, directing, and controlling

  • It deals with the procurement of human resources, training & development, and maintenance of human resources.
  • It helps to achieve individual, organizational, and social objectives

Human Resource Management is a multidisciplinary subject. 

  • It includes the study of management, psychology, communication, economics, and sociology.
  • It also deals with building team spirit and teamwork.
  • It is a continuous process.

Important Points

  • It is expected that the HR department, like any other team, be always focused on ensuring the success of the business.
  • HR can support employees by helping them map out their career paths. They can help them plan and achieve their ultimate career objective.
  • This can further help the employee build a comprehensive career path toward their most prized objective.
  • Thus Statement I is Correct.
  • Employers do this not just because they gain by making better utilization of employees' potential, but also to have employee engagement and employee loyalty.
  • Thus Statement II is incorrect.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Question 73

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Effective channel management calls for selecting intermediaries and training and motivating them in order to build long term partnership. 

Statement II: Channel integration must recognize the distinctive strengths of online and offline selling and maximize their joint contributions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key PointsChannel management:

  • Once the company has reviewed its channel alternatives and decided on the best channel design, it must implement and manage the chosen channel. Channel management calls for selecting, managing, and motivating individual channel members and evaluating their performance over time.
  • Once selected, channel members must be continuously managed and motivated to do their best.
  • The company must sell not only through the intermediaries but to and with them.
  • Most companies see their intermediaries as first-line customers and partners. They practice strong partner relationship management (PRM) to forge long-term partnerships with channel members.
  • This creates a marketing system that meets the needs of both the company and its partners.
  • Thus Statement I is correct.

Channel integration:

  • Channel integration refers to strategies aimed at consolidating — either physically or logically — customer information and its use to provide an all-encompassing view of the customer.
  • Channel integration must recognize the distinctive strengths of online, offline, and mobile selling and maximize their joint contributions.
  • Thus Statement II is correct.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 74

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Interest coverage ratio indicates how many times fixed interest charges are earned, based on the earnings available to pay these expenses.

Statement II: One minus the reciprocal of interest coverage ratio indicates how far earnings could decline before it would be impossible to pay the interest charges from current earnings.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Statement I and II are true

Key Points Interest coverage ratio: 

  • The interest coverage ratio is a debt and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can pay interest on its outstanding debt.

Statement I: The interest coverage ratio indicates how many times fixed interest charges are earned, based on the earnings available to pay these expenses.

  • The interest coverage ratio is a debt and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can pay interest on its outstanding debt. The interest coverage ratio is calculated by dividing a company's earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) by its interest expense during a given period.

Statement II: One minus the reciprocal of interest coverage ratio indicates how far earnings could decline before it would be impossible to pay the interest charges from current earnings.

  • The interest coverage ratio is calculated by dividing a company's earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) by its interest expense during a given period.
  • The formula used is: Interest Coverage Ratio= EBIT/Interest Expense
  • ​The lower the ratio, the more the company is burdened by debt expenses and the less capital it has to use in other ways. When a company's interest coverage ratio is only 1.5 or lower, its ability to meet interest expenses may be questionable.
  • Companies need to have more than enough earnings to cover interest payments in order to survive future, and perhaps unforeseeable, financial hardships that may arise.

Hence, the correct answer is Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 75

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): Sustained current account surplus encourages the government to liberalize imports and capital movements.

Reasons (R): The current account and balance of payments positions of a country can significantly influence its economic policies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key PointsBalance of payments (BOP):

  • The balance of payments (BOP) is the record of all international financial transactions made by the residents of a country.
  • There are three main categories of the BOP: the current account, the capital account, and the financial account.
  • The current account is used to mark the inflow and outflow of goods and services into a country.
  • The capital account is where all international capital transfers are recorded.
  • In the financial account, international monetary flows related to investment in the business, real estate, bonds, and stocks are documented.

Current account:

  • The current account measures a country's imports and exports of goods and services over a defined period of time, in addition to earnings from cross-border investments and transfer payments.
  • Exports, earnings on investments abroad, and incoming transfer payments (aid and remittances) are recorded as credits; imports, foreign investors' earnings on investments in the country, and outgoing transfer payments are recorded as debits.
  • When credits exceed debits, the country enjoys a current account surplus, meaning that the rest of the world is in effect borrowing from it.
  • A current account surplus increases a nation's net assets by the amount of the surplus.

Important Points 

Current account surplus:

  • Current account surpluses refer to positive current account balances, meaning that a country has more exports than imports of goods and services.
  • Countries with consistent current account surpluses face upward pressure on their currency.
  • Current account surpluses can also indicate low domestic demand or maybe the result of a drop in imports due to a recession.
  • Sustained current account surplus encourages the government to liberalize imports and capital movements.
  • Thus, Assertion (A) is true.
  • Also the position of current account and BOP is likely to influence the economic and trade policies of the government.
  • Thus, Reason R is also true.
  • And (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 

Hence, the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 76

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): Median is the middle most item in the set of numbers.

Reasons (R): Mode is not unduly affected by extreme values.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

Measures of Central Tendency:

  • Often in statistics, we tend to represent a set of data by a representative value which would approximately define the entire collection.
  • This representative value is called the measure of central tendency, and the name suggests that it is a value around which the data is centered.
  • These central tendencies are mean, median, and mode.

Key Points

Median: 

  • Generally median represents the mid-value of the given set of data when arranged in a particular order.
  • Median: Given that the data collection is arranged in ascending or descending order, the following method is applied:
  • If the number of values or observations in the given data is odd, then the median is given by [(n+1)/2]th observation.
  • If in the given data set, the number of values or observations is even, then the median is given by the average of (n/2)th and  [(n/2) +1]th observation.
  • Thus Assertion A is true.

Mode:

  • In statistics, the mode is the value that is repeatedly occurring in a given set.
  • We can also say that the value or number in a data set, which has a high frequency or appears more frequently, is called a mode or modal value.
  • Mode is not affected by extreme values.
  • Thus Reason R is also true.
  • However, the Assertion and Reason are not related to one another and do not establish a relation between median and mode.

 

Hence, the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

Question 77

Data warehousing has various characteristics including:

(A) Focuses on modelling and analysis of data relating to a specific area

(B) Data warehouse is an integration of data from various systems like CRM system, SCM system, etc

(C) The time variant for a data warehouse has a historical perspective for example, past 10-20 years

(D) It is stored permanently i.e data once stored can not be updated

(E) It is stored temporarily i.e data once stored can be updated

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (D), (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) (B), (D) only.

Data warehouse database is the central database and core component that forms the base for a data warehousing environment.

This is based on RDBMS technology, though the fact that this is better optimized for transactional systems can prove to be a challenge. Example: ad-hoc query, multi-table joins, aggregates.

Important Points Characteristics of Data Warehousing:

Subject-Oriented

A data warehouse target on the modeling and analysis of data for decision-makers. Therefore, data warehouses typically provide a concise and straightforward view around a particular subject, such as customer, product, or sales, instead of the global organization's ongoing operations.

Integrated

A data warehouse integrates various heterogeneous data sources like RDBMS, flat files, and online transaction records. It requires performing data cleaning and integration during data warehousing to ensure consistency in naming conventions, attribute types, etc., among different data sources.

Time-Variant

Historical information is kept in a data warehouse. For example, one can retrieve files from 3 months, 6 months, 12 months, or even previous data from a data warehouse. These variations with a transactions system, where often only the most current file is kept.

Non-Volatile

The data warehouse is a physically separate data storage, which is transformed from the source operational RDBMS. The operational updates of data do not occur in the data warehouse, i.e., update, insert, and delete operations are not performed. It usually requires only two procedures in data accessing: Initial loading of data and access to data. Therefore, the DW does not require transaction processing, recovery, and concurrency capabilities, which allows for substantial speedup of data retrieval. Non-Volatile defines that once entered into the warehouse, and data should not change.

Hence, the correct answer is  (A), (B), (D), only.

Question 78

Reason(s) for sickness in small industries in India are:

(A) Minimal use of artificial intelligence in business

(B) Inability to cope up with large market size

(C) Lack of innovation and technology focus

(D) Direct and indirect competition from foreign players

(E) Absence of regulatory support

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (D), (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (E) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B), (C), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C), (D) only.

Key Points Industrial sickness can be defined as a steady imbalance in the debt-equity ratio and distortion in the financial position of the unit. A sick unit is one which is unable to support itself through the operation of internal resources.

Reasons for industrial sickness:

Internal causes – which includes

  • Faults at the initial levels of planning and construction.
  • Financial constraints.
  • Labour and management problems.
  • Defective, inefficient, and age-old machinery.
  • Incompetence on the parts of entrepreneurs.
  • Unskilled laborers to work with modern technology.

External causes are those which are beyond the control of its management and include –

  • Sudden changes in government policies.
  • Erratic supply of inputs.
  • Non-availability of energy resources and raw materials.
  • Increased competition.
  • Power cuts.
  • Demand and credit restraints.
  • Delay on the part of the Government in sanctioning licenses, permits, etc.

Hence, the correct answer is (B), (C), (D) only.

Question 79

Arrange the following steps of organizational socialization in the proper sequence:

(A) Select a good first supervisor to be incharge of socialization

(B) Provide a challenging first job

(C) Design a relaxed orientation program

(D) Provide timely and consistent feed back

(E) Provide relevant training

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (E), (D), (B), (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (A), (E), (B), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (E), (D), (A), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (E), (D), (A), (C).

Key Points

Organizational socialization:

  • Organizational socialization - also referred to as onboarding - is the process by which newcomers make the transition from being organizational outsiders to being insiders”.
  • The overall goal of organizational socialization is to facilitate newcomer adjustment.
  • Specifically, adjustment means that new employees understand the key tasks of their job (i.e., role clarity), have confidence in their ability to perform the key tasks of their job (i.e., self-efficacy), feel like they are an accepted member of the organization (i.e., social acceptance), and understand the organization’s culture (e.g., goals, values, norms).
  • Organizational socialization is the process by which people learn about and adjust to theknowledge, skills, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors needed for a new or changingrole within an organization.

Important Points

The steps of organizational socialization: 

(B) Provide a challenging first job

(E) Provide relevant training

(D) Provide timely and consistent feed back

(A) Select a good first supervisor to be incharge of socialization.

(C) Design a relaxed orientation program

Hence, the correct answer is (B), (E), (D), (A), (C).

Question 80

The main processing functions of information system are given below. Arrange them in sequencing order:

(A) Process transaction

(B) Maintain master file

(C) Process enquiry

(D) Process report

(E) Process interactive supper applications

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)​.

Key Points Transaction processing systems:

  • A transaction is an elementary activity conducted during business operations.
  • Transaction processing systems (TPS) process the company's business transactions and thus support the operations of an enterprise.
  • A TPS records a non-inquiry transaction itself, as well as all of its effects, in the database and produces documents relating to the transaction.
  • TPS is necessary to conduct business in almost any organization today. TPSs bring data into the organizational databases, these systems are also a foundation on which management-oriented information systems rest.

Important Points Depending on the nature of the transaction and whether the system operates in online or in batch mode, the following processing steps may be performed:

(A) Process transaction- A transaction is an action or series of actions. It is performed by a single user to perform operations for accessing the contents of the database. 

(B) Maintain master file- A collection of records pertaining to one of the main subjects of an information system, such as customers, employees, products and vendors.

(D) Process report- A process report, or essay, explains how something is done or how something came about. It can be written in detailed step-by-step instructions or in a story format with the instructions subtly threaded throughout the narrative.

(C) Process enquiry- The activities associated with receiving and responding to customer inquiries. 

(E) Process interactive support applications

Hence, the correct answer is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)​.

Question 81

Penetration price strategy is followed under which of the following conditions?

(A) Where there is a high degree of price elasticity of demand

(B) When strong competition is expected soon after product introduction

(C) When company wants to recoup its research and development expenditure

(D) When company must keep demand within its production capacity

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (B) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (B) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (B) only.

Key Points Penetration pricing strategy:

  • Penetration pricing is most effective when there are goods in high demand. If there is not a large market for a product, it often is less important the price of the good because there are less consumers to capitalize and attempt to retain.
  • The purpose of penetration pricing is not to simply offer a very low price; it is to most effectively take market share.
  • Price wars can be expensive, ineffective, and may publicly damage the reputation of a company should the battle ineffectively evolve.
  • As the company attracts new customers, it is imperative that the company seeks out economies of scale.
  • With more customers, the company should be able to more efficiently use resources, obtain pricing, and scale operations.
  • With the customer on board with the new company, the new company must slowly make changes and gradually raise prices to more profitable levels, else it will face the risk of losing the long-term value.
  • Though penetration pricing is a short-term strategy, the ultimate goal is to foster long-term loyalty.
  • That means honoring existing pricing where applicable, understanding limitations on what can be offered, and still emphasizing value in product quality and customer service.

Hence, the correct answer (A) and (B) only.

Question 82

Arrange the following goods in the ascending order of the underlying income elasticity of demand.

(A) Necessities

(B) Inferior goods

(C) Normal goods 

(D) Luxury goods

(E) Giffen goods

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D), (C), (B), (A), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (E), (B), (C), (D), (A)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (E), (B), (A), (C), (D). 

Key Points Income elasticity of demand:

  • According to the Income elasticity of demand definition, it is the elasticity in demands resulting from the changes in the income of the customers. It is expressed as the percent change in the demanded quantity per percent change in income. Mathematically, it is expressed by the income elasticity of demand formula.
  • Income elasticity of demand (YED)= %change in quantity/ % change in income

Important Points 

  • In the case of a Giffen good, the positive income effect is stronger than the negative substitution effect so that the consumer buys less of it when its price falls.
  • An inferior good means an increase in income causes a fall in demand. It is good with a negative income elasticity of demand (YED).
  • A necessity is one whose income elasticity is less than unity.
  • A normal good means an increase in income causes an increase in demand. It has a positive income elasticity of demand YED.
  • A luxury good or service is one whose income elasticity exceeds unity.

 

Hence, The correct answer is (E), (B), (A), (C), (D).

Question 83

Arrange the given stages of process of organisational change in the correct sequence

(A) Information collection

(B) Diagnosis 

(C) Motivation

(D) Action proposal

(E) Stablization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C), (D), (E).

Important Points

The correct sequence of the process of organizational Change is 

A. Information Collection 

B. Diagnosis 

C. Motivation 

D. Action Proposal 

E. Stabilization 

Key Points 

The steps involved in the change sequence are discussed in the following paragraphs:

Step 1: Recognising the need for change: Information collection

  • The question that should be asked is: “Is the change necessary?” Changes should not be made merely for the sake of change.
  • Organizations and people want some degree of stability in order to accomplish their assigned tasks.
  • Yet there are times when changes become necessary and the failure to be quick and decisive can prove disastrous for the firm.
  • It has been found by many firms that cultural change is not only feasible but necessary. At times, firms may need to change their culture or go out of business.

Step 2: Identifying the change method: Diagnosis 

  • Management may use one among numerous methods and techniques for organizational change and development.
  • Some specific techniques are survey feedback, team building, sensitivity training, management by objective, job enrichment, and the Managerial grid approach.

Step 3: Unfreezing the status quo: Motivation

  • If individuals are to change their present attitudes, their current beliefs need to be altered or unfrozen.
  • Resistance to change needs to be eliminated or reduced if a change is to be effective.
  • Resistance to change can be reduced by building trust and confidence, developing open communication, and encouraging employee participation.
  • Unfreezing often generates self-doubt, but it also provides a means of overcoming it.
  • Employees should be made to feel that ineffectiveness is undesirable but that it can be remedied.
  • If organization members are to be receptive to change, they should feel that they can change.

Step 4: Moving to a new condition: Action Proposal

  • A change can be initiated through an order, a recommendation, or a self-directed impetus.
  • A manager with authority can command that a change be implemented and can enforce it through threats, punishment, and close supervision.
  • If a change is implemented by an authority, its implementation has to be closely monitored.
  • On the other hand, change is more permanent and substantial if people truly want and feel a need to change.

Steps 5: Refreezing to create a new Status Quo: Stabilisation

  • Too often changes that are introduced do not stick.
  • If people change to a set of new work habits for a short time and then revert back to the former practices, it means the change is not effective.
  • If the change is to be permanent, people need to be convinced that the change is in their own interest and also in the interest of their organization.
  • One of the best ways to accomplish this is to collect objective evidence of the success of the change.

Hence, The correct answer is (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Question 84

In regression model, assumptions of error term are:

(A) Zero-mean assumption

(B) Constant-variance assumption

(C) Dependence assumption

(D) Independence assumption

(E) Normality assumption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (D), (E) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D), (E) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (D), (E) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (D), (E) only.

Key Points Assumptions of a regression model:

  • The basic assumption of the linear regression model, as the name suggests, is that of a linear relationship between the dependent and independent variables.
  • Here the linearity is only with respect to the parameters.
  • Another assumption is that the independent variables are not correlated with each other.
  • If there is a linear relationship between one or more explanatory variables, it adds to the complexity of the model without being able to delineate the impact of each explanatory variable on the response variable.
  • The residuals in the linear regression model are assumed to be independently and identically distributed

Hence, the correct answer is (A), (B), (D), (E) only.

Question 85

The steps involved in development of a project are given below. Arrange them in proper sequence:

(A) Selection of business idea for a detailed analysis from the competing ideas

(B) Project installation and initiation

(C) Feasibility analysis

(D) Identification of investment opportunity

(E) Arrangements for financing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (A), (C), (E), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (E), (D), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (A), (E), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(D), (A), (C), (E), (B)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (D), (A), (C), (E), (B).

Key Points Project development:

Project development involves organizing and planning all the variables that go into a project, including deciding on materials, creating a budget, and creating tasks for team members.

It also involves the processes needed to complete a project, like changing the plans throughout the project completion and identifying areas of improvement to help the project run more smoothly.

Typically, project managers use five steps in project development, which include initiation, planning, execution, controlling, and closing.

Important PointsThe correct steps involved in the development of a project are: 

(D) Identification of investment opportunity

(A) Selection of business idea for a detailed analysis of the competing ideas

(C) Feasibility analysis

(E) Arrangements for financing

(B) Project installation and initiation

Hence, the correct answer is (D), (A), (C), (E), (B).

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow:

ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand. the company has pursued an agressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt, when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company's product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time, they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India, being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment, thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

Question 86

_________ is a combination of standardization and differentiation, where the core strategy remains same but ________ is made to take into account specific customer group requirement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Positioning, effort

  2. BOption (b)

    Evaluation, segmentation

  3. COption (c)

    Penetration, improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    Focus, differentiation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Positioning, effort

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Positioning is a combination of standardization and differentiation, where the core strategy remains the same but an effort is made to take into account specific customer group requirements.

**Important PointsPositioning:**Positioning is a strategic process that marketers use to determine the place or “niche” an offering should occupy in a given market, relative to other customer alternatives. 

Positioning can be subtle and hard to detect, but it can also be easy to spot when it conforms to our perceptions as a consumer.

**According to the passage, "**The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with an-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization."

Hence,** The correct answer is Positioning is a combination of standardization and differentiation, where the core strategy remains the same but an effort is made to take into account specific customer group requirements.**

Question 87

A strategy aimed at reducing uncertainty faced by consumers when choosing products with unknown product quality is termed as

  1. AOption (a)

    Standardization

  2. BOption (b)

    Internationalization

  3. COption (c)

    Customization

  4. DOption (d)

    Improvisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Standardization

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Standardization.

Key Points Standardization:

  • A global standardization strategy refers to the ability to use standardized marketing messaging and campaigns across markets, countries, and cultures.
  • The world’s biggest brands, such as Adidas and Coca-Cola, use a global standardization strategy to create a consistent brand experience across regions and languages.

Additional Information Internationalization- An international strategy is usually the first approach most businesses take with global expansion: exporting or importing goods and services while maintaining a head office or offices in their home country. Global expansion as a business doesn't have a one-size-fits-all approach.

Customization- Product customization is the process of delivering tailor-made products to customers based on their needs and expectations. This strategy is one of the most effective ways to promote customer experience and satisfaction.

**Improvisation-**To help overcome consumer fatigue, users can explore the potential of improvised marketing interventions (IMIs)—the composition and execution of a real-time marketing communication proximal to an external event—to improve the effectiveness of digital communication.

Hence, the correct answer is Standardization.

Question 88

_________ is a set of consumers who envince interest in the marketer's offer

  1. AOption (a)

    Target market

  2. BOption (b)

    Potential market

  3. COption (c)

    Loyal market

  4. DOption (d)

    Skimmed market

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Target market

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Target Market.

Key Points Target Market:

  • A target market is a group of people that have been identified as the most likely potential customers for a product because of their shared characteristics such as age, income, and lifestyle.
  • Identifying the target market is a key part of the decision-making process when a company designs, packages, and advertises its product.

Additional Information Loyal market- Loyalty marketing is an approach to marketing, based on strategic management, in which a company focuses on growing and retaining existing customers through incentives. 

Skimmed Market- It is a market that follows the penetration market strategy.

Hence, the correct answer is Target Market.

Question 89

While expanding business to new markets, analysis of following is required as a first step:

  1. AOption (a)

    Need for product improvement

  2. BOption (b)

    Analysis of current market position

  3. COption (c)

    Need for technological infrastructure

  4. DOption (d)

    Possibilities of marketing tie-ups

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Analysis of current market position

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is an Analysis of current market position

Key Points Steps in expanding a business: 

  1. Build a sales funnel through the correct analysis of the current market position,
  2. Utilize a customer management system.
  3. Research the competition.
  4. Create a customer loyalty program.
  5. Identify new opportunities.
  6. Form strategic partnerships.

According to the passage "These steps show that the most important and preliminary step in expanding of business is the Analysis of the current market situation. If the market and customers demand the products then only can a business think of growing and expanding."

Hence, the current answer is the analysis of the current market position.

Question 90

In times of market uncertainties and low brand loyalties, the international firms should respond to spurt in demand for its products through:

  1. AOption (a)

    Flexible inhouse capacities

  2. BOption (b)

    Balancing local and global production

  3. COption (c)

    Outsourcing

  4. DOption (d)

    Customized pricing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Outsourcing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Outsourcing.

Key Points, When it comes to international outsourcing, companies may choose to outsource to foreign countries where labor costs are lower or where specific expertise is available. For instance, a company based in the United States might outsource its customer service operations to a call center in India or its manufacturing processes to a factory in China. This allows businesses to take advantage of cost savings, access a global talent pool, and expand their operations internationally.

Hence, the correct answer is Outsourcing.

Question 91

Match List I with List II:

List-IList -II
Management concepts and theoriesDescription
A.System theoryI.Customer oriented approach emphasizing human resources and quantitative methods to continuously improve
B.Contingency theoryII.Concerned with formal patterns of arrangements and relationship developed by management
C.Organization designIII.Based on open-systems theory and recognizes that there are many, internal and external factors that influence organizational behaviour
D.Total Quality ManagementIV.All parts of an organization are interrelated and dependent on one another

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Key Points

 

List-IList -II
Management concepts and theoriesDescription
A.System theory- Systems management offers an alternative approach to the planning and management of organizations. The systems management theory proposes that businesses, like the human body, consists of multiple components that work harmoniously so that the larger system can function optimally.IV.All parts of an organization are interrelated and dependent on one another
B.Contingency theory- A contingency theory is an organizational theory that claims that there is no best way to organize a corporation, to lead a company, or to make decisions.III.Based on open-systems theory and recognizes that there are many, internal and external factors that influence organizational behaviour
C.Organization design- Organisational design is the process of aligning the structure of an organisation with its objectives, with the ultimate aim of improving efficiency and effectiveness. Work can be triggered by the need to improve service delivery or specific business processes, or as a result of a new mandate.II.Concerned with formal patterns of arrangements and relationship developed by management
D.Total Quality Management- Total Quality Management (TQM) is a management approach that seeks to provide long-term success by providing unparalleled customer satisfaction through the constant delivery of quality IT servicesI.Customer oriented approach emphasizing human resources and quantitative methods to continuously improve
<br>

Question 92

Match List I with List II:

List-IList -II
Big Five Personality TraitsDescriptive characteristics
A.AgreeablenessI.Assertive
B.Emotional stabilityII.Imaginative
C.ExtroversionIII.Trusting
D.Openness to experienceIV.Secure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points Big Five Personality Traits:

Openness to experience: This trait reflects a person's inclination towards creativity, curiosity, and openness to new ideas and experiences. Individuals high in openness tend to be imaginative, adventurous, and open-minded, while those low in openness may be more traditional and prefer routine.

Conscientiousness: Conscientiousness refers to the degree of organization, responsibility, and dependability a person demonstrates. Individuals high in conscientiousness tend to be disciplined, organized, and goal-oriented, while those low in conscientiousness may be more spontaneous and less focused on structure.

Extraversion: Extraversion is associated with sociability, assertiveness, and outgoingness. Individuals high in extraversion tend to be energetic, talkative, and seek social interaction, while those low in extraversion may be more introverted and prefer solitude or quieter environments.

Agreeableness: Agreeableness reflects a person's tendency to be compassionate, cooperative, and considerate of others. Individuals high in agreeableness are typically empathetic, nurturing, and friendly, while those low in agreeableness may be more skeptical and less concerned with maintaining harmonious relationships.

Neuroticism (or Emotional Stability): Neuroticism relates to emotional stability and the tendency to experience negative emotions such as anxiety, sadness, or anger. Individuals high in neuroticism may be more prone to worry and emotional instability, while those low in neuroticism tend to be more emotionally resilient and calm.

Hence, the correct matching is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Question 93

Match List I with List II:

List-IList -II
Life Cycle of an MNCStaffing approach
A.Setting up the host unitI.Polycentric approach is preferred
B.Establishing the technology team to begin core operational activitiesII.Distinctly polycentric approach
C.Full blown operations of the host unit
with significant role in establishing global objectives and targets
III.Distinctly polycentric approach: could
get to geocentric approach
D.Strong operational leadership at the
unit level while globally consolidating
with parent company
IV.Usually an ethnocentric or a
geocentric approach

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I). (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Key Points

List-IList -II
Life Cycle of an MNCStaffing approach
A.Setting up the host unitIV.Usually an ethnocentric or a
geocentric approach- The ethnocentric attitude is seen often when home nationals of various countries believe they are superior to, more trustworthy and more reliable than their foreign counterparts. Ethnocentric attitudes are often expressed in determining the managerial process at home and overseas. There is a tendency towards ethnocentrism in relations with subsidiaries in developing countries and in industrial product divisions.
B.Establishing the technology team to begin core operational activitiesI.Distinctly polycentric approach- Polycentrism can be defined as a host country orientation; which reflects host countries goals and objectives with respect "to different management strategies and planning procedures with regard to international operations." Under a polycentric perspective, a company's management team believes that in international business practices local preferences and techniques are usually found most appropriate to deal with the local market conditions.
C.Full blown operations of the host unit
with significant role in establishing global objectives and targets
I.Polycentric approach is preferred. Polycentric strategy employ local people as workforce and adapts the
HR practices of host nation.
D.Strong operational leadership at the
unit level while globally consolidating
with parent company
III.Distinctly polycentric approach: could
get to geocentric approach-  Geocentric strategy only focuses on skills of the
employee and adopts HR practices which are most effective and efficient irrespective
of the nationality.

 

 Hence, the correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III).

Question 94

Match List I with List II:

List-IList -II
Coats and Financial ConceptsMechanism and Measures
A.Financial leverageI.Contribution margin ÷ EBIT
B.Contribution marginII.(EBIT) ÷ (EBIT - interest)
C.Operating leverageIII.(Contribution margin) ÷
(EBIT - interest)
D.Combined leverageIV.Sales ÷ variable costs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Key Points 

List-IList -II
Coats and Financial ConceptsMechanism and Measures
A.Financial leverage- Financial leverage results from using borrowed capital as a funding source when investing to expand the firm's asset base and generate returns on risk capital.II.(EBIT) ÷ (EBIT - interest)
B.Contribution margin- The contribution margin is computed as the selling price per unit, minus the variable cost per unit. Also known as dollar contribution per unit, the measure indicates how a particular product contributes to the overall profit of the company.IV.Sales ÷ variable Costs
C.Operating leverage-Operating Leverage measures the proportion of a company’s cost structure that consists of fixed costs rather than variable costs. A company with more fixed costs relative to its variable costs is considered to have higher operating leverage.II.Contribution margin ÷ EBIT
D.Combined leverage- - A degree of combined leverage (DCL) is a leverage ratio that summarizes the combined effect that the degree of operating leverage (DOL) and the degree of financial leverage has on earnings per share (EPS), given a particular change in sales. - This ratio can be used to help determine the most optimal level of financial and operating leverage to use in any firm.III.(Contribution margin) ÷
(EBIT - interest)

Question 95

Match List I wish List II:

List-IList -II
Characteristic based price factorsDescriptions
A.Volatility (VOL)I.Captures deviations from linearity in the relationship between returns and firm size
B.Momentum (MOM)II.Uses returns to firms outside the equity universe to account for risk dimensions not
captured by the other risk factors
C.Size Non Linearity (SNL)III.Differentiates between stocks with positive and negative excess returns in the recent
D.Non Estimation Indicator (NEI)IV.Captures both long term and short term dimensions of relative returns variability

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV) (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I) (D) - (II).

Key Points

List-IList -II
Characteristic based price factorsDescriptions
A.- Volatility (VOL)- The term “price volatility” is used to describe price fluctuations of a commodity. Volatility is measured by the day-to-day percentage difference in the price of the commodity. The degree of variation, not the level of prices, defines a volatile market. - Since price is a function of supply and demand, it follows that volatility is a result of the underlying supply and demand characteristics of the market. Therefore, high levels of volatility reflect extraordinary characteristics of supply and/or demand.I.Captures deviations from linearity in the relationship between returns and firm size.
B.Momentum (MOM)- - Momentum is the speed or velocity of price changes in a stock, security, or tradable instrument. Momentum shows the rate of change in price movement over a period of time to help investors determine the strength of a trend. - Stocks that tend to move with the strength of momentum are called momentum stocks.III.Differentiates between stocks with positive and negative excess returns in the recent
C.- Size Non Linearity (SNL)- Nonlinear risk exposure arises in the VaR calculation of a portfolio of nonlinear derivatives. - Nonlinear derivatives, such as options, depend on a variety of characteristics, including implied volatility, time to maturity, underlying asset price, and the current interest rate.IV.Captures both long term and short term dimensions of relative returns variability
D.Non Estimation Indicator (NEI)- - Price level indicators reflect the general level of prices for goods and services in an economy and measures the changes over time. - The three major price level indicators that economists and policymakers often refer to are, the Consumer Price Index (CPI), GDP deflator, and the Producer Price Index (PPI)II.Uses returns to firms outside the equity universe to account for risk dimensions not
captured by the other risk factors

 

Hence, the correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I) (D) - (II).

Question 96

Match List I with List II:

List-IList -II
CompanyNature of business
A.Alliance airI.Swiss travel group
B.DelhiveryII.Online travel company
C.IxigoIII.State owned regional carrier
D.KuoniIV.New age logistic and supply chain start up

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Important Points 

CompanyNature of business
A**.**Alliance Air- Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of AIAHL (AI Assets Holding Ltd.) which is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV ) formed by the Government of India after the disinvestment of Air India Limited.III.State-owned regional carrier- It was founded in April 1996 as a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines and mainly operates domestic routes as part of the government's Regional Connectivity Scheme.
B.Delhivery- Delhivery (is an Indian logistics and supply chain company, based in Gurugram. It was founded in 2011 by Sahil Barua, Mohit Tandon, Bhavesh Manglani, Suraj Saharan, and Kapil Bharati.IV.New age logistic and supply chain start up- They provided supply chain solutions to a diverse base of over 26000 active customers such as e-commerce marketplaces, direct-to-consumer e-tailers, and enterprises and SMEs across several verticals such as FMCG, consumer durables, consumer electronics, lifestyle, retail, automotive and manufacturing.
C.Ixigo- ixigo is an Indian AI-based online travel portal, launched in 2007.II.Online travel company- Headquartered in Gurgaon, ixigo aggregates and compares real-time travel information, prices, and availability for flights, trains, buses, and hotels, and allows ticket booking through its associate websites and apps
D.Kuoni- Kuoni Travel is a tourism company, operating various services including charter and scheduled passenger airlines, package holidays, cruise lines, and hotels in destinations around the world across nine different geographic regionsI.Swiss travel group- Kuoni was founded in 1906 by the entrepreneur Alfred Kuoni in Zurich, Switzerland, where the firm has continued to be based

 

Hence, The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Question 97

Match List I with List II:

List-IList -II
Possible level of customer expectationsExample
A.Normative expectationsI.I expect this restaurant to serve me in an adequate manner
B.Acceptable expectationsII.I expect terrible service from this restaurant but came because price is low
C.Minimum trouble expectationsIII.Most of the times this restaurant is very good, but when it gets busy the service is slow
D.Experience-based expectationsIV.As expensive as this restaurant is, it ought to have excellent food and service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III).

Key PointsConsumer Expectations:

  • Consumer Expectations are pretrial beliefs a consumer has about the performance of a service that is used as the standard or reference against which service performance is judged.
  • Consumer Expectations consist of five levels: Ideal Expectations, Normative Expectations, Acceptable Expectations, Minimum Trouble Expectations, and Experience Expectations.

Important Points The correct match is as below:

Possible level of customer expectationsExample
A.Normative expectations - It is the second-highest level of customer expectation where the quality of the services should be at par or above the expected level.IV.As expensive as this restaurant is, it ought to have excellent food and service- For example, a person may expect a restaurant to be good and expects it to serve him well as the prices are high.
B.Acceptable expectations- Customers form their opinion about the services based on some particular criteria of acceptability.I.I expect this restaurant to serve me in an adequate manner- For example, while visiting a luxurious hotel, a person expects that the services and food provided will be as per the standard maintained by such restaurants.
C.Minimum trouble expectations- It refers to the minimum level of expectation.II.I expect terrible service from this restaurant but came because price is low- For example, a person expects that the restaurant will not have good services, but opt for it because of economical prices.
D.Experience-based expectations- The expectation of the customer emerges from his previous experience with the services.III.Most of the times this restaurant is very good, but when it gets busy the service is slow- For example, the customer expects the average quality of service from a particular restaurant due to some previous experiences.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III).

Question 98

Match List I with List II:

List-IList-II
SymbolProcess chart activity
A.DI.Storage
B.→II.Input
C.▽\bigtriangledown III.Delay
D.□IV.Transport

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Key Points

Symbols in Process Flow Charts: 

  • In a Process, flow chart symbols represent different items in a process or operation.
  • There are many variants to the symbols and specific symbols can be included in some charts to specify special steps in certain processes.

The general symbol shapes for a process flow diagram are the following:

Thus the correct match is as follows

SymbolProcess chart activity
A.DIII.Delay
B.→IV.Transport
C.​​▽\bigtriangledown I.Storage
D.□II.Inspection

Hence,the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Question 99

Match List I with List II:

List-IList-II
Trade concepts and terminologyDescription
A.GATSI.Extends multilateral rules and disciplines to service
B.TRIPSII.The agreement requires compliance with the provisions of Bern convention of 1886 to which India is a signatory
C.TRIMSIII.Refers to certain conditions imposed by a government in respect of foreign investment in the country
D.MFNIV.Prevents countries from discriminating among foreign suppliers of services

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV). 

Key Points

The World Trade Organization (WTO):

  • Created in 1995, the World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international institution that oversees the rules for global trade among nations.
  • The main function of the organization is to help producers of goods and services, as well as exporters and importers, protect and manage their businesses.
  • The WTO agreements cover goods, services, and intellectual property.
  • They spell out the principles of liberalization, and the permitted exceptions.
  • They include individual countries' commitments to lower customs tariffs and other trade barriers and to open and keep open services markets.

Important Points The correct match is as below:

Trade concepts and terminologyDescription
A.GATS- General Agreement on Trade in Services. It was negotiated during the last round of multilateral trade negotiations, called the Uruguay Round, and came into force in 1995.I**.**Extends multilateral rules and disciplines to service- The GATS provides a framework of rules governing services trade, establishes a mechanism for countries to make commitments to liberalize trade in services and provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between countries.
B.TRIPS- Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. TRIPS came into force in 1995, as part of the agreement that established the World Trade Organisation (WTO).II.The agreement requires compliance with the provisions of the Bern convention of 1886 to which India is a signatory- TRIPS establishes minimum standards for the availability, scope, and use of seven forms of intellectual property namely, trademarks, copyrights, geographical indications, patents, industrial designs, layout designs for integrated circuits, and undisclosed information or trade secrets.
C.TRIMS- Trade-Related Investment Measures. Agreement on TRIMs resulting from Uruguay recognizes that certain investment measures may cause restrictive effects on international trade in goods.III.Refers to certain conditions imposed by a government in respect of foreign investment in the country- The agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures or “TRIMs” acknowledges that investment measures can control and twist trade.
D.MFN- “Most-Favoured-Nation”.  This is a founding principle of the WTO.IV.Prevents countries from discriminating among foreign suppliers of services- This treatment requires Members to accord the most favorable tariff and regulatory treatment given to the product of any one Member at the time of import or export of “like products” to all other Members.

 

Hence, The correct answer is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).

Question 100

Match List I with List II:

List-IList-II
ConceptsInstitution/Schemes
A.Entrepreneurship and innovationI.Atal Tinkering lab
B.Gaps in value chainsII.Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
C.Think TankIII.Atal Innovation Mission
D.Machine learningIV.Niti Aayog

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D)-(II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).

Important PointsThe correct match is as follows:

ConceptsInstitution/Schemes
A.Entrepreneurship and innovation - The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.III.Atal Innovation Mission- AlM's objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME, and industry levels.
B.Gaps in value chains-  The aim of the scheme is to bring about Blue Revolution through the sustainable development of the fisheries sector over a period of five years (2020-2025.)II.Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) was launched on 10th September 2020.
C.Think Tank- NITI Aayog serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, and the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development, and fostering cooperative federalism through the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.IV.NITI Aayog- Its initiatives include a "15-year road map", "7-year vision, strategy, and action plan", AMRUT, Digital India, Atal Innovation Mission, Medical Education Reform, agriculture reforms
D.Machine learning - With a vision to ‘Cultivate one Million children in India as Neoteric Innovators’, Atal Innovation Mission is establishing Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) in schools across India.I.Atal Tinkering lab- The objective of this scheme is to foster curiosity, creativity, and imagination in young minds; and inculcate skills such as design mindset, computational thinking, adaptive learning, physical computing, etc.

 

Hence, the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).

100 questions in the full paper