UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 23rd Feb 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Calculation:

Let's say 15x is the number of male participants and 7x is the

number of female participants.

15x + 7x = 1100

22x = 1100

x = 1100 / 22 = 50

So, the number of male participants = 15x = 15 × 50 = 750

And the number of female participants = 7x = 7 × 50 = 350

The number of sportspersons from Country A is 21% of 1100 = 0.21

× 1100 = 231

The number of male sportspersons from Country A is 20% of 750 =

0.20 × 750 = 150

The number of sportspersons from Country D is 12% of 1100 = 0.12

× 1100 = 132

Given that the number of male sportspersons from Country D is also

12% of 750 = 0.12 × 750 = 90

So, number of female sportspersons from Country D = 132 - 90 = 42

Now, let's find the percentage of female participants from Country D

with respect to male participants from Country A.

Percentage = (Number of female participants from Country D /

Number of male participants from Country A) × 100

Percentage = (42 / 150) × 100 = 28

So, the number of female participants from Country D is 28% of the

number of male participants from Country A.

Therefore, the answer is option 3) 28.

Key Points 

The abbreviation "fn" in research reports and manuscripts most commonly refers to footnote.

**foot

note:

**

• A footnote is a reference to a source of information that is placed at the bottom of a page.
• Footnotes are often used to provide additional information or to cite sources.
• The other options are possible meanings of "fn", but they are less common.
• Figure number is sometimes abbreviated as "fn". However, this is less common than "fig" or "figure".
• Following number(s) is not a common abbreviation. It would be more likely to be written out as "following numbers" or "following number".
• Final note is not a common abbreviation. It would be more likely to be written out as "final note" or "last note".

 

Therefore, the most likely meaning of "fn" in research reports and manuscripts is footnote.

Key Points Statement I: Parametric tests cannot be applied to ordinal or nominal scale data.

• Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume a specific distribution, typically a normal distribution, and require interval or ratio scale data.
• Ordinal and nominal scale data do not have the necessary properties of equal intervals or numerical values, making them unsuitable for parametric tests.
• Instead, non-parametric tests are typically used for analyzing ordinal or nominal scale data, as they do not rely on the same distributional assumptions.

This statement is true.

Statement II: Parametric tests do not suppose any particular distribution and the consequential assumptions.

• Parametric tests do make certain assumptions about the distribution of the data.
• One of the most common assumptions is that the data follow a normal distribution.
• Additionally, parametric tests assume other assumptions such as homogeneity of variances and independence of observations. Violation of these assumptions can affect the validity and accuracy of the results obtained from parametric tests.
• Non-parametric tests, on the other hand, are generally distribution-free and do not rely on these assumptions.

This statement is false.

The correct answer is 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points 

The main advantages of online survey-based research are:

• Accessibility: Online surveys can be accessed by a wider range of people than traditional surveys, such as those that are conducted in person or over the phone.
• Speed: Online surveys can be completed more quickly than traditional surveys, which can save time and money.
• Cost-effectiveness: Online surveys are typically more cost-effective than traditional surveys, as there is no need to print or mail surveys or to hire interviewers.
• Flexibility: Online surveys can be customized to meet the specific needs of the researcher, and they can be administered at any time and from any location.
• Participants can discontinue if they feel uncomfortable at any stage of survey is one of the main advantages of online survey-based research.
• This is because participants can simply close the survey window if they feel uncomfortable at any point, without having to explain themselves to anyone.
• This can help to reduce the risk of participant drop-out and to ensure that participants feel comfortable and safe throughout the survey process.

 

Therefore, the main advantage of online survey-based research is that participants can discontinue if they feel uncomfortable at any stage of the survey.

Key Points 

The requirement in research that specifies that researchers must notify participants about the nature of participation research and any risks involved, is known as informed consent.

Informed consent:

• Informed consent is an ethical principle that requires researchers to obtain voluntary, informed, and specific consent from participants before they can participate in research.
• This means that participants must be given enough information about the research to make an informed decision about whether or not to participate. They must also be free from coercion or undue influence.
• The information that must be included in an informed consent document typically includes the following:
• The purpose of the research
• The procedures that will be used
• The risks and benefits of participating
• The participant's right to withdraw from the research at any time
• The researcher's contact information
• Informed consent is an important ethical principle that protects the rights of research participants.
• It ensures that participants are aware of the risks and benefits of participating in research and that they are free to make their own decisions about whether or not to participate.

The other options are incorrect.

• Anonymity means that the identity of the participants will not be revealed.
• Confidentiality means that the information that participants provide will be kept private.
• Coercion is the use of force or threats to persuade someone to do something.

 

Therefore, the requirement in research that specifies that researchers must notify participants about the nature of participation research and any risks involved, is known as informed consent.

Key Points 

The most appropriate answer is 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Statement I: In web-based survey research, it is an advantage that the investigator does not have to be present when a participant is interested in engaging in the task.

• In web-based surveys, participants have the flexibility to complete the survey at their own convenience without the need for the investigator's physical presence.
• This flexibility allows for increased participation rates and convenience for participants.

This statement is correct.

Statement II: In web-based survey research, it is a disadvantage that the investigator is not present to provide clarity/remove doubts when the participant is interested in engaging in the task.

• The absence of the investigator in web-based surveys means that participants do not have immediate access to seek clarifications or have doubts resolved in real-time.
• This can result in potential confusion or unanswered questions for participants, potentially impacting the quality of their responses.

This statement is also correct. 

Therefore, both statements are correct as they highlight different aspects of web-based survey research. Statement I focuses on the advantage of flexibility and convenience for participants, while Statement II points out the disadvantage of the absence of real-time support and clarifications from the investigator.

Key Points Communication:

• Communication is a dynamic process that takes place in a variety of contexts and situations.
• It can occur between two people, between a group of people, or between a person and a group.
• It can also occur through different channels, such as face-to-face, written, or electronic.
• The nature of communication can vary depending on the situation. For example, communication in a business setting may be more formal than communication in a social setting. Communication in a crisis situation may be more urgent than communication in a routine situation.
• The effectiveness of communication can also vary depending on the situation.
• For example, communication that is clear and concise may be more effective in a business setting, while communication that is more emotional may be more effective in a social setting.

Therefore, communication is a dynamic process that takes place in varied situations. The nature and effectiveness of communication can vary depending on the situation.

Additional Information

• The meta universe is a hypothetical iteration of the internet as a single, universal and immersive virtual world that is facilitated by the use of virtual reality and augmented reality headsets. Communication in the meta universe is still in its early stages of development, and it is not yet clear how it will differ from communication in the real world.
• Inanimate phenomena do not have the ability to communicate. They cannot send or receive messages, and they cannot understand the meaning of messages.
• Specific populations only is not accurate. Communication can take place between any two or more people, regardless of their population group.

 

Therefore, the answer is 3) Varied situations.

Key Points The answer is 1) Radio.

• World War I was a major stimulant for the development of radio.
• The war showed the need for a reliable and efficient way to communicate over long distances, and radio was the perfect solution.
• Before the war, radio was mostly used for entertainment and scientific research.
• However, radio was used during the war for military communication, intelligence gathering, and propaganda.
• The war also led to the development of new radio technologies, such as voice transmission and frequency modulation. These technologies made radio more reliable and efficient, and they paved the way for the widespread use of radio in the years after the war.

Here are some of the ways in which World War I stimulated the development of radio:

The need for reliable communication: 

• During the war, the military needed a reliable way to communicate with troops on the front lines. Radio was the perfect solution, as it could transmit messages over long distances without wires.

The development of new technologies: 

• The war led to the development of new radio technologies, such as voice transmission and frequency modulation. These technologies made radio more reliable and efficient, and they paved the way for the widespread use of radio in the years after the war.

The growth of the radio industry:

• The war also led to the growth of the radio industry. As radio became more important for military communication, businesses began to see the potential of radio for commercial use.

 

As a result of these factors, World War I had a profound impact on the development of radio. Radio emerged from the war as a powerful new communication tool, and it would go on to play a major role in the 20^th century.

Key Points 

Statement I: txt, rtf, and csv are all file extensions that are used for generic text files.

• txt: txt files are plain text files. They are the most basic type of text file, and they can be opened by any text editor.
• rtf: rtf files are rich text files. They can contain formatting, such as fonts, colors, and styles. rtf files can be opened by most word processors.
• csv: csv files are comma-separated values files. They are used to store data in a table format. csv files can be opened by most spreadsheet programs.

All three of these file extensions are used for generic text files, so Statement I is true.

Statement II: rar is an acronym for Roshal ARchive. The file extension rar stands for Roshal Archive, and it was named after its developer, Eugene Roshal.

• The file extension rar is a proprietary archive file format that supports data compression, error correction and file spanning.
• It was developed in 1993 by Russian software engineer Eugene Roshal and the software is licensed by win.rar GmbH.
• The name RAR stands for Roshal Archive.

Therefore, Statement II is also true

Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Key Points 

The answer is 2) WLAN - Wired Local Area Network.

• The full form of WLAN is Wireless Local Area Network.
• WLANs are networks that use radio waves to transmit data over short distances. Wired Local Area Networks (LANs) use cables to transmit data over short distances.

The other acronyms are matched correctly with their full forms.

• VoIP stands for Voice Over Internet Protocol. VoIP is a technology that allows you to make voice calls over the internet.
• HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language. HTML is the language used to create web pages.
• CMOS stands for Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor. CMOS is a type of semiconductor used in computers and other electronic devices.

 

Therefore, the only acronym that is matched incorrectly with its full form is WLAN.

Key Points 

The correct order of the memory types in decreasing order of access time is B, A, C.

• CPU Cache has the fastest access time, followed by RAM and SSD.
• CPU cache is a small, fast memory that is located on the CPU chip. It is used to store frequently accessed data and instructions.
• RAM is the main memory of a computer. It is used to store data and instructions that are currently being used by the CPU.
• SSD is a type of solid-state drive. It is a non-volatile storage device that uses flash memory to store data.

 

Therefore, the correct order of the memory types in decreasing order of access time is B, A, C.

The correct answer is Goal 8 ∶ Develop a Global Partnership for Development:

Important PointsGoal 8 of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), which is "Develop a Global Partnership for Development," had the highest number of targets compared to other goals.

• Goal 8 aimed to address various aspects of international cooperation and partnership to support global development efforts.
• It included targets related to areas such as trade, debt relief, development assistance, technology transfer, access to essential medicines, and the availability of affordable medicines.
• The targets under Goal 8 reflected the recognition that achieving sustainable development requires collaboration and cooperation among countries, international organizations, and various stakeholders.
• By focusing on building partnerships, promoting fair trade, and improving access to resources and technology, Goal 8 aimed to create an enabling environment for the achievement of other MDGs and overall global development.

The inclusion of multiple targets under Goal 8 highlights the importance of global cooperation, financial support, and technology transfer in addressing the complex challenges of poverty reduction, health improvement, education, and environmental sustainability.

The correct answer is A, C, D and E only

Important PointsA. Asthma:

• Atmospheric particulate matter, especially fine particles, can irritate the airways and trigger asthma attacks in individuals with the condition.
• These particles can cause inflammation and worsen respiratory symptoms.

C. Dry Eye Syndrome:

• Studies have shown that exposure to atmospheric particulate matter, such as airborne pollutants and dust particles, can contribute to the development or exacerbation of dry eye syndrome.
• These particles can cause irritation, inflammation, and discomfort in the eyes.

D. Bronchitis:

• Atmospheric particulate matter, particularly fine particles, can be inhaled deep into the lungs and irritate the bronchial tubes, leading to bronchitis.
• Prolonged exposure to high levels of particulate matter can increase the risk of developing bronchitis.

E. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases (COPD):

• Atmospheric particulate matter, especially fine particles and pollutants, can aggravate and worsen symptoms in individuals with pre-existing COPD.
• The inhalation of these particles can lead to increased inflammation, reduced lung function, and respiratory difficulties.

It's important to note that atmospheric particulate matter can have a range of other health impacts, including cardiovascular problems, respiratory infections, and even certain types of cancers. However, based on the given options, the diseases directly caused by atmospheric particulate matters are Asthma, Dry Eye Syndrome, Bronchitis, and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases (COPD).

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Important PointsStatement I: Amount of oxygen dissolved in water is a good indicator of water quality and of the kinds of life it will support.

• This statement is true.
• The amount of oxygen dissolved in water, commonly referred to as dissolved oxygen (DO), is an important parameter for assessing water quality.
• Aquatic organisms, such as fish and other aquatic life, require oxygen for respiration.
• The availability of dissolved oxygen in water directly affects the health and survival of these organisms.
• Higher levels of dissolved oxygen generally indicate better water quality and the presence of diverse aquatic life, while lower levels can indicate poor water quality and potential harm to aquatic organisms.

Statement II: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is a measure of dissolved oxygen consumed by aquatic microorganisms.

• This statement is false.
• Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is not a measure of dissolved oxygen consumed by aquatic microorganisms. COD is a parameter used to assess the amount of organic matter present in water.
• It measures the oxygen equivalent of the organic substances that can be oxidized chemically in water.
• COD is used as an indicator of the overall organic pollution or contamination in water bodies.
• It is not directly related to the amount of dissolved oxygen or its consumption by microorganisms.

Therefore, the correct answer is that Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Important PointsStatement I: Reactor is the heart of any nuclear power plant.

• This statement is true.
• The reactor is indeed the core component of a nuclear power plant.
• It is where nuclear reactions, such as nuclear fission, take place to generate heat.
• This heat is then used to produce steam, which drives turbines to generate electricity.
• The reactor is responsible for initiating and controlling the nuclear chain reactions that sustain the power generation process.

Statement II: In case of nuclear power plants, except the reactor, the technology is exactly similar to any other fossil-fueled power plant.

• This statement is also true. While the reactor is the unique and distinct component of a nuclear power plant, the overall technology and infrastructure of a nuclear power plant are similar to those of fossil-fueled power plants.
• Both types of power plants involve the generation of steam, which drives turbines to produce electricity.
• The main difference lies in the method of heat generation, with nuclear power plants utilizing nuclear reactions in the reactor, while fossil-fueled power plants rely on the combustion of fossil fuels.

It's important to note that while both statements are true, there are significant differences in the operational aspects, safety considerations, and environmental impacts between nuclear and fossil-fueled power plants. These differences stem from the unique nature of nuclear reactions and the handling of radioactive materials in nuclear power plants.

The correct answer is SO2 (Sulphur dioxide)

Important PointsSO2, which stands for sulphur dioxide, is one of the pollutants responsible for the formation of acid rain.

• When sulphur dioxide is released into the atmosphere from various sources such as industrial processes, burning of fossil fuels, and volcanic eruptions, it can undergo chemical reactions in the presence of other compounds like oxygen and water vapor.
• These reactions can result in the formation of sulfuric acid (H2SO4), which is a strong acid.
• When sulfuric acid and other acidic compounds combine with rainwater, they form acid rain.
• Acid rain is characterized by a pH level below 5.6, indicating its acidic nature.
• Acid rain can have detrimental effects on the environment, including damage to vegetation, soil, aquatic ecosystems, and infrastructure.
• Efforts to reduce emissions of sulphur dioxide and other pollutants have been made to mitigate the impacts of acid rain.
• These include implementing cleaner technologies, adopting stricter emission standards, and promoting the use of alternative energy sources.

The correct answer is 2030

Important PointsAs per the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, there is a provision for offering a 4-year integrated teacher preparation program.

• To implement this program, all Teacher Education Institutions (TEIs) in India will be required to convert to multidisciplinary institutions by the year 2030.
• The aim behind this requirement is to transform the existing teacher education system and create multidisciplinary institutions that offer a holistic and comprehensive approach to teacher preparation.
• By converting TEIs into multidisciplinary institutions, the NEP 2020 intends to provide aspiring teachers with a broader range of knowledge and skills beyond their specific subject areas.
• This approach is expected to enhance the overall quality and effectiveness of teacher education in the country.

The conversion to multidisciplinary institutions implies that TEIs will need to expand their academic programs and infrastructure to incorporate a wider range of disciplines and subjects.

• This transformation will enable future teachers to develop a multidimensional understanding of education, pedagogy, and various related fields.
• It's important to note that the NEP 2020 sets a target year of 2030 for this conversion process to be completed across all TEIs.
• The exact timeline and implementation details may vary, and it will require concerted efforts from policymakers, institutions, and stakeholders in the education sector to achieve this goal within the specified timeframe.

The correct answer is A, B, D, and E only.

Important Points

The names of ancient Indian universities mentioned in the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 are:

A. Nalanda: Nalanda University, located in present-day Bihar, was one of the most renowned ancient universities in India.

• It was a center of learning and attracted scholars and students from various parts of the world.

B. Takshashila:

• Takshashila University, also known as Taxila, was an ancient educational institution located in present-day Pakistan.
• It was known for its excellence in various fields of study, including mathematics, astronomy, medicine, and philosophy.

D. Valabhi:

• Valabhi University was a renowned center of learning in ancient India, located in Valabhipur, Gujarat.
• It played a significant role in the fields of law, literature, and other subjects.

E**. Vikramshila:**

• Vikramshila University, located in present-day Bihar, was an important Buddhist learning center during ancient times.
• It was known for its emphasis on Buddhist studies and attracted scholars from different parts of Asia.

These ancient universities were important centers of knowledge and learning in ancient India, and their inclusion in the NEP 2020 highlights their historical significance and the rich educational heritage of the country.

The correct answer is 'Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is not correct.'

Key Points

• Assertion (A) is true as the passage mentions: "An infant's avoidance of aversive situations is limited due to their immature motor development."
• However, Reason (R) is false because the passage suggests that infants are born with an understanding of the meaning intended in the emotional facial expressions of others.
• The assertion and the reason are independent of each other, and the reason does not explain the assertion.
• The passage states: "It might also suggest that infants are born with an innate understanding of the meaning intended in the emotional facial expressions of others."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Crying, Sucking the edge of a blanket, Pick-me-up gesture.'

Key Points

• The passage describes that when infants are in an avoidance arousal state, they may exhibit behaviors such as crying, 'pick-me-up' gesturing, or sucking an object like a pacifier or the edge of a blanket.
• In response to an angry face of a parent, which would generate an avoidance response, a newborn child is not likely to respond with a smiling face, as this would be more associated with an approach response to a pleasant stimulus.
• The passage states: "In an avoidance arousal state the infant will exhibit behaviours designed to provoke a change in the parent's behavior such as crying and 'pick-me-up' gesturing or sucking an object such as a pacifier or the edge of a blanket."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is 'Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.'

Key Points

• Statement I is correct as the passage confirms that 'Approach' is an emotional arousal response in an infant towards pleasant stimulation.
• Statement II is incorrect because the passage suggests that infants may have an innate understanding of the meaning intended in the emotional facial expressions of others.
• The correctness of Statement I and the incorrectness of Statement II make Option 3 the correct choice.
• The passage states: "The infant's emotional life consists of little more than these two arousal states, an attraction to pleasant stimulation therefore eliciting approach and withdrawal or avoidance of unpleasant stimulation."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'A, B and D only'.

Key Points

• The passage mentions that continued parental despondency could lead to changes in the infant's sleep patterns, increased irritability and anger.
• An increase in anxiety is also mentioned, but a reduction in anxiety levels, as stated in option C, is not mentioned in the passage.
• The passage states: "A continuation of parental despondency could have serious consequences for the infant's normal socioemotional development. This could cause, alterations to the infant's sleeping patterns and increase levels of irritability, anger and anxiousness."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

 The correct answer is 3) RAT.

RAT:

• RAT, or the R.A.T. Model, is a technology integration model developed by Dr. Joan Hughes. It is a framework for understanding technology's role in teaching, learning and curricular practices.
• The model has three dimensions: Replacement, Amplification, and Transformation.
• Replacement: Technology is used to replace traditional teaching practices.
• Amplification: Technology is used to amplify traditional teaching practices.
• Transformation: Technology is used to transform traditional teaching practices.
• The RAT model is more useful for researchers than the other models listed because it is more comprehensive.
• The other models focus on specific aspects of technology integration, but the RAT model takes a more holistic approach.
• The RAT model is more useful for researchers because it allows them to explore the full range of ways in which technology can be used in the classroom.
• The model can be used to study the impact of technology on student learning, the effectiveness of different technology integration strategies, and the factors that influence how teachers use technology.
• In addition, the RAT model is more flexible than the other models listed. The model can be used to study technology integration in different educational settings, at different grade levels, and with different subject areas

Therefore, the RAT model is the most useful technology integration model for researchers to use.

• The TPACK model, for example, focuses on the technological, pedagogical, and content knowledge of teachers.
• The SAMR model focuses on the ways in which technology can be used to enhance learning.
• The PICRAT model is a combination of the RAT model and the TPACK model.

Therefore, the correct matching is A-II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

• Authoritative classroom management is characterized by a teacher who maintains strict control over the classroom but also encourages students to think independently. While the teacher closely monitors the students' behaviour and progress, they also encourage critical thinking and independent problem-solving.
• Authoritarian classroom management involves a teacher who sets clear rules and expectations for behavior, and enforces them strictly. This management style emphasizes discipline and maintaining order in the classroom. The teacher has control over the classroom and uses punitive measures to enforce compliance.
• Permissive classroom management grants students significant autonomy and freedom in the classroom. The teacher adopts a hands-off approach and allows students to make decisions and choices regarding their learning. However, this management style may provide limited support or guidance to students in developing their learning skills.
• Withitness refers to the ability of a teacher to be aware of and responsive to what is happening in the classroom. This management style involves the teacher being observant, attentive, and proactive in addressing the needs of students and maintaining a positive learning environment.

Key Points 

The correct answer is 4) B, D, and E only.

Effective classroom communication must be analytical, adjustable, and progressive.

• Analytical communication means that the teacher is able to break down complex concepts into smaller, more manageable chunks. This allows students to understand the material better and to ask questions if they don't understand something.
• Adjustable communication means that the teacher is able to adapt their communication style to the needs of the students. This means being able to speak slowly and clearly for students who are struggling to understand and being able to use more complex language for students who are ready for it.
• Progressive communication means that the teacher is able to build on what students already know. This means starting with concepts that students are familiar with and then gradually introducing new concepts.

The other options, top-down and unresponsive, are not necessary for effective classroom communication.

• Top-down communication means that the teacher is the only one who does the talking. This can be effective in some situations, but it is not the best way to engage all students in the learning process.
• Unresponsive communication means that the teacher does not respond to student questions or comments. This can frustrate students and lead to them disengaging from the learning process.

Calculation:

Let's assume that the total number of books be 100

40% of books are in English, then the number of English books are 40, the remaining (100 - 40) = 60

Out of the remaining books, 60% are in Hindi, so total Hindi books = 60 × 60/100 = 36

The remaining regional languages books are 100 - (36 + 40) = 24

Now, 24 unit → 3600,

Then, 100 unit → 3600/24 × 100 = 15000

∴ The correct answer is 15000

Calculation:

Let the value of integers be 1 and 2,

And by puttiong these values in place of A we will get,

A.  2  is even

B. 3 is odd

C. 3 is odd

D. 1 is odd

E. 2 is even

Now again,

A. 3 is odd

B. 6 is even

C. 4 is even

D. 3 is odd

E. 5 is odd

We can see that only D is the correct option,

Key Points

The correct answer is 1) No pandas are herbivorous animals.

• The statement "Some pandas are herbivorous animals" means that there exists at least one panda that is herbivorous.
• This means that the statement "No pandas are herbivorous animals" is false. The other statements are not necessarily false.
• The statement "All pandas are herbivorous animals" could be true, but we don't know that for sure.
• The statement "Some pandas are not herbivorous animals" could also be true, but we don't know that for sure either.
• The statement "All herbivorous animals are pandas" is false because there are other herbivorous animals, such as cows and horses.

 

Therefore, the only statement that can be immediately inferred to be false is "No pandas are herbivorous animals."

Key Points 

The correct answer is 1) C and D only.

• The statements "All mushrooms are fungi" and "Some mushrooms are not fungi" cannot both be false. If all mushrooms are fungi, then there cannot be any mushrooms that are not fungi. Conversely, if there are some mushrooms that are not fungi, then not all mushrooms can be fungi.
• The statements "No mushrooms are fungi" and "Some mushrooms are fungi" can both be true. For example, there are some mushrooms that are not edible, while others are edible.
• The statements "All mushrooms are fungi" and "No mushrooms are fungi" cannot both be true. This is because if all mushrooms are fungi, then there cannot be any mushrooms that are not fungi. Conversely, if there are no mushrooms that are fungi, then not all mushrooms can be fungi.

 

Therefore, the only statements that cannot both be false are "Some mushrooms are fungi" and "Some mushrooms are not fungi."

Key Points 

Storage capacity of Tina's MP3 player:

• The storage capacity of Tina's MP3 player is 4 gigabytes.
• 1 gigabyte = 8 * 1024 * 1024 Kilo bits So, 4 gigabytes = 4 * 8 * 1024 * 1024 = 33554432 kilobits

Size of each song:

• The bitrate of each song is 128 kilo bits per second.
• This means that each second of the song takes up 128 kilo bits of storage space.
• A minute is equal to 60 seconds, so a song that lasts 3 minutes takes up 128 * 180 = 23040 bits of storage space.

Number of songs that can be stored on Tina's MP3 player:

• The number of songs that can be stored on Tina's MP3 player is the total storage capacity of the MP3 player divided by the size of each song.
• This is 33554432 / 23040 = 1456 songs.

 

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Key Points

 The instructional effect that does not come under Role-Playing Model is competence in social dialogue.

Role-playing:

• Role-playing is a teaching method that involves students taking on assigned roles and acting out those roles through a scripted play.
• It is often used to teach social skills, such as how to solve interpersonal problems, how to express opinions comfortably, and how to be competent in social dialogue.
• However, competence in social dialogue is not typically taught through role-playing. It is more likely to be taught through lectures, readings, or discussions.

Therefore, the instructional effect that does not come under Role-Playing Model is competence in social dialogue.

• The other three instructional effects, strategies of solving interpersonal problems, comfort in expressing opinions, and facts about social problems and values, are all commonly taught through role-playing.

Key Points 

The correct answer is 2) B, C and D only.

The three major areas of analysis in communication are semiotics, syntactic, and pragmatics.

• Semiotics is the study of signs and symbols. It is concerned with how meaning is created and communicated through signs.
• Syntactics is the study of the rules of grammar. It is concerned with how words are combined to form sentences.
• Pragmatics is the study of the use of language in context. It is concerned with how meaning is created and communicated through the use of language in different contexts.

The other options, particularism, virtual reality, are not major areas of analysis in communication.

• Particularism is a philosophical approach that emphasizes the importance of individual experience. It is not specifically related to communication.
• Virtual reality is a computer-generated environment that can be experienced as if it were a real place. It is not a major area of analysis in communication, but it can be used to study communication in certain contexts.

Calculation:

According to question,

⇒ 2/5 = 0.400

⇒ 3/8 = 0.375

⇒ 4/9 = 0.44

⇒ 5/13 = 0.384

⇒ 6/11 = 0.545

Ascending order : 3/8, 5/13, 2/5, 4/9, 6/11 

Here the third in order is 2/5.

Key Points University Grants Commission:

• The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body in India responsible for coordinating and maintaining the standards of higher education in the country.
• It operates through various regional centres located across different states in India.
• The regional centres of UGC serve as administrative hubs for managing and monitoring the higher education institutions within their regions. They play a crucial role in implementing UGC's policies, programs, and initiatives at the regional level.

University Grants Commission (UGC) has established six other regional centers across different states in India.

• The UGC Regional Centre – Assam:  
• Situated in Guwahati, Guwahati is the largest city in Assam and serves as an important educational and administrative hub in the region. The UGC Regional Centre in Assam, Guwahati, is responsible for overseeing and coordinating higher education institutions in the state of Assam and other states in the northeastern region of India.
• UGC Regional Centre - Bangalore:
• Located in Karnataka, this regional center caters to the states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and the Union Territories of Puducherry and Lakshadweep.
• UGC Regional Centre - Pune:
• Situated in Maharashtra, this regional center covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa.
• UGC Regional Centre - Hyderabad:
• ​Located in Telangana, this regional center serves the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• UGC Regional Centre - Bhopal:
• Situated in Madhya Pradesh, this regional center caters to the states of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
• UGC Regional Centre - Kolkata:
• Located in West Bengal, this regional center covers the states of West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Odisha.
• These regional centers play a crucial role in implementing and monitoring UGC policies, programs, and initiatives at the regional level.
• They facilitate coordination, funding, accreditation, and various other activities to ensure the maintenance of academic standards and the overall development of higher education within their respective regions.

 

Therefore six regional centers of UGC are there in India.

The correct answer is B, D and E only

Important PointsThe National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) is an initiative launched by the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) with the aim of providing high-quality educational content and online courses in various disciplines.

• NPTEL is a government-funded project in India that offers a vast repository of courses, video lectures, and study materials.
• NPTEL primarily focuses on disciplines related to Engineering, Basic Sciences, and selected Humanities and Management subjects.
• Engineering: NPTEL offers a wide range of courses in various branches of engineering, including Computer Science, Electrical Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Electronics and Communication Engineering, and many more.
• These courses cover both fundamental concepts and advanced topics in engineering, providing learners with valuable knowledge and skills.

Basic Sciences:

• NPTEL also provides courses in various branches of Basic Sciences, such as Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Biology.
• These courses delve into the foundational principles, theories, and applications of these scientific disciplines, catering to students, researchers, and enthusiasts interested in gaining a deeper understanding of the natural sciences.

Selected Humanities and Management Subjects:

• In addition to technical fields, NPTEL offers courses in selected Humanities and Management subjects.
• These courses cover topics like Economics, Psychology, Sociology, Literature, Business Management, Marketing, Finance, and more.
• This broader range of subjects enables learners to explore interdisciplinary areas and acquire knowledge beyond the traditional STEM fields.

The courses provided by NPTEL are available in various formats, including video lectures, lecture notes, assignments, and quizzes. Learners can access these resources online for free, allowing them to learn at their own pace and convenience.

• NPTEL's online platform has gained popularity not only in India but also globally, attracting learners from different backgrounds who seek to enhance their knowledge and skills in the mentioned disciplines.
• Overall, NPTEL's comprehensive collection of courses and educational resources has made it the largest online repository in the world for courses in Engineering, Basic Sciences, and selected Humanities and Management subjects.
• It continues to play a significant role in promoting accessible and quality education, empowering learners to expand their horizons and pursue their academic and professional goals.

The correct answer is 'Emotional Development'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the emotional responses of infants to stimuli, particularly the responses of approach and avoidance, which suggests that the source text likely pertains to emotional development.
• The text delves into the ways infants may react to different emotional stimuli and how their reactions can influence their socioemotional development, which is a key aspect of Emotional Development.
• The emphasis on emotional arousal, emotional self-regulation and the effect of parents' emotions on infants align with the study of Emotional Development.
• The passage states: "Given that this is the nature of emotional arousal the new-born arrives equipped with the approach avoidance response makes perfect evolutionary sense."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points 

The correct answer is 2) A, C and E only.

The three cardinal principles of education that SWAYAM is designed to achieve are access, equity, and quality.

• Access refers to the ability of all people to have access to quality education, regardless of their social, economic, or geographic background.
• Equity refers to the fair distribution of educational opportunities so that everyone has an equal chance to succeed.
• Quality refers to the provision of high-quality educational experiences that meet the needs of all learners.
• The SWAYAM program aims to achieve these three principles by providing high-quality, open educational resources (OER) to learners across India.
• OER are freely available, online educational resources that can be used by anyone, anywhere.
• SWAYAM offers a wide range of OER, including video lectures, textbooks, and interactive learning modules. These resources are designed to meet the needs of learners at all levels, from school children to university students.
• The SWAYAM program is a valuable resource for learners across India. It provides access to high-quality educational resources that can help learners succeed in their studies.

Key Points Statement I: The Internet has provided new communication channels to youngsters in societies that are socially conditioned.

• Statement I is true because the Internet has provided new communication channels to youngsters in societies that are socially conditioned.
• These channels allow youngsters to connect with others from all over the world, regardless of their social status or background.
• This can be a positive thing, as it can help youngsters to learn about different cultures and perspectives.
• However, it can also be a negative thing, as it can expose youngsters to harmful content and influences.

Statement II: The new media can be used for harmless fun and entertainment, but otherwise also.

• Statement II is also true because the new media can be used for harmless fun and entertainment, but it can also be used for other purposes, such as spreading misinformation or propaganda.
• It is important for youngsters to be aware of the potential dangers of the new media and to use it responsibly.

 

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Given: The codes are written as follows;

'154' ⇒  'Good and Tasty'

'468' ⇒ 'See Good Pictures'

'629' ⇒ 'Pictures are Faint'

From the above codes, the code for 'See' will be "8".

Key Points 

The correct answer is 4) A, B and D only.

• The statements "Some plants are non-fungi" and "Some plants are not fungi" are logically equivalent because they mean the same thing.
• The statement "Some fungi are plants" is not logically equivalent because it is not possible for something to be both a plant and a fungus.
• The statement "Some non-fungi are not non-plants" is not logically equivalent because it is not possible for something to be both a non-fungus and a non-plant.
• Therefore, the only statements that are logically equivalent are "Some plants are non-fungi" and "Some plants are not fungi."

Here is a table that shows the truth values of the statements for different values of P and F:

As you can see, the statements "Some plants are non-fungi" and "Some plants are not fungi" have the same truth value for all possible values of P and F. This means that they are logically equivalent.

The correct answer is A, C, and D only.

Important Points

The universities that were established under the provision of the Acts of incorporation passed by the governor-general and Viceroy Lord Canning in January 1857 are:

A. Calcutta:

• The University of Calcutta, located in Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), was established in 1857.
• It is one of the oldest and prestigious universities in India.

C. Madras:

• The University of Madras, located in Chennai (formerly Madras), was also established in 1857.
• It is another renowned university that has a long history of providing quality education.

D. Bombay:

• The University of Bombay, now known as the University of Mumbai, was established in 1857 as well.
• It is one of the oldest universities in India and is situated in Mumbai (formerly Bombay).

These universities were founded during the British colonial period and played a significant role in the development of higher education in their respective regi

Key Points

 The fallacy committed in the above argument is complex question.

Complex Question:

• A complex question is a question that contains a presupposition, or an assumption that is not explicitly stated.
• In this case, the presupposition is that the Indian public is naive. The question is asking the Member of Parliament whether they believe that the Indian public is naive.
• However, by asking this question, the speaker is already assuming that the Indian public is naive.
• This is a fallacy because it is not possible to answer the question without first agreeing to the presupposition.

Additional Information

• Begging the question is a fallacy in which the conclusion of an argument is assumed in the premises. For example, the argument "The Indian public is naive because they endorse just any stopgap measure" begs the question because it assumes that the Indian public is naive in the first place.
• Red herring is a fallacy in which an irrelevant topic is introduced into an argument in order to distract from the real issue. For example, the argument "The Indian public is naive because they are easily manipulated by the media" is a red herring because it introduces the irrelevant topic of media manipulation.
• Appeal to ignorance is a fallacy in which the conclusion of an argument is based on the fact that there is no evidence to the contrary. For example, the argument "The Indian public is naive because there is no evidence to suggest otherwise" is an appeal to ignorance because it concludes that the Indian public is naive simply because there is no evidence to the contrary.

Key PointsRecognition: 

• Recognition is the ability to identify something that you have seen or experienced before.
• In this case, the student is able to identify photographs of her high school classmates because she has seen them before and stored their images in her memory.
• This is a form of long-term memory, which is the ability to store and retrieve information over a long period of time.

Recall:

• Recall is the ability to remember something that you have learned or experienced without having to see it again.
• In this case, the student would not be able to recall the names of her high school classmates, but she would be able to recognize them if she saw their photographs.

Common sense:

• Common sense is the ability to use your knowledge and experience to make judgments about everyday situations.
• It is not a form of learning, but rather a way of using the information that you already have.

Eidetic imagery:

• Eidetic imagery is a rare condition in which people can remember images with extreme clarity.
• It is not clear whether this condition is actually a form of learning, or if it is simply a way of storing and retrieving images in a different way.

 

Therefore, the ability to identify photographs of high school classmates after 25 years is a form of recognition, which is a type of long-term memory.

Concept used:

(a² - b²) = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

\(\frac{5.2 \times 5.2-2.5 \times 2.5}{7.7 \times 2.7}\)

⇒ \(\frac{(5.2)^2-(2.5)^2}{7.7 \times 2.7}\) 

⇒ \(\frac{(5.2+2.5)(5.2-2.5)}{7.7 \times 2.7}\)

⇒ \(\frac{7.7 \times 2.7}{7.7 \times 2.7}\) 

⇒ 1

∴ The correct answer is 1

Key Points 

A. You can create folders to store and organize your emails.

• This statement is true.
• Most email services provide the option to create folders or labels to help organize and categorize your emails.
• This allows for better management and easy retrieval of specific emails.

B. Using the Cc feature will hide all other recipients from each other.

• This statement is false.
• When using the Cc (Carbon Copy) feature in an email, all recipients can see who else received the email.
• It does not hide the recipients from each other. To hide recipients, you would need to use the Bcc (Blind Carbon Copy) feature.

C. You can add attachments of any file size to an email.

• This statement is not universally true.
• While email services may have certain file size limits for attachments, these limits vary across different providers.
• Generally, there are restrictions on the maximum file size you can attach to an email.

D. You can add signatures to your emails to give personal contact details.

• This statement is true.
• Email clients and services allow users to create and add personalized signatures to their emails.
• These signatures often include personal contact details, such as name, job title, phone number, and email address.

E. You can only send emails from a laptop computer.

• This statement is false.
• You can send emails from various devices, including laptops, desktop computers, smartphones, tablets, and other internet-connected devices.
• Email services are accessible through web-based interfaces, email clients, and mobile apps, allowing users to send and receive emails from different devices.

 

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3) A and D only.

Key Points 

According to the classical Indian School of logic (Nyaya), the step of inference (anumana) that corresponds to the application (upanaya) is:

Option C: That mountain has smoke such as is invariably accompanied by fire.

In Nyaya logic, the process of inference involves five steps:

• Pratijna (proposition): Stating the proposition or claim to be proved.
• Hetu (reason): Providing a reason or evidence that supports the proposition.
• Udaharana (example): Giving an example that illustrates the reason.
• Upanaya (application): Applying the reason to the specific case in question.
• Nigamana (conclusion): Drawing the conclusion based on the application of the reason.
• In the given options, option C represents the step of Upanaya (application) because it states that the mountain has smoke, which is invariably accompanied by fire.
• It applies the general principle or reason (whatever has smoke has fire) to the specific case of the mountain.

The number of male participants from Country B is 22% of the total

number of male participants, which is 750. 

So, the number of male participants from Country B = 0.22 × 750 = 165

The number of male participants from Country F is 22% of the total number of male participants as well.

So, the number of male participants from Country F = 0.22 × 750 = 165

Now, let's add the number of male participants from Country B and Country F:

165 + 165 = 330

Now, let's find out the percentage of these male participants with respect to the total number of participants in the games, which is 1100.

Percentage = (330 / 1100) × 100 = 30%

So, the total number of male participants from Country B and F

together is 30% of the number of participants in the games.

Therefore, the answer is option 2) 30.

Given:

The total participants are 1100

Calculation:

The male : female ratio is 15:7, implying the total number of ratio parts = 15 + 7 = 22.

One part equates to 1100 / 22 = 50

Therefore, there are 15 × 50 = 750 male participants and 7  × 50 =

350 female participants.

The number of male participants from Country E is 10% of the total

male participants = 10/100 × 750 = 75

The total participants from Country C constitute 15% of the total

participants, which means 15/100  × 1100 = 165 participants from Country C.

The number of male participants from Country C is 14% of the total

male participants, i.e., 14/100  × 750 = 105.

Subtracting male participants from the total participants in Country C

gives us the number of female participants from Country C = 165 -

105 = 60.

The difference between the number of male participants from

Country E and the number of female participants from Country C is

75 - 60 = 15.

The number of male participants from Country E is (15 / 60) ×100 = 25% more than the number of female participants from Country C.

First, let's find the total number of participants from Country D and

the number of female participants from Country E.

From the given data, the total number of participants from Country D

is 12% of 1100.

So, the total number of participants from Country D = 0.12 × 1100 = 132

The total number of sportspersons from Country E is 9% of 1100 =

0.09 × 1100 = 99

The number of male sportspersons from Country E is 10% of 750 =

0.10 × 750 = 75

So, number of female sportspersons from Country E = 99 - 75 = 24

Now, we need to find the ratio of the number of participants from

Country D to the number of female participants from Country E.

Ratio = Number of participants from Country D : Number of female

participants from Country E = 132 : 24 = 11 : 2

So, the ratio of the number of participants from Country D to the

number of female participants from Country E is 11 : 2.

Therefore, the answer is option 1) 11 ∶ 2.

The number of female participants from Country C, after adding 10 more = 70.

The percentage of female participants from Country C out of the total

number of participants from Country C after adding 10 more females

= Percentage = (Number of female participants from Country C/Total number of participants from Country C) × 100

Percentage = (70 / 175) × 100 = 40%

Therefore, if 10 additional female participants from Country C joined

the games, then the total number of female participants from

Country C is 40% of the total number of participants from Country C.