Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Geography 20th June 2019 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Who among the following provided a philosophical foundation for Geography as a field of scientific enterprise?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bernhardus Varenius

  2. BOption (b)

    Nicolaus Copernicus

  3. COption (c)

    Immanuel Kant

  4. DOption (d)

    Kepler

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Immanuel Kant

Why this answer is correct

Immanuel Kant provided a philosophical foundation for Geography as a field of the scientific enterprise.

Key Points

Immanuel Kant

Primary Information:                                     

  • Born in 1724 at Konigsberg in East Prussia (Russia) and passed away in 1804.
  • Kant was more of an ‘armchair geographer’
  • His contribution in the fields of astronomy, geology, and geography.
  • He was regarded as the ‘father of exceptionalism’

Contribution:

  • Kant lectured with great proficiency not only in the fields of philosophy, mathematics, physics, and mechanical sciences like mechanics, hydrostatics, and hydrokinetics but also in military sciences like fortification and pyro-techniques.
  • From 1756 to 1796, Kant offered a regular course of lectures on physical geography.
  • The physical geography which Kant developed was essentially ‘anthropocentric’ in nature and content.
  • Empirical knowledge è (i) through pure reason, or (ii) through the senses.
  • Anthropology: dealt with soul or man, physical geography: dealt with Nature.
  • Classification of knowledge:
  • Logical classification: on the basis of morphological similarities and gave rise to systematic sciences
  • Physical classification: base is time or space. History, related to time (chronological) and Geography related to space (chorological).
  • Immanuel Kant may rightly be regarded as the ‘father of exceptionalism’ as he was opposed to generalizations and believed that history and geography were methodologically different from the other sciences as they were concerned with the study of the unique and the ‘exceptional.’
  • Immanuel Kant may also be credited for pioneering several other branches of geography
  • Mathematical geography dealing with the shape, size, form, and movements of the earth and, its position in the solar system.
  • Moral geography describing the customs and traditions of humans in different places.
  • Political geography essentially studied the interrelationship between political units and their physical setup.
  • Commercial geography investigated as to why one country had an abundance of some commodities but was deficient in others; a situation believed to have given rise to international trade.
  • Theological geography tried to analyze the changes theological principles experienced in different spatial units.
  • The principles of Kant were revived by Hettner and Hartshorne.

Important writings:

  • Kant’s early works like ‘General Natural history and the Theory of the Heavens’ (1755) related to speculative astronomy.
  • ‘Critique of Pure Reason’ (1781), Kant freed geography from its close bond with theology by rejecting the teleological concept.
  • ‘Critique of Judgment (1798).
  • ‘Anthropology from Pragmatic Point of View’ (1798), a vivid geographical description of the races and ethnic groups around the world

Question 2

Who among the following Arab geographers is most widely travelled and wrote down his travel account for posterity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ibn-Batuta

  2. BOption (b)

    Ibn-Khaldun

  3. COption (c)

    Ibn-Hakul

  4. DOption (d)

    Al-Masudi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ibn-Batuta

Why this answer is correct

Ibn-Batuta is most widely travelled and wrote down his travel account for posterity.

Key Points

Ibn-Batuta (1304-1368 AD):

  • Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan explorer.
  • He is known for the account of his journeys called the Rihla ("Voyage"),
  • The most famous travel books, the Riḥlah (Travels) on many aspects of the social, cultural, and political history of a great part of the Muslim world.
  • He traveled for nearly 30 years and covered most of the Islamic world.
  • He also explored West Africa, Southern, and Eastern Europe, South Asia, Central Asia, Southeast Asia, and China.
Arab ScholarContribution
Ibn-Khaldun (1332-1406 AD)- His best-known book, the Muqaddimah or Prolegomena ("Introduction") - Kitāb al-ʻIbar ("Book of Lessons, Record of Beginnings and Events in the History of the Arabs and the Berbers and Their Powerful Contemporaries") - World History up to the author's own time - Historiography of the Berbers and the Maghreb - Ibn Khaldun. 1951 (Autobiography in Arabic).
Ibn-Hakul (912-978 AD)- A Book of Routes and Realms - Ibn Hawqal based his great work of geography on a revision and augmentation of the text called Masālik ul-Mamālik by Istakhri (951 AD), which itself was a revised edition of the Ṣuwar al-aqālīm by Ahmed ibn Sahl al-Balkhi, (ca. 921 AD).
Al-Masudi (896-956 AD)- Kitab-Muraj-al-Dhahab - Kitab-Akhbar-al-Zaman - Kitab-al-Ausat - Kitab-al-Tanbhwal-Ishraf - Kitab-Muraj-al-Dhahab (Golden Meadows) - Famous for providing a good account of the Monsoon - (Periodic winds) of Herkend (Bay of Bengal) - Salts in the seas and oceans come from the land areas - Indian ocean is connected to Atlantic ocean - Based on the language he classified the into seven regions

Question 3

Which one of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Julian Wolpert : Behavioural approach

  2. BOption (b)

    Aristotle : Inductive approach

  3. COption (c)

    Ratzel : Man-land approach

  4. DOption (d)

    David Smith : Marxist perspective

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

David Smith : Marxist perspective

Why this answer is correct

David Smith : Marxist perspective is NOT matched correctly

ScholarContribution
Julian Wolpert- ‘The Decision Process in Spatial Context’, (1964) - The behavioural approach in geography was introduced in the 1960s - He demonstrated that producer and migrant decisions were affected differentially by imperfect information and environmental uncertainty.
Aristotle (384-322 BC)- Empirical scientist - Inductive approach - Interested in astronomy, physics, and biology - Describe the shape and zone of the earth
Ratzel (1844-1904)- Father of Human Geography - Father of political Geography - Organic theory of state - Lebensraum: Man-land approach - Social Darwinism - Anthropogeography (2 volumes), 1882-1891 - Earth and Life: A Comparative Geography, 1901-1902 - Politische Geographie, 1903
David Smith (1906-1965)- He was an American abstract expressionist sculptor and painter, best known for creating large steel abstract geometric sculptures - Well known for "drawings in space" - Hudson River Landscape (1950) and The Letter (both 1950)

Question 4

Identify the Indian port which is known as the best natural harbour and has the leading cargo traffic importing petroleum, fertilizer, chemicals and machinery, etc.:

  1. AOption (a)

    Kolkata

  2. BOption (b)

    Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    New Tuticorin

  4. DOption (d)

    Vishakhapatnam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vishakhapatnam

Why this answer is correct

Kolkata- Kolkata Port is located on the Hugli river, 128 km inland from the Bay of Bengal. - Like the Mumbai port, this port was also developed by the British. Kolkata had the initial advantage of being the capital of British India. - The port has lost its significance considerably on account of the diversion of exports to the other ports
such as Vishakhapatnam, Paradwip and its satellite port, Haldia. - Kolkata Port is also confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river which provides a link to the sea. - Its hinterland covers U.P., Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Sikkim and the north-eastern states. - Apart from this, it also extends ports facilities to our neighbouring land-locked countries such as Nepal and Bhutan.
Chennai- Chennai Port is one of the oldest ports on the eastern coast. - It is an artificial harbour built-in 1859. - It is not much suitable for large ships because of the shallow waters near the coast. - Tamil Nadu and Puducherry are its hinterlands.
New Tuticorin- Tuticorin Port was also developed to relieve the pressure of Chennai port. - It deals with a variety of cargo, including coal, salt, food grains, edible oils, sugar, chemicals and petroleum products.
Vishakhapatnam- Visakhapatnam Port in Andhra Pradesh is a land-locked harbour, connected to the sea by a channel cut through solid rock and sand. - An outer harbour has been developed for handling iron ore, petroleum and general cargo. - Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are the main hinterlands for this port.

Question 5

Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj Institutions have 3-tier systems in planning and executing development projects within their jurisdictions.

Reason (R): Panchayati Raj Act empowered local bodies participation in the planning process.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

  3. COption (c)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

Panchayati Raj:

  • Panchayati Raj (Council of five officials) is the system of local self-government of villages in rural India as opposed to urban and suburban municipalities.
  • It consists of the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) through which the self-government of villages is realized.
  • They are tasked with "economic development, strengthening social justice and implementation of Central and State Government Schemes including those 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule."
  • Part IX of the Indian Constitution is the section of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats.
  • It stipulates that in states or Union Territories with more than two million inhabitants there are three levels of PRIs:
  1. The Gram Panchayats at village level
  2. The Panchayat Samiti at the block level
  3. The Zila Parishad at the district level.
  • In India, the Panchayati Raj now functions as a system of governance in which gram panchayats are the basic units of local administration.
  • The system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
  • Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in all states except Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Delhi.
  • The Panchayats receive funds from three sources:
  • Local body grants, as recommended by the Central Finance Commission
  • Funds for implementation of centrally sponsored schemes
  • Funds released by the state governments on the recommendations of the State Finance Commissions
  • On 24 April 1993, the Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act of 1992 came into force in India to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • This amendment was extended to Panchayats in the tribal areas of eight states, namely: Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan beginning on 24 December 1996.
  • This amendment contains provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities to the panchayats, both for the preparation of economic development plans and social justice, as well as for implementation in relation to 29 subjects listed in the eleventh schedule of the constitution, and the ability to levy and collect appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.
  • The Act aims
  • to provide a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all states having a population of over two million,
  • to hold Panchayat elections regularly every five years,
  • to provide seats reserved for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, and women,
  • to appoint a State Finance Commission to make recommendations regarding the financial powers of the Panchayats, and
  • to constitute a District Planning Committee.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Water Falls)
List-II
(Name of the River)
a. Jog Prapati. Cauvery
b. Dudh Sagarii. Machkund
c. Shiva Samudramiii. Mandovi
d. Dudumaiv. Sharavati

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii

  3. COption (c)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

Why this answer is correct

Water FallsRiver
Jog Prapat- Jog Falls is situated on the borders of Shimoga and North Kanara. - The Western Ghats gives rise to the Sharavati river that plunges from a height of 829 feet in four magnificent cascades namely Raja, Rani, Roarer and Rocket. - Jog falls, being the tallest waterfalls in India is situated in the dense evergreen forests, Shimoga district, Karnataka.
Dudh Sagar- Dudhsagar waterfalls are amongst India’s tallest waterfalls with a height of 310 m. - It is formed on the Mandovi River. - Mandovi river is also known as Mahadayi or Mhadei river. - It is described as the lifeline of Goa.
Shiva Samudram- Shivanasamudra is a waterfall in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. - Shivanasamudra is situated along the river Kaveri, which forms here the boundary to the Mandya district and  Chamarajanagar district. - In 1905, Asia’s first hydroelectric project was set up here.
Duduma- Duduma Waterfall is situated on the border of Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. - This waterfall has its origin in the River Machkund. - Machkund Hydro Electric Power Project is dependent on this waterfall. - It is a collaborative project between the Government of Andhra Pradesh and the Government of Odisha.

Question 7

Read the following statements given below:

a. The Bhangar soils are older Alluvium.

b. The Bhangar soils are frequently inundated.

c. The Bhangar soils are rich in concentration and nodules.

d. The drier areas of Bhangar soils exhibit saline and alkaline efflorescence.

Select the correct option:

  1. AOption (a)

    a and b are true

  2. BOption (b)

    a and d are true

  3. COption (c)

    a, c and d are true

  4. DOption (d)

    a, b and d are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a, c and d are true

Why this answer is correct

Alluvial soil:

  • It is formed by the deposition of alluvium by rivers
  • This type of soil contribute greatly to agriculture
  • From the foothills of the mountain towards the river valley, alluvial soil could be classified into four categories
  • Bhabar
  • Tarai
  • Banger
  • Khader

The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous, in the Upper and Middle Ganga plain.

  • Two different types of alluvial soils have developed-
  • Khadar- It is the new alluvium and deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.
  • Bhangar- It represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains.
  • Both the khadar and bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars).

Bhangar 

  • It is old alluvial soil on the basis of age
  • These are coarse in texture due to the concentration of kankar nodules and fewer amount of fine particles
  • Comparatively less fertile soil as it is not renewed frequently
  • They usually found in the upper reaches (about 30m above flood level) of the river valley
  • They resemble terraces and composed of calcareous deposits.
  • They are less prone to flooding
  • Thi soil is not suitable for agricultural practices
  • The drier areas of Bhangar soils exhibit saline and alkaline efflorescence

Therefore, a, c and d are true

Question 8

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Language Family)
List-II
(Specific Language)
a. Dravidiani. Banjari
b. Indo-Europeanii. Santhali
c. Austriciii. Bodo
d. Tibeto-Burmaniv. Yerukala

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii

  3. COption (c)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Why this answer is correct

List-I
(Language Family)
List-II
(Specific Language)
a. Dravidianiv. Yerukala
b. Indo-Europeani. Banjari
c. Austricii. Santhali
d. Tibeto-Burmaniii. Bodo

The correct answer is a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Key Points

Language FamilyCharacteristicsLanguages
a. Dravidian- The Dravidian languages are a language family spoken by people, mainly in southern India and northern Sri Lanka, with pockets elsewhere in South Asia.Malayalam, Yerukala, Kannada, Telugu, Tamil
b. Indo-European- The largest of the language families represented in India, in terms of speakers, is the Indo-Aryan language family, - It is a branch of the Indo-Iranian family, itself the easternmost, extant subfamily of the Indo-European language family.Assamese, Bengali, Banjari, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, etc.
c. Austric- The Austroasiatic languages, also known as Mon–Khmer, are a large language family of Mainland Southeast Asia, also scattered throughout parts of India, Bangladesh, Nepal, and southern China.Santhali
d. Tibeto-Burman- The Tibeto-Burman languages are the non-Sinitic members of the Sino-Tibetan language family, over 400 of which are spoken throughout the highlands of Southeast Asia as well as certain parts of East Asia and South AsiaBodo, Meitei

Question 9

Which one of the following is NOT matched correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prot-Australoids : Bhutias

  2. BOption (b)

    Nordics : Rajputs

  3. COption (c)

    Mongoloids : Khasis

  4. DOption (d)

    Negritoes : Khaddars

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Prot-Australoids : Bhutias

Why this answer is correct

Racial differences are based on the physical attributes of humans. The inner qualities of an individual have nothing to do with the races. On a broader scale, the present-day population of India has been derived from the following racial groups and sub-groups.

Important Points

 

  • The Negritos
  • The Proto-Australoids
  • The Mongoloids
  • The Mediterranean
  • The Western broad-headed people
  • The Nordics

 

Human RaceCharacteristics
The Negritos- They are the short-statured type of human race, believed to have come to India in the earliest time. - Negroid race are characterised by (i) woolly hair, (ii) bulbous forehead (iii) broad flat nose and (iv) slightly protruding jaws. - Tribal groups such as Poliyans and Kedars living in the hills and forests of the Indian Peninsula and the Andaman Islands constitute the Negrito race in India.
The Proto-Australoids- They came to India just after Negritos. The Indus-valley civilization was built by them, along with Mediterraneans, as their skeletons have been discovered from the burial grounds both at Mohanjodaro and Harappa. - They make the majority of the population in many isolated or semi-isolated parts of the country. - Physically they differ from Negritos mainly in the absence of woolly hair. The hilly and forested tracts of Central and Southern India are inhabited by them.
The Mongoloids- This racial stock is mainly concentrated in the Himalayan borderland especially in Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Ladakh and other parts of North-Eastern India like Nagaland, Mizoram, Assam and Manipur. - Their original homeland was China from where they were pushed southward into the Malay Peninsula and Indonesia and entered India through mountain passes in the northern or eastern section. - The two sub-groups of Mongoloid racial stock are (i) The Palaeo- Mongoloids and (ii) the Tibeto-Mongoloids.
The Nordics- The final wave of migration into India brought the Aryan speaking Nordics. - They spoke the Aryan language and migrated to India sometime during the second millennium B.C. - They are long-headed, fair-complexioned and have well-developed noses and strongly build bodies. - They are mainly concentrated in the north-western part of the country. They are a predominant type in the North Western Frontier Province of Pakistan, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan. - In Punjab of north India, they are represented among the upper castes.

Question 10

The philosophy of positivism DOES NOT believe in

  1. AOption (a)

    Speculation

  2. BOption (b)

    Objectivity

  3. COption (c)

    Fact

  4. DOption (d)

    Truth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Speculation

Why this answer is correct

The philosophy of positivism DOES NOT believe in Speculation.

Key Points

The philosophy of positivism:

  • The origin of positivism as a well-established philosophy can be accredited to French philosopher August Comte in the 1830s.
  • Its main purpose was to distinguish science from metaphysics and religion.
  • It emphasized science and the scientific method as the only source of knowledge
  • August Comte published as a book with the title ‘The Course of Positive Philosophy.’ His positivist philosophy included the following five basic guidelines:
  • Direct and empirically verifiable experience of reality (phenomenology).
  • unified scientific method or ‘le certitude’
  • ‘le precis’ or a common objective of formulating scientific theories
  • ‘le utile’ an instrument of social engineering.
  • ‘le relative’, scientific knowledge was never complete, unification of scientific theories
  • Positivism, in Western philosophy, generally, any system that confines itself to the data of experience and excludes a priori or metaphysical speculations.
  • The positivist philosophy proved to be anti-idealistic that is, it stood in contrast to anything that was abstract and essentially a mental construct.
  • The positivist philosophy did not deal with the ‘normative questions’ since they could not be tested empirically and could not be established with scientific evidence.

Question 11

Who amongst the following geographers was pioneer of branching Geography into two, general or universal and special or particular?

  1. AOption (a)

    Richthofen

  2. BOption (b)

    Varenius

  3. COption (c)

    Ritter

  4. DOption (d)

    Humboldt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Varenius

Why this answer is correct

Bernhardus Varenius:

Key Points

Primary Information:

  • Born in 1622 and he passed away in 1650
  • He studied philosophy, mathematics and physics at the University of Hamburg between 1640 and 1643
  • First scholar who highlight on the differences in the nature and content of physical and human geography

Contributions:

  • Using the terms of Bartholomew Keckermann a German philosopher, he partitioned geography into-
  1. Special geography:  essentially concerned with the description of particular places on the basis of direct observations. This branch of geography was assumed to have great practical importance for governance and commerce.
  2. General geography:  based on universally applicable mathematical or astronomical laws.
  • He eventually gave rise to the dualisms and dichotomies between physical and human geography and, more importantly between regional (special) and systematic (universal) geography.
  • He explain the world’s wind systems

Important books:

  1. ‘Description Regni Laponiae et Siam’ (Regional description of Japan and Siam), 1649. The book comprised of five parts:
  2. A description of Japan.
  3. A description of Siam (Thailand) being translated into Latin.
  4. A description of the religions of Japan.
  5. Some information on the religions of Africa.
  6. A short essay on the governments dealing with places and people.
  7. ‘Geographia Generalis’ (1650). First attempt to combine three branches of geography—general (systematic), mathematical and physical—and, chorology (science of space). This book consisted of three parts:
  8. The absolute or terrestrial part dealing with the shape and size of the earth as well as the physical geography of continents, seas and the atmosphere.
  9. The relative or the cosmic part describing the relation between the earth and other celestial bodies especially the sun and its effects on global climate.
  10. The comparative part focusing on the principles of navigation and the location of different places in relation to each other.

In the preface of Geographia Generalis, Varenius advocated that, the description of particular places should take into consideration the:

  1. Celestial conditions—climate.
  2. Terrestrial conditions—relief, soil, vegetation and biotic life.
  3. Human conditions—population, settlement, trade, forms of government

Question 12

Which of the following statements are true?

a. The correlation coefficient is dependent on the choice of both origin and scale observations.

b. The correlation coefficient is dependent on the units of measurements.

c. The coefficient of correlation is the square root of the coefficient of determination.

d. The zero value of the correlation coefficient cannot estimate the value of the dependent variable.

  1. AOption (a)

    a and b are true

  2. BOption (b)

    a, b and c are true

  3. COption (c)

    c and d are true

  4. DOption (d)

    Only d is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c and d are true

Why this answer is correct

Correlation coefficient:

  • The correlation coefficient is a statistical measure of the strength of the relationship between the relative movements of two variables.
  • The values range between -1.0 and 1.0. A calculated number is greater than 1.0 or less than -1.0 means that there was an error in the correlation measurement.
  • A correlation of -1.0 shows a perfect negative correlation, while a correlation of 1.0 shows a perfect positive correlation.
  • A correlation of 0.0 shows no linear relationship between the movements of the two variables.
  • The coefficient of correlation is the square root of the coefficient of determination.
  • The zero value of the correlation coefficient cannot estimate the value of a dependent variable.
  • A value of exactly 1.0 means there is a perfect positive relationship between the two variables.
  • For a positive increase in one variable, there is also a positive increase in the second variable.
  • A value of -1.0 means there is a perfect negative relationship between the two variables.
  • Pearson's correlation coefficient,
=correlation coefficient
=values of the x-variable in a sample
=mean of the values of the x-variable
=values of the y-variable in a sample
=mean of the values of the y-variable

Therefore, c and d are true.

Question 13

Which of the following elements of image interpretation is most appropriate for identifying alluvial fans and meanders on any aerial photograph?

  1. AOption (a)

    Size

  2. BOption (b)

    Shape

  3. COption (c)

    Tone

  4. DOption (d)

    Texture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shape

Why this answer is correct

Aerial Photograph:

  • It is the image taken by photographs from an aircraft or other flying object.
  • A precision camera specifically designed for use in aircraft.
  • The art, science, and technology of taking aerial photographs from an airborne platform are known as aerial photography.
  • It is a central projection
  • An aerial photograph is geometrically incorrect.
  • The distortion in the geometry is minimum at the center and increases towards the edges of the photographs.
  • The scale of the photograph is not uniform in every case.
  • Enlargement/reduction does not change the contents of the photographs and can easily be carried out.
  • Aerial photography holds good for inaccessible and inhospitable areas.

Image interpretation:

  • It is an art of identifying images of objects and judging their relative significance.
  • The principles of image interpretation are applied to obtain qualitative information from aerial photographs such as land use/land cover, topographical forms, soil types, etc.
  • A trained interpreter can thus utilise aerial photographs to analyze the land-use changes.

The elements of visual image interpretation are as follows

ElementFunctionExample
Size- The size of objects in an image is a function of scale. - It is important to assess the size of the target relative to other objects in a scene, as well as the absolute size, to aid the interpretation of the target.If an interpreter identified an area having larger buildings such as factories or war houses then it may be an industrial region while clustering of the small buildings indicates they may be a settlement area.
Shape- The general form or structure of the individual objects. - The shape is the most helpful interpretation technique. - The shape of a sharp edge may be an agricultural field rather than a naturally created forest.The linear shape of the road and railway makes it easy to identify. The meandering course of the river
Tone- It refers to the brightness or color of the image. - The tone is an important element in identifying the target. - Variations in tone enable the identification of the target along with other elements like shape, size, etc.Brighter looking dense vegetation than the sparsely distributed vegetation
Texture- It means the spatial arrangement of visibly discernible objects in the image. - The pattern helps to identify objects having similar characteristics like orchard have evenly spaced tress which may show a similar pattern which makes identification easier.Regularly spaced villas are another example of the same pattern.

Therefore, the shape of image interpretation is most appropriate for identifying alluvial fans and meanders on an aerial photograph

Question 14

Which of the following rivers divides Indian peninsula into 'Malwa' and Deccan Plateau?

  1. AOption (a)

    Godavari

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahanadi

  3. COption (c)

    Narmada

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Narmada

Why this answer is correct

PENINSULAR PLATEAU

  • The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.
  • It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus, making it a part of the oldest landmass.
  • The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
  • This plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely, the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
  • The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river covering a major area of the Malwa plateau is known as the Central Highlands.
  • The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.

Question 15

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Local Weather Condition)
List-II
(States)
a. Mango showeri. Kerala
b. Blossom showerii. West Bengal
c. Norwesteriii. Karnataka
d. Looiv. Uttar Pradesh

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

  3. COption (c)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

Key Points

Local Weather Condition (List I)State (List II)
a. Mango showeriii. Karnataka
b. Blossom showeri. Kerala
c. Norwesterii. West Bengal
d. Looiv. Uttar Pradesh

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

  • Mango Showers – Karnataka:
  • Mango showers are pre-monsoon rains that occur during March and April in parts of South India, particularly in Karnataka.
  • These showers help in the early ripening of mangoes, hence the name.
  • Blossom Showers – Kerala:
  • These are pre-monsoon showers that occur in Kerala and trigger the blossoming of coffee flowers.
  • They are crucial for the coffee cultivation cycle and are eagerly awaited by farmers in the Western Ghats region.
  • Norwester – West Bengal:
  • Known locally as ‘Kal Baisakhi’, Norwesters are violent thunderstorms occurring in eastern India, especially in West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam during the summer months.
  • They bring heavy rain, thunder, and strong winds that provide relief from the oppressive summer heat.
  • Loo – Uttar Pradesh:
  • The Loo is a strong, hot, and dry wind that blows during the day over the northwestern plains of India, particularly in states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana.
  • It occurs during the peak summer months of May and June and can cause heat strokes.

Question 16

Read the following statements given below:

a. The 2011 census shows marginal increase in population growth rate since 2001 in India.

b. The absolute increase in urban population exceeded the absolute increase in rural population in India.

c. The sex ratio has decreased in 2011 census from 2001.

d. The literacy rate has improved in 2011 census since 2001.

Select the correct answer from the given options:

  1. AOption (a)

    a and c are true

  2. BOption (b)

    a and d are true

  3. COption (c)

    a, c and d are true

  4. DOption (d)

    b and d are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

b and d are true

Why this answer is correct

Census of India:

  • Population Census is the total process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, or otherwise disseminating demographic, economic, and social data pertaining
  • The census provides information on size, distribution and socio-economic, demographic, and other characteristics of the country's population.
  • It generally conducted at an interval of 10 years
Census yearPopulationAbsolute decadal growthDecadal growth rateSex ratioLiteracy rate
195136108809094618.33
19614392347717814668121.6494128.3
197154815965210892488124.8093034.45
198168332909713516944524.6693443.57
199184642103916309194223.8792752.21
2001102873743618231639721.5493364.83
2011121019342218145598617.6494074.04

 

  • The 2011 census shows a decrease in population growth rate since 1981 in India.
  • The absolute increase in urban population exceeded the absolute increase in the rural population in India. It is 9.0 crore for the rural population while 9.1 crores for the urban population.
  • The sex ratio has increased in the 2011 census from 2001.
  • The literacy rate has improved in the 2011 census since 2001.

Therefore, it is clear from the above table and information are written in the solution, b and d are true.

Question 17

Which of the following features hinders the social process of assimilation?

  1. AOption (a)

    The stages of development of society

  2. BOption (b)

    Social activities

  3. COption (c)

    Intimate social contacts

  4. DOption (d)

    Amalgamation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The stages of development of society

Why this answer is correct

The stages of development of society hinder the social process of assimilation.

Key Points

  • The social process of assimilation:
  • Assimilation, in anthropology and sociology, the process whereby individuals or groups of differing ethnic heritage are absorbed into the dominant culture of a society.
  • It is the process of social, cultural, and political integration of a minority into a dominant culture and society.
  • It is that process by which individuals belonging to different cultures are united into one. Successful accommodation sets the stage for additional consequences of human interactions, namely assimilation.
  • This implies the complete merging and fusion of two or more bodies into a single common body, a process analogous to digestion, in which we say that food is assimilated.
  • Assimilation in social relationships means that the cultural differences between divergent groupings of people disappear.
  • Thus, they come to feel; think, and act similarly as they absorb new common traditions, attitudes and consequently take on a new cultural identity.

Additional Information

  • We see the process operating among ethnic groups which enter society with their own society’s culture.
  • Assimilation is a slow and gradual process.
  • Acculturation is the first step to assimilation.
  • Assimilation is a universal process. It is found in every place and at all times.
  • Assimilation is a two-way process. It is based on the principle of giving and take.

Question 18

In Drewnowski's conceptual framework of the need satisfaction curve, the lowest level of living indicates which state of well-being?

  1. AOption (a)

    Insufficiency

  2. BOption (b)

    Affluence

  3. COption (c)

    Sufficiency

  4. DOption (d)

    Destitution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Destitution

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

The need satisfaction curve of Drewnowski:

  • Drewonowski tries to depict a situation that in any the state of well-being of its citizen will determine the degree of social and economic deficiency.

  • State of well being can be measured in terms of

  • Affluence

  • Sufficiency

  • Insufficiency

  • Destitution

  • There is little agreement on absolutes, zero points and saturation thresholds with the possible exception of a lower-level threshold described as a “zero-level” or “survival with nil need satisfaction” by Drewnowski (1974),

  • It is associated with a sub-human level of existence.

  • By contrast, a “human” but a minimum level of need satisfaction is only guaranteed when “basic needs” are met.

  • Once the basic need of individuals in a community is met, the state of well being is high.

Therefore, In Drewnowski's conceptual framework of the need satisfaction curve, the lowest level of living indicates Destitution.

Question 19

Which one of the following is less important determinant for the electoral behavior in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Caste

  2. BOption (b)

    Education of a candidate

  3. COption (c)

    Religion and language

  4. DOption (d)

    Money power

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Education of a candidate

Why this answer is correct

Electoral behavior in India:

  • Electoral behavior is also known as voting behavior
  • It determines by various socio-economic and political factors
  • The behavior of voters in the contest of election is known as electoral behavior
  • According to Gordon Marshall, “ The study of voting behavior invariably focuses on the determinants of why people vote as they do and how they arrive at the decisions they make.”
  • The determinants of electoral behavior can be categorized into two,
  • | Socio-economic factors | Political factors | | --- | --- | | 1. Caste 2. Religion 3. Language 4. Regionalism 5. Age-sex 6. Family influence 7. Economic condition at the time of election 8. Education of the voter 9. The economic condition of the voter etc. | 1. The personality of the leader 2. Money 3. Political ideology 4. Performance of the ruling party 5. Personal and emotional association with the party 6. Political events 7. Election campaign 8. Candidate orientation etc. |

Important Points

Some important electoral behaviour:

Caste: 

  • It is an important factor in Indian politics.
  • Caste was actually born with the profession of one's family.
  • The caste of the politician and the caste of the voter determines the voting behavior.

Religion and language: 

  • Religious sentiments also influence the electoral behavior in India
  • Linguistic feelings is also an important factor and it influenced by regionalism and sub-regionalism to a large extent

Money power: Economic condition of the voter can exchange ‘votes for notes’

Question 20

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Proponent)
List-II
(Philosophy)
a. Schaeferi. Gainism
b. James Livelockii. Structuralism
c. O.H.K. Spateiii. Exceptionalism
d. Giddeniv. Probabilism

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii

  3. COption (c)

    a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

Why this answer is correct

ScholarContribution
James Livelock- James Ephraim Lovelock CH CBE FRS (born 26 July 1919) is an English independent scientist, environmentalist and futurist. - He is best known for proposing the Gaia hypothesis, which postulates that the Earth functions as a self-regulating system. - Drawing from the research of Alfred C. Redfield and G. Evelyn Hutchinson, Lovelock first formulated the Gaia hypothesis in the 1960s resulting from his work for NASA concerned with detecting life on Mars and his work with Royal Dutch Shell. - The hypothesis proposes that living and non-living parts of the Earth form a complex interacting system that can be thought of as a single organism. Named after the Greek goddess Gaia at the suggestion of novelist William Golding, the hypothesis postulates that the biosphere has a regulatory effect on the Earth's environment that acts to sustain life.
Schaefer- F K Schaefer was trained as an economist and later pursued Geography. - Schaefer was associated with the Department of Geography at the University of Iowa and he had migrated to the United States to escape the Nazi persecution that was taking place in the then Germany. - F K Schaefer’s rebuttal to the Hartshornean tradition of the Regional paradigm came in the form of a research article published posthumously in 1953 by the Annals of the Association of American Geographers. - It is in this paper that he takes up the cause of systematic geography while rejecting the claim of Exceptionalism of Geography.
O.H.K. Spate- Oskar Hermann Khristian Spate (30 March 1911 – 29 May 2000) was a geographer best known for his role in strengthening geography as a discipline in Australia and the Pacific. - O. H. K. Spate, a British geographer, advanced the concept of probabilism. - He presented the view that “although the physical environment does not uniquely determine human actions, it does nonetheless make some responses more likely than others. Human action is represented as not so much a matter of an all-or-nothing choice, or compulsion, but a balance of probabilities. - Thus the term probabilism was proposed for the terrain midway between a stark environmental determinism and radical possibilism.
Gidden- The theory developed by Anthony Giddens tries to explain and integrate agency and structure. - Accord to him, human agency and social structure are not two separate concepts or constructs but, are ways of considering social action. - Structuration means studying the ways in which social systems produced and reproduced in social interaction. - Giddens defines structuration as “the structuring! Social relations across time and space, in virtue of the duality of structure”

Question 21

Which of the following data formats in GIS is compatible with satellite images?

  1. AOption (a)

    CAD data format

  2. BOption (b)

    DLG data format

  3. COption (c)

    Vector data format

  4. DOption (d)

    Raster data format

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Raster data format

Why this answer is correct

Raster data format in GIS is compatible with satellite images.

GIS data format:

  • GIS data formats can be categorized into two, spatial and attribute data format.
  • Spatial data is a geographical representation of features.
  • In other words, spatial data is what we actually see in the form of maps (containing real-world features) on a computer screen.
  • Spatial data can further be divided into two types- vector and raster data.

Raster data format:

  • Raster data is made up of pixels.
  • It is an array of grid cells with columns and rows.
  • Each and every geographical feature is represented only through pixels in raster data.
  • There is nothing like point, line, or polygon. Easy and efficient overlaying process.
  • Raster data format is compatible with remotely sensed imagery.
  • If it is a point, in raster data it will be a single pixel, a line will be represented as a linear arrangement of pixels and an area or polygon will be represented by contiguous neighboring pixels with similar values.
  • In raster data, one pixel contains only one value (unlike vector data where a point, a line, or a polygon may have a number of values or attributes) that’s why only one geographical feature can be represented by a single set of pixels or grid cells.
  • Hence a number of raster layers are required if multiple features are to be considered (For example- land use, soil type, forest density, topography, etc.).

​

  • CAD systems: it generates digital data. CAD data can serve a range of purposes—from a design plan that is printed as a drawing or submitted as a legal document, to a repository for ongoing as-built information.
  • Digital Line Graph (DLG): It is a cartographic map feature represented in digital vector form that is distributed by the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS). DLGs are collected from USGS maps and are distributed in large-, intermediate- and small-scale with up to nine different categories of features, depending on the scale.
  • In a GIS, geographical features are often expressed as vectors, by considering those features as geometrical shapes, point, line, and polygon.

Question 22

Which of the following is a mathematical curve that shows a visual extent of departure for any given distribution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Logistic curve

  2. BOption (b)

    Less than ogive curve

  3. COption (c)

    Greater than ogive curve

  4. DOption (d)

    Lorenz curve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lorenz curve

Why this answer is correct

Lorenz curve is a mathematical curve that shows a visual extent of departure for any given distribution.

Lorenz curve:

  • In economics, the Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or of wealth.
  • It was developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905 for representing inequality of wealth distribution.
  • The percentage of households is plotted on the x-axis, the percentage of income on the y-axis.
  • The values are cumulative in nature.
  • It can also be used to show the distribution of assets. In such use, many economists consider it to be a measure of social inequality.
  • It is also useful in business modeling: e.g., in consumer finance, to measure the actual percentage y% of delinquencies attributable to the x% of people with worst risk scores.

Gini Coefficient:

  • The Gini coefficient is a single number aimed at measuring the degree of inequality in a distribution.
  • It was developed by the Italian statistician and sociologist Corrado Gini and published in his 1912 paper Variability and Mutability
  • It is most often used in economics to measure how far a country's wealth or income distribution deviates from a totally equal distribution.
  • G = A/(A + B)
  • It is also equal to 2A and to 1 − 2B due to the fact that A + B = 0.5
  • Since the axes scale from 0 to 1

Question 23

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Resource)
List-II
(Region)
a. Iron orei. Panna district
b. Diamondii. Jharia
c. Coaliii. Bababudan Hills
d. Geothermal energyiv. Puga Valley

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii

  3. COption (c)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

Why this answer is correct

MineralRegion
IRON ORE- Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. - India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores - The major iron ore belts in India are: Odisha-Jharkhand belt: In Odisha high grade hematite ore is found in Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts. In the adjoining Singbhum district of Jharkhand haematite iron ore is mined in Gua and Noamundi. - In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in Sandur-Hospet area of Ballari district, Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru districts.
DIAMOND- India was the only source of diamonds in the world for over 3000 years till diamond deposits were located in Brazil and South Africa. - Today, NMDC is the only organised producer of diamond in India from its Majhgawan mine at Panna, Madhya Pradesh and continues to carry on the legend and past glory through its untiring efforts.
COAL- This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel. It is used
as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel,
steam engines and to generate electricity. Electricity
from coal is called thermal power. - The leading coal producers of the world are China, USA, Germany, Russia, South Africa and France. - The coal producing areas of India are Raniganj, Jharia, Dhanbad and Bokaro in Jharkhand.
GEOTHERMAL ENERGY- Heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal energy. - The temperature in the interior of the earth rises steadily as we go deeper. Some times this heat energy may surface itself in the form of hot springs. This heat energy can be used to generate power. - USA has the world’s largest geothermal power plants followed by New Zealand, Iceland, Philippines and Central America. - In India, geothermal plants are located in Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Question 24

Which one of the following factors DOES NOT promote the formation of Federal State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vast area

  2. BOption (b)

    Homogenous population

  3. COption (c)

    Odd shape

  4. DOption (d)

    Presence of several core areas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Homogenous population

Why this answer is correct

Homogenous population DOES NOT promote the formation of the Federal State.

Key Points

Formation of Federal State:

  • A federation (also known as a federal state) is a political entity characterized by a union of partially self-governing provinces, states, or other regions under a central federal government (federalism).

  • It can be considered the opposite of another system, the unitary state.

  • There are two or more levels (tiers) of government.

  • Each level of government has its own jurisdiction in matters of legislation, taxation, and administration even though they govern the same citizens.

  • Powers and functions of each tier of government are specified and guaranteed by the Constitution.

  • The Supreme Court has been given the power to settle disputes between state governments.

  • Shape, size, diversity, presence of several core areas, etc. are favorable for any kind of federal government formation.

Question 25

Which one of the following Regional Organizations of Cooperation is the largest in terms of number of member countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    OPEC

  2. BOption (b)

    SAARC

  3. COption (c)

    ASEAN

  4. DOption (d)

    EU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

EU

Why this answer is correct

OrganizationImportance
OPEC- OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 13 oil-exporting developing nations that coordinates and unifies the petroleum policies of its Member Countries. - The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10–14, 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. - OPEC had its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, in the first five years of its existence. This was moved to Vienna, Austria, on September 1, 1965. - OPEC's objective is to coordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum producers; an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and a fair return on capital to those investing in the industry.
SAARC- The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985. - SAARC comprises eight Member States: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. - The Secretariat of the Association was set up in Kathmandu on 17 January 1987. - The objectives of the Association as outlined in the SAARC Charter are: - to promote the welfare of the peoples of South Asia and to improve their quality of life; - to accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region and to provide all individuals with the opportunity to live in dignity and to realize their full potentials; to promote and strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia; - to contribute to mutual trust, understanding and appreciation of one another's problems; - to promote active collaboration and mutual assistance in the economic, social, cultural, technical and scientific fields; - to strengthen cooperation with other developing countries; - to strengthen cooperation among themselves in international forums on matters of common interests; and - to cooperate with international and regional organizations with similar aims and purposes. - Decisions at all levels are to be taken on the basis of unanimity; and bilateral and contentious issues are excluded from the deliberations of the Association.
ASEAN- The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. - Brunei Darussalam then joined on 7 January 1984, Viet Nam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999, making up what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN.
EU- The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union, consisting of 27 member states that are subject to the obligations and the privileges of the membership. - Every member state is part of the founding treaties of the union and is subjected to binding laws within the common legislative and judicial institutions. In order for the EU to adopt policies that concern defence and foreign affairs, all member states must agree unanimously.

Question 26

Which continent has the maximum number of member countries of OPEC?

  1. AOption (a)

    Asia

  2. BOption (b)

    South America

  3. COption (c)

    Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    Europe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Africa

Why this answer is correct

Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

  • OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 13 oil-exporting developing nations that coordinates and unifies the petroleum policies of its Member Countries.
  • The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10–14, 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
  • The five Founding Members were later joined by: Qatar (1961) – terminated its membership in January 2019; Indonesia (1962) – suspended its membership in January 2009, reactivated it in January 2016, but decided to suspend it again in November 2016; Libya (1962); United Arab Emirates (1967); Algeria (1969); Nigeria (1971); Ecuador (1973) – suspended its membership in December 1992, reactivated it in October 2007, but decided to withdraw its membership effective 1 January 2020; Angola (2007); Gabon (1975) - terminated its membership in January 1995 but rejoined in July 2016; Equatorial Guinea (2017); and Congo (2018). OPEC had its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, in the first five years of its existence. This was moved to Vienna, Austria, on September 1, 1965.
  • OPEC's objective is to co-ordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum producers; an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and a fair return on capital to those investing in the industry.

Question 27

Which one of the following books was NOT written by Al-Masudi?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kitab-Muraj-al-Dhahab

  2. BOption (b)

    Kitab-Akhbar-al-Zaman

  3. COption (c)

    Al-Qanun-al-Masudi

  4. DOption (d)

    Kitab-al-Ausat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Al-Qanun-al-Masudi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Al-Qanun-al-Masudi'

Key Points

  • Books by Al-Masudi:
  • Al-Masudi was a renowned Arab historian and geographer known for his substantial contributions to historical and geographical literature.
  • Kitab-Muraj-al-Dhahab: Also known as the "Book of Golden Meadows," it is a historical and geographical encyclopedia and one of Al-Masudi's most famous works.
  • Kitab-Akhbar-al-Zaman: This translates to "Book of the History of Time" and is another significant work by Al-Masudi that covers various historical events and cultures.
  • Kitab-al-Ausat: Known as the "Middle Book," it is also written by Al-Masudi and serves as a collection of geographical knowledge and historical data.

Additional Information

  • Al-Qanun-al-Masudi:
  • Al-Qanun-al-Masudi is not written by Al-Masudi. The book is actually attributed to Ibn Sina (Avicenna), a Persian polymath famous for his works in philosophy and medicine.
  • The full name of the book is "Al-Qanun fi al-Tibb" or "The Canon of Medicine," which has had a significant influence on medical science in both the Islamic world and Europe.
  • Other Notable Works by Al-Masudi:
  • Al-Masudi authored several other influential books, including "Kitab al-Tanbih wa al-Ishraf" (Book of Admonition and Revision), which is a summary of his works and observations.
  • His writings are known for their broad scope, covering diverse subjects such as anthropology, geology, and history, underlining his extensive travels and scholarly contributions.

Question 28

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Scholars)
List-II
(Books)
a. Ritteri. On Air, Water, Places
b. Ptolemyii. Geographica
c. Straboiii. Almagast
d. Hippocratesiv. Erdkunde

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

  3. COption (c)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

Key Points

Scholars (List I)Books (List II)
a. Ritteriv. Erdkunde
b. Ptolemyiii. Almagast
c. Straboii. Geographica
d. Hippocratesi. On Air, Water, Places

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

  • Ritter – Erdkunde:
  • Carl Ritter was one of the founders of modern geographical thought and co-founder of modern geography with Alexander von Humboldt.
  • His major work, Erdkunde ("Geography"), focused on a regional approach and emphasized the relationship between nature and human societies.
  • Ptolemy – Almagast:
  • Claudius Ptolemy was a Roman scholar known for his contributions to astronomy, geography, and cartography.
  • Almagast is his famous astronomical treatise which compiled earlier Greek knowledge and influenced both Islamic and European astronomy for centuries.
  • Strabo – Geographica:
  • Strabo was a Roman geographer and historian who lived during the early Roman Empire.
  • His monumental work, Geographica, described the world known to the Romans and Greeks and aimed to provide a descriptive account of different regions.
  • Hippocrates – On Air, Water, Places:
  • Hippocrates, the father of medicine, wrote this treatise that linked environmental factors to human health and behavior.
  • On Air, Water, Places is one of the earliest works suggesting that geographical and climatic factors influence human physiology and diseases.

Question 29

The graph used to show the proportion of surface area representing elevation above or below datum is

  1. AOption (a)

    Altimetric curve

  2. BOption (b)

    Fluviometric curve

  3. COption (c)

    Morphometric curve

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypsometric curve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hypsometric curve

Why this answer is correct

The graph used to show the proportion of surface area representing elevation above or below datum is the Hypsometric curve.

Hypsometric curve:

  • A hypsometric curve is a histogram or cumulative distribution function of elevations in a geographical area.
  • Differences in hypsometric curves between landscapes arise because the geomorphic processes that shape the landscape may be different.
  • When drawn as a 2-dimensional histogram, a hypsometric curve displays the elevation (y) on the vertical, y-axis, and the area above the corresponding elevation (x) on the horizontal or x-axis.
  • The curve can also be shown in non-dimensional or standardized form by scaling elevation and area by the maximum values.
  • The non-dimensional hypsometric curve provides a hydrologist or a geomorphologist with a way to assess the similarity of watersheds — and is one of several characteristics used for doing so.
  • The hypsometric integral is a summary measure of the shape of the hypsometric curve.

Question 30

'Chi square test' measures which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mean deviation

  2. BOption (b)

    Goodness of fit

  3. COption (c)

    Trend

  4. DOption (d)

    Variation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Goodness of fit

Why this answer is correct

Chi-square test:

  • A chi-square test, also written as χ2 test, is a statistical hypothesis test that is valid to perform when the test statistic is chi-square distributed under the null hypothesis, specifically Pearson's chi-square test and variants thereof.
  • Pearson's chi-square test is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in one or more categories of a contingency table.
  • In the standard applications of this test, the observations are classified into mutually exclusive classes.
  • If the null hypothesis (that in the population there is no difference between the classes) is true, the test statistic computed from the observations follows a χ2 frequency distribution.
  • The purpose of the test is to evaluate how likely the observed frequencies would be assuming the null hypothesis is true.
  • Test statistics that follow a χ2 distribution occur when the observations are independent and normally distributed, which assumptions are often justified under the central limit theorem.
  • There are also χ2 tests for testing the null hypothesis of independence of a pair of random variables based on observations of the pairs.
  • Chi-square tests often refer to tests for which the distribution of the test statistic approaches the χ2 distribution asymptotically, meaning that the sampling distribution (if the null hypothesis is true) of the test statistic approximates a χ2 distribution more and more closely as sample sizes increase

where:

Oi = an observed count for bin i

Ei = an expected count for bin i, asserted by the null hypothesis.

  • Chi-square goodness of fit test determines if a sample data matches a population.

Important Points

Goodness of fit:

  • The goodness of fit of a statistical model describes how well it fits a set of observations.
  • Measures of goodness of fit typically summarize the discrepancy between observed values and the values expected under the model in question

Use of Chi-square test:

  • The chi-squared distribution has many uses in statistics, including:
  • Confidence interval estimation for a population standard deviation of a normal distribution from a sample standard deviation.
  • Independence of two criteria of classification of qualitative variables.
  • Relationships between categorical variables (contingency tables).
  • Sample variance study when the underlying distribution is normal.
  • Tests of deviations of differences between expected and observed frequencies (one-way tables).
  • The chi-square test (goodness of fit test).

Question 31

The following temperature data were recorded at Station A:

Range of Temperature (°C)No. of Days
10 - 206
20 - 3020
30 - 405

 

Which of the following options exhibiting mean monthly temperature is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

  • Mean is a measure of central tendency
  • It can be categorized into three,
  • Arithmetic mean
  • Geometric mean
  • Harmonic mean
  • The arithmetic mean is extensively used in the statistics.

The temperature data were recorded at Station A:

Range of Temperature (°C)Mid-value (X)No. of Days (f)fxMean
10 - 201569025
20 - 302520500
30 - 40355
175
Total31765

 

Calculation:

Therefore, the mean monthly temperature is 25°C

Question 32

Select the following Himalayan ranges in the State of Jammu and Kashmir in descending order in terms of average altitude from sea level:

  1. AOption (a)

    Zanskar, Pir Panjal, Ladakh, Karakoram

  2. BOption (b)

    Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar, Pir Panjal

  3. COption (c)

    Pir Panjal, Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar

  4. DOption (d)

    Ladakh, Karakoram, Pir Panjal, Zanskar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar, Pir Panjal

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Mountain rangeElevation
Zanskar7135 m
Pir Panjal3536 m
Ladakh7742 m
Karakoram8611 m

Hence, the correct sequence is Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar, Pir Panjal

 Himalayas

  • The Himalayas are one of  the most complex mountain systems in the world. It forms a barrier between the Tibetan plateau and the Indian subcontinent.
  • The mountain Himalaya includes the highest mountain peaks in the world. The ranges of the Himalayas are separated by deep valleys. Thus they create a highly dissected topography.
  • These mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
  • The altitudinal variations are greater in the eastern half than those in the western half.
  • Spreading over Kashmir and northern Pakistan, the western Himalayan system splits into three distinct ranges, which are, from south to north, the Pir Panjal Range, the Zaskar Range, and the Ladakh Range. Farther north is the Karakoram Range, which is a separate system adjoining the Himalayas.
  • The Himalaya consists of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. A number of valleys lie between these ranges. The northern most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the ‘Himadri’. It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
  • The range lying to the south of the Himadri forms the most rugged mountain system and is known as Himachal or lesser Himalaya. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The altitude varies between 3,700 and 4,500 metres and the average width is of 50 Km.
  • While the Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range, the Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent ones.

This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh. This region is well known for its hill stations.

Question 33

Who amongst the following was a Roman geographer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hippocrates

  2. BOption (b)

    Hecataeus

  3. COption (c)

    Strabo

  4. DOption (d)

    Posidonius

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Strabo

Why this answer is correct

Strabo was a Roman geographer.

Key Points

Strabo (64-20 BC):

  • Roman scholar considered as the ‘Father of regional geography’
  • Wrote a seventeen volume work ‘Geographia’ (an encyclopedic description of the world known to the Greek)
  • This book laid down a strong foundation for chronological setting in geography
  • He gave the correct explanation of the floods of the Nile
  • Writer of 43 volume ‘Historical Memoir’
  • He examines the detailed work of Eratosthenes and discusses various changes introduced by him in the map of the world
Name of the GeographerContribution
Hippocrates (190-120 BC)- Greek geographer - Founder of trigonometry - Discovery of equinox - Invented an instrument called ‘Astrolabe’ to determine latitude and longitude - On the basis of latitudes divide the earth into climate ‘belts of latitude’ - Divide the circle into 360° - Devised the Orthographic and Stereographic projection
Hecataeus (475- 550 BC)- The famous book ‘Periodus ges’ (description of the earth), 520 B.C. - He divided the world into two parts – the northern part and southern part
Posidonius (135-50 BC)- Famous Greek historian - Calculate the circumference of the earth

Question 34

Whose work provides the concept of image to geographical studies?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gilbert White

  2. BOption (b)

    Julian Wolpert

  3. COption (c)

    Kenneth Boulding

  4. DOption (d)

    Peter Gould

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kenneth Boulding

Why this answer is correct

Kenneth Boulding provides the concept of the image to geographical studies.

Key Points

Kenneth Boulding (1910-1993):

  • He was born in Liverpool, England, and known as an American economist.
  • Some of his important works are as follows,
  • Economic analysis, 1966
  • The Image, 1956
  • The Organizational Behaviour, 1953
  • The Image contains the ultimate Bouldingism

The Image:

  • The central question of The Image is what determines our subjective knowledge.
  • Since human behavior depends on the image, knowledge that the individual believes to be true, an answer to this question is a prerequisite for an adequate theory of behavior.
  • Boulding answers that all knowledge is a series of images and that since the image is built up as a result of all past experiences of the possessor, knowledge is organic.
  • It grows and accumulates. Images are revised as new information is received. In fact, the meaning of new information is the change it produces in the image.
  • Knowledge for Boulding is the main hope for humanity.
  • The growth of knowledge is anti-entropic; it brings order out of what was previously chaos. And, unlike other resources, knowledge is not used up.
  • Kenneth Boulding, an economist and systems theorist, introduced the concept of "the image" in the sense of cognitive representations or mental models that individuals or societies have of the world. This is indeed relevant to geographical studies.

Question 35

Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Ritter was a teleologist and had a strong belief in God.

Reason (R): Ritter had a vision of an ordered and harmonious universe.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (R) is true, but (A) is false

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

Carl Ritter (1779-1859):

  • One of the founders of modern geographical ideas
  • He considered geography was an empirical and descriptive science
  • He declared Geography as the Earth Science, the properties of the place in relation to the temporal, formal, and physical characteristics.
  • He claimed that the central theory of geography is 'the relationship of all events and the nature of nature to humankind'.

Contributions:

  • Erdkunde (published in 1817), making geography 'Anthropocentric'
  • The principle of unity in diversity: every naturally bound area is unity in relation to climate, production, culture, population, and history.

Ritter as a teleogist:

  • Ritter was a teleologist; his geography seemed to be an attempt to interpret philosophically that which science could not explain.
  • He even sought to construct ‘a law of the arrangement’ of the parts of each continent to the whole.
  • Ritter had a vision of an ordered and harmonious universe.
  • In short, Ritter gave a systematic frame to geography which remained valid for the future scholars for number of centuries.
  • With the death of Humboldt and Ritter in 1859, the classical period of geography came to an end.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 36

Select from the options given below, correct sequence in increasing order of agricultural intensity among the various States in India:

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra → Assam → Bihar → Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh → Bihar → Assam → Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Assam → Bihar → Uttar Pradesh → Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar → Assam → Maharashtra → Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharashtra → Assam → Bihar → Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

Agricultural intensity:

  • Agricultural intensification is a process of raising land productivity over time through increases in inputs of one form or another on a per unit area basis.
  • It is the average annual number of crop harvests on the same field each year, is calculated as the ratio of the sum of the area harvested per year to total cropland.
  • It is defined as the ratio of inputs and outputs within an agricultural system
  • The formula is, Cropping intensity = (Gross cropped area/net cropped area) * 100
StateAgricultural intensity (%)
Maharashtra134.3
Assam145.4
Bihar146.3
Uttar Pradesh156.5
India142.0

Therefore the correct sequence is Maharashtra → Assam → Bihar → Uttar Pradesh

Question 37

Identify the river of India which has the following characteristics:

a. It originates from the Amarkantak plateau.

b. It is a tributary of the Ganga river.

c. During the summer months, it has little water.

  1. AOption (a)

    Narmada

  2. BOption (b)

    Son

  3. COption (c)

    Ramganga

  4. DOption (d)

    Kosi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Son

Why this answer is correct

Narmada- The Narmada originates on the western flank of the Amarkantak plateau at a height of about 1,057 m. - Flowing in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north, it forms a picturesque gorge in marble rocks and a Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur. - After flowing a distance of about 1,312 km, it meets the Arabian sea south of Bharuch, forming a broad 27 km long estuary. - Its catchment area is about 98,796 sq. km. - The Sardar Sarovar Project has been constructed on this river.
Son- The Son is a large south bank tributary of the Ganga, originating in the Amarkantak plateau. - After forming a series of waterfalls at the edge of the plateau, it reaches Arrah, west of Patna, to join the Ganga.
Ramganga- The Ramganga is comparatively a small river rising in the Garhwal hills near Gairsain. - It changes its course to the southwest direction after crossing the Shiwalik and enters into the plains of Uttar Pradesh near Najibabad. - Finally, it joins the Ganga near Kannauj.
Kosi- The Kosi is an antecedent river with its source to the north of Mount Everest in Tibet, where its mainstream Arun rises. - After crossing the Central Himalayas in Nepal, it is joined by the Son Kosi from the West and the Tamur Kosi from the east. - It forms Sapt Kosi after uniting with the River Arun.

Question 38

Select among the following groups of States of India in descending order having high concentration of population distribution according to Census 2011 data:

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, ​Bihar, West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

Why this answer is correct

The descending order having a high concentration of population distribution according to Census 2011 data is Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal.

Census of India,2011:

  • In India, the census 2011 is the seventh census after independence
  • It was conducted over 28 states and 6 union territories.
  • Some of the major aspects are population, sex ratio, and literacy percentage, etc.
StateTotal population (persons)Decadal growth rateArea (Km2)Population DensitySex-ratioLiteracy
India1,210,854,97717.64 %3,287,24038294074.04
Uttar Pradesh199,812,34120.23 %240,92882991267.68
Maharashtra112,374,33315.99 %307,71336592982.34
Bihar104,099,45225.42 %94,1631,10691861.80
West Bengal91,276,11513.84 %88,7521,02895076.26

Question 39

The ideal time of the day to obtain areal photograph is

  1. AOption (a)

    When the sun is low oblique (before and after noon)

  2. BOption (b)

    When the sun is high oblique (morning and evening)

  3. COption (c)

    When the sun is almost vertical (at noon)

  4. DOption (d)

    Any time of the day

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

When the sun is low oblique (before and after noon)

Why this answer is correct

Aerial Photograph:

  • It is the image taken by photographs from an aircraft or other flying object.
  • A precision camera specifically designed for use in aircraft.
  • The art, science, and technology of taking aerial photographs from an airborne platform are known as aerial photography.
  • It is a central projection
  • An aerial photograph is geometrically incorrect.
  • The distortion in the geometry is minimum at the centre and increases towards the edges of the photographs.
  • The scale of the photograph is not uniform in every case.
  • Enlargement/reduction does not change the contents of the photographs and can easily be carried out.
  • Aerial photography holds good for inaccessible and inhospitable areas.

The ideal time to obtain an aerial photograph:

  • This is the Consideration of shadow effects.
  • The sun's elevation angle above the horizon is a function of latitude, the season of the year, and the time of the day.
  • When extensive shadowing is not wanted, ground scenes should be photographed within about two hours of local apparent noon (solar noon).
  • A consequence of selecting the wrong combination of season and time of day is a phenomenon known as a hotspot or sunspot. A loss of photographic detail with overexposed areas.
  • Hotspots are most likely to occur with certain sun-angles, at a lower latitude, at higher flight altitudes, and with wide-angle lenses. After the season and latitude of photography have been determined, it is possible to calculate and thus avoid those times when hotspots will likely occur.

Therefore it is clear that the ideal time of the day to obtain an areal photograph is when the sun is low oblique (before and afternoon).

Question 40

In a fold if both limbs are parallel as well as horizontal to each other, it would be a case of which of the following types of folds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Isocline

  2. BOption (b)

    Recumbent

  3. COption (c)

    Open

  4. DOption (d)

    Closed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Recumbent

Why this answer is correct

In a fold, if both limbs are parallel as well as horizontal to each other, it would be a case of a Recumbent fold.

Fold:

  • Horizontal movements are produced by forces of compression and tension.
  • Folding is the bending of rock strata due to compression.
  • Folding on large scale results in mountain building generally referred to as orogeny.
  • The parts of a fold are as follows,
Type of foldCharacteristicsImage
IsoclineThe group of hold in which is the axial plane is essentially parallel in the Limbs is dipping in the same direction at equal angles are called as isoclinal fold. The axial plane may either be horizontal vertical or inclined. Isoclinal folds are similar to symmetrical folds, but these folds both have the same angle and are parallel to each other. 'iso' means "the same" (symmetrical), and 'cline' means 'angle,' so this name literally means 'the same angle
RecumbentThe fold in which the axial plane is essentially horizontal and the limbs are dipping in the same directions horizontally is called a recumbent fold. When one side of the fold is pushed so much that it lies positioned over the other, such a fold is called a recumbent fold.
OpenAn open fold is a broad feature in which the limbs dip at a gentle angle away from the crest of the fold. If the thickness of beds is uniform throughout the folds, it is called an open fold. The interlimb angle of an open folds ranges from 120° to 70°
ClosedIn a fold, if the beds are thinner in the limb portions and thicker at the crest and trough, such a fold is called a closed fold The interlimb angle of closed folds ranges from 70° to 30°

Question 41

The direction of a dip in reference of strike is always at which of the following angles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Acute angle

  2. BOption (b)

    Obtuse angle

  3. COption (c)

    Right angle

  4. DOption (d)

    Straight angle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Right angle

Why this answer is correct

  • Fault: In geology, a fault is a planar or gently curved fracture in the rocks of the Earth’s crust, where compressional or tensional forces cause relative displacement of the rocks on the opposite sides of the fracture.
  • Main Components of a Fault:
  • The fault plane: The fault plane is where the action is. It is a flat surface that may be vertical or sloping.
  • The fault trace: The line it makes on the Earth's surface is the fault trace.
  • The hanging wall and the footwall: the fault plane is sloping, as with normal and reverse faults, the upper side is the hanging wall and the lower side is the footwall. When the fault plane is vertical, there is no hanging wall or footwall.
  • Strike and its dip: The strike is the direction of the fault trace on the Earth's surface. The dip is the measurement of how steeply the fault plane slopes.
  • Fault Scrap: an actual surface of fault displacement may stand up unmodified by erosion as in escarpment or cliff. It is called a ‘Fault Scrap’. In this case, the escarpment faces towards the downthrow side.
  • Fait Line Scrap: Fault frequently brings together resistant and non-resistant rocks. The resistant rock will stand out prominently as a ridge along a fault zone. Such ridges that will generally face the upthrow side of the faults are called the ‘Fault Scrap Side’.
  • Fault Control or Streams: Streams may be guided in the direction and course of their flow by faulting such stream, which may follow a straight line or make approximately right angle turns

Strike and Dip:

  • Strike.  the orientation of the horizontal line within a plane.  While there is an infinite number of horizontal lines within a plane, they will all be parallel and share the same orientation.  For a horizontal plane, the strike is undefined.
  • Dip direction:  The dip direction will be orthogonal to the strike direction. Water will flow down the plane in this direction.
  • Apparent dip: if you attempt to measure dip and are not orthogonal to the strike direction, the measured value will be smaller
  • Dip: steepest angle from the horizontal of a plane.  A horizontal plane has a dip of 0, and a vertical plane a dip of 90.  The larger the dip, the steeper the plane.
  • DIP is the acute angle that a rock surface makes with a horizontal plane.
  • STRIKE is the direction of the line formed by the intersection of a rock surface with a horizontal plane.
  • Strike and dip are always perpendicular to each other on a map

Therefore, The direction of a dip in reference to strike is always at the Right angle.

Question 42

Mount St. Helens is located in which part of the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Java Sea

  3. COption (c)

    Andaman Sea

  4. DOption (d)

    Aegean Sea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

USA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the USA.

Key Points

Mount St. Helens:

  • Mount St. Helens (known as Lawetlat'la to the Indigenous Cowlitz people, and Loowit or Louwala-Clough to the Klickitat).
  • It is an active stratovolcano located in Skamania County, Washington, in the Pacific Northwest region of the United States.
  • It is 50 miles (80 km) northeast of Portland, Oregon, and 96 miles (154 km) south of Seattle.
  • Mount St. Helens takes its English name from the British diplomat Lord St Helens, a friend of explorer George Vancouver who made a survey of the area in the late 18th century.
  • The volcano is located in the Cascade Range and is part of the Cascade Volcanic Arc, a segment of the Pacific Ring of Fire that includes over 160 active volcanoes.
  • It is well known for its ash explosions and pyroclastic flows.
  • Prior to 1980, Mount St. Helens had the shape of a conical, youthful volcano sometimes referred to as the Mount Fuji of America.
  • During the 1980 eruption, the upper 400 m (1,300 ft) of the summit was removed by a huge debris avalanche, leaving a 2 x 3.5 km (1.2 x 2.2 mi) horseshoe-shaped crater now partially filled by a lava dome and a glacier.
  • It is primarily an explosive dacite volcano

Therefore, it is evident that Mount St. Helens is located in the USA.

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a part of Circum-Pacific Volcanic belt?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aleutian islands

  2. BOption (b)

    Mindanao island

  3. COption (c)

    Azores islands

  4. DOption (d)

    Sakhalin island

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Azores islands

Why this answer is correct

Circum-Pacific Volcanic belt:

  • The Ring of Fire also referred to as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
  • The Ring of Fire is stretched to approximately 40,000 kilometers (24,900 miles) tracing boundaries between several tectonic plates including the Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Indian-Australian, Nazca, North American, and Philippine Plates.
  • The chain runs up along the western coast of South and North America, crosses over the Aleutian Islands in Alaska, runs down the eastern coast of Asia past New Zealand, and into the northern coast of Antarctica.
  • Bolivia, Chile, Ecuador, Peru, Costa Rica, Guatemala, Mexico, United States, Canada, Russia, Japan, Philippines, Australia, Papua New Guinea, Indonesia, New Zealand, and Antarctica are some of the important places located in the ring of the fire.
  • There are 512 active volcanoes.

​

IslandLocation
Aleutian islandsU.S. state of Alaska
Mindanao islandSouthern Philippines
Azores islandsMacaronesia region of the North Atlantic Ocean
Sakhalin islandIn the Pacific Ocean, north of Japan

Conclusion:

  • It is evident that the Circum-Pacific Belt is located along the coastal area of the Pacific ocean.
  • So it includes the western part of North America and the eastern part of Asia.
  • The Aleutian Islands are located in the western part of North America and an island in the North Pacific.
  • Mindanao island and Sakhalin island are both located in the Eastern part of Asia along the Pacific ocean.
  • Only the Azores islands are located in the Atlantic Ocean.

Therefore, the Azores islands are NOT a part of the Circum-Pacific Volcanic belt.

Question 44

Which of the following type of weathering is generally dominant in Greater Himalayas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Block disintegration

  2. BOption (b)

    Scree formation

  3. COption (c)

    Exfoliation

  4. DOption (d)

    Granular disintegration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Block disintegration

Why this answer is correct

Block disintegration is generally dominant in Greater Himalayas as a process of weathering.

Weathering:

  • Weathering is the breaking down of rocks, soil, and minerals as well as wood and artificial materials through contact with the Earth's atmosphere, water, and biological organisms.
  • Weathering occurs in situ (on-site), that is, in the same place.
  • Weathering is a result of exogenetic forces.
  • It can be physical and chemical weathering.
  • Physical or mechanical weathering happens when a rock is broken through the force of another substance on the rock such as ice, running water, wind, rapid heating/cooling, or plant growth.
  • Chemical weathering occurs when reactions between a rock and another substance dissolve the rock, causing parts of it to fall away.

Physical or mechanical weathering:

Physical or mechanical weathering:

WeatheringProcess
Block disintegration1. The splitting of rocks along the joints into blocks is called block disintegration. 2. A form of weathering where the grains of rock become loosened and fall out due to repeated heating and cooling as a result of temperature changes.
Scree formation1. These chutes of loose stones, known as scree, formed as a result of freeze-thaw weathering. 2. Water seeps into cracks in the rock, expanding when it freezes and seeping in deeper when it melts, gradually splitting the rock apart. 3. The loose fragments are removed by gravity and fall onto the scree slopes beneath. 4. The scree fragments move downhill under gravity, with new pebbles and boulders being added each year.
Exfoliation1. It is a process in which large flat or curved sheets of rock fracture and are detached from the outcrop due to pressure release. 2. As erosion removes the overburden from a rock that formed at high pressure deep in the Earth´s crust, it allows the rock to expand, thus resulting in cracks and fractures along with the sheet.
Granular disintegration1. A form of weathering where the grains of rock become loosened and fall out, to leave a pitted, uneven surface. 2. It is a process of physical or mechanical weathering due to repeated heat and cooling because of temperature change. 3. As a result of alternative expansion and contraction of minerals in rocks causes the rock to break down into small pieces.

Question 45

Down-warping is produced on account of which of the following actions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Crustal fracture

  2. BOption (b)

    Crustal bending

  3. COption (c)

    Submergence

  4. DOption (d)

    Emergence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Crustal bending

Why this answer is correct

Down-warping is produced on account of Crustal bending.

Crustal bending:

  • It is a type of didastrophic force. The up wrapping and doun wraping comes under epeirogenic forces.
  • The compressional force causes crustal bending leading to the formation of fields or crustal warping leading to local rise or subsidence of crustal parts.
  • When horizontal forces work face to face, the crustal rocks are bent due to resistant compressional and tangential forces.
  • It is in two ways: warping and folding
  • A combination of episodic up warping and down warping of the continental blocks or global (eustatic) changes in sea level or both, coupled with normal changes in the rate of sediment supply that occurs along coasts traversed by major laterally meandering river systems, may have been the cause.

Geomorphic processes:

  • The creation, destruction, recreation, and maintenance of geomaterials and various relief features are the results of the various forces affecting the crust and involves in geological processes.
  • There are two types of forces responsible for those geological processes,
  • Endogenetic forces: forces coming from within the earth
  • Exogenetic forces: originated from the natural mediums known as geomorphic agents
  • Endogenetic forces can be divided into two,
  • Diastrophic forces: the forces responsible for the formation of the meso-level relief features i.e. mountain, plateaus, plains, etc. and operate very slowly on the earth's surface both vertically and horizontally. These forces are two  types: epeirogenic movements and orogenic movements
  • Sudden forces: these are associated with sudden and rapid events also known as extreme events on the surface of the earth. For example volcanic eruption, earthquake

Question 46

The constructive margin of lithospheric plates is represented by which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ural mountains

  2. BOption (b)

    Mariana trench

  3. COption (c)

    Indo-Gangetic plain

  4. DOption (d)

    Mid-Atlantic ridge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mid-Atlantic ridge

Why this answer is correct

Mid-Atlantic ridge is an example of the constructive margin of lithospheric plates.

  • Plate: the solid crustal layers or the lithospheric slabs
  • Plate margin: these are the marginal part of the plate
  • Plate boundary: these are the zone of motion between two plates
  • There are three types of plate margins,
  • Constructive plate margin
  • Destructive plate margine
  • Conservative plate margine

The constructive plate margin:

  • The boundary between two divergent plates
  • Occurs when plates move apart.
  • Volcanoes are formed as magma wells up to fill the gap, and eventually, a new crust is formed.
  • Most of these plate margins are under the oceans.
  • An example of a constructive plate boundary is the mid-Atlantic Ridge.
  • As the plates move apart, magma rises from the mantle to the Earth’s surface. The rising magma forms shield volcanoes.
TopicCharacteristicsImage
Benioff zone- Benioff Zone is an area of increasingly deeper seismic activity, inclined from the trench downward in the direction of the island arc. - Two things happen here, subduction and obduction
The destructive margin of the plate- The boundary between two convergent plates. - These are related to the subduction of the denser plate along the zone of collision/ Benioff zone.
Conservative plate margins- The margin along which two plates slide each other, also known as parallel/transform fault boundaries

Question 47

San Andreas Fault represents which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Benioff zone

  2. BOption (b)

    Constructive margin of the plate

  3. COption (c)

    Destructive margin of the plate

  4. DOption (d)

    Conservative margin of the plate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Conservative margin of the plate

Why this answer is correct

San Andreas Fault:

  • The San Andreas Fault is the sliding boundary between the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate.

  • The San Andreas Fault is a continental transform fault that extends roughly 1,200 kilometers (750 mi) through California.

  • It slices California in two from Cape Mendocino to the Mexican border.

  • San Diego, Los Angeles, and Big Sur area on the Pacific Plate. San Francisco, Sacramento, and the Sierra Nevada are on the North American Plate.

  • San Andreas Fault Zone (SAFZ) started moving about 28-30 million years ago and has horizontally slipped (transform motion) a total of about 300-350 km (186-220 mi)since it began moving.

  • The relative motion between these two tectonic plates is 50 mm/yr (about 2 inches/yr).

  • Its motion is right-lateral strike-slip (horizontal).

  • Crustal blocks may also move sideways past each other, usually along nearly-vertical faults. This ‘strike-slip’ movement is described as sinistral when the far side moves to the left, and dextral, when the far side moves to the right.

  • Plate margin: these are the marginal part of the plate

  • Plate boundary: these are the zone of motion between two plates

TopicCharacteristicsImage
Benioff zone- Benioff Zone is an area of increasingly deeper seismic activity, inclined from the trench downward in the direction of the island arc. - Two things happen here, subduction and obduction
The constructive margin of the plate- The boundary between two divergent plates - Occurs when plates move apart. - Volcanoes are formed as magma wells up to fill the gap, and eventually, a new crust is formed.
The destructive margin of the plate- The boundary between two convergent plates. - These are related to the subduction of the denser plate along the zone of collision/ Benioff zone.
Conservative margin of the plate- The margin along which two plates slide each other, also known as parallel/transform fault boundaries

Question 48

Which of the following avalanches are most destructive in nature?

  1. AOption (a)

    Loose snow

  2. BOption (b)

    Slab

  3. COption (c)

    Powder snow

  4. DOption (d)

    Wet snow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Slab

Why this answer is correct

Avalanches: An avalanche can be simply defined as a mass of snow that moves quickly down a mountain.

Type of snowCharacteristics
Loose snow- They are common on steep slopes and are seen after a fresh snowfall. - Since the snow does not have time to settle down fully or has been made loose by sunlight, the snow-pack is not very solid. - Such avalanches have a single point of origin, from where they widen as they travel down the slope.
Slab- Loose Snow Avalanches in turn could cause a Slab Avalanche, which is characterized by the fall of a large block of ice down the slopes. - Thin slabs cause fairly small amounts of damage, while the thick ones are responsible for many fatalities. - Slab avalanches are the most dangerous type and responsible for more than 90% of the deaths that occur in avalanches.
Powder snow- A mix of the other forms, Loose Snow and Slab. - The bottom half of this avalanche consists of a slab or a dense concentration of snow, ice, and air. - Above this is a cloud of powdered snow, which can snowball into a larger avalanche as it progresses down the slope. - The speed attained by this avalanche can cross 190 miles per hour and they can cross large distances.
Wet snow- These are quite dangerous as they travel slowly due to friction, which collects debris from the path fairly easily. - The avalanche comprises water and snow at the beginning, but understanding avalanches have shown us that it can pick up speed with ease.

From the above discussion, we can say that Slab avalanches are most destructive in nature.

Question 49

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Geomorphic Hazards)List-II (Areas of Occurrence)
a. Faultingi. Krakatoa Earthquake (1883)
b. Vulcanicityii. Greece Earthquake (1931)
c. Hydrostatic pressureiii. Gujarat Earthquake (2001)
d. Plate movementiv. California Earthquake (1906)

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  2. BOption (b)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  3. COption (c)

    a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Why this answer is correct

List-I (Geomorphic Hazards)List-II (Areas of Occurrence)
a. Faultingiv. California Earthquake (1906)
b. Vulcanicityi. Krakatoa Earthquake (1883)
c. Hydrostatic pressureii. Greece Earthquake (1931)
d. Plate movementiii. Gujarat Earthquake (2001)

Correct matching is a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

EarthquakeImportant information
Krakatoa Earthquake (1883)- Eruptions at Krakatoa started one year before - The violence of the ongoing eruptions caused tides in the vicinity to be unusually high, and ships at anchor had to be moored with chains
Greece Earthquake (1931)- The main fault was buried under the earth's surface heaved up the land, setting off two smaller faults that broke on the surface. - The seafloor just off Hawke's Bay was lifted more than 2.7 meters, and the Ahuriri Lagoon and tidal flats were drained.
Gujarat Earthquake (2001)- Gujarat lies 300–400 km from the plate boundary between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, - The current tectonics are still governed by the effects of the continuing continental collision along this boundary.
California Earthquake (1906)- Severe deformations in the earth's crust took place both before and after the earthquake's impact. - Accumulated strain on the faults in the system was relieved during the earthquake, which is the supposed cause of the damage along the 450-kilometer-long (280 mi) segment of the San Andreas plate boundary.

Question 50

In which frontal stage warm air is uplifted and is cooled, condensed and precipited?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stationary front

  2. BOption (b)

    Warm front

  3. COption (c)

    Cold front

  4. DOption (d)

    Occluded front

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Warm front

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Warm front'

Key Points

  • Warm Front:
  • A warm front occurs when a warm air mass moves over a cold air mass.
  • Since the warm air is lighter, it rises gently over the denser cold air mass.
  • As the warm air rises, it cools adiabatically, leading to condensation and cloud formation.
  • Prolonged and steady precipitation occurs, typically in the form of drizzle or light rain, spread over a wide area ahead of the front.
  • This frontal uplift mechanism characterizes the early stages of mid-latitude cyclones.

Additional Information

  • Stationary Front:
  • A stationary front forms when two air masses (cold and warm) meet but neither displaces the other.
  • It is characterized by gentle winds and prolonged overcast skies with intermittent precipitation.
  • However, it lacks the consistent uplift and systematic precipitation of a warm front.
  • Cold Front:
  • In a cold front, cold air displaces warm air by forcefully lifting it.
  • This leads to rapid cooling, formation of cumulonimbus clouds, and often intense but short-lived rainfall or thunderstorms.
  • While uplift occurs, it is more violent and not gradual like in a warm front.
  • Occluded Front:
  • An occluded front occurs when a cold front overtakes a warm front, causing the warm air to be lifted off the ground entirely.
  • It usually results in complex weather patterns, often combining characteristics of both warm and cold fronts.
  • However, it is not the initial stage where warm air starts to rise and condense.

Important Points

  • Frontal uplift is one of the main mechanisms for cloud formation and precipitation in mid-latitude regions.
  • Warm fronts are typically associated with nimbostratus and altostratus clouds, whereas cold fronts produce cumulonimbus clouds.
  • The weather sequence in a warm front is more prolonged and less intense compared to a cold front.

Question 51

Ekman transport occurs in the

  1. AOption (a)

    Upper ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    Meso-pelagic layer

  3. COption (c)

    Bathy-pelagic layer

  4. DOption (d)

    Ocean bottom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Upper ocean

Why this answer is correct

Ekman transport occurs in the Upper-ocean.

Key Points

Ekman transport:

  • The net transport of water due to coupling between wind and surface waters is known as Ekman transport.

  • The wind blows across the ocean and moves its waters as a result of its frictional drag on the surface.

  • Water in the ocean can be divided roughly into three regions based on density: surface water, the pycnocline, and deep water.

  • The top-most layer is driven by wind.

  • Motion in this layer drives flow in the layer below, and so on, such that wind-driven motion at the top, ultimately, drives flow in all of the layers below.

  • Ekman transport, forming convergence and divergence zones of surface water.

  • Ekman transport is part of Ekman motion theory, first investigated in 1902 by Vagn Walfrid Ekman.

  • Winds are the main source of energy for ocean circulation, and Ekman Transport is a component of wind-driven ocean currents.

  • Ekman transport occurs when ocean surface waters are influenced by the friction force acting on them via the wind.

  • This phenomenon was first noted by Fridtjof Nansen, who recorded that ice transport appeared to occur at an angle to the wind direction during his Arctic expedition during the 1890s.

Question 52

A halocline refers to a significant change in _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    Density

  2. BOption (b)

    Salinity

  3. COption (c)

    Temperature

  4. DOption (d)

    Turbidity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Salinity

Why this answer is correct

A halocline refers to a significant change in Salinity.

Key Points

Halocline:

  • In oceanography, a halocline (from Greek hals, halos 'salt' and klinein 'to slope') is a cline, a subtype of chemocline caused by a strong, vertical salinity gradient within a body of water.

  • Because salinity (in concert with temperature) affects the density of seawater, it can play a role in its vertical stratification.

  • Increasing salinity by one kg/m3 results in an increase of seawater density of around 0.7 kg/m3.

  • Halocline may be present -zone of rapid change of salinity with water depth

  • Halocline refers to a zone of sharp salinity change in the vertical section of the oceans, generally between 300-1000m depth.

  • Maximum salinity is found in the upper layers of oceanic water.

  • Salinity decreases with increasing depth.

  • Thus, the upper zone of maximum salinity and the lower zone of minimum salinity is separated by a transition zone known as the halocline.

  1. Thermocline – A cline based on the difference in water temperature,
  2. Chemocline – A cline based on the difference in water chemistry,
  3. Pycnocline – A cline based on the difference in water density.

Question 53

Which of the following surfaces produces maximum albedo?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fresh snow cover

  2. BOption (b)

    Cloud cover

  3. COption (c)

    Forest cover

  4. DOption (d)

    Desert Cover

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fresh snow cover

Why this answer is correct

Albedo:

  • Albedo Latin: albedo, meaning 'whiteness‘
  • The term albedo was introduced into optics by Johann Heinrich Lambert in his 1760 work Photometria.
  • It is the measure of the diffuse reflection of solar radiation out of the total solar radiation and measured on a scale from 0, corresponding to a black body that absorbs all incident radiation, to 1, corresponding to a body that reflects all incident radiation.
  • Surface albedo is defined as the ratio of radiosity to the irradiance (flux per unit area) received by a surface.
  • The average albedo of the Earth from the upper atmosphere, its planetary albedo, is 30–35% because of cloud cover, but widely varies locally across the surface because of different geological and environmental features.

Key Points

  • The ocean surface has a low albedo, as do most forests
  • The desert areas have some of the highest albedos among landforms.
  • Most land areas are in an albedo range of 0.1 to 0.4.
  • The average albedo of Earth is about 0.3.
  • Any albedo in visible light falls within a range of about 0.9 for fresh snow.
SurfaceTypical albedo
Fresh asphalt0.04
Open ocean0.06
Worn asphalt0.12
Conifer forest
(Summer)
0.08- 0.09 to 0.15
Deciduous forest0.15 to 0.18
Bare soil0.17
Green grass0.25
Desert sand0.40
New concrete0.55
Ocean ice0.50 to 0.70
Fresh snow0.80
Cloud0-0.8

From the above table, we can easily understand that the fresh snow has the highest albedo and forest cover has the lowest albedo.

Question 54

La Nina phenomenon is due to which of the following conditions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Air pressure dropping over central and eastern Pacific Ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    Weak high pressure system replacing normal pressure over western Pacific

  3. COption (c)

    An abnormal accumulation of cold water in central and eastern Pacific resulting into very strong trade winds

  4. DOption (d)

    The trade winds over the Pacific Ocean move strongly from west to east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

An abnormal accumulation of cold water in central and eastern Pacific resulting into very strong trade winds

Why this answer is correct

La Nina:

  • La Niña is caused by a build-up of cooler-than-normal waters in the tropical Pacific, the area of the Pacific Ocean between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
  • Unusually strong, eastward-moving trade winds and ocean currents bring this cold water to the surface, a process known as upwelling.
  • La Nina means Little Girl in Spanish.
  • La Nina is also sometimes called El Viejo, anti-El Nino, or simply "a cold event."
  • La Nina has the opposite effect of El Nino.
  • During La Nina events, trade winds are even stronger than usual, pushing more warm water toward Asia.
  • Off the west coast of the Americas, upwelling increases, bringing cold, nutrient-rich water to the surface.
  • These cold waters in the Pacific push the jet stream northward.
  • This tends to lead to drought in the southern U.S. and heavy rains and flooding in the Pacific Northwest and Canada.
  • During a La Nina year, winter temperatures are warmer than normal in the South and cooler than normal in the North.
  • La Nina can also lead to a more severe hurricane season.
  • During La Nina, waters off the Pacific coast are colder and contain more nutrients than usual.
  • This environment supports more marine life and attracts more cold-water species, like squid and salmon, to places like the California coast.

Therefore, it is clear that An abnormal accumulation of cold water in the central and eastern Pacific resulting in very strong trade winds is related to the La Nina effect.

Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding air mass characteristics:

a. An extensive body of air

b. Fairly homogenous physical properties

c. Associated with light divergent winds

d. Associated with the convergence zones

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b) are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    (c) and (d) are correct

  3. COption (c)

    (b), (c) and (d) are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    (a), (b) and (c) are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

Why this answer is correct

Airmass: According to  Barry and Chorley (1968), 'An airmass may be defined as a large body of air whose physical properties, especially temperature, moisture content and lapse rate (of temperature) are more or less uniform horizontally for hundreds of kilometres.

Key Points

Characteristics of airmass:

  • Airmass is an extensive body of air
  • It is fairly homogenous physical properties
  • Airmass is associated with light divergent winds
  • The boundary between two airmasses is known as a front
  • The thermal nature of the airmass is determined by the temperature characteristics of the airmass
  • The properties (temperature and moisture content)   an air mass acquires in its source region  are  dependent  upon  a number of factors—the time of   year (winter or summer), the nature of the underlying surface (whether and, water or ice-covered), and the length of time it remains over its source region, etc

Question 56

The difference between the mean temperature of any place and the mean temperature of its latitude is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Temperature anomaly

  2. BOption (b)

    Inversion of temperature

  3. COption (c)

    Temperature gradient

  4. DOption (d)

    Temperature rise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Temperature anomaly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Temperature anomaly.

The difference between the mean temperature of any place and the mean temperature of its latitude is called Temperature anomaly.

Key Points

Temperature anomaly:

  • Temperature varies even along the same parallel of latitude, land and water contrasts, prevailing winds, and ocean currents.
  • The difference between the mean temperature of any place and the mean temperature of its parallel is called the temperature anomaly or thermal anomaly.
  • The anomaly is said to be negative when the temperature at a place is less than the expected temperature of the latitude.
  • The anomaly is positive when the temperature at a place is more than the expected temperature of the latitude.
  • In climate change studies, temperature anomalies are more important than absolute temperature.
  • A temperature anomaly is a difference from an average, or baseline, temperature.
  • The baseline temperature is typically computed by averaging 30 or more years of temperature data.
  • A positive anomaly indicates the observed temperature was warmer than the baseline, while a negative anomaly indicates the observed temperature was cooler than the baseline.
  • When calculating an average of absolute temperatures, things like station location or elevation will have an effect on the data (ex. higher elevations tend to be cooler than lower elevations and urban areas tend to be warmer than rural areas).
  • However, when looking at anomalies, those factors are less critical. For example, a summer month over an area may be cooler than average, both at a mountain top and in a nearby valley, but the absolute temperatures will be quite different at the two locations.
  • Using anomalies also helps minimize problems when stations are added, removed, or missing from the monitoring network.

Question 57

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Local Winds)List-II (Countries)
a. Norwesteri. Switzerland
b. Yamoii. New Zealand
c. Foehniii. USA
d. Chinookiv. Japan

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

  3. COption (c)

    a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct matching is,

Local WindsCountries
a. Norwesterii. New Zealand
b. Yamoiv. Japan
c. Foehni. Switzerland
d. Chinookiii. the USA
Local WindsCountriesCharacteristics
a. Norwesterii. New Zealand- It is a strong northwest wind. - It is associated with the stormy weather pattern - It grows when the atmosphere becomes sufficiently unstable because of localized surface heating or other causes.
b. Yamoiv. Japan- Yamo, warm and dry wind in Japan - A fohn wind blowing through the precipitous valleys in Japan, but not bringing with it any significant temperature increase or drop in relative humidity
c. Foehni. Switzerland- Warm and dry local wind - Blow on the leeward sides of the mountains - Downslope compressional wind associated with the origin of the cyclone.
d. Chinookiii. USA- Warm and dry local wind - Blow on the leeward sides of the mountains - Downslope compressional wind associated with the origin of the cyclone.

Question 58

Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Higher salinity is found between 20° - 40° latitudes.

Reason (R): Salinity decreases from the mid-latitudes to high latitudes.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

  • Salinity, along with temperature, determines the density of seawater, and hence its vertical flow patterns in the thermohaline circulation.
  • Salinity records the physical processes affecting a water mass when it was last at the surface.
  • precipitation/evaporation – salts excluded from the vapour.
  • freezing/thawing – salts excluded from the ice
  • Salinity can be used as a conservative (unchanging) tracer for determining the origin and mixing of water types.
  • Isohaline - lines of equal salinity
  • Due to variations in precipitation and evaporation
  • Highest salinity - between 20°-30° north and south of the equator (evaporation exceeds precipitation)
  • Lower salinity - at equator and poleward of 30° (precipitation exceeds evaporation)
  • Halocline may be present -zone of rapid change of salinity with water depth
  • Water stratification (layering) – more pronounced between 40°N and 40°S
  • Salinity decreases from the mid-latitudes to high latitudes.
  • The surface salinity of oceans decreases on either side of the tropics.

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 59

Which one of the scales of measurement refers to tornado severity and damage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saffir-Simpson scale

  2. BOption (b)

    Beaufort scale

  3. COption (c)

    Fujita scale

  4. DOption (d)

    Richter scale

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fujita scale

Why this answer is correct

Fujita scale of measurement refers to tornado severity and damage.

Key Points

Fujita scale:

  • It is a  scale used to assess the severity and the damage caused by Tornado.
  • It was devised by T. Theodore Fujita in the late 1960s.
  • The scale measures the severity on the basis of the wind velocity and the damage done by the tornado.
ScaleWind speed estimatePotential damage
mphkm/h
F040-7264-116Light damage. Some damage to chimneys; branches broke off trees; shallow-rooted trees pushed over; sign boards damaged.
F173–112117–180Moderate damage. The lower limit is the beginning of hurricane wind speed; peels surface off roofs; mobile homes pushed off foundations or overturned; moving vehicles pushed off the roads; attached garages may be destroyed.
F2113–157181–253Significant damage. Roofs tore off frame houses; mobile homes demolished; boxcars overturned; large trees snapped or uprooted; high-rise windows broken and blown-in; light-object missiles generated.
F3158–206254–332Severe damage. Roofs and some walls torn off well-constructed houses; trains overturned; most trees in forests uprooted; heavy cars lifted off the ground and thrown.
F4207–260333–418Devastating damage. Well-constructed houses levelled; structures with weak foundations blown away some distance; cars were thrown and large missiles generated.
F5261–318419–512Incredible damage. Strong frame houses lifted off foundations and carried considerable distances to disintegrate; automobile sized missiles fly through the air farther than 100 meters (110 yards); trees debarked; steel-reinforced concrete structures badly damaged and skyscrapers toppled
  • The Enhanced F-scale was implemented in February 2007.
  • In the Fujita scale, the wind speed is not measured rather it is estimated after the tornado is over.
  • Primarily the tornado can be categorized into three, weak tornado, strong tornado, and violent tornado.

Question 60

Which one of the following is the basis of Thornthwaite's classification of climates?

  1. AOption (a)

    Precipitation effectiveness and thermal efficiency

  2. BOption (b)

    World distribution of natural vegetation

  3. COption (c)

    Distribution of land and waterbodies

  4. DOption (d)

    Movement of air masses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Precipitation effectiveness and thermal efficiency

Why this answer is correct

Precipitation effectiveness and thermal efficiency are the basis of Thornthwaite's classification of climates.

Key Points

Thornthwaite's classification of climates:

  • Thornthwaite climate classification scheme for describing climates devised in 1931, the full scheme in 1933 and revised in 1948
  • Charles Warren Thornthwaite (1889–1963) was an American climatologist which divides climates into groups according to the vegetation characteristic of them.
  • His scheme was complex and empirical
  • Here he used some factors like precipitation effectiveness, temperature effectiveness, potential evapotranspiration or thermal efficiency index, moisture index, aridity, and humidity indices.
  • He tried to draw an indication by natural vegetation for the climate of a region.
  • Here he considered two factors
  • Precipitation effectiveness: (monthly precipitation)/(monthly evaporation)
  • Temperature effectiveness:
Humidity zonesVegetationP/E index
A (wet)Rainforest127
B (humid)Forest64-127
C (subhumid)Grassland32-63
D (semiarid)Steppe16-31
E  (arid)Desert<16

 

Temperature provincesT-E index
A’ (tropical)127
B’ (mesothermal)64-127
C’ (microthermal)32-63
D’ (taiga)16-31
E’ (tundra)1-15
F’ (frost)0

Question 61

Consider the following features related to a glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF):

a. Involves sudden release of meltwater

b. Failure of moraine and ice dam

c. Large downstream discharge causing floods

d. Rapid event casting for few seconds

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b) are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    (c) and (d) are correct

  3. COption (c)

    (a), (b) and (c) are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    (b), (c) and (d) are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF):

  • A glacial lake outburst is a natural event that results in floods and catastrophic changes in the surface of the earth.
  • Glacial lakes are formed when a glacier retreats, leaving the debris mass at the glacier- the end moraine exposed.
  • The water dammed by a glacier or moraine is called a glacial lake. The dam can consist of glacier ice or a terminal moraine
  • The glacial lake outburst can occur due to the following reasons,
  • Heavy rainfall and an increase in the volume of water in the lake
  • Release of the glacier or removal of the moraine
  • Climatic change
  • Global warming
  • Black carbon and greenhouse effect
  • Excessive rainfall
  • Landslide and erosion
  • Melting of glacial ice
  • Earthquake in the mountainous region
  • Volcanic eruption
  • Landslide
  • A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a release of meltwater from a moraine- or ice-dam glacial lake due to dam failure. GLOFs often result in catastrophic flooding downstream, with major geomorphic and socioeconomic impacts.

GLOFs have three main features:

  • They involve sudden (and sometimes cyclic) releases of water.

  • They tend to be rapid events, lasting hours to days.

  • They result in large downstream river discharges (which often increase by an order of magnitude).

  • Marginal lake: these are formed when the water dammed by the front of a glacier

  • Sub glacial lake: the water body formed when it capped by a glacier.

So, it is clear that (a), (b), and (c) are correct about ​glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF).

Question 62

Which one of the following is a meteorological hazard?

  1. AOption (a)

    Flood

  2. BOption (b)

    Land slide

  3. COption (c)

    Avalanche

  4. DOption (d)

    Cloud burst

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cloud burst

Why this answer is correct

Cloud burst is a meteorological hazard.

Key Points

Meteorological hazard:

  • Meteorological hazards are hazards related to atmospheric patterns or conditions and are generally caused by weather factors such as precipitation, temperature, wind speed, and humidity.
  • These cause some weather-related events, such as floods, droughts, landslides, tides, sea-level rise, wind, snow, frost, extreme temperature, hail, lightning and fire.

Some of the examples are-

  • tropical cyclones such as hurricanes, typhoons, and cyclones,
  • monsoons,
  • tornadoes,
  • waterspouts,
  • ice storms,
  • severe winter storms,
  • hailstorms,
  • frost,
  • extreme cold or heat,
  • windstorms,
  • sandstorms,
  • wildfires,
  • thunderstorms,
  • fog,
  • El Niño / La Niña, and
  • climate change, etc.
  • A hazard caused by short-lived, micro- to mesoscale extreme weather and atmospheric conditions that last from minutes to days

Cloud burst:

  • A cloudburst is an extreme amount of precipitation in a short period of time, sometimes accompanied by hail and thunder, which is capable of creating flood conditions.
  • Cloudbursts can quickly dump large amounts of water, e.g. 25 mm of the precipitation corresponds to 25,000 metric tons per square kilometre.
  • It is associated with sudden, very heavy rainfall, usually local in nature and of brief duration sometimes accompanied by hail and thunder.

 

  1. Flood and drought are considered cumulative hazards as they are the product of various events.
  2. Landslide and avalanches are geomorphic hazards that can be caused by extreme meteorologic events.

Question 63

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Ocean Currents)List-II (Location)
a. Labradori. West Coast of Morocco
b. Oyashioii. West Coast of South Africa
c. Canaryiii. East Coast of Canada
d. Benguelaiv. East Coast of Korea

 

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

  3. COption (c)

    a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

Why this answer is correct

Ocean Current:

  • An ocean current is a continuous, directed movement of seawater generated by a number of forces acting upon the water, including wind, the Coriolis effect, breaking waves, cabbeling, and temperature and salinity differences.
  • Depth contours, shoreline configurations, and interactions with other currents influence a current's direction and strength. Ocean currents are primarily horizontal water movements.
  • An ocean current flows for great distances and together they create the global conveyor belt, which plays a dominant role in determining the climate of many of Earth’s regions.

Key Points

Types of current:

  • Warm Currents: Warm ocean currents flow away from the equatorial region on the western side of ocean basins. The Gulf Stream in the North Atlantic and the Kuroshio Current in the North Pacific are examples of warm currents. Of all the warm currents, the Gulf Stream has been studied most extensively.
  • Cold Currents: Cold currents flow toward the equator on the eastern side of ocean basins. Examples of cold ocean currents include the Canary Current in the North Atlantic, the California Current in the North Pacific, and the Benguela Current in the South Atlantic.

Location of the ocean current:

Ocean CurrentsLocation
a. Labradoriii. East Coast of Canada
b. Oyashioiv. East Coast of Korea
c. Canaryi. West Coast of Morocco
d. Benguelaii. West Coast of South Africa

Question 64

El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is an

  1. AOption (a)

    Ocean process

  2. BOption (b)

    Atmospheric process

  3. COption (c)

    Ocean-atmospheric process

  4. DOption (d)

    Ocean-atmospheric-land process

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ocean-atmospheric process

Why this answer is correct

El Nino:

  • El Nino means ‘little boy’ or ‘Christ child’ in Spanish.
  • The phenomenon was thus named because it was first recognized by South American fishermen in the early part of the 17th century.
  • The events, i.e., warm waters in the Pacific Ocean, tended to occur in December, hence, the name was chosen.
  • El Nino refers to the large-scale ocean-atmosphere climate interaction linked to periodic warming in sea surface temperatures across the central and east-central Equatorial Pacific.
  • It is associated with high pressure in the western Pacific.
  • El Nino adversely impacts the Indian monsoons and hence, agriculture in India.
  • El Niño is the name given to the occasional development of warm ocean surface waters along the coast of Ecuador and Peru.

Key Points

El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) :

  • ENSO is nothing but El Nino Southern Oscillation.
  • As the name suggests, it is an irregularly periodic variation of wind and sea surface temperature that occurs over the tropical eastern Pacific Ocean.
  • ENSO affects the tropics (the regions surrounding the equator) and the subtropics (the regions adjacent to or bordering the tropics).
  • The warming phase of ENSO is called El Nino, while the cooling phase is known as La Nina.

Question 65

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Ocean Relief)List-II (Oceans)
a. Socotra-Chagos ridgei. Arctic Ocean
b. Spitsbergen ridgeii. Indian Ocean
c. Mid-Atlantic ridgeiii. Atlantic Ocean
d. Cocos ridgeiv. Pacific Ocean

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  3. COption (c)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct matching is,

Ocean ReliefOceans
a. Socotra-Chagos ridgeii. The Indian Ocean
b. Spitsbergen ridgei. Arctic Ocean
c. Mid-Atlantic ridgeiii. The Atlantic Ocean
d. Cocos ridgeiv. The Pacific Ocean

Key Points

Ocean ReliefOceansDescription
a. Socotra-Chagos ridgeIndian Ocean- Socotra-Chagos Ridge also known as Carlsberg Ridge - It emerges from the central ridge at 5° S latitude - It extends in the north-westerly direction up to Gardafuli Peninsula of N.E. Africa.
b. Spitsbergen ridgeArctic Ocean- Spitsbergen is formerly a norwaign island
c. Mid-Atlantic ridgeAtlantic Ocean- The most remarkable feature of the Atlantic Ocean is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge which runs from north to the south paralleling the ‘S’ shape of the ocean. - The ridge has an average height of 4 km and is about 14,000 km long.
d. Cocos ridgePacific Ocean- The ridge is formed along the Cocos Plate. - Cocos Plate is a young oceanic tectonic plate beneath the Pacific Ocean off the west coast of Central America, named for Cocos Island, which rides upon it.

Question 66

The densest sea water is the

  1. AOption (a)

    Arctic bottom water

  2. BOption (b)

    North Pacific bottom water

  3. COption (c)

    Antarctic bottom water

  4. DOption (d)

    North Atlantic deep water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Antarctic bottom water

Why this answer is correct

The densest seawater is the Antarctic bottom water.

Seawater is a complex mixture of 96.5 percent water, 2.5 percent salts, and smaller amounts of other substances, including dissolved inorganic and organic materials, particulates, and a few atmospheric gases.

  • The density of seawater is a function of temperature, salinity, and pressure.
  • At a temperature of 4° C pure water reaches its maximum or peak density, cooled further it expands and becomes less dense than the surrounding water which is why when water freezes at 0° C it floats.
  • Salinity and density share a positive relationship. As density increases, the number of salts in the water—also known as salinity, increases. Various events can contribute to change in the density of seawater.
  • Salinity can decrease from the melting of polar ice or increase from the freezing of polar ice. Evaporation increases salinity and density while the addition of freshwater decreases salinity and density.
  • Surface zone - upper layer containing the least dense water; about 2% of total ocean volume; most variable part of the ocean because it is in contact with the atmosphere
  • Pycnocline - zone in which density increases rapidly with depth; about 18% of ocean water
  • Deep zone – about 80% of all ocean water; little change in density; originates at the surface in high latitudes where it cools, becomes dense, sinks to the seafloor and flows equatorward across the ocean basin
  • Very dense seawater that is both cold and of elevated salinity is formed.
  • Such areas as the Weddell Sea in Antarctica produce the densest water of the oceans.

Question 67

T-S diagram helps in determining the formation and extent of

  1. AOption (a)

    Ocean currents

  2. BOption (b)

    Tidal waves

  3. COption (c)

    Coral reefs

  4. DOption (d)

    Water masses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Water masses

Why this answer is correct

T-S diagram helps in determining the formation and extent of Water masses.

Key Points

T-S diagram:

  • In oceanography, temperature-salinity diagrams, sometimes called T-S diagrams, are used to identify water masses.

  • Helps us to identify water masses and their characteristics.

  • This diagram was introduced by Helland-Hansen (1916)

  • In a T-S diagram, rather than plotting each water property as a separate "profile," with pressure or depth as the vertical coordinate, potential temperature (on the vertical axis) is plotted versus salinity (on the horizontal axis).

  • As long as it remains isolated from the surface, where heat or freshwater can be gained or lost, and in the absence of mixing with other water masses, a water parcel's potential temperature and salinity are conserved.

  • Deepwater masses thus retain their T-S characteristics for long periods of time and can be identified readily on a T-S plot.

  • Temperature and salinity combine to determine the potential density of seawater; contours of constant potential density are often shown in T-S diagrams.

Question 68

Which one of the following countries intends to withdraw from the Paris Agreement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neatherlands

  2. BOption (b)

    Canada

  3. COption (c)

    United Kingdom

  4. DOption (d)

    United States of America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The United States of America intends to withdraw from the Paris Agreement.

Key Points

Paris Agreement:

  • The Paris Agreement (French: L'accord de Paris) is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to combat climate change.
  • It dealing with greenhouse-gas-emissions mitigation, adaptation, and finance, signed in 2016.
  • The agreement's language was negotiated by representatives of 196 state parties at the 21st Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC in Le Bourget, near Paris, France, and adopted by consensus on 12 December 2015.
  • As of February 2020, all UNFCCC members have signed the agreement, 189 have become a party to it, and the only significant emitters which are not parties are Iran and Turkey.

Aims:

  • Keep the global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above the pre-industrial level.
  • Pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
  • Strengthen the ability of countries to deal with the impacts of climate change.

Important Points

  • On December 15, 2018, delegates to COP 24, hosted in Katowice, Poland, adopted most of a comprehensive “rulebook” fleshing out the operational details of the Paris Agreement.
  • On June 1, 2017, President Trump announced his intention to withdraw the United States from the agreement.
  • The United States formally initiated its withdrawal from the agreement on November 4, 2019; the withdrawal took effect on November 4, 2020.
  • On January 20, 2021, President Biden signed an Executive Order to rejoin the Paris Agreement.

Question 69

Which one of the following comprises the largest reservoir of the earth's oxygen?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lithosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Atmosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Biosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lithosphere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lithosphere.

  • Oxygen is one of the most abundant elements on Earth and represents a large portion of each main reservoir.

  • By far the largest reservoir of Earth's oxygen is within the silicate and oxide minerals of the crust and mantle (99.5% by weight).

  • The Earth's atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere together hold less than 0.05% of the Earth's total mass of oxygen.

  • Besides O2, additional oxygen atoms are present in various forms spread throughout the surface reservoirs in the molecules of biomass, H2O, CO2, HNO3, NO, NO2, CO, H2O2, O3, SO2, H2SO4, MgO, CaO, AlO, SiO2, and PO4.

  • The oxygen cycle is the biogeochemical transitions of oxygen atoms between different oxidation states in ions, oxides, and molecules through redox reactions within and between the spheres/reservoirs of the planet Earth.

Question 70

In which one of the following places were amendments to the Kyoto Protocol adopted?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abu Dhabi

  2. BOption (b)

    Riyadh

  3. COption (c)

    Doha

  4. DOption (d)

    Muscat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Doha

Why this answer is correct

Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Doha.

Key Points

Kyoto Protocol:

  • The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), has its emergence from COP 3.
  • The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997 and entered into force on 16 February 2005.
  • There are currently 192 parties (Canada withdrew from the protocol, effective December 2012).
  • The parties meet to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that (part one) global warming is occurring and (part two) it is extremely likely that human-made CO2 emissions have predominantly caused it.

Key mechanism:

  • Emission trading (carbon market): Under this mechanism, an Annex I Party may transfer Kyoto units to or acquire units from another Annex I Party. Emissions trading does not affect the total assigned amount of Annex I Parties collectively; rather, it re-distributes the assigned amount among them.
  • Clean development mechanism (CDM): The CDM is also a project-based mechanism. CDM credits may be generated from emission reduction projects or from afforestation and reforestation projects in non-Annex I Parties. If any Annex I party provides technology to them they receive credit called Certified Emission Reduction (CER).
  • Joint implementation (JI): it is a project-based mechanism by which one Annex I Party can invest in a project that reduces emissions or enhances sequestration in another Annex I Party, and receive credit for the emission reductions or removals achieved through that project. The unit associated with JI is called an emission reduction unit (ERU).

Important Points

  • In Doha, Qatar, on 8 December 2012, the Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol was adopted for a second commitment period, starting in 2013 and lasting until 2020.
  • As of February 2020, 137 states have accepted the Doha Amendment, while entry into force requires the acceptances of 144 states. Of the 37 countries with binding commitments, 7 have ratified.
  • The amendment includes:
  • New commitments for Annex I Parties to the Kyoto Protocol who agreed to take on commitments in a second commitment period from 1 January 2013 to 31 December 2020;
  • A revised list of GHG to be reported on by Parties in the second commitment period; and
  • Amendments to several articles of the Kyoto Protocol specifically referenced issues pertaining to the first commitment period and which needed to be updated for the second commitment period.
  • This is known as the second commitment period of the Kyoto protocol.

Question 71

What is the transition zone between two ecosystems known as?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ecotone

  2. BOption (b)

    Ecotype

  3. COption (c)

    Biotope

  4. DOption (d)

    Biome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ecotone

Why this answer is correct

TopicDescription
Ecotone- An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes (diverse ecosystems). - Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate. - For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems. - This is the transition zone between two ecosystems
Ecotype- An ecotype is a variant in which the phenotypic differences are too few or too subtle to warrant being classified as a subspecies. - These different variants can occur in the same geographic region where distinct habitats such as meadow, forest, swamp, and sand dunes provide ecological niches.
Biotope- A biotope is an area of uniform environmental conditions providing a living place for a specific assemblage of plants and animals. - Biotope is almost synonymous with the term habitat
Biome- A biome is a large naturally occurring community of flora and fauna occupying a major habitat. - E.g. Rainforest biome or tundra biome.

Therefore it is clear that Ecotone is the transition zone between two ecosystems.

Question 72

As per the National Population Policy of India (2000), which of the following is the target year to achieve a stable population?

  1. AOption (a)

    2040

  2. BOption (b)

    2045

  3. COption (c)

    2050

  4. DOption (d)

    2055

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2045

Why this answer is correct

As per the National Population Policy of India (2000), 2045 is the target year to achieve a stable population

National Population Policy of India (2000):

  • **The National Population Policy 2000 — released on Feb. 15 — aims to bring the total fertility rate (TFR) to replacement level by 2010 and to **achieve a stable population by 2045, at a level consistent with sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection.
  • The National Population Policy (NPP), 2000, was endorsed by the Union cabinet in February 2000.
  • The NPP 2000 provides a policy framework for advancing goals and prioritizing strategies during the next decade to meet the reproductive and child health needs of the people of India and to achieve net replacement levels, which is otherwise called reduced total fertility rate (TFR), by 2010.
  • The immediate objective of the policy was to address the needs for contraception, health-care infrastructure, health-personnel, and integrated service delivery; the medium-term objective is to bring the TFR to replacement levels— two (or to be exact, 2.1) children per couple—by 2010 by a vigorous implementation of ‘sectoral strategies’; and the long-term objective is to achieve a stable population by 2045.
  • The National Population Policy, 2000 (NPP 2000) affirms the commitment of the government towards voluntary and informed choice and consent of citizens while availing of reproductive health care services, and continuation of the target free approach in administering family planning services.

Goals:

  1. To address the unmet needs for basic reproduction (contraception), child health services, supplies, and infrastructure (health personnel).
  2. To make school education up to age 14 free and compulsory and reduce dropouts at primary and secondary school levels to below 20 percent for both boys and girls.
  3. To reduce the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1,000 live births.
  4. To reduce the maternal mortality rate to below 100 per 100,000 live births.
  5. To achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine-preventable diseases.
  6. To promote delayed marriages for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.
  7. To achieve universal access to information/counseling, and services for fertility regulation and contraception with a wide basket of choices.
  8. To achieve 80 percent institutional deliveries and 100 percent deliveries by trained persons.
  9. To achieve 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages, and pregnancies.
  10. To prevent and control communicable diseases, especially AIDS and sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
  11. To promote vigorously the small family norm.
  12. To integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of repro­ductive and child health services, and in reaching out to households.

Question 73

Which one of the following is NOT matched correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    M. T. Sadler : Economic Theories of Population Growth

  2. BOption (b)

    W. C. Plowden : Census of India

  3. COption (c)

    F. W. Notestein : Demographic Transition

  4. DOption (d)

    E. G. Ravenstein : Laws of Migration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

M. T. Sadler : Economic Theories of Population Growth

Why this answer is correct

ScholarWorkDescription
M. T. SadlerDestiny and Fecundity Principal- Sadler was born in 1780 and he passed away in 1835 - Sadler was a British economist and social reformer - He was a contemporary of Malthus - His idea was expressed in detail in his book ‘The Law of population’ - ‘The fecundity of human beings is in the inverse ratio of the condensation of their numbers.’
W. C. PlowdenCensus of India- Sir William Chichele Plowden KCSI (1832 – 4 September 1915) was a Civil Servant and Member of the Legislative Council in India, and subsequently, a Liberal politician who sat in the House of Commons from 1886 to 1892. - In 1865 the Government of India and the Home Government had agreed upon the principle that a general population census would be taken in 1871. - Model census schedules and questionnaires had already been patiently worked out by W.C. Plowden in 1865.
F. W. NotesteinDemographic Transition- Demographic Transition Theory (DTT) was developed by Frank Notestein in 1945. - This theory provides an explanation of how fertility and mortality rates impact the age distribution and growth rate of populations.
E. G. RavensteinLaws of Migration- Ernst Georg Ravenstein (Ernest George) (30 December 1834 – 13 March 1913) was a German-English geographer cartographer. - He established a theory of human migration in the 1880s that still forms the basis for modern migration theory.

Therefore, option '1' is not correctly matched.

Question 74

Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The Indo-Gangetic plain is one of the densely populated regions of the world.

Reason (R): The Indo-Gangetic plain has fertile land and an abundance of water.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true, but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false, but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

  • The 300m contour line divides the Himalayas and the Gangetic Basin.

  • The southern boundary is demarcated by the edge of the peninsula which coincides with 75m contours in most of its length and 35m in the northeastern section, towards the delta.

  • The plains are extremely flat with a slope of nearly 1:1000 to 1:2000

  • The plains are flat and are rolling with monotonous character.

  • The Indo-Gangetic plains rank among the world's most densely populated areas with a total population exceeding 400 million

  • The Ganga Plain is mainly made of fertile alluvial soil which has resulted in increased agricultural activities.

  • Thus, fertile soil, the presence of many rivers, a favourable climate, and the availability of flat terrain have made this region one of the most densely populated areas of the world.

  • The northern plain of India is also known as the Indus-Ganga-Bramhaputra plain

  • The plain is formed by depositional work of these three rivers

  • Average width 150km to 300km

  • Average elevation 200m above mean sea level

  • It has four regional divisions

  • The Rajasthan Plain,

  • The Punjab-Haryana Plain,

  • The Ganga Plain,

  • The Brahmaputra Plain

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 75

City I has population of 2,00,000 and city II has population of 6,00,000. They are 50 miles apart. Which of the following will be breaking point (BP) boundary marking the outer edge of their respective trade areas according to Reilly's Law of Retail Gravitation?

  1. AOption (a)

    12.5 miles from city I

  2. BOption (b)

    45 miles from city II

  3. COption (c)

    28.3 miles from city II

  4. DOption (d)

    18.3 miles from city I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

18.3 miles from city I

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Reilly's Law of Retail Gravitation:

  • In economics, Reilly's law of retail gravitation is a heuristic developed by William J. Reilly in 1931.
  • According to Reilly's "law," customers are willing to travel long distances to larger retail centres given the higher attraction they present to customers.
  • In Reilly's formulation, the attractiveness of the retail centre becomes the analogy for size (mass) in the physical law of gravity.
  • The law presumes the geography of the area is flat without any rivers, roads, or mountains to alter a consumer's decision of where to travel to buy goods.
  • It also assumes consumers are otherwise indifferent between the actual cities.
  • In analogy with Newton's law of gravitation, the point of indifference is the point at which the "attractiveness" of the two retail centers (postulated to be proportional to their size and inversely proportional to the square of the distance to them) is equal: d= D/(1+√(Pa/Pb))

Formula:

Bp= D/(1+√(Pa/Pb))

Where,

Bp = breaking point

D = distance between City I and City II = 50 mile

Pa = Population of city II = 600000

Pb = Population of city I = 200000

Calculation:

Pa / Pb = 600000/200000 = 3

Bp = 50 / (1+√3) = 50/2.732 = 18.3 mile

18.3 mile apart from the city I is the breaking point (BP) boundary marking the outer edge of their respective trade areas.

Question 76

Which one of the following is NOT responsible for the origin of urban heat islands?

  1. AOption (a)

    High wind speed

  2. BOption (b)

    Atmospheric pollution

  3. COption (c)

    City buildings

  4. DOption (d)

    Central heating system of cities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

High wind speed

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Urban heat islands:

  • An urban heat island (UHI) is an urban area or metropolitan area that is significantly warmer than its surrounding rural areas due to human activities.
  • The temperature difference is usually larger at night than during the day and is most apparent when winds are weak. UHI is most noticeable during the summer and winter.
  • An urban heat island occurs when a city experiences much warmer temperatures than in nearby rural areas.
  • The difference in temperature between urban and less-developed rural areas has to do with how well the surfaces in each environment absorb and hold heat.
  • The main cause of the urban heat island effect is the modification of land surfaces.
  • Waste heat generated by energy usage is a secondary contributor.
  • As a population center grows, it tends to expand its area and increase its average temperature.
  • The term heat island is also used; the term can be used to refer to any area that is relatively hotter than the surrounding but generally refers to human-disturbed areas.

Causes of formation:

  • Dark surfaces
  • Thermal mass
  • Lack of vegetation
  • Waste heat
  • Changing climate

Effects:

  • Urban deserts: cities can be thought of as virtual deserts with almost no vegetation and materials that are almost completely impermeable to rain.
  • Urban canyons: the tall canyons formed by city buildings trap radiant energy in their walls. Comparisons of this "canyon effect" in European and North American cities suggest that areas with denser and taller buildings will more rapidly develop heat islands.
  • Urban haze: The haze of air pollution that hangs over many cities can act as a miniature greenhouse layer, preventing outgoing thermal radiation (heat) from escaping from urban areas.
  • Anthropogenic heat: The release of heat from the burning of fossil fuels can also raise urban temperatures.

Therefore, High wind speed is NOT responsible for the origin of urban heat islands.

Question 77

Which one of the following statements is true for Sadler's theory of population growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase in human population and food supply are inversely related

  2. BOption (b)

    Human population increases in geometrical progression while food supply increases in arithmetic progression

  3. COption (c)

    Sadler's theory of population growth belongs to the economic theories of population growth

  4. DOption (d)

    Human fertility varies inversely with population density

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Human fertility varies inversely with population density

Why this answer is correct

Sadler's theory of population growth:

Key Points

Introduction:

  • Sadler was born in 1780 and he passed away in 1835
  • Sadler was a British economist and social reformer
  • He was a contemporary of Malthus
  • His idea was expressed in detail in his book ‘The Law of population’

Opinion:

  • ‘The fecundity of human beings is in the inverse ratio of the condensation of their numbers.’
  • The fertility rate decreases with the increasing density of the population.
  • In agriculture-based economy/ pastoral countries, people are more hard-working and have the capacity to give birth to more children.
  • In industrialized countries, people are more civilized and literate. People would limit the size of the family. The density is comparatively high.
  • Population adjusts itself. If the death rate increases, the birth rate also increases to compensate the population and vice versa.

Sadlers’ critic of Malthusian Theory:

  • Sadler didn’t accept that population increases in geometric progress while food supply increases in arithmetic progression.
  • When population increased density too increases.
  • He did not accept the fear of Malthus like ‘positive check’ and ‘preventive check’
  • He said if the fertility rate increases people will be able to produce food according to their needs.
  • He believed that if the density of the population increases unhealthy atmosphere also increases which leads to an increase in the death rate.

Criticism:

  • Sadler failed to distinguish between fecundity and fertility. Density brings down ‘fertility’ but no means to prove the idea that it will bring down ‘fecundity’ e.g., slums
  • In many places like Delhi, Kerala, etc. density and fertility both are high
  • Sadler’s statement that increases in death rate also increases the birth rate to compensate for the loss of population. Again he said increasing density causes an unhealthy condition that causes death.
  • In countries like India, industrialization does not lead to a decline in the growth of population

Therefore it is clear that option '4' is correct about Sadler's theory of population growth.

Question 78

Select the State of India which has shown an increase in the ranking of urbanization as per the 2011 Census data:

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

According to the 2011 census data, Kerala has improved in the ranking of the level of urbanization.

  • 2011 Census of India was the fifteenth Census of India since 1872.
  • The level of urbanization in India, also known as the index of economic development, increased from 27.81% in 2001 to 31.16% in the 2011 census.
  • According to official figures, 31% of the country's population lived in urban areas
  • Kerala also ran from 18 in 2001 to 9 in 2011.
  • This indicates a high degree of urbanization in those 2 states/union territories.
StateUrban Population 2001 (%)Urban Population 2011 (%)to growRank 2001Rank 2011
Kerala25.9647.7283.82%189
Punjab33.9237.4912.65%1214
Goa49.7662.1724.93%46
Mizoram49.6351.513.79%57

From the above table, it is clear that urbanization in respect of decadal growth, as well as ranking, is only increased in Kerala. Hence, Kerala is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Urbanization rates can vary significantly across different states in India based on a variety of factors, including economic development, infrastructure, migration trends, and government policies.
  • Some states may have seen an increase in urbanization due to rapid industrialization and development, while others may have experienced slower rates of urban growth.

Question 79

Which one of the following is NOT matched correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Homeostatic Mechanism : Inbuilt self-regulating mechanism in natural ecosystems to counterbalance any change in the ecosystem to maintain ecological stability

  2. BOption (b)

    Synecology : Study of complex interrelationships between biological communities

  3. COption (c)

    Net Primary Production : Amount of energy or organic matter stored at trophic level one

  4. DOption (d)

    Deep Ecology : Environmentalism based on anthropocentric point of view

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Deep Ecology : Environmentalism based on anthropocentric point of view

Why this answer is correct

TopicDescription
Homeostatic Mechanism- A property of cells, tissues, and organisms that allows the maintenance and regulation of the stability and constancy needed to function properly. - Inbuilt self-regulating mechanism in natural ecosystems to counterbalance any change in the ecosystem to maintain ecological stability - Humans' internal body temperature is a great example of homeostasis.
Synecology- Community ecology or synecology is the study of the interactions between species in communities on many spatial and temporal scales, including the distribution, structure, abundance, demography, and interactions between coexisting populations. - For example, the study of the entire grassland ecosystem
Net Primary Production- Net primary production is the rate at which all the autotrophs in an ecosystem produce net useful chemical energy. - Amount of energy or organic matter stored at trophic level one - As noted, it is equal to the difference between the rate at which the plants in an ecosystem produce useful chemical energy (GPP) and the rate at which they use some of that energy during respiration.
Deep Ecology- Deep ecology promotes the inherent worth of all living beings regardless of their instrumental utility to human needs, plus the restructuring of modern human societies in accordance with such ideas.

So, Deep Ecology: Environmentalism based on an anthropocentric point of view is not matched correctly.

Question 80

The Ramsar Convention is related to which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ozone depletion

  2. BOption (b)

    Desertification

  3. COption (c)

    Wetlands

  4. DOption (d)

    Greenhouse gas emission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wetlands

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wetlands.

The Ramsar Convention:

  • Ramsar Convention, 1971: on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands
  • The Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
  • The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of UN member states, from all the world’s geographic regions, have acceded to become “Contracting Parties”.
  • India is a party to the Ramsar Convention. India signed under it on 1st February 1982.
  • Chilika Lake (Orissa) and Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) were recognized as the first Ramsar Sites of India
  • Sundarbans is the largest Ramsar Site of India
  • On 2nd February 2021, India’s first Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management has been set up in Chennai.
  • There are 75 wetlands in India that have international importance and hence recognized as the Ramsar Sites in India. Ramsar Sites are wetlands that have international importance.

Three Pillars:

  • ​Under the “three pillars” of the Convention, the Contracting Parties commit to:
  • work towards the wise use of all their wetlands;
  • designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (the “Ramsar List”) and ensure their effective management;
  • cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems, and shared species.

The Montreux record:

  • The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference.
  • It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

Question 81

Which one of the following statements is true for a World city?

  1. AOption (a)

    A World city is absolutely devoid of any financial institution

  2. BOption (b)

    A World city is culturally homogenous in nature

  3. COption (c)

    A World city is the headquarters of several multinational corporations

  4. DOption (d)

    A World city is rarely the centre of new ideas the innovations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A World city is the headquarters of several multinational corporations

Why this answer is correct

World city: 

  • It is also called a power city, global city, alpha city, or world center is a city that is a primary node in the global economic network.
  • A global city, an urban center that enjoys significant competitive advantages and that serves as a hub within a globalized economic system.
  • The term has its origins in research on cities carried out during the 1980s, which examined the common characteristics of the world's most important cities.

Key Points

Characteristics of a world city:

  • A variety of international financial services, notably in finance, insurance, real estate, banking, accountancy, and marketing
  • Headquarters of several multinational corporations
  • The existence of financial headquarters, a stock exchange, and major financial institutions
  • Domination of the trade and economy of a large surrounding area
  • Major manufacturing centers with port and container facilities
  • Considerable decision-making power on a daily basis and at a global level
  • Centers of new ideas and innovation in business, economics, culture, and politics
  • Centers of media and communications for global networks
  • The dominance of the national region with great international significance
  • A high percentage of residents employed in the services sector and information sector
  • High-quality educational institutions, including renowned universities, international student attendance, and research facilities
  • Multi-functional infrastructure offering some of the best legal, medical, and entertainment facilities in the country
  • High diversity in language, culture, religion, and ideologies

Therefore, option '3' is correct here.

Question 82

Who amongst the following propounded the 'Theory of Intervening Opportunities'?

  1. AOption (a)

    E. G. Ravenstein

  2. BOption (b)

    G. K. Zipf

  3. COption (c)

    D. J. Bogue

  4. DOption (d)

    S. Stouffer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S. Stouffer

Why this answer is correct

S. Stouffer propounded the 'Theory of Intervening Opportunities'.

Key Points

Theory of Intervening Opportunities:

  • The theory of intervening opportunities attempts to describe the likelihood of migration.
  • Its hypothesis is that this likelihood is influenced most by the opportunities to settle at the destination, less by distance or population pressure at the starting point.
  • Stouffer's law of intervening opportunities states, "The number of persons going a given distance is directly proportional to the number of opportunities at that distance and inversely proportional to the number of intervening opportunities.“
  • Stouffer theorizes that the amount of migration over a given distance is directly proportional to the number of opportunities at the place of destination and inversely proportional to the number of opportunities between the place of departure and the place of destination.
  • These intervening opportunities may persuade a migrant to settle in a place in the route rather than proceeding to the originally planned destination.
  • Stouffer argued that the volume of migration had less to do with distance and population totals than with the opportunities in each location.
  • This is in contrast to Zipf's Inverse distance law.
  • There are links with Ravenstein's laws of migration 2, 3, and 4.

Opportunity and intervening opportunities are:

  • Economic opportunities such as job opportunities, proper housing
  • Sanitation, health, and education facilities
  • Entertainment facilities
  • Clean environment
  • Political stability, security, and political opportunities.
  • Cultural and social opportunities

Question 83

Which one of the following is NOT matched correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    R. E. Murphy : Urban Social Area Analysis

  2. BOption (b)

    M. Jefferson : Primate City

  3. COption (c)

    G. Childe : Theory of Urban Origin

  4. DOption (d)

    E. Shevky : Study of CBD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E. Shevky : Study of CBD

Why this answer is correct

ScholarWorkDescription
R. E. MurphyUrban Social Area Analysis- Social area analysis was one of the techniques that evolved to study diversity in income, status and ethnicity, and mobility in the urban population
M. JeffersonPrimate City- This theory was developed by Mark Jefferson in 1939 - The leading city of a country is usually disproportionately larger than others - Primate city has a stratum of small towns dominated  by a very large city with an absence of intermediate centers - The ratio of the population of the countries 100:30:20 - The largest city has pre-eminence in infrastructure, economic, social, and political affairs
G. ChildeTheory of Urban Origin- Vere Gordon Childe (14 April 1892 – 19 October 1957) - He was an Australian archaeologist who specialized in the study of European prehistory. - Man Makes Himself (1936) - What Happened in History (1942) - Concepts of the Neolithic Revolution and the Urban Revolution
E. ShevkySocial Area Analysis- Eshref Shevky and Marilyn Williams (1 949) pioneered 'Social Area Analysis - The original formulation offered an almost wholly descriptive account of residential differentiation in urban Los Angeles, - They distinguished its social areas in terms of three (by no means clearly constructed) indexes of social rank, degree of urbanization, and segregation.

Therefore, option '4' is an incorrect matching.

Question 84

The Sustainable Development Goals comprises of how many goals and targets?

  1. AOption (a)

    17 goals and 132 targets

  2. BOption (b)

    17 goals and 169 targets

  3. COption (c)

    15 goals and 123 targets

  4. DOption (d)

    10 goals and 115 targets

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17 goals and 169 targets

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Sustainable Development:

  • ‘Development which meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • The “official” definition of sustainable development was developed for the first time in the Brundtland Report in 1987
  • The Brundtland Commission was created by the United Nations in 1983
  • The Brundtland Commission officially dissolved in December 1987 after releasing Our Common Future, also known as the Brundtland Report, in October 1987.
  • Formerly known as the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED), the mission of the Brundtland Commission is to unite countries to pursue sustainable development together.
  • The Chairperson of the Commission, Gro Harlem Brundtland, was appointed by United Nations Secretary-General Javier Pérez de Cuéllar in December 1983.

The Sustainable Development Goals:

  • It is a group of 17 goals with 169 targets and 247 indicators, as proposed by the United Nations General Assembly’s Open Working Group on Sustainable Development Goals to be achieved by 2030.

  • Post negotiations, the agenda titled “Transforming Our World: the 2030 agenda for Sustainable Development” was adopted at the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit.

  • SDGs are the outcome of the Rio+20 conference (2012) held in Rio De Janerio and are a non-binding document.

  • Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is an intergovernmental agreement formulated to act as post-2015 Development agenda, its predecessor being Millennium Development Goals.

​Thus, The Sustainable Development Goals comprises of 17 goals and 169 targets.

Question 85

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Number of Settlements
of Different Orders of
Walter Christaller)
List-II (K - value)
a. 6, 42, 294i. K = 3
b. 128, 512, 2048ii. K = 7
c. 27, 351, 4563iii. K = 4
d. 1, 3, 9iv. K = 13

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  3. COption (c)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

Why this answer is correct

List-I (Number of Settlements
of Different Orders of
Walter Christaller)
List-II (K - value)
a. 6, 42, 294ii. K = 7
b. 128, 512, 2048iii. K = 4
c. 27, 351, 4563iv. K = 13
d. 1, 3, 9i. K = 3

The correct option is a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

Key Points

Number of Settlements
of Different Orders of
Walter Christaller
K-valueProcess
a. 6, 42, 294ii. K = 76 67= 42 427 = 294
b. 128, 512, 2048iii. K = 4324 = 128 1284 = 512 512*4 = 2048
c. 27, 351, 4563iv. K = 1327 2713 = 351 35113 = 4563
d. 1, 3, 9i. K = 31 13 = 3 33 = 9

 

Central Place model:

  • The theory was postulated by Walther Christaller
  • It was published in his book “Central Place in Southern Germany” (Die zentralen Orte in Suddeutschland) in 1933
  • Translated in English in 1966
  • It is a normative theory
  • Based on the data obtained from Bavaria in South Germany
  • No of settlements are represented by ‘K’

Basic concepts:

  • Threshold: it is the minimum population requires for the establishment of a service

  • Range: the maximum distance one can travel for a single amenity/good/service

  • There are three fundamental concepts

  • Concept of centrality: it means the importance of the central or focal point which offers goods and services to the complementary area

  • Complementary area: the area served by the central place

  • Concept of hierarchy: the arrangement of the settlement based on their number and size. Generally, there are seven or more levels in a meso-region. In India, there are six levels of settlements.

Important Points

Principles of multiple nuclei theory:

The market principle:

  • Here K=3 ( K=1+(6/3)=3)
  • The market area of higher-order place includes a third of the market area of each of the following size neighboring lower-order places
  • Each marketing place is located at the corner of a hexagon around the higher-order settlement
  • Each high-order settlement gets 1/3 of each lower-order settlement

The transport principle:

  • The market area of higher-order includes half of the market area of the lower order places
  • They located on the edge of the hexagon
  • It results in the most efficient transport network
  • There are maximum central places possible located on the main transport routes connecting the higher-order centers
  • Here K=4 , K= 1+(6/2)=4

The administrative principle:

  • Settlements are nested according to sevens
  • The market areas of the smaller settlements are completely enclosed within the area of the larger settlement
  • Tributary areas must be allocated exclusively to a single higher-order place
  • Efficiency administration is the control principle in this hierarchy
  • Here K=7, K= 1+6

Question 86

Which among the following is an example of Quaternaries activities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Construction

  2. BOption (b)

    Sericulture

  3. COption (c)

    Retail and wholesale trade

  4. DOption (d)

    Manufacturing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Retail and wholesale trade

Why this answer is correct

Retail and wholesale trade is an example of Quaternaries activities.

Key Points

Economic activity:

  • Economic activity is the activity of making, providing, purchasing or selling goods or services. Any action that involves producing, distributing, or consuming products or services is an economic activity.
  • Types of economic activity
  • Production
  • Distribution
  • Consumption
  • There are five sectors of economic activity

Sectors of economic activity:

SectorJobExample
Primary activity- Primary activities are directly dependent on the environment as these refer to the utilization of the earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials, and minerals. - People engaged in primary activities are called red-collar workers due to the outdoor nature of their work.Hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying, lumbering
Secondary activity- Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. - People engaged in secondary activities are called blue-collar workersmanufacturing, processing, and construction (infrastructure) industries.
Tertiary activity- Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. - The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are consumed. - The exchange involves trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance. - Tertiary jobs = White-collar jobs.trade, transport, and communication, services, etc.
Quarternary activity- Quaternary activities are specialized tertiary activities in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ which demand a separate classification. - There has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers, and statisticians. - Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. - They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localized by the market.Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting, and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services.
Quinary activity- Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. - Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector. - Their importance in the structure of advanced economies far outweighs their numbers. - The highest level of decision-makers or policymakers performs quinary activities. - Quinary = Gold collar professions.representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc.

Question 87

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Petroleum Producing Centres)
List-II
(Countries)
a. Alwandi. Iraq
b. Agha Jariii. Egypt
c. Sinai Peninsulaiii. Iran
d. Minasiv. Indonesia

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  3. COption (c)

    a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 - a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv.

Key Points

Petroleum Producing Centres (List-I)Countries (List-II)
(a) Alwand(i) Iraq
(b) Agha Jari(iii) Iran
(c) Sinai Peninsula(ii) Egypt
(d) Minas(iv) Indonesia

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

  • Alwand - Iraq:
  • Definition: Alwand is a significant petroleum-producing region located in Iraq, known for its crude oil reserves.
  • Importance: Iraq is one of the world's leading oil producers, contributing significantly to global oil exports.
  • Agha Jari - Iran:
  • Definition: Agha Jari is a prominent oil field in Iran, known for its vast petroleum deposits.
  • Significance: Iran has some of the largest proven oil reserves in the world, and Agha Jari is a key contributor.
  • Sinai Peninsula - Egypt:
  • Definition: The Sinai Peninsula in Egypt is a notable region for oil and natural gas production.
  • Key Facts: It plays a vital role in Egypt's energy sector and contributes to regional energy trade.
  • Minas - Indonesia:
  • Definition: Minas is one of the largest oil fields in Indonesia, located on the island of Sumatra.
  • Significance: It is a critical asset for Indonesia's oil industry and an important source of light crude oil.

Important Points 

  • Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):
  • Definition: OPEC is an intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries that coordinates petroleum policies among its members to ensure stable oil markets and secure a steady income for producers.
  • Founded: September 1960, in Baghdad, Iraq.
  • Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
  • Objectives of OPEC:
  • To stabilize the oil market by managing the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil on the world market.
  • To ensure a regular supply of petroleum to consumers.
  • To secure a steady income for oil-producing nations.
  • To promote the efficient, economic, and regular supply of petroleum.
  • OPEC Member Countries:
  • Currently, OPEC has 12 member countries:
  • Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Venezuela.
  • Saudi Arabia is the largest producer within OPEC.
  • OPEC+:
  • OPEC+ refers to the alliance between OPEC and other oil-producing countries, including Russia, which cooperate to manage oil production and stabilize prices.
  • The OPEC+ coalition was established in 2016 to address the declining oil prices and includes key non-OPEC members like Russia, Mexico, Kazakhstan, and Oman.
  • Countries Joining OPEC Later:
  • Qatar (1961)
  • Indonesia (1962)
  • Libya (1962)
  • The United Arab Emirates (1967)
  • Algeria (1969)
  • Nigeria (1971)
  • Ecuador (1973)
  • Gabon (1975)
  • Angola (2007)
  • Equatorial Guinea (2017)
  • Congo (2018)
  • Angola:
  • Withdrew its membership effective 1 January 2024.

Question 88

The proportion of area under various crops at a point of time is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    crop combination

  2. BOption (b)

    cropping pattern

  3. COption (c)

    crop concentration

  4. DOption (d)

    crop diversification

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cropping pattern

Why this answer is correct

The proportion of area under various crops at a point in time is known as the cropping pattern.

Key PointsCropping pattern:

  • The proportion of area under various crops at a point of time in a unit area. It indicates the yearly sequence and spatial arrangement of crops and fallows in an area.
  • Cropping pattern is a dynamic concept because it changes over space and time
  • The cropping patterns determine the level of agricultural production. This reflects the agricultural economy of any region.
  • The cropping patterns are affected by changes in agrarian policy, availability of agricultural inputs, and improvements in technology.
  • Thus, the cropping patterns are beneficial in improving the fertility of the soil, thereby, increasing the yield of the crops. It ensures crop protection and the availability of nutrients to the crops.
  • Any change in the cropping pattern would cause a change in the proportion of land under different crops.
  • Some of the patterns are mono-crop practices, mixed cropping, etc.
TopicDescription
crop combination- Crops associated with a particular field or area in one agricultural year are called Crop combinations.
crop concentration- Crop concentration means the variations in the density of any crop in an area/region at a given point in time. - The concentration of a crop in an area largely depends on its terrain, temperature, moisture, and pedagogical conditions.
crop diversification- Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value-added crops with complementary marketing opportunities.

Question 89

Match List-I with List-II

List-I
(Synonyms of Shifting
Cultivation in India)
List-II
(Region)
a. Jhumi. South-East Rajashtan
b. Kumariii. North-East India
c. Watraiii. Andhra Pradesh
d. Poduiv. the Western Ghats

 

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

  3. COption (c)

    a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

Why this answer is correct

List-I
(Synonyms of Shifting
Cultivation in India)
List-II
(Region)
a. Jhumii. North-East India
b. Kumariiv. the Western Ghats
c. Watrai. South-East Rajashtan
d. Poduiii. Andhra Pradesh

The correct option a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

Key Points

Synonyms of Shifting
Cultivation in India
RegionCharacteristics
a. JhumNortheast India in States like Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur.- It is also known as the slash and burn agriculture - Practiced by the tribal groups in the northeastern states - First clearing the land of trees and vegetation and burning them thereafter. - The burnt soil contains potash which increases the nutrient content of the soil.
b. KumariHilly Region of the Western Ghats of Kerala. Kaman, Vinga and Dhavi.- It is a type of shifting agriculture done in the western ghats. - Farmers cultivate ragi and proso millet alternately after a gap of 16 years since 1927 in the district. - These farmers were paying nominal rent every year to the forest department for cultivating the land.
c. WatraSouth-eastern Rajasthan- It is a type of shifting cultivation has been described as an economy of which the main characteristics are rotation of fields rather than rotation of crops, absence of draught animals and manuring, use of human la­bour only, employment of dibble stick or hoe, and a short period of oc­cupancy alternating with long fallow periods.
d. Podu‘Podu’ or ‘Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh- It is a traditional system of cultivation used by tribes in India, whereby different areas of jungle forest are cleared by burning each year to provide land for crops. - The word comes from the Telugu language. - Podu is a form of shifting agriculture using slash-and-burn methods.

Question 90

D. Whittlessey divided the whole world into how many types of agricultural regions?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13

Why this answer is correct

D. Whittlesey divided the whole world into 13 agricultural regions.

Key Points

World Agricultural System by D. Whittlesey:

  • According to D. Whittlesey, 1936, “Agricultural Region is an uninterrupted area having some kind of homogeneity with specifically defined outer limit."
  • The functioning forms which appear to dominate every type of agriculture may be listed under five heads :
  1. The crop and livestock association.
  2. The methods used to grow the crops and produce the stock.
  3. The intensity of application to the land of labor, capital, and organization, and the outturn of product which results.
  4. The disposal of the products for consumption (ie., whether used for subsistence on the farm or sold off for cash or other goods).
  5. The ensemble of structures used to house and facilitate farming operations.
  • On the basis of the above indicators, Whittlesey has identified the 13 types of agricultural system region

13 agricultural regions:

Sl.RegionLocation
1Nomadic herdingSaharan Africa (Mauritania, Mali, Niger, Chad, Sudan, Libya, Algeria ). The southwestern central parts of Asia the not pails of Scandinavian countries (Norway, Sweden, Finland ) northern Canada.
2Livestock ranchingAmericans, Australia, the Republic of South Africa, Brazil Argentina, Peru, New Zealand the nearest equivalent to nomadic herding is ranching.
3Shifting Cultivationtropical rainforests also tropical lowlands hills in the centre of America, Africa, and Southeast Asia, Indonesia.
4Rudimentary TillageMostly confined to the tropical lands of Central & South America, Africa, South-East Asia
5Intensive Subsistence Tillage (with paddy dominance)tropical Asia, mainly in China. Japan, India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Srilanka, Malaysia, Philippines, etc
6Intensive Subsistence Tillage (without paddy dominance)It includes interior India and North-East China.
7Commercial PlantationBritish settlements in America than to any Inga estate in North America, west India, south-east Asia which was cultivated mainly by Negro or other colored labor.
8Mediterranean AgricultureMediterranean sea in Europe, Asia, Minor, North African coastal strip. Outside the Mediterranean coast, this system is found in California (USA). Central Chile the south-cast of cape province (South Africa) South-West of Western Australia.
9Commercial Grain FarmingGreat wheat belts stretch through Australia the plains of interior North America, the steppes of Russia, the pampas of Argentina, together with the United States, Canada farmer, Soviet union.
10Commercial Livestock & Crop FarmingIt is found throughout Europe from the land in the West through central Europe to Russia. It is also found in North America cast at 98'o meridian in the pampas of Argentina, Southeast Australia, Australia, South Africa, New Zealand.
11Subsistence Crop & Livestock FarmingNorthern Europe, Middle East, Mountain region of Mexico.
12Commercial Dairy FarmingEurope, Northern USA, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Finland, France, and Switzerland. It contributes 40% of agricultural income.
13Specialized HorticultureHorticulture is well developed in the densely populated industrial districts of north-west Europe, Britain, Denmark, Germany, Netherlands, France, Italy

Question 91

In D. M. Smith's theoretical model of the spatial margins to profitability, if cost is constant, the space-revenue curve would be

  1. AOption (a)

    V-shpaed

  2. BOption (b)

    A-shaped

  3. COption (c)

    S-shaped

  4. DOption (d)

    rectangular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-shaped

Why this answer is correct

Theory of Industrial Location by D. M. Smith:

  • D. M. Smith presented a simple model of industrial location in his book “Industrial Location”, published in 1971.
  • His model was based on his studies of Steel Mill in Brazil.
  • The theory explains the idea of spatial margin locations.
  • Location inside the margin would result in profit for the organization, while outside would result in loss.
  • The theory is based on Spatial Margins of profitability of an industry, so it is known as 'Spatial MarginsTheory’.
  • His theory is also known as the ‘Area-Cost Curve Theory’.

Key Points

Area-Cost Curve Theory:

  • Spatial Margins refer to a combination of both the production and revenue feasibility in a given linear market area.
  • The theory incorporates the significant element of sub-optimal behaviour of locational choice in a given area.
  • It did not put emphasis on the least-cost or profit maximization location of rational economic man.
  • Smith assumes dynamic interaction between production costs and revenue in-space economy.
  • According to him, manufacturing costs vary in different situations and locations, so that the revenues and profits will vary within the feasible margins.
  • Smith attempted to explain his theory by setting locational flexibility within a spatial range as delimited by the intersection of space cost curves and space revenue curves.
  • This can be explained with the help of a graphic presentation.
  • In the figure, the x-axis shows that the distance increasing from left to right, and the y-axis denotes the number of costs and revenues.
  • Cost is indicated by the downward line and revenue is shown by the upward line in the image above.
  • At two points the quantity of cost and revenue will be equal, A and D.
  • The area between A to D is profitable for the industry.
  • The point 'B' showing the highest revenue while the line joining 'B' passes through the lower cost point. The range is maximum in this location.

It is clearly depicted that the space-revenue curve would be 'A-shaped' in D. M. Smith's theoretical model of the spatial margins to profitability.

Question 92

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Subject)
List-II
(Object)
a. Apiculturei. Fruits
b. Olericultureii. Grapevine
c. Pomologyiii. Kitchen herbs
d. Viticultureiv. Bee

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

  3. COption (c)

    a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

Why this answer is correct

SubjectCharacteristics
Apiculture- Apiculture is the scientific method of rearing honeybees - The process incorporated with care and management of honey bees for the production of honey and wax - The word 'apiculture' comes from the Latin word 'apis' meaning bee
Olericulture- Olericulture is the science of vegetable growing, dealing with the culture of non-woody (herbaceous) plants for food. - The process is related to the production of plants for use of the edible parts.
Pomology- Pomology is the study of fruit, specifically the science of growing fruit and nuts.
Viticulture- Viticulture (from the Latin word for vine) or winegrowing (wine growing) is the cultivation and harvesting of grapes. - It is a branch of the science of horticulture.

Thus, the correct matching is, a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

List-I
(Subject)
List-II
(Object)
a. Apicultureiv. Bee
b. Olericultureiii. Kitchen herbs
c. Pomologyi. Fruits
d. Viticultureii. Grapevine

Question 93

According to A. Pred, the location of an industry is closely associated with which among the following approaches?

  1. AOption (a)

    Least cost approach

  2. BOption (b)

    Profit maximising approach

  3. COption (c)

    Ecological approach

  4. DOption (d)

    Behavioural approach

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Behavioural approach

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Theory of industrial location by A. Pred:

  • He applied the concept of the behavioural matrix to a variety of decision-making situations including a new plant location.
  • The essential elements of the behaviour school, namely, the concept of the optimizer, the concept of satisfier, and that of bounded rationality along with the concept of spatial margins to profitability were incorporated by Pred.
  • To consider the complexity of behavioural factors in locational decisions, Pred in 1967, developed a representation based upon a behavioural matrix

Behavioural Matrix:

  • The matrix is a monitoring mechanism for the identification of the position of decision-makers relative to the normative concept of the economic man.

  • The axes of the matrix measure the quantity of relevant information available to a decision-maker and his ability to use that information.

  • It is obvious that whereas decision-makers positioned in the top left corner of the matrix may be characterized as incompetent and ignorant in economic terms while those in the bottom right represent the opposite end of the spectrum of ability and knowledge.

  • Pred's line of argument was that individuals in the latter position are more likely to make economically rational choices, but accepted that they could also derive benefit from chance factors not related to their own choices.

  • It is hypothesized that there are three areas within which a hypothetical industrial activity may be profitably carried out.

  • An optimal location is identified within each of these areas.

  • The geographical position of a number of imaginary firms is linked to their Behavioural position within the matrix.

  • Generally speaking, firms in the bottom right of the matrix have chosen locations near one of the optima, while most, but not all, of the firms characterized by positions in the top left have selected unprofitable locations

Question 94

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I
(Soil Categories
as per US Dept. of Agriculture)
List-II
(Nearest Equivalent)
a. Antisolsi. Brown forest soil
b. Inceptisolsii. Chernozem
c. Mollisolsiii. Laterite
d. Oxisolsiv. Azonal soils

Choose the correct option from those given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

  3. COption (c)

    a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

  4. DOption (d)

    a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

Soil classification is essential for understanding soil properties, their potential uses, and limitations. The USDA soil taxonomy system classifies soils based on their physical and chemical properties, providing valuable insights for agricultural planning and environmental management.

Important Points

  • Antisols - Azonal soils:
  • Antisols refer to soils that do not show any significant soil development.
  • These soils are generally young and have not gone through the whole process of soil formation.
  • Azonal soils are characterized by a lack of profile development, generally due to geographical limitations such as recent volcanic deposits, dunes, or floodplains.
  • Inceptisols - Brown forest soil:
  • Inceptisols are soils with minimal horizon development, typically having a well-developed A horizon but minimal B horizon.
  • They are often found under forest cover and are known as Brown forest soils due to their prevalent coloration and texture.
  • Inceptisols are typically young soils found in a variety of environments from forested regions to mountainous landscapes.
  • Mollisols - Chernozem:
  • Mollisols are rich, fertile soils with a high organic content, commonly found in grassland ecosystems.
  • They are similar to Chernozem, which is a black soil rich in organic matter found in steppe regions.
  • Both soil types are known for their excellent agricultural potential, particularly in supporting grain and cereal crops.
  • Oxisols - Laterite:
  • Oxisols are highly weathered tropical soils with a high content of iron and aluminum oxides.
  • Laterite soils are equivalent to Oxisols and are known for their red coloration due to iron oxide content.
  • These soils are typically found in humid, tropical regions and are often nutrient-poor due to intense weathering.

Key Points 

  1. Antisols and Azonal Soils:
  • These soils have minimal horizon development and are often found in regions where the soil is replaced or disturbed frequently.
  • Typical examples include soils in newly deposited river terraces or volcanic regions.
  • The lack of significant development is due to environmental factors that inhibit horizon formation.
  1. Inceptisols and Brown Forest Soil:
  • Found commonly under deciduous forest cover, hence the term 'Brown forest soil.'
  • These soils indicate early to moderate stages of soil formation and are relatively young in the pedological timescale.
  • They can support forest growth and are often fertile.
  1. Mollisols and Chernozem:
  • Known for their thick, dark surface horizon which is rich in organic matter.
  • Mollisols are found in temperate grasslands, similar to Chernozem soils found in Eurasian Steppe regions.
  • Highly productive for agriculture, supporting crops such as wheat, corn, and soybeans.
  1. Oxisols and Laterite:
  • These soils are characteristic of equatorial and tropical regions with high rainfall and temperature.
  • Highly weathered with significant leaching, leading to low fertility.
  • Primarily composed of minerals resistant to weathering, such as iron and aluminum oxides, giving the soil its distinctive red color.

Additional Information 

  • Soil classification systems like the USDA soil taxonomy are crucial for land management, agricultural planning, and environmental conservation.
  • Understanding soil properties helps in the sustainable management of land resources, ensuring optimal use without causing degradation.
  • Each soil type supports specific vegetation and requires different management practices to maintain its fertility and prevent erosion.
  • Soils such as Mollisols and Chernozem are vital for global food security due to their high productivity.
  • Conversely, soils like Oxisols need careful management due to their low nutrient content and potential for rapid degradation under improper land use.

Question 95

Who among the following proposed the core-periphery model of economic development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rostow

  2. BOption (b)

    Friendman

  3. COption (c)

    Myrdal

  4. DOption (d)

    Harschman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Friendman

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Core-periphery model of economic development:

  • This model was developed in 1966 by John Friedmann.
  • It is a model of the spatial organization of human activity based upon the equal distribution of power in the economy and society.
  • The core dominates (although it may, in turn, be dominated from outside) whilst the periphery is dependent.
  • This dependence is structured through the relation of exchange between core and periphery.

Core-periphery stages:

StageCharacteristics
Stage 1 (Pre-industrial)- The pre-industrial (agricultural) society, with localized economies and a small-scale settlement structure. - Each settlement is fairly isolated, activities are dispersed and mobility is low. - There are limited differences between spatial entities in terms of levels of economic development
Stage 2 (Transitional)- The concentration of the economy in the core city begins as a result of innovation. capital accumulation and industrial growth. - The specific reasons behind this concentration are often not too clear, location (better access) being a significant factor, but the fact remains that a dominant centre emerges within an urban system to become its growth pole. - Trade and mobility increase, but within a pattern dominated by the core even if the overall mobility remained low. - Among the numerous examples of such a phase are the early industrialization of Great Britain in the late 18th century or the beginning of the colonial incorporation of Latin America, Africa, or Asia
Stage 3 (Industrial)- Through a process of economic growth and diffusion, other growth centres emerge. - The main reasons for deconcentration are increasing input costs (mainly labor and land) in the core area. - This diffusion is linked with increased interactions between elements of the urban system and the construction of transport infrastructures.
Stage 4 (Post-industrial)- The urban system becomes fully integrated and spatial inequalities are reduced significantly. - The distribution of economic activities creates a specialization and a division of labor linked with intense flows along high-capacity transport corridors. - The factors that have favoured spatial inequalities in the previous phases of development have structured dominant poles of the urban system and favoured the setting of a large commercial gateway, usually a world city.

Question 96

Which of the following groups of countries is the participant member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sri Lanka - Malaysia - Pakistan

  2. BOption (b)

    India - Bhutan - Mauritius

  3. COption (c)

    Bangladesh - Mozambique - Maldives

  4. DOption (d)

    Afghanistan - Bhutan - Maldives

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Afghanistan - Bhutan - Maldives

Why this answer is correct

South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC):

Key Points

History:

  • The idea was first raised by Ziaur Rahman, President of Bangladesh in November 1980.
  • Their first meeting was held in Colombo, Sri Lanka in April 1981.
  • The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
  • The Secretariat of SAARC is located in Kathmandu, Nepal.

Member Countries:

  • At that time there were 8 member countries, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Sri Lanka
  • Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007.
  • Myanmar has stated it would like to become a full member of the SAARC
  • There are currently nine Observers to SAARC. Russia and Turkey are applied to become observers of SAARC
  • | Member Countries | Observer Countries | | --- | --- | | 1. Bangladesh, 2. Bhutan, 3. India, 4. Maldives, 5. Nepal, 6. Pakistan, 7. Afghanistan, and 8. Sri Lanka | 1.Australia 2.China 3.The European Union 4.Iran 5.Japan 6.The Republic of Korea 7.Mauritius 8.Myanmar 9.The United States of America |

SAARC in short:

  • Present Secretary-General of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) H.E. Esala Ruwan Weerakoon of Sri Lanka appointed on 01 March 2020.
  • The Secretariat of the Association was set up in Kathmandu on 17 January 1987

SAARC specialized bodies are

  1. SAARC Development Fund (SDF)
  2. South Asian University
  3. South Asian Regional Standards Organization (SARSO) has its Secretariat in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
  4. SAARC Arbitration Council

Question 97

Functional region is delineated on the basis of which of the following characteristics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transport intensity and commodity flow intensity

  2. BOption (b)

    Commodity flow intensity and river basin

  3. COption (c)

    Physical features and population characteristics

  4. DOption (d)

    Agricultural intensity and rainfall pattern

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Transport intensity and commodity flow intensity

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Region:

  • The word "region" comes from the Latin word "regime", which means ‘to manage’.
  • There are some basic attributes of a region
  • The region has an areal extent
  • Regions have a location
  • The region has boundaries
  • Regions may be either formal or functional
  • Regions are hierarchically arranged
  • ‘Regions’ or ‘Landschaft’ is a similar concept which came into existence in the Mid 19th century from “German School”.

Functional region:

  • A functional region that displays a certain functional coherence, an interdependence of parts when defined on the basis of certain criteria is known as a functional region.
  • A functional region, also known as a nodal region, organized around a node or focal point.
  • It is sometimes referred to as a polarized region and is composed of heterogeneous units such as cities, towns & villages which are functionally inter-related. Example – National Capital Region
  • The characteristic chosen to define a functional region dominates at a central focus or node and diminishes in importance outward.
  • The region is tied to the central point by transportation, communication systems, or by economic or functional associations.
  • The functional linkage keeps changing in nature and volume.
  • An example of a functional region is the circulation area of a newspaper. That area is centred around the city in which the newspaper is published in. The farther away from the city of circulation, the fewer people that read the newspaper (this phenomenon is known as distance decay).

So, it can be concluded that the Functional region is delineated on the basis of Transport intensity and commodity flow intensity.

Question 98

From the given transport graph, calculate 'Beta-Index':

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1.5

  2. BOption (b)

    3.0

  3. COption (c)

    2.0

  4. DOption (d)

    1.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2.0

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Network analysis :

  • The analysis of the transport network has become an important part of geographical studies
  • Network problems that involve finding an optimal way of doing something are analyzed through graph theory.
  • Graph theory is mostly based on two elements of space: Vertex of the network (that is called nodes)and edge(or arcs) which connects two vertexes in the network.
  • K.J. Kansky, an American scientist who has studied the structure of transportation networks developed different indices for measuring the connectivity of networks, which includes a. cyclomatic number, b. alpha index, c. beta index and d. gamma index.
IndicesDefinitionFormula
Cyclomatic Number- A cyclomatic number may be formed by subtracting the number of nodes from the no. of arcs.Cyclomatic Number = e-(v-1)
Alpha Index- It is the ratio of the actual number of circuits in a network to the maximum possible number of circuits in that network. I - It shows the degree of connectivityAlpha Index = (e−v+1)/ (2v−5)
Beta Index- It indicates arcs of road network per node. - The beta(β) index is a simple measure of connectivity that is calculated by dividing the total number of areas in a network by the total number of nodes.ß = e/ v
Gamma Index- The Gamma index describes in numerical terms the connectivity of a network. - It is a measure of connectivity that considers the relationship between the number of observed links and the number of possible links.Gamma index = e/ 3(v−2)

Note:

e= edges or arcs

v = vortices or nodes

Calculation:

Transport graphEdge (e)12
Vortices (v)6
IndicesFormulaValue
Cyclomatic Numbere-(v-1)7
Alpha Index(e−v+1)/ (2v−5)1
Beta Indexe/ v2
Gamma Indexe/ 3(v−2)1

Question 99

As per Edward Ullman's mode of transport system, which one of the following describes 'complementarity'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Demand and supply of a product between regions

  2. BOption (b)

    Cost of movement of a product between regions

  3. COption (c)

    Availability of a product in a region

  4. DOption (d)

    Non-availability of a product in a region

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Demand and supply of a product between regions

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Edward Ullman's mode of transport system:

  • The theoretical origins of spatial interactions are attributed to the American geographer E.L. Ullman.
  • He proposed this concept first in 1957 and also in 1980.
  • He first formally defined the concept and proposed complementarity, transferability, and the lack of intervening opportunities as three interdependent conditions for a spatial interaction to occur.
  • He stated that the trade diverting effect of an intervening opportunity could eventually facilitate interaction between more distant complementary locations.
  • Under some circumstances, the intervening opportunities may help to create interactions between distant supply and demand pairs.
  • Three independent conditions are necessary here,

Complementarity:

  • A complimentary supply-demand relationship exists between locations.
  • An economic system is based on a large array of complimentary activities.

Intervening opportunity:

  • It refers to a location that may offer a better alternative as a point of origin or as a point of destination.

Transferability factor:

  • Transferability refers to the possibility of interactions occurring between locations by overcoming distance, time, and cost.
  • The cost of overcoming distance is known as the friction of distance, which is subject to factors such as existing transportation technology and the cost of energy.
  • The shorter the distance between supply and demand, the higher the interaction.

Therefore it is clear that Demand and supply of a product between regions describes 'complementarity' as per Edward Ullman's mode of the transport system.

Question 100

Arrange the following components of 'quality of life' used by the Berlin Centre for Future Research in decreasing weightage:

a. Physical

b. Mental

c. Material

d. Spiritual

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    d, c, a, b

  2. BOption (b)

    c, d, b, a

  3. COption (c)

    b, a, d, c

  4. DOption (d)

    a, b, c, d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

b, a, d, c

Why this answer is correct

  • Quality of life is the degree to which an individual is healthy, comfortable, and able to participate in or enjoy life events.
  • Standard indicators of the quality of life include wealth, employment, the environment, physical and mental health, education, recreation and leisure time, social belonging, religious beliefs, safety, security, and freedom.
  • The approach to the measurement of the quality of life derives from the position that there are a number of domains of living.
  • Each domain contributes to one's overall assessment of the quality of life.
  • Initially, the GNP was used to measure the ‘quality of life.
  • Eventually, the Berlin Centre for Future Research added concepts like mental health and physical health as only GNP would not be enough to understand the ‘quality of life.
  • Components of ‘quality of life’ used by the Berlin Centre for Future Research in decreasing weightage are Mental, Physical, Spiritual, and Material.

Therefore, the correct answer is, b, a, d, c.

100 questions in the full paper