Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Official Paper 2: Geography 28th August 2024 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Question 1

Identify the statements which are NOT correct about Dualism in Geography.

A. For the first time, geography was divided into General and Special geography by Humboldt.

B. Hettner claimed that geography is idiographic in nature than nomothetic.

C. Humboldt was the founder of systematic geography while Ritter favoured regional geography.

D. Ratzel was obsessed by the concept of interdependence of things rather than genesis of things.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and D only'.

Key Points

  • Hettner claimed that geography is idiographic in nature than nomothetic.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Alfred Hettner, a prominent geographer, emphasized that geography should focus more on the idiographic approach (the study of individual areas and regions) rather than the nomothetic approach (the study of general laws).
  • Humboldt was the founder of systematic geography while Ritter favoured regional geography.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Alexander von Humboldt is credited with laying the foundation for systematic geography, which involves studying universal laws and features that apply to multiple areas.
  • Carl Ritter is known for his emphasis on regional geography, which focuses on the unique characteristics and phenomena of specific areas or regions.
  • For the first time, geography was divided into General and Special geography by Humboldt.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Geography was divided into General and Special geography by Bernhardus Varenius in his work "Geographia Generalis" published in 1650, not by Humboldt.
  • Humboldt’s contributions were more towards enhancing the systematic approach in geography.
  • Ratzel was obsessed by the concept of interdependence of things rather than genesis of things.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Friedrich Ratzel, known for his work in anthropogeography, primarily focused on the genesis and development of societies in relation to their environment, rather than merely the interdependence of things.
  • He investigated how the natural environment influences human activity and vice versa.

Additional Information

  • Dualism in Geography:
  • General vs. Regional Geography: General geography deals with universal features and generalized laws, whereas regional geography focuses on specific characteristics of individual places or regions.
  • Idiographic vs. Nomothetic Approaches: The idiographic approach emphasizes particular, unique features of specific areas, while the nomothetic approach seeks to find general laws that apply across multiple regions.
  • Human vs. Physical Geography: Human geography deals with human activities and their impact on the earth, while physical geography focuses on natural physical processes and features.

Question 2

Which of the following is associated with an understanding of our place in the world based on human superiority and dominance over nature, the unrestricted use of natural resources, and increased economic growth to manage an expanding industrial base?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anthropocentric

  2. BOption (b)

    Bio-centric

  3. COption (c)

    Eco-centric

  4. DOption (d)

    Geo-centric

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Anthropocentric

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Anthropocentric

Key Points

  • Anthropocentric
  • The term 'anthropocentric' refers to a human-centered view of the world.
  • This perspective emphasizes human superiority and dominance over nature.
  • It supports the unrestricted use of natural resources to benefit humans.
  • Economic growth is seen as essential to support an expanding industrial base.
  • Anthropocentric views often prioritize human needs and desires over environmental considerations.

Additional Information

  • Bio-centric
  • Bio-centric views emphasize the intrinsic value of all living beings, not just humans.
  • This perspective promotes the idea that all life forms have a right to exist and flourish.
  • It calls for the preservation of biodiversity and the protection of ecosystems.
  • Eco-centric
  • Eco-centric views prioritize the health and well-being of entire ecosystems over individual species.
  • This perspective stresses the interconnectedness of all living and non-living components of the environment.
  • It advocates for sustainable practices that maintain ecological balance.
  • Geo-centric
  • Geo-centric views focus on the Earth as a whole, including its physical and biological systems.
  • This perspective emphasizes the importance of geological and climatic factors in shaping life on Earth.
  • It promotes a holistic understanding of the planet's processes and their impact on life.

Question 3

The book 'Geography of Peace' laid the foundation of the _______ concept.

  1. AOption (a)

    Heartland

  2. BOption (b)

    Rimland

  3. COption (c)

    Sea Power

  4. DOption (d)

    Air Power

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rimland

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Rimland

Key Points

  • Rimland
  • The concept of "Rimland" was introduced by Nicholas Spykman, a Dutch-American geostrategist, in his book "The Geography of Peace" published in 1944.
  • The Rimland theory emphasizes the importance of the coastal fringes of Eurasia, which Spykman believed were crucial for the control of the world.
  • According to this theory, the power that controls the Rimland would eventually dominate Eurasia and thereby control the world.
  • Spykman's Rimland includes Western Europe, the Middle East, and the Asian rim along the Pacific Ocean.

Additional Information

  • Heartland
  • The Heartland theory was proposed by Sir Halford Mackinder in 1904.
  • It suggests that the central area of Eurasia (the "Heartland") is the key to controlling the world.
  • Mackinder famously stated, "Who rules East Europe commands the Heartland; Who rules the Heartland commands the World-Island; Who rules the World-Island commands the World."
  • Sea Power
  • The concept of Sea Power was formulated by Alfred Thayer Mahan in his influential book "The Influence of Sea Power upon History," published in 1890.
  • Mahan argued that national power and prosperity were heavily dependent on control of the sea lanes and maritime dominance.
  • Air Power
  • The concept of Air Power gained prominence in the 20th century, particularly through the works of military strategists like Giulio Douhet.
  • Douhet's book "The Command of the Air" (1921) argued that future wars would be won by controlling the air, making it the most critical domain in warfare.

Question 4

Among the following, the _______ has the highest peak.

  1. AOption (a)

    Aravali Range

  2. BOption (b)

    Satpura Range

  3. COption (c)

    Vindhyan Range

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizo Hills

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mizo Hills

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Mizo Hills

Key Points

  • Mizo Hills
  • The Mizo Hills, also known as Lushai Hills, are located in the northeastern part of India.
  • The highest peak in the Mizo Hills is Phawngpui Tlang, also known as the Blue Mountain, which stands at an elevation of approximately 2,157 meters (7,076 feet).
  • Phawngpui is renowned for its biodiversity and is a significant part of the Phawngpui National Park.
  • The region is known for its picturesque landscapes, rich flora and fauna, and cultural significance to the Mizo people.

Additional Information

  • Aravali Range
  • The Aravali Range is one of the oldest mountain ranges in India, stretching across Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi.
  • The highest peak of the Aravali Range is Guru Shikhar, which is located in the state of Rajasthan and has an elevation of 1,722 meters (5,650 feet).
  • Satpura Range
  • The Satpura Range is a range of hills in central India, stretching through Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.
  • The highest peak in the Satpura Range is Dhupgarh, which stands at an elevation of 1,350 meters (4,429 feet).
  • Vindhyan Range
  • The Vindhyan Range is a complex range of hills in central India, primarily running across Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The highest elevation in the Vindhyan Range is around 1,104 meters (3,622 feet).

Question 5

Identify the WRONG statements with reference to Losch's central place theory.

A. It is suitable for distribution of central places with sparse distribution of settlements.

B. It is suitable for understanding the economic change in densely populated regions.

C. It assumes the coexistence of a large number of 'K' factor values and hierarchies.

D. It is more valid for tertiary services than secondary activities.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and D only'.

Key Points

  • It is suitable for distribution of central places with sparse distribution of settlements.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Losch's central place theory is primarily applicable to densely populated and economically active areas rather than sparsely populated regions. It assumes a concentration of settlements with economic interdependence.
  • It is suitable for understanding the economic change in densely populated regions.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Losch’s theory is suitable for analyzing economic change in densely populated areas, as it focuses on the optimal distribution of services to maximize profit and cater to large populations.
  • It assumes the coexistence of a large number of 'K' factor values and hierarchies.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Losch's theory allows for a variety of K values (K=3, K=4, K=7), representing different levels of market coverage, which enables a diverse hierarchy of settlements and central places.
  • It is more valid for tertiary services than secondary activities.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Losch's central place theory is applicable to both secondary and tertiary activities, as it includes the optimal distribution of various economic functions, not exclusively services.

Additional Information

  • Losch’s Central Place Theory:
  • Application: Suitable for densely populated regions with significant economic activities, focusing on the spatial organization of settlements to maximize profit.
  • K Values: The theory accommodates multiple K values, representing different hierarchies and market areas for optimal distribution of goods and services.
  • Scope: It is applicable across various economic sectors, including both tertiary (services) and secondary (manufacturing) sectors, offering a holistic approach to spatial economic planning.

Question 6

Arrange the four distinct elements in a standard hill-slope from ridge to valley.

A. Free-face slope

B. Concave slope

C. Convex slope

D. Rectilinear slope

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    C, A, B, D

  2. BOption (b)

    C, A, D, B

  3. COption (c)

    B, D, A, C

  4. DOption (d)

    B, D, C, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

C, A, D, B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C, A, D, B

Key Points

  • Convex slope
  • This is the uppermost part of the hill-slope and typically has a rounded or curved shape.
  • It forms the ridge or the summit area of the hill.
  • In geomorphology, it is the segment where the slope angle decreases downwards.
  • Free-face slope
  • Located immediately below the convex slope.
  • Characterized by a steep, almost vertical face.
  • This part is often exposed rock or a very steep incline, leading to rapid erosion.
  • Rectilinear slope
  • It is situated below the free-face slope.
  • Has a relatively straight and consistent gradient.
  • Often forms the main body of the slope, connecting the upper steep sections to the lower concave sections.
  • Concave slope
  • This is the lowest part of the hill-slope system.
  • Characterized by a gentle curve that becomes less steep towards the valley.
  • Often accumulates sediments transported from the upper parts of the slope.

Additional Information

  • Hill-slope Elements
  • The arrangement of these elements from ridge to valley is crucial for understanding erosion and sediment transport processes.
  • Convex slopes are usually areas of high erosion, while concave slopes are zones of deposition.
  • Free-face slopes often undergo rockfalls and landslides due to their steep nature.
  • Rectilinear slopes act as transitional zones that stabilize the slope system.

Question 7

At present, in total foodgrain (includes cereals and pulses) production the share of Kharif and rabi crops is _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    almost equal

  2. BOption (b)

    Highly unequal

  3. COption (c)

    in ratio of 4 ∶ 1

  4. DOption (d)

    in ratio of 2 ∶ 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

almost equal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - almost equal

Key Points

  • At present, in total foodgrain (includes cereals and pulses) production the share of Kharif and rabi crops is almost equal.
  • Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon in June and are harvested in September-October.
  • Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.
  • The major Kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, and pulses like moong and urad.
  • The major Rabi crops include wheat, barley, peas, gram, and mustard.
  • Due to the cultivation practices and climatic conditions, the production of these crops tends to balance out, making their share in total foodgrain production almost equal.

Additional Information

  • Kharif Crops
  • Kharif crops depend heavily on the quantity of rainwater as they are cultivated during the monsoon season.
  • These crops are known for their short growing seasons and are harvested quickly.
  • Rabi Crops
  • Rabi crops are less dependent on monsoon rains and require cooler climates for germination and growth.
  • These crops take longer to mature compared to Kharif crops and require good irrigation facilities.

Question 8

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Climate)(Letter Symbol by Koppen)
A.Tropical SavannaI.Cs
B.Mediterranean ClimateII.As
C.Semi-aridIII.Aw
D.revails in Coastal Tamil NaduIV.BS

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

  3. COption (c)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. DOption (d)

    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Key Points

  • Tropical Savanna (Aw)
  • The Tropical Savanna climate is characterized by distinct wet and dry seasons.
  • It is typically found between the tropical rainforest and the semi-arid regions, around the equator.
  • The letter symbol 'Aw' is assigned by Koppen for this climate.
  • Mediterranean Climate (Cs)
  • The Mediterranean climate is known for its dry summers and wet winters.
  • This climate is typically found in regions like Southern California, parts of Australia, and the Mediterranean Basin.
  • The letter symbol 'Cs' is assigned by Koppen for this climate.
  • Semi-arid (BS)
  • The Semi-arid climate is characterized by low rainfall, more than desert regions but less than tropical regions.
  • This climate is found in regions like the Great Plains of the USA, parts of Australia, and Central Asia.
  • The letter symbol 'BS' is assigned by Koppen for this climate.
  • Prevails in Coastal Tamil Nadu (As)
  • The Coastal Tamil Nadu climate is characterized by high temperatures throughout the year with a distinct dry and wet season.
  • This climate type is similar to the Tropical Savanna but with a distinct dry season at the beginning of the year.
  • The letter symbol 'As' is assigned by Koppen for this climate.

Additional Information

  • Koppen Climate Classification
  • Developed by Wladimir Köppen, this climate classification system is one of the most widely used systems to classify the world's climates.
  • The system categorizes climates based on annual and monthly averages of temperature and precipitation.
  • The major climate categories include Tropical (A), Dry (B), Temperate (C), Continental (D), and Polar (E).
  • Climatic Symbols
  • Each climate type in the Köppen system is represented by a two or three-letter symbol.
  • The first letter represents the major climate group, the second represents the precipitation pattern, and the third (if any) represents the temperature pattern.

Question 9

Identify the correct statements with reference to insolation.

A. In summer season length of the day will be longer at Jammu as compared to Chennai.

B. In a year, the sun's rays are vertical twice at Varanasi.

C. The southern slopes of the Himalayas receive more insolation as compared to the northern slopes.

D. The share of visible wavelength is more than the share of ultraviolet wavelengths in total insolation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A, C and D only'.

Key Points

  • In summer season length of the day will be longer at Jammu as compared to Chennai.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Due to Jammu’s higher latitude, it experiences longer days in the summer season compared to Chennai, which is closer to the equator and has relatively consistent day lengths throughout the year.
  • In a year, the sun's rays are vertical twice at Varanasi.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Varanasi is situated above the Tropic of Cancer, so it does not experience vertical sun rays twice a year. Only locations between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn receive vertical sun rays twice annually.
  • The southern slopes of the Himalayas receive more insolation as compared to the northern slopes.
  • This statement is correct.
  • The southern slopes of the Himalayas receive more direct sunlight due to their orientation, leading to higher insolation levels than the shaded northern slopes.
  • The share of visible wavelength is more than the share of ultraviolet wavelengths in total insolation.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Insolation primarily consists of visible light, with ultraviolet (UV) wavelengths representing a smaller portion due to absorption in the Earth's atmosphere.

Additional Information

  • Insolation and Latitude:
  • Latitude Impact: Higher latitudes experience greater seasonal variations in day length, impacting insolation levels, especially in summer and winter.
  • Visible vs. Ultraviolet Wavelengths: Visible wavelengths constitute the majority of insolation, while UV wavelengths are minimal, absorbed largely by the ozone layer.
  • Sun's Vertical Rays: Only areas within the tropics receive vertical sun rays, affecting the heat distribution across latitudes.

Question 10

The crop region of _______ is NOT confined to the region of high rainfall in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cotton

  2. BOption (b)

    Rubber

  3. COption (c)

    Tea

  4. DOption (d)

    Jute

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cotton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Cotton

Key Points

  • Cotton
  • Cotton is cultivated mainly in regions that have moderate to low rainfall.
  • It requires a warm climate with temperatures between 21 to 30 degrees Celsius.
  • Rainfall of about 50-100 cm is ideal, which is lower compared to other crops such as tea and rubber that need high rainfall.
  • Regions such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh are prominent cotton-growing areas despite receiving moderate rainfall.

Additional Information

  • Rubber
  • Rubber requires a hot and humid climate with heavy rainfall of more than 200 cm.
  • It is predominantly grown in regions like Kerala, which receive high rainfall.
  • Tea
  • Tea cultivation needs a tropical and subtropical climate with high rainfall, ideally above 200 cm.
  • The northeastern states of India, such as Assam and West Bengal, are known for tea production due to their heavy rainfall.
  • Jute
  • Jute cultivation requires a warm and humid climate with rainfall between 150-250 cm.
  • It is mainly grown in the eastern states like West Bengal and Bihar, which receive substantial rainfall.

Question 11

Identify correct statements with reference to the heat budget of the Earth.

A. In the albedo of the earth-atmosphere system dominant role is played by clouds.

B. Out of the incoming solar radiation more units are absorbed by atmosphere as compared to the earth surface.

C. In the latitudinal belt of 30° N to Arctic circle the amount of incoming solar radiation is more than that of the outgoing terrestrial radiation.

D. In latitudinal heat transfer atmospheric circulation dominates over oceanic circulations.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A and D only

Key Points

  • A. In the albedo of the earth-atmosphere system dominant role is played by clouds.
  • Albedo refers to the reflectivity of the Earth's surface.
  • Clouds significantly contribute to the Earth's albedo by reflecting incoming solar radiation back to space.
  • Other factors like ice, snow, and certain land surfaces also play a role, but clouds are particularly influential.
  • D. In latitudinal heat transfer atmospheric circulation dominates over oceanic circulations.
  • Atmospheric circulation involves the large-scale movement of air through the Earth's atmosphere, redistributing heat.
  • It includes phenomena like the Hadley Cell, Ferrel Cell, and polar circulation, which are crucial for heat distribution.
  • While ocean currents also play a significant role in heat transfer, atmospheric circulation has a more immediate and dynamic impact on heat distribution across latitudes.

Additional Information

  • B. Out of the incoming solar radiation more units are absorbed by atmosphere as compared to the earth surface.
  • This statement is incorrect because the Earth's surface absorbs more solar radiation compared to the atmosphere.
  • The Earth's surface absorbs about 51% of the incoming solar radiation, while the atmosphere absorbs around 19%.
  • C. In the latitudinal belt of 30° N to Arctic circle the amount of incoming solar radiation is more than that of the outgoing terrestrial radiation.
  • This statement is incorrect as the regions near the poles receive less incoming solar radiation and emit more outgoing terrestrial radiation.
  • As a result, these regions often experience a net loss of heat, contrary to the statement.

Question 12

The Davisian concept of cycle of erosion was inspired by the central idea of the book published by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Clements

  2. BOption (b)

    Darwin

  3. COption (c)

    Fleur

  4. DOption (d)

    Haeckel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Darwin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Darwin

Key Points

  • Darwin
  • Charles Darwin is best known for his contributions to the theory of evolution through natural selection.
  • His seminal work "On the Origin of Species" published in 1859 laid the foundation for understanding the processes that drive biological evolution.
  • Darwin's ideas about natural selection and gradual change over time influenced a wide range of scientific fields, including geology.
  • William Morris Davis, an American geographer, geologist, and meteorologist, was inspired by Darwin's ideas to develop the concept of the cycle of erosion, which describes the stages of landscape evolution.

Additional Information

  • Clements
  • Frederic Clements was an American ecologist who developed the concept of plant succession.
  • He is known for his work in plant ecology and the development of the climax community theory.
  • Fleur
  • There is no notable scientist or author named Fleur associated with geological or ecological theories.
  • Haeckel
  • Ernst Haeckel was a German biologist, naturalist, and philosopher known for his work in biology and the popularization of Darwin's theories in Germany.
  • He is also known for his contributions to the field of ecology and the development of the recapitulation theory.

Question 13

Identify the correct statements with reference to population composition of India, based on Census of India, 2011.

A. Sex ratio in Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh was more than the national average.

B. The level of literacy in Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh was more than the national average.

C. The share (%) of Buddhists in the population of Sikkim is more than the share of Muslims in the population of Uttar Pradesh.

D. The share of Sikh population in Chandigarh is more than 10 percent and in Haryana it is less than 10 percent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

C and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C and D only

Key Points

  • Sex ratio in Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh
  • The national average sex ratio according to the Census of India 2011 was 940 females per 1000 males.
  • Himachal Pradesh had a sex ratio of 972, which is above the national average.
  • However, Gujarat had a sex ratio of 919, which is below the national average.
  • Level of literacy in Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
  • The national literacy rate according to the Census of India 2011 was 74.04%.
  • Uttar Pradesh had a literacy rate of 69.72%, which is below the national average.
  • Andhra Pradesh had a literacy rate of 67.35%, which is also below the national average.
  • Share of Buddhists in Sikkim vs. Share of Muslims in Uttar Pradesh
  • Sikkim had a significant Buddhist population, with around 27.39% Buddhists according to the Census of 2011.
  • In Uttar Pradesh, the Muslim population was about 19.26% as per the same census.
  • Therefore, the share of Buddhists in Sikkim is indeed more than the share of Muslims in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Share of Sikh population in Chandigarh and Haryana
  • Chandigarh had a Sikh population of around 13.11% according to the Census of 2011.
  • Haryana had a Sikh population of about 4.91% as per the same census.
  • Therefore, the share of Sikh population in Chandigarh is more than 10% and in Haryana it is less than 10%.

Additional Information

  • Population Composition
  • Population composition refers to the distribution of the population according to characteristics such as age, sex, marital status, education, occupation, and religion.
  • The Census of India provides detailed information about the demographic characteristics of the population.
  • Sex Ratio
  • The sex ratio is the number of females per 1,000 males in the population.
  • It is an important indicator of gender balance in a population.
  • Literacy Rate
  • The literacy rate is the percentage of people aged 7 and above who can read and write with understanding.
  • It is a crucial indicator of educational attainment in a population.
  • Religious Composition
  • The religious composition of a population refers to the distribution of people according to their religious affiliations.
  • It helps in understanding the cultural and social diversity within a population.

Question 14

The fastest and deepest geostrophic currents are found at the _______ boundaries of ocean basins.

  1. AOption (a)

    western

  2. BOption (b)

    eastern

  3. COption (c)

    equatorial

  4. DOption (d)

    northern

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

western

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - western

Key Points

  • Western boundaries of ocean basins
  • The fastest and deepest geostrophic currents, known as western boundary currents, are found along the western edges of ocean basins.
  • Examples of these currents include the Gulf Stream in the North Atlantic Ocean and the Kuroshio Current in the North Pacific Ocean.
  • These currents are typically narrow, deep, and strong, transporting warm water from the tropics towards the poles.
  • Western boundary currents play a crucial role in the global climate system by redistributing heat and influencing weather patterns.

Additional Information

  • Eastern boundaries of ocean basins
  • Eastern boundary currents, such as the California Current and the Canary Current, are generally slower, shallower, and wider compared to western boundary currents.
  • These currents typically flow from higher latitudes towards the equator, transporting cooler water.
  • Equatorial regions
  • Equatorial currents, such as the Equatorial Counter Current, are generally weaker and shallower compared to western boundary currents.
  • These currents flow from east to west along the equator, driven primarily by the trade winds.
  • Northern boundaries of ocean basins
  • Northern boundary currents are not as prominently defined as western boundary currents, and they do not exhibit the same characteristics of speed and depth.
  • These currents are more influenced by the presence of sea ice and seasonal changes.

Question 15

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Landform)(Earth Movement)
A.Wasatch RangeI.Epeirogenic
B.Colorado PlateauII.Orogenic
C.Narmada ValleyIII.Vulcanism
D.Laki PlainIV.Faulting

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

  3. COption (c)

    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

  4. DOption (d)

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Key Points

  • A. Wasatch Range - II. Orogenic
  • The Wasatch Range is a mountain range that is part of the Rocky Mountains in the United States, formed primarily due to orogenic processes.
  • Orogenic processes involve the structural deformation of the Earth's lithosphere due to tectonic forces, leading to the formation of mountain ranges.
  • B. Colorado Plateau - I. Epeirogenic
  • The Colorado Plateau is a large, stable upland area in the United States that has been uplifted by epeirogenic movements.
  • Epeirogenic movements refer to the broad, gentle, and relatively slow vertical movements of the Earth's crust, leading to the formation of plateaus and basins.
  • C. Narmada Valley - IV. Faulting
  • The Narmada Valley in India is characterized by the Narmada Fault, a significant geological fault line.
  • Faulting occurs when there is a fracture in the Earth's crust, resulting in the displacement of rock masses, which can form valleys and rift zones.
  • D. Laki Plain - III. Vulcanism
  • The Laki Plain in Iceland is known for the Laki volcanic fissure, which erupted in 1783-1784.
  • Vulcanism refers to the processes and phenomena associated with the eruption of magma, gases, and ash from the Earth's interior, leading to the formation of volcanic landforms.

Additional Information

  • Orogenic Processes
  • These processes are associated with the formation of mountains and are typically the result of the collision of tectonic plates.
  • Common features include fold mountains, faults, and volcanic activity.
  • Epeirogenic Movements
  • These movements are large-scale, gradual uplifts or subsidence of the Earth's crust.
  • They are usually associated with the formation of plateaus, basins, and large areas of relatively uniform elevation.
  • Faulting
  • Faulting is the process by which rocks break and move along fault lines.
  • It can create various landforms, including rift valleys, fault-block mountains, and grabens.
  • Vulcanism
  • Vulcanism involves the movement of magma from the Earth's interior to its surface, resulting in volcanic eruptions.
  • It leads to the creation of volcanic landforms such as volcanoes, lava plains, and volcanic islands.

Question 16

Which of the following perspective of geography emerged as a part of Radical-Marxist orientation of human geography.

  1. AOption (a)

    Behavioural Geography

  2. BOption (b)

    Positivism

  3. COption (c)

    Feminist Geography

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantitative Revolution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Feminist Geography

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Feminist Geography

Key Points

  • Feminist Geography
  • Feminist Geography emerged as an influential perspective within human geography that focuses on gender relations and the spatial implications of gender inequalities.
  • It critiques the traditional geographical theories and practices that often ignored or marginalized the experiences and contributions of women.
  • This perspective seeks to understand how spatial relations, locations, and environments are influenced by gendered power dynamics.
  • It addresses issues such as the division of labor, access to resources, and the gendered nature of spaces and places.

Additional Information

  • Behavioural Geography
  • Behavioural Geography focuses on the psychological processes underlying spatial reasoning, decision-making, and behavior.
  • It emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior in geographic contexts, often using cognitive and perceptual frameworks.
  • Positivism
  • Positivism in geography is associated with the application of scientific methods to study spatial phenomena, emphasizing observation, measurement, and empirical evidence.
  • It seeks to identify general laws and principles governing spatial patterns and processes.
  • Quantitative Revolution
  • The Quantitative Revolution in geography refers to a period during the mid-20th century when there was a significant shift towards the use of quantitative methods and statistical techniques in geographical research.
  • This movement aimed to make geography more scientific and objective, focusing on the analysis of spatial data and the development of models.

Question 17

_______ refers to that site which has previously been used and has become derelict. It has to be made safe before it can be used for development.

  1. AOption (a)

    Greenfield site

  2. BOption (b)

    Yellowfield site

  3. COption (c)

    Brownfield site

  4. DOption (d)

    Redfield site

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brownfield site

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Brownfield site

Key Points

  • Brownfield site
  • A brownfield site refers to previously developed land that is not currently in use and may be potentially contaminated.
  • These sites are often found in urban areas and require cleanup or remediation before they can be repurposed for new developments.
  • Redevelopment of brownfield sites can lead to the rejuvenation of derelict urban areas, reduce urban sprawl, and utilize existing infrastructure.
  • Such sites are often subject to environmental assessments and remediation to ensure they are safe for new uses.

Additional Information

  • Greenfield site
  • A greenfield site refers to undeveloped land, typically in rural or suburban areas, that has not been previously built upon.
  • These sites are often used for agricultural purposes or left as natural landscapes until development occurs.
  • Development on greenfield sites can lead to urban sprawl and loss of natural habitats.
  • Yellowfield site
  • The term "yellowfield site" is not commonly used or recognized in the context of land development and planning.
  • It does not have a specific meaning related to previously used or derelict land.
  • Redfield site
  • The term "redfield site" is also not commonly used or recognized in the context of land development and planning.
  • It does not have a specific meaning related to previously used or derelict land.

Question 18

In Absteigende entwickelung phase of landscape development model of Penck _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    process of valley deepening dominates over valley widening

  2. BOption (b)

    rate of upliftment is more than rate of erosion

  3. COption (c)

    absolute height increases but relative relief decreases

  4. DOption (d)

    absolute height and relative relief decline.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

absolute height and relative relief decline.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - absolute height and relative relief decline.

Key Points

  • Absteigende Entwickelung Phase of Landscape Development Model of Penck
  • This phase refers to the 'declining development' stage in Penck's landscape evolution model.
  • During this phase, the landscape undergoes significant erosion and denudation processes.
  • The absolute height, which is the elevation above sea level, decreases as erosion wears down the landscape.
  • Relative relief, which is the difference in height between the highest and lowest points in the landscape, also decreases.
  • This phase is characterized by the reduction of both absolute height and relative relief as the landscape flattens out over time.

Additional Information

  • Process of Valley Deepening Dominates Over Valley Widening
  • This process is more typical of an earlier stage of landscape development where vertical erosion is dominant.
  • As the landscape evolves, valley widening becomes more prominent in later stages.
  • Rate of Upliftment is More Than Rate of Erosion
  • This scenario describes a phase where tectonic forces are active, causing upliftment faster than erosion can wear it down.
  • This is not characteristic of the declining development phase where erosion outpaces upliftment.
  • Absolute Height Increases but Relative Relief Decreases
  • This situation would imply that although the overall elevation is increasing, the landscape is becoming smoother, which is not typical of the declining phase.
  • In Penck’s model, both absolute height and relative relief decline during the absteigende entwickelung phase.

Question 19

In which of the following phase, the plant seeds are established in the newly created bare area through germination and plant growth in a given habitat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Phase of reaction

  2. BOption (b)

    Phase of stabilization

  3. COption (c)

    Phase of ecesis

  4. DOption (d)

    Phase of nudation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Phase of ecesis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Phase of ecesis

Key Points

  • Phase of ecesis
  • The phase of ecesis is when plant seeds establish themselves in a newly created bare area through germination and plant growth.
  • It is a critical stage in the process of ecological succession, where the first plants colonize a disturbed or newly formed habitat.
  • This phase ensures that the area becomes suitable for subsequent species to inhabit and thrive.
  • The success of this phase determines the future composition and structure of the ecological community.

Additional Information

  • Phase of reaction
  • During the phase of reaction, the established plants modify the environment, making it more suitable for other species to colonize.
  • These changes can include alterations in soil composition, microclimate, and nutrient availability.
  • Phase of stabilization
  • In the phase of stabilization, the ecological community reaches a relatively stable state where the species composition remains constant over time.
  • This phase is characterized by mature ecosystems with established plant and animal communities.
  • Phase of nudation
  • The phase of nudation refers to the creation of a bare area due to disturbances such as fire, flooding, or human activities.
  • This phase precedes the colonization of the area by plants during the ecesis phase.

Question 20

The road width on the ground is 60 feet while 2 inches on the aerial photograph. The scale of the aerial photograph is _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 ∶ 3600

  2. BOption (b)

    1 ∶ 360

  3. COption (c)

    1 ∶ 120

  4. DOption (d)

    1 ∶ 1200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 ∶ 360

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 1 ∶ 360

Key Points

  • Understanding the Scale
  • Scale represents the relationship between a distance on a map or photograph and the actual distance on the ground.
  • In this question, the actual width of the road on the ground is 60 feet, and it measures 2 inches on the aerial photograph.
  • Converting Units
  • First, convert the actual ground distance from feet to inches for consistency in units (1 foot = 12 inches).
  • 60 feet x 12 inches/foot = 720 inches.
  • Calculating the Scale
  • The scale is calculated as the ratio of the distance on the photograph to the actual distance on the ground.
  • Scale = (Distance on photograph) / (Actual distance on ground).
  • In this case, Scale = 2 inches / 720 inches = 1 / 360.
  • Therefore, the scale of the aerial photograph is 1 ∶ 360.

Additional Information

  • Scale Interpretation
  • Scale 1 ∶ 360 means that 1 unit of measurement on the photograph is equivalent to 360 of the same units on the ground.
  • This helps in estimating real-world distances and areas from the photograph.
  • Other Options
  • 1 ∶ 3600: This would imply a much smaller representation of the ground distance on the photograph, which is incorrect in this context.
  • 1 ∶ 120: This scale would indicate a larger representation than what is calculated.
  • 1 ∶ 1200: This scale would also indicate a larger representation than what is calculated.

Question 21

_______ was the 2nd highest visited monument by domestic visitors during 2022-23.

  1. AOption (a)

    Red Fort, Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Sun Temple, Konark

  3. COption (c)

    Qutub Minar, Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Taj Mahal, Agra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sun Temple, Konark

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Sun Temple, Konark

Key Points

  • Sun Temple, Konark
  • The Sun Temple, also known as the Konark Sun Temple, is a 13th-century CE temple located in Konark, Odisha, India.
  • The temple is dedicated to the Hindu Sun God Surya and is designed in the shape of a gigantic chariot with intricately carved stone wheels, pillars, and walls.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is renowned for its architectural brilliance and intricate sculptures.
  • During 2022-23, it was the 2nd highest visited monument by domestic visitors in India, attracting a significant number of tourists.

Additional Information

  • Red Fort, Delhi
  • The Red Fort is a historic fort in the city of Delhi in India.
  • It served as the main residence of the Mughal Emperors for nearly 200 years.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a significant tourist attraction.
  • Qutub Minar, Delhi
  • Qutub Minar is a minaret and "victory tower" that forms part of the Qutub complex in Delhi, India.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is one of the tallest minarets in the world.
  • It is an important tourist destination in Delhi.
  • Taj Mahal, Agra
  • The Taj Mahal is an ivory-white marble mausoleum on the south bank of the Yamuna river in the Indian city of Agra.
  • It was commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan to house the tomb of his favorite wife, Mumtaz Mahal.
  • The Taj Mahal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the most iconic structures in the world.
  • It is the highest visited monument by domestic and international tourists in India.

Question 22

Which of the following statements about energy resources are NOT correct?

A. Natural gas occurs only with oil in oil fields.

B. In an oil well, density of oil is found higher than rocks containing oil.

C. Bituminous is the most widely occurring grade as coal.

D. Russia has the largest gas reserves in the world.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and B only'.

Key Points

  • Natural gas occurs only with oil in oil fields.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Natural gas can occur independently in gas fields or associated with oil in oil fields. It is often found in various geological formations without the presence of oil.
  • Hence, Statement A is incorrect.
  • In an oil well, the density of oil is found higher than rocks containing oil.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The density of oil is generally lower than that of the surrounding rocks, which allows it to migrate through porous rock layers to accumulate in reservoirs.
  • Hence, Statement B is incorrect.
  • Bituminous is the most widely occurring grade as coal.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Bituminous coal is indeed the most abundant and widely occurring grade of coal, commonly used for electricity generation and industrial processes.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • Russia has the largest gas reserves in the world.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Russia holds the largest reserves of natural gas globally, making it a major player in the international energy market.
  • Hence, Statement D is correct.

Additional Information

  • Types and Occurrence of Energy Resources:
  • Natural Gas Formation: While it can be associated with oil, natural gas also forms independently in various geological settings, including shale and coal deposits.
  • Coal Grades: Coal is classified by carbon content, with bituminous being most common, followed by anthracite, sub-bituminous, and lignite.
  • Global Reserves: Russia leads in natural gas reserves, while other countries like Iran and Qatar also have significant reserves.

Question 23

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Scholar)(Achievement)
A.Ferdinand MagellanI.Showed both America's as separate continents on world map
B.Captain CookII.Proved the idea of heliocentric Universe
C.GalileoIII.Located the terra-incognita of Ptolemy.
D.WaldseemullerIV.First to circumnavigate the world.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  3. COption (c)

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  4. DOption (d)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Key Points

  • Ferdinand Magellan
  • He was the first to circumnavigate the world.
  • This expedition proved that the Earth is round and that it is possible to sail around it.
  • Magellan's voyage provided significant insights into the geography of the planet.
  • Captain Cook
  • He located the terra incognita of Ptolemy.
  • Captain Cook's voyages contributed extensively to the mapping of the Pacific, Australia, and New Zealand.
  • His expeditions helped disprove many myths and inaccuracies in earlier maps.
  • Galileo
  • He proved the idea of a heliocentric universe.
  • Galileo's observations and support for Copernican theory marked a significant shift from the geocentric models of the universe.
  • He made key astronomical discoveries using his improved telescope.
  • Waldseemuller
  • He showed both Americas as separate continents on the world map.
  • His map, published in 1507, was one of the first to depict the New World as separate from Asia.
  • Waldseemuller's map also used the name "America" for the first time.

Additional Information

  • Ferdinand Magellan
  • Born in Portugal, Magellan served Spain in his quest to find a westward route to the Spice Islands.
  • He faced numerous challenges, including navigating the treacherous strait that now bears his name, the Strait of Magellan.
  • Captain Cook
  • James Cook was a British explorer, navigator, and cartographer.
  • He made three voyages to the Pacific Ocean, during which he mapped many areas and recorded several islands and coastlines on European maps for the first time.
  • Galileo Galilei
  • Galileo's improvements to the telescope allowed him to make groundbreaking observations, such as the phases of Venus and the moons of Jupiter.
  • He faced significant opposition from the Catholic Church for his support of the heliocentric theory.
  • Martin Waldseemuller
  • Waldseemuller was a German cartographer who, along with Matthias Ringmann, produced a world map that included the name "America" in honor of Amerigo Vespucci.
  • His work played a crucial role in the spread of knowledge about the New World in Europe.

Question 24

The steeper slopes and faster movements provide the explanation for more intense weather phenomena associated with _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    warm front

  2. BOption (b)

    cold front

  3. COption (c)

    doldrums

  4. DOption (d)

    shrieking sixties

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cold front

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Cold front

Key Points

  • Cold front
  • A cold front occurs when a cold air mass moves into a region occupied by a warmer air mass.
  • The steeper slopes and faster movements of cold fronts result in the rapid lifting of warm air, leading to the formation of cumulonimbus clouds.
  • This can cause intense weather phenomena such as heavy rain, thunderstorms, and even tornadoes.
  • Cold fronts typically move faster than warm fronts, leading to quicker and more dramatic changes in weather conditions.

Additional Information

  • Warm front
  • A warm front occurs when a warm air mass moves into a region occupied by a cooler air mass.
  • Warm fronts generally move more slowly and have gentler slopes, resulting in gradual weather changes.
  • They are often associated with widespread clouds and light to moderate precipitation.
  • Doldrums
  • The doldrums refer to a low-pressure area around the equator where the prevailing winds are calm.
  • This region is characterized by light winds and frequent thunderstorms but is not associated with steep slopes or fast movements.
  • Shrieking sixties
  • The "shrieking sixties" refer to strong westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere between the latitudes of 60 and 70 degrees south.
  • These winds are known for their intensity and are not directly related to frontal systems.

Question 25

_______ presented evidence in support of continental drift in his book 'Our Wandering Continents.'

  1. AOption (a)

    Wegener

  2. BOption (b)

    Harry Hess

  3. COption (c)

    Alexander du Toit

  4. DOption (d)

    F. Vine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alexander du Toit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Alexander du Toit

Key Points

  • Alexander du Toit
  • He was a South African geologist who provided significant evidence supporting the theory of continental drift.
  • In his book "Our Wandering Continents," he presented geological and paleontological data to support Alfred Wegener's hypothesis.
  • Du Toit's work included detailed comparisons of the geology of South America and Africa, highlighting the similarities that suggested these continents were once joined.
  • His evidence included matching geological formations and fossil records on both sides of the Atlantic Ocean.

Additional Information

  • Alfred Wegener
  • He was a German meteorologist and geophysicist who first proposed the theory of continental drift in 1912.
  • Wegener suggested that all continents were once part of a single supercontinent called Pangaea.
  • His theory was initially controversial and not widely accepted during his lifetime.
  • Harry Hess
  • He was an American geologist who contributed to the theory of plate tectonics.
  • Hess proposed the theory of seafloor spreading, which provided a mechanism for continental drift.
  • His work laid the foundation for the modern understanding of plate tectonics.
  • F. Vine
  • Frederick Vine was a British geologist who, along with Drummond Matthews, confirmed the seafloor spreading hypothesis.
  • Vine and Matthews discovered magnetic anomalies on the ocean floor, which provided evidence for the periodic reversal of Earth's magnetic field.
  • Their work further supported the theory of plate tectonics.

Question 26

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Deep/Trench)(Ocean)
A.Puerto Rico TrenchI.Arctic
B.Java-Sunda TrenchII.Pacific
C.Challenger deepIII.Indian
D.Molloy deepIV.Atlantic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  2. BOption (b)

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  3. COption (c)

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

  4. DOption (d)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Key Points

  • Puerto Rico Trench - Atlantic Ocean
  • The Puerto Rico Trench is the deepest part of the Atlantic Ocean and is located to the north of Puerto Rico and the Dominican Republic.
  • It reaches depths of about 8,376 meters (27,480 feet).
  • Java-Sunda Trench - Indian Ocean
  • The Java Trench, also known as the Sunda Trench, is located in the Indian Ocean near the islands of Sumatra and Java in Indonesia.
  • It is one of the deepest parts of the Indian Ocean, with depths exceeding 7,725 meters (25,344 feet).
  • Challenger Deep - Pacific Ocean
  • The Challenger Deep is the deepest known point in the Earth's seabed hydrosphere, located in the Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean.
  • Its depth is approximately 10,994 meters (36,070 feet).
  • Molloy Deep - Arctic Ocean
  • The Molloy Deep is the deepest point in the Arctic Ocean, located in the Fram Strait between Greenland and Svalbard.
  • It reaches a depth of about 5,550 meters (18,210 feet).

Additional Information

  • Deep-Sea Trenches
  • Deep-sea trenches are long, narrow depressions on the ocean floor. They are the deepest parts of the world's oceans and are created by tectonic activity.
  • They are typically formed by the process of subduction, where one tectonic plate is forced under another.
  • Tectonic Plates
  • The Earth's lithosphere is divided into several large and small pieces known as tectonic plates.
  • These plates move and interact at their boundaries, leading to geological phenomena such as earthquakes, volcanic activity, and the formation of mountains and ocean trenches.

Question 27

The origin and mechanism of South-West Monsoon is NOT associated with _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    differential rates of heating and cooling of land and sea.

  2. BOption (b)

    upper air circulations

  3. COption (c)

    western disturbances

  4. DOption (d)

    ENSO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

western disturbances

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - western disturbances

Key Points

  • Western disturbances
  • Western disturbances are weather phenomena characterized by the movement of moist air from the Mediterranean region towards the Indian subcontinent.
  • They primarily affect the weather in the northern parts of India, especially during the winter months, bringing rainfall and sometimes even snowfall.
  • These disturbances are not associated with the South-West Monsoon, which is a summer phenomenon influenced by different climatic factors.

Additional Information

  • Differential rates of heating and cooling of land and sea
  • The differential heating and cooling of land and sea create pressure differences, which are crucial for the onset of the South-West Monsoon.
  • This phenomenon causes the land to heat up faster than the sea, resulting in low pressure over the land and high pressure over the sea, driving the monsoon winds towards the Indian subcontinent.
  • Upper air circulations
  • Upper air circulations, including the subtropical jet stream, play a significant role in influencing the strength and direction of the South-West Monsoon winds.
  • These circulations help guide the monsoon winds into the Indian subcontinent.
  • ENSO (El Niño-Southern Oscillation)
  • ENSO is a climatic phenomenon in the Pacific Ocean that can impact global weather patterns, including the South-West Monsoon.
  • El Niño, a warm phase of ENSO, usually weakens the monsoon, while La Niña, a cool phase, often strengthens it.

Question 28

_______ was NOT associated with behavioural movement in Geography,.

  1. AOption (a)

    Harvey

  2. BOption (b)

    Gould

  3. COption (c)

    Wolpert

  4. DOption (d)

    Pred

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harvey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Harvey

Key Points

  • Harvey
  • David Harvey is a prominent human geographer known for his work on Marxist geography and critical theory.
  • He is not associated with the behavioural movement, which focuses on human behavior in geographic contexts using quantitative methods and models.
  • Harvey's work primarily critiques capitalist systems and emphasizes socio-economic structures over individual behaviors.

Additional Information

  • Gould
  • Peter Gould was a significant figure in the behavioural movement in geography.
  • He emphasized the importance of perception and cognition in understanding geographic phenomena.
  • His work contributed to the development of behavioral geography, focusing on human decision-making processes.
  • Wolpert
  • Julian Wolpert was another key contributor to the behavioural movement in geography.
  • He focused on human spatial behavior, particularly in the context of decision-making and resource allocation.
  • Wolpert's research often utilized quantitative methods to analyze human behavior in geographic contexts.
  • Pred
  • Allan Pred was also associated with the behavioural movement in geography.
  • His work explored the intersections of human behavior, place, and spatial processes.
  • Pred's contributions helped shape the understanding of how human actions influence and are influenced by geographic spaces.

Question 29

The term Edge city was coined by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Garrison

  2. BOption (b)

    Garreau

  3. COption (c)

    Feagani and Parker

  4. DOption (d)

    Lang

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Garreau

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Garreau

Key Points

  • Garreau
  • Joel Garreau coined the term "Edge City" in his 1991 book "Edge City: Life on the New Frontier."
  • An Edge City is a term for a concentration of business, shopping, and entertainment outside a traditional downtown or central business district, in what had previously been a suburban residential or rural area.
  • Garreau identified Edge Cities as emerging centers of commerce that formed due to urban sprawl and changing dynamics in urban planning and development.
  • The book and the concept were significant in understanding the evolution of urban development in the late 20th century.

Additional Information

  • Garrison
  • No significant contributions related to the term "Edge City."
  • Feagani and Parker
  • There are no notable records of Feagani and Parker being involved in urban development literature or coining terms related to urban planning.
  • Lang
  • Lang might refer to Robert E. Lang, an urban theorist and professor, who has written extensively on suburban development and urbanization.
  • Although Lang has contributed to the understanding of urban and suburban growth, he did not coin the term "Edge City."

Question 30

_______ model is based on the basic assumption of urban ecology.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gravity

  2. BOption (b)

    Concentric zone

  3. COption (c)

    Multiple-nuclei

  4. DOption (d)

    The City and the Grassroots

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Concentric zone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Concentric zone model

Key Points

  • Concentric zone model
  • This model was proposed by sociologist Ernest Burgess in 1925.
  • It is based on the basic assumption of urban ecology, which studies the relationship between urban environments and the social behaviors of people living in them.
  • The model suggests that cities grow in a series of concentric rings emanating from the central business district (CBD).
  • Each ring represents different land uses and socio-economic groups, with the wealthiest typically living in the outermost rings and the poorest in the innermost rings.

Additional Information

  • Gravity model
  • The Gravity model is used in geography to predict the interaction between two places.
  • It is based on the assumption that the interaction between two places is directly proportional to their size and inversely proportional to the distance between them.
  • Multiple-nuclei model
  • This model was proposed by Chauncy Harris and Edward Ullman in 1945.
  • It suggests that cities have multiple centers (or "nuclei") that serve as focal points for different types of activities, rather than a single CBD.
  • The City and the Grassroots
  • This phrase is associated with urban political movements and grassroots activism.
  • It is not a model of urban growth but refers to efforts to promote social change from the bottom up.

Question 31

Arrange the following Indian scholars in correct chronological order of their birth.

A. Bhaskaracharya

B. Varahamihira

C. Aryabhata

D. Brahmagupta

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    C, B, D, A

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D, A

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C, D

  4. DOption (d)

    D, A, B, C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C, B, D, A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C, B, D, A

Key Points

  • Aryabhata (C)
  • Aryabhata was born in 476 CE.
  • He was a pioneering mathematician and astronomer from the classical age of Indian mathematics and astronomy.
  • His famous work, the "Aryabhatiya," covers arithmetic, algebra, plane trigonometry, and spherical trigonometry.
  • Varahamihira (B)
  • Varahamihira was born in 505 CE.
  • He was an astronomer, mathematician, and astrologer who lived in Ujjain.
  • His notable works include the "Pancha-Siddhantika," a summary of five earlier astronomical treatises, and the "Brihat Samhita," an encyclopedic work on astronomy and astrology.
  • Brahmagupta (D)
  • Brahmagupta was born in 598 CE.
  • He was an Indian mathematician and astronomer who wrote the "Brahmasphutasiddhanta."
  • This work includes rules for arithmetic operations with zero and negative numbers.
  • Bhaskaracharya (A)
  • Bhaskaracharya, also known as Bhaskara II, was born in 1114 CE.
  • He was an Indian mathematician and astronomer who wrote the "Siddhanta Shiromani" and "Lilavati."
  • His works cover arithmetic, algebra, mathematics of the planets, and spheres.

Additional Information

  • Brahmagupta
  • He introduced the concept of zero as a number and developed rules for arithmetic operations with zero.
  • Brahmagupta made significant contributions to algebra and geometry.
  • Bhaskaracharya
  • He is known for his work on calculus, which includes the differential coefficient and the derivative.
  • Bhaskaracharya's "Lilavati" is a widely studied text in Indian mathematics, dealing with arithmetic and geometry.

Question 32

Identify correct statements about relief features of the oceans.

A. Telegraph plateau and Albatross plateau are located in North Atlantic and South Atlantic, respectively.

B. The Walvis Ridge separates Angola basin from Agulhas basin.

C. Carlsberg Ridge is located in Indian Ocean.

D. Amsterdam - St. Paul plateau is located in the South Pacific Ocean.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'B and C only'.

Key Points

  • The Walvis Ridge separates Angola basin from Agulhas basin.
  • This statement is correct.
  • The Walvis Ridge is a submarine feature in the South Atlantic Ocean that forms a natural boundary between the Angola Basin to the north and the Agulhas Basin to the south.
  • Hence, Statement B is correct.
  • Carlsberg Ridge is located in the Indian Ocean.
  • This statement is correct.
  • The Carlsberg Ridge is a prominent mid-oceanic ridge located in the northwestern Indian Ocean, playing a role in the separation of tectonic plates in the region.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • Telegraph plateau and Albatross plateau are located in North Atlantic and South Atlantic, respectively.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • While the Telegraph Plateau is indeed in the North Atlantic, the Albatross Plateau is not a recognized plateau in the South Atlantic. This statement is therefore inaccurate.
  • Hence, Statement A is incorrect.
  • Amsterdam - St. Paul plateau is located in the South Pacific Ocean.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The Amsterdam - St. Paul plateau is actually located in the southern Indian Ocean, not the South Pacific Ocean.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Relief Features of the Ocean:
  • Walvis Ridge: Extends southwestward from the African continental margin, playing a significant role in Atlantic Oceanic division.
  • Carlsberg Ridge: A tectonic feature associated with sea-floor spreading and located in the Indian Ocean.
  • Ocean Plateaus: Found in various oceans, these underwater plateaus vary in location and geological composition, contributing to complex marine topography.

Question 33

Among the following the percentage share of _______ commodity group was highest in major imports of India during 2021-22.

  1. AOption (a)

    Electronic Goods

  2. BOption (b)

    Edible Oil

  3. COption (c)

    Chemicals

  4. DOption (d)

    Transport equipments

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Electronic Goods

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Electronic Goods

Key Points

  • Electronic Goods
  • Electronic goods include a wide range of products such as consumer electronics, telecommunications equipment, and computer hardware.
  • The demand for electronic goods in India has been rapidly increasing due to the growing consumer market and technological advancements.
  • During the financial year 2021-22, electronic goods constituted the highest percentage share in India's major imports.
  • The increase in imports of electronic goods can be attributed to the rising penetration of smartphones, laptops, and other digital devices.

Additional Information

  • Edible Oil
  • India is one of the largest importers of edible oil in the world.
  • Edible oils such as palm oil, soybean oil, and sunflower oil are major imports due to insufficient domestic production to meet the demand.
  • Although significant, edible oil did not surpass electronic goods in import percentage share during 2021-22.
  • Chemicals
  • India imports various chemicals, including industrial chemicals, specialty chemicals, and pharmaceuticals.
  • The chemical industry is crucial for various sectors such as agriculture, manufacturing, and pharmaceuticals.
  • However, the percentage share of chemicals in total imports was lower compared to electronic goods in 2021-22.
  • Transport Equipments
  • Transport equipment includes vehicles, parts, and machinery used in transportation.
  • This category covers imports of automobiles, aircraft, ships, and railway equipment.
  • While important, the percentage share of transport equipment in India's imports was not the highest in 2021-22.

Question 34

The next Hawaiian island that will come into being - already named Loihi - is building on the ocean floor at the _______ end of the chain.

  1. AOption (a)

    north western

  2. BOption (b)

    western

  3. COption (c)

    south eastern

  4. DOption (d)

    north eastern

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

south eastern

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - south eastern

Key Points

  • Loihi
  • Loihi is an underwater volcano located in the Pacific Ocean, specifically in the Hawaiian archipelago.
  • It is situated at the south eastern end of the Hawaiian island chain.
  • Loihi is considered the next Hawaiian island in formation, building up from the ocean floor.
  • This geological activity is due to the movement of the Pacific Plate over the Hawaiian hotspot.

Additional Information

  • North Western
  • Hawaiian islands generally move northwest as the Pacific Plate shifts over time.
  • The islands at the north western end are older and have moved away from the hotspot.
  • Western
  • The western direction is not specific enough to describe the precise location of Loihi.
  • It is more accurate to refer to the specific south eastern direction for its location.
  • North Eastern
  • North eastern would imply a direction towards the older islands, not towards the area of new volcanic activity.
  • Loihi is located at the southeastern end, where new islands are forming.

Question 35

In the graphic illustration of the geographical cycle of Davis the gap between two curves (upper and lower) represents _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    absolute height of water-divides

  2. BOption (b)

    relative relief

  3. COption (c)

    altitudes of valley bottoms

  4. DOption (d)

    base level of erosion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

relative relief

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - relative relief

Key Points

  • Relative relief
  • In the geographical cycle of Davis, relative relief refers to the difference in elevation between the highest and lowest points in a specific area.
  • The gap between the upper and lower curves in Davis's model represents this relative relief, showcasing the terrain's variability over time.
  • This concept is crucial in understanding the stages of landscape evolution, from youthful to mature and then to old age.

Additional Information

  • Absolute height of water-divides
  • This refers to the elevation of the highest points dividing two drainage basins, but it does not indicate the gap between the curves in Davis's model.
  • Altitudes of valley bottoms
  • These are the lowest points in a valley, but they don't represent the difference between the upper and lower curves in the geographical cycle.
  • Base level of erosion
  • The base level is the lowest point to which a river can erode its bed, commonly sea level. It is not depicted as the gap between the curves in the model.

Question 36

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Language)(Linguistic Family)
A.BhiliI.Indo-Aryan
B.GondiII.Austro-Asiatic
C.KhasiIII.Tibeto-Burmese
D.LahauliIV.Dravidian

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

  2. BOption (b)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  3. COption (c)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  4. DOption (d)

    A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Key Points

  • A. Bhili – I. Indo-Aryan
  • Bhili is an Indo-Aryan language spoken in western India.
  • It is primarily spoken in the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra.
  • As an Indo-Aryan language, Bhili shares its linguistic roots with other languages like Hindi, Marathi, and Gujarati.
  • B. Gondi – IV. Dravidian
  • Gondi is a Dravidian language spoken by the Gondi people in central India.
  • It is prevalent in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana.
  • Being a Dravidian language, Gondi is related to other Dravidian languages like Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
  • C. Khasi – II. Austro-Asiatic
  • Khasi is an Austro-Asiatic language spoken primarily in the northeastern state of Meghalaya in India.
  • It is one of the few Austro-Asiatic languages spoken in India, with others being languages like Santali and Mundari.
  • The Khasi language has its own unique script and is an integral part of the cultural heritage of the Khasi people.
  • D. Lahauli – III. Tibeto-Burmese
  • Lahauli is a Tibeto-Burmese language spoken in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh, India.
  • It belongs to the Tibeto-Burmese family, which includes languages like Tibetan, Burmese, and various languages spoken in northeastern India.
  • The Lahauli language is part of the cultural identity of the people living in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas.

Additional Information

  • Indo-Aryan Languages
  • Indo-Aryan languages are a major branch of the Indo-Iranian languages, which belong to the Indo-European language family.
  • These languages are spoken primarily in the Indian subcontinent and include Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, and Punjabi.
  • Dravidian Languages
  • The Dravidian language family is primarily spoken in southern India and parts of eastern and central India.
  • Major Dravidian languages include Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
  • Austro-Asiatic Languages
  • The Austro-Asiatic language family is scattered across Southeast Asia and India.
  • Languages like Vietnamese, Khmer (Cambodian), and Santali belong to this family.
  • Tibeto-Burmese Languages
  • The Tibeto-Burmese language family is part of the larger Sino-Tibetan language family.
  • These languages are spoken in the Himalayan region, Northeast India, and parts of Southeast Asia.

Question 37

As the tsunami crest approaches shore _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    the period of the wave reduces, its velocity increases and its height increases gradually.

  2. BOption (b)

    its velocity drops but its period and height remain constant.

  3. COption (c)

    the period of the wave remains constant, its velocity drops and the wave height greatly increases.

  4. DOption (d)

    its height increases greatly as its period and velocity increases.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the period of the wave remains constant, its velocity drops and the wave height greatly increases.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - the period of the wave remains constant, its velocity drops and the wave height greatly increases.

Key Points

  • Tsunami Wave Dynamics
  • As a tsunami wave approaches the shore, its behavior changes due to the decreasing depth of the ocean.
  • The period of the wave remains constant because it is determined by the initial displacement and energy of the underwater earthquake or other disturbance that generated the tsunami.
  • The wave's velocity drops as it moves into shallower water because the speed of a wave is dependent on the water depth.
  • As the velocity decreases, the wave height increases dramatically due to the conservation of energy. This increase in height is a result of the wave's energy being compressed into a smaller volume of water.

Additional Information

  • Wave Period
  • The wave period is the time it takes for two successive wave crests (or troughs) to pass a fixed point.
  • In the context of tsunamis, the period remains constant because it is determined by the initial energy release event such as an undersea earthquake.
  • Wave Velocity
  • The speed of a tsunami wave is related to the depth of the water it travels through. In deep water, tsunamis can travel at speeds of up to 500-800 km/h.
  • As the wave reaches shallower waters near the shore, its speed decreases due to the decreasing depth.
  • Wave Height
  • The height of a tsunami wave increases significantly as it approaches the shore and the water depth decreases. This phenomenon is due to the wave energy being compressed into a smaller volume of water.
  • In deep water, a tsunami might only be a few feet high and go unnoticed by ships. However, as it reaches the shore, the wave height can increase dramatically, leading to potentially devastating impacts.

Question 38

The statement "All history must be treated geographically and all geography must be treated historically" was given by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Varenius

  2. BOption (b)

    Ritter

  3. COption (c)

    Herodotus

  4. DOption (d)

    Humboldt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Herodotus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Herodotus

Key Points

  • Herodotus
  • Known as the "Father of History," Herodotus was an ancient Greek historian who lived in the 5th century BCE.
  • He is famous for his work "Histories," which is a record of his inquiry into the origins of the Greco-Persian Wars and other historical events.
  • Herodotus emphasized the importance of geographical context in understanding historical events, leading to his statement that "All history must be treated geographically and all geography must be treated historically."

Additional Information

  • Varenius
  • Bernhardus Varenius was a German geographer in the 17th century who made significant contributions to the field of geography.
  • His work "Geographia Generalis" laid the foundation for modern geography.
  • However, he is not associated with the statement in question.
  • Ritter
  • Carl Ritter was a German geographer and one of the founders of modern geography.
  • He emphasized the interconnectedness of geography and history but did not coin the specific statement in question.
  • Humboldt
  • Alexander von Humboldt was a Prussian polymath, geographer, naturalist, and explorer.
  • He is known for his extensive travels and studies in the Americas and his work "Kosmos."
  • While he contributed significantly to geography and the understanding of human-environment interactions, he did not make the statement in question.

Question 39

Arrange the following trenches of the Pacific Ocean in North to South direction.

A. Tonga

B. Kuril

C. Kermadec

D. Bonin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B, D, C, A

  2. BOption (b)

    B, D, A, C

  3. COption (c)

    C, B, A, D

  4. DOption (d)

    C, B, D, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B, D, A, C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B, D, A, C

Key Points

  • Kuril Trench
  • The Kuril Trench is located off the coast of the Kuril Islands in the northwest Pacific Ocean.
  • It is positioned north of the Bonin Trench and is the northernmost among the given trenches.
  • Bonin Trench
  • The Bonin Trench is situated to the south of the Kuril Trench and north of the Tonga and Kermadec Trenches.
  • It lies off the coast of the Bonin Islands, which are also known as the Ogasawara Islands.
  • Tonga Trench
  • The Tonga Trench is located in the southwest Pacific Ocean, to the north of the Kermadec Trench.
  • It is one of the deepest parts of the ocean and is positioned between the Bonin and Kermadec Trenches.
  • Kermadec Trench
  • The Kermadec Trench lies to the south of the Tonga Trench in the southwest Pacific Ocean.
  • It extends from the northeast of New Zealand to the northernmost islands of Tonga.

Additional Information

  • Geographical Importance
  • The Pacific Ocean is home to several significant trenches, many of which are formed due to the subduction of tectonic plates.
  • Trenches are the deepest parts of the ocean and are critical for studying plate tectonics and oceanography.
  • Subduction Zones
  • Subduction zones are areas where one tectonic plate is being forced under another, leading to the formation of deep ocean trenches.
  • These zones are often associated with volcanic activity and earthquakes.

Question 40

Land reforms did NOT address the issue of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    the presence of intermediaries

  2. BOption (b)

    uneven distribution of land

  3. COption (c)

    upgradation and updating of land records

  4. DOption (d)

    dependence of Indian agriculture on monsoon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

dependence of Indian agriculture on monsoon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - dependence of Indian agriculture on monsoon

Key Points

  • Land reforms and Indian agriculture
  • Land reforms in India primarily aimed to redistribute land, eliminate intermediaries, and update land records.
  • The issue of dependence on monsoon was not directly addressed by land reforms.
  • Indian agriculture is heavily dependent on monsoons due to the reliance on rainfall for irrigation.
  • Monsoon dependence leads to variability in crop yields and affects the agricultural output significantly.
  • Efforts to reduce this dependence include the development of irrigation infrastructure, but these were not part of the land reforms.

Additional Information

  • Presence of intermediaries
  • Land reforms aimed to abolish the zamindari system and eliminate intermediaries between the tillers of the soil and the state.
  • The abolition of intermediaries was intended to ensure direct ownership and control of land by the actual cultivators.
  • Uneven distribution of land
  • Land reforms sought to redistribute land to ensure a more equitable distribution among the rural population.
  • Ceilings on land holdings were introduced to prevent the concentration of land in the hands of a few individuals or families.
  • Upgradation and updating of land records
  • Accurate and updated land records were essential for implementing land reforms effectively.
  • Land reforms included measures to modernize and maintain land records to reflect actual ownership and land use.

Question 41

Identify the correct statements about techniques used in mapping the Terra.

A. Clinographic curve illustrates the average gradient between successive contours and shows up prominently any abrupt change in the general relief depicted on a map.

B. The relation between horizontal and vertical scales is known as horizontal exaggeration.

C. A profile drawn along the stretch of road, or a river, is called longitudinal profile.

D. A cross profile gives a panoramic view with a distant sky-line, a middle ground and a fore- ground.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and C only'.

Key Points

  • Clinographic curve illustrates the average gradient between successive contours and shows up prominently any abrupt change in the general relief depicted on a map.
  • This statement is correct.
  • A clinographic curve is a graphical representation that helps in identifying variations in slope and any abrupt changes in terrain based on contour intervals, assisting in visualizing relief features on a map.
  • Hence, Statement A is correct.
  • The relation between horizontal and vertical scales is known as horizontal exaggeration.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The term "horizontal exaggeration" refers to the ratio of vertical scale to horizontal scale, not the relationship itself. It highlights the degree to which vertical scale is enlarged compared to horizontal scale in profile diagrams.
  • Hence, Statement B is incorrect.
  • A profile drawn along the stretch of a road or a river is called a longitudinal profile.
  • This statement is correct.
  • A longitudinal profile is a representation of elevation changes along a specific linear feature, such as a road or river, showing the slope and gradient over its course.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • A cross profile gives a panoramic view with a distant sky-line, a middle ground, and a foreground.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • A cross profile simply shows the elevation changes perpendicular to a specific line (such as across a valley or ridge) rather than creating a panoramic view, which includes artistic elements like sky-line and perspective.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Mapping Techniques for Relief and Terrain:
  • Clinographic Curves: Useful in representing terrain gradients and any sudden changes in relief, often used in topographical mapping.
  • Horizontal Exaggeration: Refers to the ratio of vertical to horizontal scales, typically applied in vertical profiles to emphasize elevation differences.
  • Longitudinal and Cross Profiles: Longitudinal profiles depict linear features’ slope, while cross profiles offer a perpendicular view of terrain elevation across a specific feature.

Question 42

The units locally called panna, para, palli, nagla and dhani, are associated with which of the following rural settlement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Clustered settlement

  2. BOption (b)

    Agglomerated settlement

  3. COption (c)

    Hamleted settlement

  4. DOption (d)

    Fragmented settlement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hamleted settlement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Hamleted settlement

Key Points

  • Hamleted settlement
  • The units locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, and dhani are associated with hamleted settlements.
  • In a hamleted settlement, the main village is fragmented into several small hamlets scattered over a region.
  • Each hamlet is called by a different name such as panna, para, palli, nagla, or dhani.
  • This type of settlement is common in regions where agricultural land is dispersed or the terrain is uneven.

Additional Information

  • Clustered settlement
  • Clustered settlements are characterized by homes and buildings being grouped closely together.These settlements often occur in areas with fertile land where people can live close to their agricultural fields.
  • They are common in river valleys and fertile plains.
  • Agglomerated settlement
  • Agglomerated settlements are a form of urban settlement where buildings and houses are densely packed.
  • These are usually found in regions with significant economic activities, such as towns and cities.
  • Fragmented settlement
  • Fragmented settlements are those where the habitation is spread out over a large area, often due to geographical barriers.
  • This form of settlement is common in hilly or forested regions.

Question 43

Which type of ecosystem has the highest mean net primary productivity (dry gram/m2/year).

  1. AOption (a)

    Lake and stream

  2. BOption (b)

    Boreal Forest

  3. COption (c)

    Tropical savanna

  4. DOption (d)

    Agricultural land

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Boreal Forest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Boreal Forest

Key Points

  • Boreal Forest
  • Boreal forests, also known as taiga, are found in the northern regions of North America, Europe, and Asia.
  • They have a high mean net primary productivity (NPP) due to the dense canopy of coniferous trees which includes species like pine, spruce, and fir.
  • These forests are characterized by long winters and short, wet summers, which support a high rate of photosynthesis during the growing season.
  • Despite the cold climate, the high density of trees contributes significantly to the overall productivity of the ecosystem.

Additional Information

  • Lake and Stream
  • Lakes and streams have relatively lower net primary productivity compared to terrestrial ecosystems.
  • Primary productivity in these ecosystems is mostly driven by algae and aquatic plants, which contribute less biomass than forest ecosystems.
  • Tropical Savanna
  • Tropical savannas have a moderate level of net primary productivity.
  • These ecosystems are characterized by grasslands with scattered trees and are adapted to seasonal rainfall patterns.
  • While they are productive, their NPP is generally lower than that of boreal forests.
  • Agricultural Land
  • Agricultural lands vary in productivity depending on crop type, soil fertility, and management practices.
  • Although they can be highly productive, the mean NPP is often less than that of natural forests due to periodic harvesting and land use changes.

Question 44

Identify the WRONG statements about World Trade Organization (WTO).

A. It was formed to liberalise the world trade from high custom tariffs.

B. It is the only organisation at international level that deals with global rules of trade between nations.

C. India is one of its founder members.

D. It is narrowing the gulf between rich and poor countries.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B only

  3. COption (c)

    C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and D only'.

Key Points

  • It was formed to liberalise the world trade from high custom tariffs.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • While the WTO aims to promote free trade, its purpose extends beyond merely reducing tariffs. It oversees and regulates broader aspects of international trade, including trade agreements, dispute resolutions, and ensuring trade flows as smoothly as possible.
  • Hence, Statement A is incorrect.
  • It is the only organisation at the international level that deals with global rules of trade between nations.
  • This statement is correct.
  • The WTO is indeed the only international organization responsible for establishing and enforcing global trade rules, making it unique in its role of overseeing international trade regulations among member countries.
  • Hence, Statement B is correct.
  • India is one of its founder members.
  • This statement is correct.
  • India is a founding member of the WTO, which was established on January 1, 1995, succeeding the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • It is narrowing the gulf between rich and poor countries.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The WTO has faced criticism for not adequately addressing the economic disparities between rich and poor nations. Many argue that its policies often favor developed countries, potentially widening, rather than narrowing, economic inequalities.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Role and Impact of the WTO:
  • Global Trade Regulation: The WTO administers trade agreements, resolves disputes, and monitors trade policies to promote fair competition among nations.
  • Developing vs. Developed Nations: The organization has been criticized for policies perceived as favoring wealthier nations, with developing countries often facing challenges in benefiting equally from global trade.
  • Tariff Reduction and Beyond: While reducing tariffs is part of its mandate, the WTO also addresses non-tariff barriers, intellectual property, and service trade, aiming for comprehensive trade facilitation.

Question 45

Identify correct statements with reference to transportation in India.

A. The share of road transportation is more than the share of rail transport in passenger traffic.

B. Development of economic corridors and multi-modal logistic parks are key components of the Bharatmala Project.

C. Under the Sagarmala project, a new mega port will be developed at Belikeri on Tamil Nadu coast.

D. The National Waterway number 5 is currently being developed in Goa to transport iron ore to Marmagao port

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A and B only

Key Points

  • A. The share of road transportation is more than the share of rail transport in passenger traffic.
  • Road transport is the predominant mode of passenger transportation in India.
  • It offers door-to-door service, which is more convenient for passengers.
  • According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, road transport carries more than 85% of the country's passenger traffic.
  • B. Development of economic corridors and multi-modal logistic parks are key components of the Bharatmala Project.
  • The Bharatmala Project aims to enhance road connectivity across India.
  • Economic corridors are being developed to improve the efficiency of freight movement.
  • Multi-modal logistic parks are designed to integrate different modes of transport, such as road, rail, and waterways, to optimize logistics efficiency.

Additional Information

  • Sagarmala Project
  • It aims to promote port-led development and enhance coastal shipping and inland waterways in India.
  • However, there is no plan to develop a mega port at Belikeri on the Tamil Nadu coast under this project.
  • National Waterway No. 5
  • National Waterway No. 5 is located in Odisha and West Bengal, not Goa.
  • It is being developed to facilitate the transportation of goods, including minerals, agricultural produce, and other cargoes.

Question 46

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Book)(Author)
A.Towns and CitiesI.Geddes
B.The City in HistoryII.Mumford
C.Cities in EvolutionIII.Jones
D.Geography of TownsIV.Smailes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

  3. COption (c)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  4. DOption (d)

    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Key Points

  • Towns and Cities - Jones
  • The book "Towns and Cities" was authored by Emrys Jones.
  • It focuses on urban geography and the development of towns and cities.
  • The City in History - Mumford
  • Lewis Mumford wrote "The City in History."
  • This book explores the development of cities from ancient times to the modern era.
  • Cities in Evolution - Geddes
  • "Cities in Evolution" is a seminal work by Patrick Geddes.
  • It discusses the evolution of urban planning and the need for cities to adapt to changing conditions.
  • Geography of Towns - Smailes
  • Arthur E. Smailes authored "Geography of Towns."
  • This book examines the spatial and functional aspects of towns and urban areas.

Additional Information

  • Patrick Geddes
  • He was a Scottish biologist, sociologist, geographer, and town planner.
  • Known for his innovative thinking in the field of urban planning.
  • His ideas significantly influenced modern urban planning and development.
  • Lewis Mumford
  • An American historian, sociologist, philosopher of technology, and literary critic.
  • His work covered topics from urban architecture to the impact of technology on human societies.
  • Emrys Jones
  • A British geographer known for his contributions to the study of urban geography.
  • His work provided insights into the development and structure of urban areas.
  • Arthur E. Smailes
  • A geographer known for his detailed analysis of towns and their geographical aspects.
  • His book "Geography of Towns" is a significant contribution to the field of urban geography.

Question 47

______ stage can be defined as a small market town where the traditional values are still upheld while the modern amenities have started emerging.

  1. AOption (a)

    Polis

  2. BOption (b)

    Eopolis

  3. COption (c)

    Biotechnic

  4. DOption (d)

    Tyrannopolis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Polis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Polis

Key Points

  • Polis
  • A "Polis" is a term originating from ancient Greece, often referring to a city-state or a small community.
  • It was a social structure where traditional values were upheld, and civic life was organized around communal and democratic principles.
  • Modern amenities might start emerging in a Polis, but it retains its traditional core and cultural values.
  • This term is fitting for describing a small market town balancing traditional values and modern amenities.

Additional Information

  • Eopolis
  • Eopolis refers to the earliest stage of a city's development.
  • It is characterized by the initial formation of settlements and communities, primarily driven by agricultural activities.
  • The term is derived from the Greek words "eo" meaning "dawn" and "polis" meaning "city," indicating the dawn or beginning of a city.
  • Biotechnic
  • Biotechnic relates to the integration of biological and technical processes.
  • It often focuses on the sustainable and harmonious development of human habitats in conjunction with natural systems.
  • This term is more relevant in discussions about sustainable urban development and ecological planning rather than describing a small market town.
  • Tyrannopolis
  • Tyrannopolis is a term used to describe a city or town under tyrannical rule.
  • This term is associated with oppressive governance and lack of democratic freedoms.
  • It contrasts with the idea of a community upholding traditional values and emerging modern amenities.

Question 48

Identify the statements which are NOT correct about frontiers and boundaries.

A. Boundaries are two dimensional while frontiers are three dimensional.

B. Boundaries are 'de facto' while frontiers are 'de jure'.

C. Boundaries are maintained by state and has no material existence.

D. Frontiers occupy a fixed position and their boundaries can not be altered.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B and D only

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: B and D only

Key Points

  • Boundaries are two dimensional while frontiers are three dimensional.​ – Correct:
  • Boundaries are one-dimensional lines (length only), whereas frontiers are broader zones or areas, making them three-dimensional in nature.
  • Hence, the given statement that boundaries are two-dimensional is incorrect.
  • Boundaries are 'de facto' while frontiers are 'de jure'.– Incorrect:
  • This is not correct.
  • Boundaries are formal, legal, and usually de jure (legally recognized).
  • Frontiers, on the other hand, are de facto zones—often disputed, undefined, or under contest.
  • Boundaries are maintained by state and has no material existence.– Correct:
  • Boundaries are maintained and enforced by the state.
  • They are abstract legal constructs and may not have any physical demarcation on ground.
  • Frontiers occupy a fixed position and their boundaries can not be altered. – Incorrect:
  • Frontiers are fluid and dynamic, not fixed.
  • Their positions may change due to geopolitical, military, or cultural shifts.
  • Hence, saying their boundaries cannot be altered is not correct.

Additional Information

  • Boundary:
  • A clearly defined and legally recognized line marking the limits of territorial control of a state.
  • Can be natural (rivers, mountains) or artificial (drawn through treaties or agreements).
  • Frontier:
  • A zone of transition between two areas, often loosely defined and not strictly enforced.
  • It may be subject to change over time due to expansion, conflict, or negotiation.
  • Example:
  • The India-China Line of Actual Control (LAC) is more of a frontier than a formal boundary, while the India-Bangladesh border is a boundary.

Question 49

Which of the following was NOT a characteristic of core-periphery model of development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Unequal distribution of resources and development.

  2. BOption (b)

    Periphery witnesses the growth earlier.

  3. COption (c)

    Cores have human and physical advantages.

  4. DOption (d)

    Some areas develop faster than others.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Periphery witnesses the growth earlier.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Periphery witnesses the growth earlier.

Key Points

  • Core-periphery model of development
  • This model describes how economic, political, and cultural power is distributed spatially between dominant core regions and more marginal peripheral regions.
  • The core areas are characterized by advanced infrastructure, high levels of industrialization, and better living standards.
  • The periphery, on the other hand, is less developed, with lower levels of industrialization, poorer infrastructure, and lower living standards.
  • Unequal distribution of resources and development
  • This is a key characteristic of the core-periphery model. Resources and development are concentrated in the core regions, leading to disparities between core and periphery.
  • The core areas attract more investment and skilled labor, further enhancing their development and creating a cycle of growth.
  • Cores have human and physical advantages
  • Core regions often possess significant advantages such as access to major markets, advanced technology, and a skilled workforce.
  • These advantages help core areas maintain their dominance and continue to attract investment and talent.
  • Some areas develop faster than others
  • The core-periphery model inherently involves uneven development, where certain regions (the core) develop at a much faster rate than others (the periphery).
  • This leads to economic and social disparities between different regions.

Additional Information

  • Periphery witnesses the growth earlier
  • This statement contradicts the core-periphery model. In this model, the core areas are the first to develop and grow, followed by the periphery much later, if at all.
  • The periphery typically lags behind in terms of development and often depends on the core for economic activities.
  • Historical Context
  • The core-periphery model has been used to explain patterns of economic development and underdevelopment historically, particularly during the colonial and post-colonial periods.
  • It highlights how colonial powers developed their own regions (the core) while exploiting and under-developing their colonies (the periphery).
  • Modern Applications
  • In contemporary times, the core-periphery model can be seen in the global economic system where developed countries (core) dominate the global economy while developing countries (periphery) struggle to catch up.
  • The model is also applicable within countries, where major cities and industrial regions represent the core, and rural or less-developed regions represent the periphery.

Question 50

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Hazard)(Prone Area)
A.GLOFI.Odisha
B.LandslideII.Kutch
C.Tropical CycloneIII.Sikkim
D.EarthquakeIV.Western Ghat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

  3. COption (c)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. DOption (d)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Key Points

  • GLOF (Glacial Lake Outburst Flood) - Sikkim
  • GLOFs occur due to the sudden release of water from a glacial lake due to dam failure or other triggering factors.
  • Sikkim, located in the Eastern Himalayas, is prone to GLOFs due to its numerous glacial lakes and high seismic activity.
  • Landslide - Western Ghat
  • Landslides are common in hilly and mountainous regions, especially during heavy rainfall.
  • The Western Ghats, with their steep slopes and heavy monsoon rains, are highly susceptible to landslides.
  • Tropical Cyclone - Odisha
  • Tropical cyclones are intense circular storms that originate over warm tropical oceans.
  • Odisha, located on the east coast of India, is frequently hit by tropical cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Earthquake - Kutch
  • Earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust, creating seismic waves.
  • Kutch, in Gujarat, is seismically active and experienced a devastating earthquake in 2001.

Additional Information

  • GLOF
  • GLOF events are increasingly becoming a concern due to climate change, which is accelerating glacial melt.
  • Regions in the Himalayas and Andes are particularly vulnerable to GLOFs.
  • Landslides
  • Landslides can cause significant damage to infrastructure, property, and can lead to loss of life.
  • Regions with high rainfall, deforestation, and unplanned construction are more prone to landslides.
  • Tropical Cyclones
  • India's east coast, particularly the states of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, frequently faces the brunt of tropical cyclones.
  • Efforts are ongoing to improve early warning systems and disaster preparedness to mitigate the impacts of cyclones.
  • Earthquakes
  • India is divided into four seismic zones (II to V) based on the severity of the earthquakes experienced.
  • Zone V is the most seismically active, while Zone II is the least.

Question 51

Arrange the following forest cover types of India in descending order of their areal extent.

A. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest

B. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest

C. Tropical-Moist Deciduous Forest

D. Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    C, B, A, D

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D, A

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, A, D

  4. DOption (d)

    C, B, D, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B, C, D, A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B, C, D, A

Key Points

  • Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest (B)
  • These forests are the most extensive forest cover type in India.
  • They are found in large areas, mainly in central and northern India.
  • These forests shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.
  • Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest (C)
  • These forests are the second most extensive type of forest cover in India.
  • They are located in regions with moderate rainfall, such as the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and northeastern India.
  • They remain green for most of the year but shed leaves for a short period.
  • Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forest (D)
  • These forests are a mix of evergreen and deciduous species.
  • They are found in areas with high rainfall, such as the Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and northeastern India.
  • These forests are less extensive compared to tropical moist and dry deciduous forests.
  • Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest (A)
  • These forests have the smallest areal extent among the listed types.
  • They are found in regions with very high rainfall, such as the Western Ghats, northeastern India, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • These forests remain green throughout the year and have dense and diverse vegetation.

Additional Information

  • Forest Cover Types in India
  • India has diverse forest types due to its varied climate and topography.
  • The major forest types are Tropical Dry Deciduous, Tropical Moist Deciduous, Tropical Wet Evergreen, and Tropical Semi-Evergreen forests.
  • Each forest type supports different flora and fauna adapted to the specific climatic conditions.
  • Conservation Efforts
  • The Indian government and various NGOs are actively involved in the conservation and sustainable management of forests.
  • Initiatives like afforestation, reforestation, and community forest management are aimed at increasing forest cover.
  • Protected areas such as national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves play a crucial role in conserving biodiversity.

Question 52

________ layer of ionosphere is also known as the Kennelly-Heaviside layer.

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    G

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - E

Key Points

  • E layer (Kennelly-Heaviside layer)
  • The E layer is a region of the ionosphere located approximately 90 to 150 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
  • It is named after the scientists Arthur E. Kennelly and Oliver Heaviside, who independently predicted its existence in the early 20th century.
  • This layer reflects medium-frequency radio waves, making it important for long-distance radio communication.
  • It plays a crucial role in the propagation of radio signals over distances beyond the horizon.

Additional Information

  • D layer
  • The D layer is the lowest region of the ionosphere, located about 60 to 90 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
  • It has the highest density during the daytime and can absorb high-frequency radio waves, causing signal attenuation.
  • G layer
  • The G layer is not a recognized part of the ionosphere in scientific literature.
  • The ionosphere is typically divided into the D, E, F1, and F2 layers.
  • F layer
  • The F layer is the highest region of the ionosphere, typically divided into F1 and F2 sub-layers.
  • It is located around 150 to 500 kilometers above the Earth's surface and is crucial for high-frequency radio wave propagation, especially at night.

Question 53

The workers engaged in secondary activities are also called ________

  1. AOption (a)

    Blue-collar workers

  2. BOption (b)

    Pink-collar workers

  3. COption (c)

    White-collar workers

  4. DOption (d)

    Orange collar workers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Blue-collar workers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Blue-collar workers

Key Points

  • Blue-collar workers
  • Blue-collar workers are typically those engaged in manual labor or industrial work.
  • They usually work in manufacturing, construction, mining, and other sectors involving physical tasks.
  • The term "blue-collar" originated from the traditional blue uniforms worn by many manual laborers.
  • These workers are often skilled or semi-skilled and are involved in secondary activities, which include transforming raw materials into finished goods.

Additional Information

  • Pink-collar workers
  • Pink-collar workers are typically those employed in jobs traditionally associated with women.
  • This includes roles in nursing, teaching, and other service-oriented professions.
  • White-collar workers
  • White-collar workers typically engage in desk jobs or professional roles.
  • They are often found in office settings and include professions such as lawyers, doctors, and corporate employees.
  • Orange-collar workers
  • Orange-collar workers are associated with prison labor in the United States.
  • The term comes from the orange uniforms worn by prisoners.

Question 54

The present trend of global warming is a result of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    orbital and solar variability

  2. BOption (b)

    earth movements

  3. COption (c)

    changes in composition of atmosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    sunspot cycles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

changes in composition of atmosphere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - changes in composition of atmosphere

Key Points

  • Changes in composition of atmosphere
  • The present trend of global warming is primarily driven by an increase in greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O) in the atmosphere.
  • These gases trap heat from the sun, preventing it from escaping back into space, which leads to a warming effect known as the greenhouse effect.
  • Human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes have significantly increased the concentration of these gases in the atmosphere.
  • As a result, the Earth's average surface temperature has risen, contributing to climate change and various environmental impacts.

Additional Information

  • Orbital and Solar Variability
  • Orbital changes, such as variations in the Earth's orbit around the sun (Milankovitch cycles), can influence long-term climate patterns but are not the main cause of current global warming.
  • Solar variability, including changes in solar radiation, can affect the Earth's climate but has had a minimal impact compared to greenhouse gas emissions in recent decades.
  • Earth Movements
  • Movements of tectonic plates can lead to volcanic activity and changes in sea levels over geological timescales, but they are not significant contributors to the current trend of global warming.
  • Sunspot Cycles
  • Sunspots are temporary phenomena on the sun's surface that can influence solar radiation, but their effect on the Earth's climate is relatively minor compared to the impact of human-induced greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 55

Which of the following statement about Weber's Theory of Industrial Location is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transport, labour and agglomeration play major role in the location of industries.

  2. BOption (b)

    If both raw materials are weight loosing and market is at an equilateral triangle, the ideal location for industry is in the middle of triangle learning towards raw material sources.

  3. COption (c)

    If both raw materials are weight loosing and market is at equilateral triangle, the ideal location for industry is at market.

  4. DOption (d)

    Isodapane is a line joining the points of equal additional transportation cost.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

If both raw materials are weight loosing and market is at equilateral triangle, the ideal location for industry is at market.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - If both raw materials are weight loosing and market is at equilateral triangle, the ideal location for industry is at market.

Key Points

  • Weber's Theory of Industrial Location
  • Alfred Weber formulated the Theory of Industrial Location in 1909.
  • The theory considers factors such as transport costs, labor costs, and agglomeration economies to determine the optimal location for industries.
  • It emphasizes minimizing transportation costs to maximize profit, considering both raw material sources and market locations.
  • Transport, labour and agglomeration play major role in the location of industries.
  • This statement is correct as Weber's theory identifies transportation costs, labor costs, and agglomeration benefits as critical factors influencing industrial location.
  • If both raw materials are weight loosing and market is at an equilateral triangle, the ideal location for industry is in the middle of triangle leaning towards raw material sources.
  • In cases where raw materials lose weight during processing, Weber suggests locating industries closer to raw material sources to reduce transportation costs.
  • If the market and raw materials are at the vertices of an equilateral triangle, the optimal location leans towards raw materials to minimize total transport costs.
  • Isodapane is a line joining the points of equal additional transportation cost.
  • Isodapanes are lines of equal transport cost, similar to contour lines on a map. They help in identifying points of minimum transport cost for an industry.
  • Weber used these lines to determine the least-cost location for industrial plants.

Additional Information

  • Weight-Losing and Weight-Gaining Industries
  • Weight-losing industries are those where the raw materials weigh more than the final product, e.g., sugar, iron, and steel industries.
  • Weight-gaining industries are those where the final product weighs more than the raw materials, e.g., beverage and automobile industries.
  • Agglomeration Economies
  • Agglomeration economies refer to the benefits that firms obtain by locating near each other, such as reduced costs, shared services, and enhanced innovation.
  • These economies are critical in determining industrial location as they can significantly reduce overall operational costs.

Question 56

Identify the wrong statements with reference to United Nations sustainable aims of Goal 6.

A. Achieving the goal of universal access to safe and affordable drinking water by 2030.

B. To ensure access to clean energy to all by 2030.

C. Protecting and restoring water-related ecosystems.

D. Application of technological measures to reduce energy consumption in industries and building by 14 percent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B only

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B and D only

Key Points

  • Achieving the goal of universal access to safe and affordable drinking water by 2030
  • This is a correct statement as it aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6, which aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all by 2030.
  • To ensure access to clean energy to all by 2030
  • This statement is incorrect because it pertains to SDG 7, which aims to ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all, not SDG 6.
  • Protecting and restoring water-related ecosystems
  • This is a correct statement under SDG 6, which includes targets for protecting and restoring water-related ecosystems, such as rivers, wetlands, and lakes.
  • Application of technological measures to reduce energy consumption in industries and buildings by 14 percent
  • This statement is incorrect as it relates to SDG 9 and SDG 12, which focus on industry, innovation, infrastructure, and responsible consumption and production, respectively, and not specifically to water and sanitation (SDG 6).

Additional Information

  • United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
  • The SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015 for the year 2030.
  • They are designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all."
  • SDG 6: Clean Water and Sanitation
  • SDG 6 aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
  • It includes targets for achieving universal access to safe and affordable drinking water, improving water quality, and protecting water-related ecosystems.
  • SDG 7: Affordable and Clean Energy
  • SDG 7 focuses on ensuring access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all.
  • SDG 9: Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure
  • SDG 9 aims to build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation.
  • SDG 12: Responsible Consumption and Production
  • SDG 12 focuses on ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns.

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of voting behaviour in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Caste of Candidate

  2. BOption (b)

    Age of candidate

  3. COption (c)

    Charismatic leader

  4. DOption (d)

    Party of the candidate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Age of candidate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Age of candidate

Key Points

  • Age of candidate
  • In India, the age of a candidate is generally not a significant factor influencing voting behaviour.
  • Voters in India typically prioritize other attributes over the candidate's age, such as their political party, policies, and track record.
  • While age might be a consideration for a small segment of the electorate, it is not a widespread determinant.

Additional Information

  • Caste of Candidate
  • Caste plays a significant role in Indian elections as voters often prefer candidates from their own caste or community.
  • Caste-based voting is prevalent, especially in rural areas, and can heavily influence election outcomes.
  • Charismatic Leader
  • Charismatic leaders can draw large followings and significantly impact voting behaviour.
  • Such leaders often inspire trust and loyalty, leading voters to support their party or candidates.
  • Party of the Candidate
  • The political party a candidate represents is a crucial factor in Indian voting behaviour.
  • Voters often vote based on party ideologies, manifestos, and historical performance.
  • Party loyalty can outweigh individual candidate attributes in many cases.

Question 58

Which of the following statement about Von Thunen's Model of Agricultural land use is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Intensity of land use declines with the distance from the market.

  2. BOption (b)

    The farmers have a full knowledge of the needs of the market.

  3. COption (c)

    In Zone-V, one-third of the land is always kept fallow.

  4. DOption (d)

    In Zone-III, as the distance increases, there is a consequent increase in yield.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

In Zone-III, as the distance increases, there is a consequent increase in yield.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - In Zone-III, as the distance increases, there is a consequent increase in yield.

Key Points

  • Von Thunen's Model of Agricultural Land Use
  • This model, created by Johann Heinrich von Thunen, is a theoretical framework that explains and predicts agricultural land use patterns by varying distance from a central market.
  • The model assumes a single market with a homogeneous plain, and transportation costs are directly proportional to distance.
  • Intensity of land use declines with the distance from the market
  • According to the model, as the distance from the market increases, the intensity of land use and the type of crops grown change.
  • Close to the market, intensive farming practices are used to maximize yield from smaller plots of land.
  • The farmers have a full knowledge of the needs of the market
  • The model assumes that farmers are rational and have complete information about market demands and prices.
  • This knowledge helps farmers decide what to produce and where to locate their farms relative to the market.
  • In Zone-V, one-third of the land is always kept fallow
  • In Von Thunen's model, different zones represent different types of agricultural activities. Zone-V typically involves extensive farming practices, including keeping land fallow to restore soil fertility.
  • Fallowing is a practice used to allow the land to recover, which is a part of extensive farming methods found further from the market.

Additional Information

  • Von Thunen's Zones
  • Zone I: Market gardening and dairying, located closest to the market due to the perishable nature of produce.
  • Zone II: Forests, providing timber and firewood, which are heavy and expensive to transport.
  • Zone III: Extensive field crops such as grains, which are less perishable and cheaper to transport over longer distances.
  • Zone IV: Ranching and livestock, requiring large areas of land and located furthest from the market.
  • Zone V: Wilderness, where land is often kept fallow or used for extensive farming practices.

Question 59

Identify the correct statements with reference to landforms and plate-tectonics.

A. The violent volcanoes of South America are associated with ocean-continent convergence.

B. The Himalayas originated due to continent-continent convergence.

C. Hot spots are always located at plate boundaries.

D. Earth's persistent magnetic field is caused by the movement of molten metal in the inner core.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A and B only

Key Points

  • The violent volcanoes of South America are associated with ocean-continent convergence.
  • South America's western edge is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, known for its volcanic activity.
  • This activity is primarily due to the subduction of the oceanic Nazca Plate beneath the continental South American Plate.
  • The process of subduction generates magma, leading to the formation of volcanoes along the Andes mountain range.
  • The Himalayas originated due to continent-continent convergence.
  • The Himalayas were formed from the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
  • This collision began around 50 million years ago and continues today, resulting in the uplift of the Himalayan mountain range.
  • Unlike ocean-continent convergence, this process involves the collision of two continental plates, leading to the creation of some of the world's highest mountains.

Additional Information

  • Hot spots
  • Hot spots are not always located at plate boundaries; they can occur within tectonic plates.
  • They are regions where plumes of hot mantle material rise towards the surface, creating volcanic activity.
  • An example is the Hawaiian Islands, which are located in the middle of the Pacific Plate, far from any plate boundary.
  • Earth's persistent magnetic field
  • The Earth's magnetic field is generated by the movement of molten metal in the outer core, not the inner core.
  • The outer core is composed of liquid iron and nickel, and its dynamic motion creates electric currents that generate the magnetic field.
  • The inner core, in contrast, is solid due to the immense pressures at the Earth's center.

Question 60

_______ is a cold ocean current.

  1. AOption (a)

    Florida current

  2. BOption (b)

    Labrador current

  3. COption (c)

    Kuroshio current

  4. DOption (d)

    East Australian current

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Labrador current

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Labrador current

Key Points

  • Labrador current
  • The Labrador Current is a cold ocean current in the North Atlantic Ocean that flows southward along the coast of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland, continuing south along the east coast of Canada.
  • It originates from the Arctic Ocean and carries cold water, which significantly influences the climate of the coastal areas it passes by, making them cooler.
  • This current is a part of the North Atlantic subpolar gyre.
  • It plays a crucial role in the North Atlantic's marine ecosystem, supporting a rich diversity of marine life, including various fish species.

Additional Information

  • Florida current
  • The Florida Current is a warm ocean current that flows from the Gulf of Mexico, through the Straits of Florida, and along the southeastern coast of the United States.
  • This current is part of the Gulf Stream system, which is known for its warm temperatures and significant impact on the climate of the southeastern U.S. and western Europe.
  • Kuroshio current
  • The Kuroshio Current, also known as the Japan Current, is a warm ocean current that flows northward along the east coast of Taiwan, Japan, and into the North Pacific Ocean.
  • It is one of the strongest ocean currents and is characterized by its warm waters.
  • East Australian current
  • The East Australian Current is a warm ocean current that flows southward along the east coast of Australia.
  • It is well-known for its role in the marine ecosystem and has been popularized by the animated film "Finding Nemo".

Question 61

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Index)(Equation)
A.BetaI.c/d
B.PiII.e/3(v-2)
C.GammaIII.e/v
D.ThetaIV.T/V

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

  3. COption (c)

    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

  4. DOption (d)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Key Points

  • Beta (A-III)
  • Beta is often represented in equations as e/v.
  • This relationship typically appears in scientific and engineering contexts where Beta represents a ratio involving energy (e) and velocity (v).
  • Pi (B-I)
  • Pi is a mathematical constant, but in this context, it’s represented by c/d.
  • c/d is the classic representation of Pi, where c is the circumference of a circle and d is its diameter.
  • Gamma (C-II)
  • Gamma is often associated with the equation e/3(v-2).
  • This specific form can appear in various scientific formulas, particularly in physics and engineering.
  • Theta (D-IV)
  • Theta is frequently represented by T/V.
  • This expression is common in thermodynamics and other physical sciences where T represents temperature and V represents volume.

Additional Information

  • Beta
  • In various fields such as finance, Beta can represent different things, including the measure of volatility or risk compared to the market.
  • Pi
  • Pi (π) is a fundamental constant in mathematics, representing the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter.
  • It is approximately equal to 3.14159.
  • Gamma
  • In physics, Gamma can represent the Lorentz factor in special relativity.
  • It can also represent a function in mathematics, known as the Gamma function, which extends the factorial function to complex numbers.
  • Theta
  • Theta is commonly used to represent an angle in geometry and trigonometry.
  • It is also used in various branches of science and engineering to represent different variables.

Question 62

Identify the correct statements about Schaefer-Hartshorne debate.

A. For Hartshorne, geography is what geographers have made it while Schaefer worked on what geography should be.

B. Schaefer promoted the study of areal differentiation while Hartshorne favoured exceptionalism in geography.

C. Schaefer advocated for formulation of laws in geography.

D. Schaefer was against the application of positivist methods in geography.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and C only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and C only'.

Key Points

  • For Hartshorne, geography is what geographers have made it, while Schaefer worked on what geography should be.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Hartshorne believed in studying geography based on the established traditions and work of geographers, emphasizing descriptive analysis. In contrast, Schaefer focused on redefining geography with a scientific approach, looking at what geography could become.
  • Hence, Statement A is correct.
  • Schaefer promoted the study of areal differentiation while Hartshorne favoured exceptionalism in geography.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Hartshorne emphasized the concept of areal differentiation, focusing on the unique characteristics of different regions, whereas Schaefer critiqued this approach and supported the development of scientific laws in geography.
  • Hence, Statement B is incorrect.
  • Schaefer advocated for formulation of laws in geography.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Schaefer argued that geography should focus on formulating laws and generalizations, bringing it closer to a scientific discipline, rather than merely describing unique regions.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • Schaefer was against the application of positivist methods in geography.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Schaefer was, in fact, an advocate of positivist methods in geography, supporting the use of scientific methods to formulate general laws and principles.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Schaefer-Hartshorne Debate Overview:
  • Exceptionalism vs. Scientific Approach: Hartshorne supported exceptionalism and the study of unique regions, while Schaefer pushed for geography as a scientific field with law-making capabilities.
  • Areal Differentiation: This concept, supported by Hartshorne, emphasized the descriptive study of regions' distinct characteristics.
  • Positivism in Geography: Schaefer promoted positivist methods, advocating for empirical, scientific approaches in geographical study.

Question 63

Arrange the following development plans of India in descending order of their launch year.

A. Desert Development Program

B. Rashtriya Sam Vikas Yojna

C. Command Area Development Program

D. National Watershed Development Program in Rainfed Areas.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, B, D

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, A, D

  4. DOption (d)

    B, D, A, C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, D, A, C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B, D, A, C

Key Points

  • Rashtriya Sam Vikas Yojna (RSVY)
  • Launched in 2003 by the Government of India.
  • Aimed at addressing the problem of regional imbalances in development.
  • Focuses on areas that are lagging behind in terms of infrastructure and other development indices.
  • National Watershed Development Program in Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA)
  • Initiated in 1990-91.
  • Focuses on the development of rainfed areas to enhance agricultural productivity and conservation of natural resources.
  • Emphasizes participatory approach involving local communities.
  • Desert Development Program (DDP)
  • Started in 1977-78.
  • Aims at combating desertification and improving the economic condition of the people in desert areas.
  • Focuses on afforestation, pasture development, and soil and water conservation.
  • Command Area Development Program (CADP)
  • Launched in 1974-75.
  • Aims at improving the utilization of irrigation potential created under various irrigation projects.
  • Focuses on ensuring efficient water management and agricultural practices.

Additional Information

  • Desert Development Program (DDP)
  • The program was primarily targeted at arid and semi-arid regions.
  • DDP was also aimed at promoting sustainable land management practices.
  • Rashtriya Sam Vikas Yojna (RSVY)
  • The program was part of the Tenth Five-Year Plan of India.
  • RSVY also aimed to accelerate development in backward districts to reduce disparities.

Question 64

Identify the correct statements with reference to temperature and salinity of the oceans.

A. The oceans in the Northern Hemisphere are slightly cooler than those in the Southern Hemisphere.

B. The annual range of temperature in the Atlantic Ocean is larger than in the Pacific Ocean.

C. The areas of highest salinity in the open oceans are associated with sub-tropical high pressure area.

D. The high salinity of Black Sea is due to influx of large volumes of water by rivers.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B and C only

Key Points

  • The annual range of temperature in the Atlantic Ocean is larger than in the Pacific Ocean
  • This is primarily due to the Atlantic Ocean's proximity to larger landmasses, which have a more significant influence on its temperature variations.
  • The Atlantic Ocean experiences more pronounced seasonal changes compared to the Pacific Ocean.
  • The areas of highest salinity in the open oceans are associated with sub-tropical high pressure area
  • Sub-tropical high-pressure zones are characterized by high evaporation rates and low precipitation, leading to higher salinity levels.
  • Regions such as the North Atlantic and South Atlantic are examples where these conditions are prevalent.

Additional Information

  • The oceans in the Northern Hemisphere are slightly cooler than those in the Southern Hemisphere
  • This statement is incorrect because ocean temperatures are influenced by various factors, including currents and proximity to polar regions. The Southern Hemisphere has more oceanic area, which tends to moderate temperature variations.
  • The high salinity of the Black Sea is due to the influx of large volumes of water by rivers
  • This statement is incorrect. The Black Sea actually has lower salinity compared to open oceans because of the significant freshwater input from rivers like the Danube, Dniester, and Dnieper.

Question 65

Arrange the headquarters of the following Regional Organisations from Equator towards North Pole.

A. SAARC

B. ASEAN

C. OPEC

D. EU

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B, A, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C, D

  3. COption (c)

    D, C, B, A

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D, A, B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B, A, C, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B, A, C, D

Key Points

  • ASEAN
  • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has its headquarters in Jakarta, Indonesia.
  • Jakarta is located close to the equator, making it the southernmost headquarters among the listed organizations.
  • SAARC
  • The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) has its headquarters in Kathmandu, Nepal.
  • Kathmandu is situated north of Jakarta, Indonesia.
  • OPEC
  • The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
  • Vienna is located north of Kathmandu, Nepal.
  • EU
  • The European Union (EU) has its headquarters in Brussels, Belgium.
  • Brussels is located north of Vienna, Austria, making it the northernmost headquarters among the listed organizations.

Additional Information

  • SAARC
  • SAARC is an organization of South Asian nations, established in 1985 to promote economic and regional integration.
  • Member countries include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  • ASEAN
  • ASEAN was founded in 1967 to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stability among its members.
  • Member countries include Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia.
  • OPEC
  • OPEC was established in 1960 to coordinate and unify petroleum policies among member countries.
  • Member countries include major oil-exporting nations such as Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, and Venezuela.
  • EU
  • The European Union is a political and economic union of 27 European countries that are located primarily in Europe.
  • It was established by the Maastricht Treaty in 1993 and has developed a single market through a standardized system of laws.

Question 66

Arrange the following surfaces of the Earth on the basis of Albedo (% reflected) in descending order.

A. Water (High sun)

B. Crops

C. Fresh snow

D. Desert

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    D, B, A, C

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C, D

  3. COption (c)

    C, D, B, A

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C, A, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C, D, B, A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C, D, B, A

Key Points

  • Fresh Snow
  • Fresh snow has the highest albedo among natural surfaces, reflecting about 80-90% of the sunlight that hits it.
  • This high reflectivity makes it an important factor in the Earth's energy balance and climate system.
  • Desert
  • Deserts have a high albedo, reflecting about 30-40% of the sunlight due to their light-colored sandy surfaces.
  • Desert surfaces can significantly affect local and global temperatures by reflecting a substantial amount of solar radiation.
  • Crops
  • Crops have a moderate albedo, reflecting about 20-25% of the sunlight.
  • The albedo can vary depending on the type of crop and its growth stage.
  • Water (High Sun)
  • Water surfaces have a relatively low albedo, reflecting about 5-10% of the sunlight when the sun is high in the sky.
  • Water's albedo can change significantly with the angle of the sun; it reflects more sunlight when the sun is lower on the horizon.

Additional Information

  • Albedo
  • Albedo is the measure of the reflectivity of a surface, expressed as a percentage of the sunlight that is reflected by that surface.
  • Surfaces with high albedo, such as fresh snow, reflect most of the sunlight, helping to cool the surface.
  • Surfaces with low albedo, such as water, absorb more sunlight, which can lead to warming.
  • Climate Impact
  • High albedo surfaces can help mitigate global warming by reflecting more solar radiation back into space.
  • Changes in land use, such as deforestation or urbanization, can alter the albedo of a region and impact local and global climates.

Question 67

Identify correct statements about Chi-square test.

A. It is a parametric test.

B. The null hypothesis states that the difference between the observed and expected frequencies is not significant.

C. Rejection of null hypothesis indicates that differences between observed and expected frequencies are real.

D. To reject null hypothesis the tabled value should be greater than computed value of a Chi- square.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B only

  3. COption (c)

    B and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'B and C only'.

Key Points

  • The null hypothesis states that the difference between the observed and expected frequencies is not significant.
  • This statement is correct.
  • In a Chi-square test, the null hypothesis assumes that any difference between observed and expected frequencies is due to chance and is not statistically significant.
  • Hence, Statement B is correct.
  • Rejection of the null hypothesis indicates that differences between observed and expected frequencies are real.
  • This statement is correct.
  • When the null hypothesis is rejected, it suggests that the observed frequencies significantly differ from the expected frequencies, indicating a real difference rather than a chance occurrence.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • It is a parametric test.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • The Chi-square test is a non-parametric test, meaning it does not assume a normal distribution of the data and is used for categorical data analysis.
  • Hence, Statement A is incorrect.
  • To reject the null hypothesis, the tabled value should be greater than the computed value of a Chi-square.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • For the null hypothesis to be rejected, the computed Chi-square value should be greater than the tabled (critical) value, not the other way around.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Key Points about the Chi-square Test:
  • Non-Parametric Nature: The Chi-square test does not rely on parameter estimates and is used for testing hypotheses with categorical data.
  • Rejection of Null Hypothesis: When the computed value exceeds the critical (tabled) value, it indicates a significant difference between observed and expected frequencies.
  • Applications: Commonly used in goodness-of-fit tests, test of independence, and test of homogeneity to evaluate categorical data relationships.

Question 68

Identify the correct statements with reference to weathering:

A. Chemical weathering is common in desert areas due to large diurnal variations of temperature.

B. Mechanical weathering occurs in cold regions by means of frost action.

C. One form of mechanical weathering by plants is called chelating.

D. Limestone is very resistant to wind action but it is highly susceptible to rain water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B and D only

Key Points

  • Mechanical weathering occurs in cold regions by means of frost action.
  • Mechanical weathering is a process that breaks rocks into smaller pieces without altering their chemical composition.
  • In cold regions, mechanical weathering is commonly caused by frost action, where water enters cracks in rocks, freezes, and expands, causing the rocks to break apart.
  • Limestone is very resistant to wind action but it is highly susceptible to rainwater.
  • Limestone is a sedimentary rock composed mainly of calcium carbonate (CaCO3).
  • While it is resistant to erosion by wind, it is susceptible to chemical weathering by rainwater, which often contains dissolved carbon dioxide forming weak carbonic acid.
  • This acid reacts with the calcium carbonate in limestone, leading to its dissolution and formation of features like karst landscapes.

Additional Information

  • Chemical weathering in desert areas
  • Chemical weathering involves the breakdown of rocks through chemical reactions, often involving water and atmospheric gases.
  • In desert areas, chemical weathering is less common due to the scarcity of water, which is essential for most chemical weathering processes.
  • Deserts are characterized more by mechanical weathering due to temperature extremes causing rocks to fracture and break apart.
  • Mechanical weathering by plants
  • Mechanical weathering by plants typically involves physical processes such as root growth that can break rocks apart.
  • Chelating, however, is a chemical process where plant roots release organic acids that bind to minerals in rocks, aiding in their breakdown.

Question 69

The primary cause for vertical movements of water in oceans is _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    atmospheric pressure differences

  2. BOption (b)

    Coriolis force

  3. COption (c)

    ocean bottom topography

  4. DOption (d)

    density differences

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

density differences

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - density differences

Key Points

  • Density differences
  • Density differences in ocean water primarily arise from variations in temperature and salinity.
  • Cold water is denser than warm water, and saltier water is denser than fresher water.
  • These differences in density cause water to move vertically, with denser water sinking and less dense water rising, creating a process known as thermohaline circulation.
  • Thermohaline circulation plays a crucial role in regulating the Earth's climate by distributing heat and nutrients around the globe.

Additional Information

  • Atmospheric pressure differences
  • Atmospheric pressure differences primarily influence horizontal movement of ocean water, such as the formation of wind-driven surface currents.
  • Coriolis force
  • The Coriolis force affects the direction of ocean currents by causing them to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • Ocean bottom topography
  • Ocean bottom topography influences the movement of water along the ocean floor, such as the formation of deep-sea currents and upwelling areas.

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of National Health Policy, 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    To achieve universal health coverage by collaborating with non-government sector.

  2. BOption (b)

    To increase government spending in health from 1.15% to 2.5% of GDP by 2025.

  3. COption (c)

    Strengthening of public health system is exclusive responsibility of the central government.

  4. DOption (d)

    It relies heavily on private and voluntary sectors to fulfil its goals.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Strengthening of public health system is exclusive responsibility of the central government.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Strengthening of public health system is exclusive responsibility of the central government.

Key Points

  • National Health Policy, 2017
  • The policy aims to achieve universal health coverage by collaborating with the non-government sector.
  • It proposes to increase government spending in health from 1.15% to 2.5% of GDP by 2025.
  • The policy relies heavily on private and voluntary sectors to fulfil its goals.
  • Strengthening the public health system is a shared responsibility between the central and state governments, not exclusive to the central government.

Additional Information

  • Universal Health Coverage
  • Universal Health Coverage (UHC) means that all people have access to the health services they need, when and where they need them, without financial hardship.
  • It includes the full spectrum of essential, quality health services, from health promotion to prevention, treatment, rehabilitation, and palliative care.
  • Government Spending on Health
  • Increasing government expenditure on health is crucial to improve healthcare infrastructure and services.
  • Higher investment in health can lead to better health outcomes and economic growth.
  • Public-Private Partnership
  • Public-Private Partnership (PPP) in health refers to the collaboration between government and private sector to deliver health services and infrastructure.
  • PPPs can help to leverage private sector efficiency and innovation to improve public health services.

Question 71

Thornthwaite did NOT use _______ in the criteria of his first scheme of classification of climates.

  1. AOption (a)

    summer concentration of thermal efficiency

  2. BOption (b)

    percipitation effectiveness

  3. COption (c)

    seasonal distribution of precipitation.

  4. DOption (d)

    thermal efficiency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

summer concentration of thermal efficiency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - summer concentration of thermal efficiency

Key Points

  • Thornthwaite's First Scheme of Climate Classification
  • Thornthwaite's initial climate classification system primarily focused on aspects such as precipitation effectiveness, seasonal distribution of precipitation, and thermal efficiency.
  • He did NOT include the concept of "summer concentration of thermal efficiency" in his first scheme.
  • His classification was based on the idea that the effectiveness of precipitation and temperature influence the vegetation types which can be sustained in a region.

Additional Information

  • Percipitation Effectiveness
  • Refers to the ability of precipitation to meet the water needs of vegetation and the overall water balance of an area.
  • It is a critical factor in determining the types of vegetation that can thrive in a particular climate.
  • Seasonal Distribution of Precipitation
  • This criterion involves understanding the patterns of precipitation throughout the year.
  • It helps in determining which seasons receive the most rainfall and how it affects the climate and vegetation.
  • Thermal Efficiency
  • Relates to the temperature regime of a region and its ability to support different types of plant life.
  • It is a measure of how well the region's temperature can meet the biological and ecological needs of vegetation.

Question 72

The statement, "Supreme achievements of civilizations in any region were always bounded up with a particular type of climate" in favour of environmental determinism was given by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Darwin

  2. BOption (b)

    Semple

  3. COption (c)

    Huntington

  4. DOption (d)

    Ratzel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Huntington

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Huntington

Key Points

  • Ellsworth Huntington
  • Huntington was an American geographer, known for his work on environmental determinism.
  • He argued that the physical environment, particularly climate, had a significant impact on the development of civilizations.
  • He believed that certain climates were more conducive to the development of human societies and their achievements.
  • Huntington's theories were influential in the early 20th century but have since been criticized for being overly deterministic.

Additional Information

  • Charles Darwin
  • Known for his contributions to the theory of evolution and natural selection.
  • His work focused on the biological sciences rather than environmental determinism.
  • "On the Origin of Species" is his most famous work, published in 1859.
  • Ellen Churchill Semple
  • An American geographer and a proponent of environmental determinism.
  • Her work emphasized the influence of the physical environment on human activities.
  • She is known for her book "Influences of Geographic Environment" published in 1911.
  • Friedrich Ratzel
  • A German geographer and ethnographer who coined the term "Lebensraum" (living space).
  • He contributed significantly to the field of human geography and geopolitics.
  • His works laid the foundation for the concept of environmental determinism but were more focused on the relationship between space and human activities.

Question 73

_______ is the broad transition between two different ecosystems of mainly plant communities.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ecocline

  2. BOption (b)

    Mutation

  3. COption (c)

    Homeostatic mechanism

  4. DOption (d)

    Cultivated ecosystem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ecocline

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Ecocline

Key Points

  • Ecocline
  • An ecocline is a gradation from one ecosystem to another, where changes in species composition and environmental conditions occur gradually.
  • Ecoclines are characterized by continuous and gradual transitions, rather than abrupt changes.
  • They can be observed in various environments, such as the transition from a forest to a grassland or from a freshwater to a marine ecosystem.
  • The concept of an ecocline helps in understanding the dynamic and interconnected nature of ecosystems.

Additional Information

  • Mutation
  • A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism's genome.
  • Mutations can occur naturally or be induced by environmental factors such as radiation or chemicals.
  • They can lead to variations in traits and can be a driving force in the process of evolution.
  • Homeostatic Mechanism
  • Homeostatic mechanisms are processes that maintain the internal stability of an organism's environment.
  • These mechanisms regulate factors such as temperature, pH, and glucose levels to ensure optimal functioning of the organism.
  • Examples include sweating to cool the body and insulin regulation of blood sugar levels.
  • Cultivated Ecosystem
  • A cultivated ecosystem is an environment that has been significantly altered by human activity for agricultural purposes.
  • These ecosystems include farmlands, orchards, and plantations where specific crops are grown and managed.
  • Cultivated ecosystems are designed to optimize the production of food and other resources, often requiring inputs such as fertilizers and irrigation.

Question 74

Which of the following is used to identify the sphere of influence of towns or cities?

  1. AOption (a)

    A variant of flowline map.

  2. BOption (b)

    Choropleth map

  3. COption (c)

    Isarithmic map

  4. DOption (d)

    Chorochromatic map

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A variant of flowline map.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A variant of flowline map.

Key Points

  • A variant of flowline map
  • Flowline maps are used to show the movement of objects between different areas.
  • A variant of flowline maps can specifically illustrate the sphere of influence of towns or cities by depicting the movement patterns of people, goods, and services to and from these locations.
  • This type of map helps in understanding the connectivity and influence of a town or city over a particular region.

Additional Information

  • Choropleth map
  • Choropleth maps use different colors or shading to represent data values in different areas, such as population density or election results.
  • They are effective for visualizing the distribution of a variable across geographic areas but do not typically show movement or influence.
  • Isarithmic map
  • Isarithmic maps, also known as contour maps, depict continuous data fields using lines or colors to represent different levels of a variable.
  • They are commonly used for displaying elevation, temperature, or precipitation but are not designed to show spheres of influence.
  • Chorochromatic map
  • Chorochromatic maps, also known as qualitative area maps, use different colors to represent different categories or types of data in specific areas.
  • These maps are often used for showing land use, soil types, or vegetation but do not effectively convey the concept of movement or influence.

Question 75

In 1995, the Basel Convention was amended to _______ from industrialised to developing countries.

  1. AOption (a)

    allow the export of hazardous waste

  2. BOption (b)

    ban the export of any hazardous waste

  3. COption (c)

    allow export of hazardous waste with prior consent

  4. DOption (d)

    restrict the international transport of hazardous waste.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ban the export of any hazardous waste

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - ban the export of any hazardous waste

Key Points

  • Basel Convention Amendment of 1995
  • The Basel Convention was initially adopted in 1989 to control the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal.
  • In 1995, the Ban Amendment was adopted to prohibit the export of hazardous wastes from OECD (Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development) countries to non-OECD countries.
  • This amendment was aimed at preventing the transfer of hazardous waste from developed to developing countries, ensuring environmental justice and protection for nations with less stringent regulations.
  • The Ban Amendment reflects the principle of "proximity" and "self-sufficiency" in waste management, encouraging countries to deal with their hazardous waste within their own borders.

Additional Information

  • Basel Convention
  • The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992.
  • It aims to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous wastes.
  • It promotes the environmentally sound management of hazardous wastes and regulates their movement across borders.
  • Other Options Explained
  • Allow the export of hazardous waste: This would contradict the goals of the Basel Convention, which seeks to minimize hazardous waste movements.
  • Allow export of hazardous waste with prior consent: While prior informed consent is part of the Basel Convention, the 1995 Amendment specifically bans exports from developed to developing countries.
  • Restrict the international transport of hazardous waste: The Basel Convention already restricts hazardous waste transport, but the 1995 Amendment specifically bans it between certain countries.

Question 76

Which one of the following is often referred as 'marginalised cultural' realm?

  1. AOption (a)

    Occidental Realm

  2. BOption (b)

    Islamic Cultural Realm

  3. COption (c)

    Indic Cultural Realm

  4. DOption (d)

    Meso-African Cultural Realm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Meso-African Cultural Realm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Meso-African Cultural Realm

Key Points

  • Meso-African Cultural Realm
  • The Meso-African Cultural Realm refers to the cultural regions in Africa, particularly in areas such as Central and West Africa.
  • This realm often includes marginalized ethnic groups and cultures that are less represented in global discourse.
  • It is characterized by diverse languages, traditions, and social practices that are distinct from those in more globally dominant cultures.
  • The regions within this realm have faced historical marginalization due to colonialism, economic disparities, and geopolitical neglect.

Additional Information

  • Occidental Realm
  • Also known as the Western Cultural Realm, it encompasses Europe and North America.
  • This realm is often seen as economically and politically dominant in the global context.
  • It is characterized by its influence on global culture, politics, and economics.
  • Islamic Cultural Realm
  • This realm covers regions where Islamic culture and religion are predominant, including the Middle East, North Africa, and parts of Asia.
  • It has a rich history and significant influence on global culture and politics.
  • Indic Cultural Realm
  • This realm includes South Asia, particularly India, where Indic religions like Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism originated.
  • It has a profound cultural and historical significance, influencing much of Asia and beyond.

Question 77

The Ekman spiral effect explains _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    the deflection in the direction of flow of surface current.

  2. BOption (b)

    the relationship of amphidromic points with co-tidal lines.

  3. COption (c)

    the progressive wave theory of tides.

  4. DOption (d)

    the presence of thermocline and halocline zones.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the deflection in the direction of flow of surface current.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - the deflection in the direction of flow of surface current

Key Points

  • Ekman Spiral Effect
  • The Ekman spiral effect describes the phenomenon where the direction of flow of surface water is deflected due to the Coriolis effect caused by the Earth's rotation.
  • In the Northern Hemisphere, the surface current is deflected to the right, while in the Southern Hemisphere, it is deflected to the left.
  • This deflection decreases with depth, creating a spiral-like motion of water layers, known as the Ekman spiral.
  • The net effect of this spiral is the Ekman transport, which moves the surface water at a 90-degree angle to the wind direction.

Additional Information

  • Amphidromic Points and Co-Tidal Lines
  • Amphidromic points are locations in the ocean where the tidal range is almost zero and around which the tides rotate.
  • Co-tidal lines are lines on a map that join points where high tide occurs at the same time.
  • Progressive Wave Theory of Tides
  • The progressive wave theory explains how tidal waves progress or travel across the ocean basins.
  • It considers the movement of tides as long waves affected by the Earth's rotation, basin shape, and ocean depth.
  • Thermocline and Halocline Zones
  • The thermocline is a layer in the ocean where the temperature changes rapidly with depth.
  • The halocline is a layer where the salinity changes rapidly with depth.
  • Both are important in ocean stratification and affect marine life and oceanic circulation.

Question 78

Arrange the following developments in remote sensing in chronological order.

A. Google Earth serves Digital-Globe and Landsat TM data.

B. SPOT1 launched.

C. ERTS-1 launched

D. IRS-1C launched.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    D, C, B, A

  3. COption (c)

    B, D, A, C

  4. DOption (d)

    C, B, D, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

C, B, D, A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C, B, D, A

Key Points

  • ERTS-1 launched (C)
  • ERTS-1, later renamed Landsat 1, was the first Earth Resources Technology Satellite.
  • Launched on July 23, 1972, it marked the beginning of satellite-based remote sensing for monitoring natural resources.
  • SPOT1 launched (B)
  • SPOT1 (Satellite Pour l’Observation de la Terre) was launched by France on February 22, 1986.
  • It was designed for Earth observation and provided high-resolution imagery for various applications.
  • IRS-1C launched (D)
  • IRS-1C (Indian Remote Sensing Satellite) was launched by India on December 28, 1995.
  • It enhanced India's remote sensing capabilities with better resolution and data quality.
  • Google Earth serves Digital-Globe and Landsat TM data (A)
  • Google Earth started offering high-resolution satellite imagery from DigitalGlobe and Landsat Thematic Mapper data in 2005.
  • This development significantly increased public access to detailed geographic and satellite information.

Additional Information

  • ERTS-1 (Landsat 1)
  • The first satellite in the Landsat series, it initiated the era of remote sensing from space.
  • It provided data that revolutionized the study of Earth's surface and natural resources.
  • SPOT Satellite Program
  • Developed by CNES (French Space Agency), SPOT satellites have been crucial in providing high-resolution imagery for various applications like agriculture, forestry, and environmental monitoring.
  • SPOT1 was the first in a series of satellites that have continued to serve global users.
  • Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) Program
  • Initiated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), it aims to provide data for resource management and development planning.
  • IRS-1C was a significant addition to this program with its advanced sensors and capabilities.
  • Google Earth
  • Initially launched in 2001 as EarthViewer 3D, it was acquired by Google in 2004 and rebranded as Google Earth.
  • By incorporating high-resolution imagery from sources like DigitalGlobe and Landsat, it became a popular tool for visualizing and exploring Earth's geography.

Question 79

Arrange the following census years in descending order on the basis of decadal growth rates of population of India.

A. 2001 census

B. 1991 census

C. 1951 census

D. 1921 census

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    B, C, A, D

  2. BOption (b)

    C, B, D, A

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D, A

  4. DOption (d)

    B, A, C, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, A, C, D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - B, A, C, D

Key Points

  • 1991 Census (B)
  • The decadal growth rate of the population during the 1991 census was one of the highest recorded in India's history.
  • India's population growth in this period was primarily driven by high birth rates and declining mortality rates.
  • This census recorded a growth rate of 23.85% over the previous decade.
  • 2001 Census (A)
  • The 2001 census also showed a significant population growth, though slightly lower than the 1991 census.
  • The decadal growth rate recorded during this period was 21.54%.
  • Efforts to control the population growth through family planning measures began to show some effects during this period.
  • 1951 Census (C)
  • The 1951 census marked the first census after India's independence.
  • The decadal growth rate during this period was notable due to the post-independence population adjustments and the partition of India.
  • The growth rate recorded was 13.31%.
  • 1921 Census (D)
  • The 1921 census is often referred to as the "Demographic Divide" in India’s demographic history.
  • It marked a period of near-stagnation in population growth, with a recorded decadal growth rate of only 0.31%.
  • This low growth rate was due to high mortality rates caused by famines, epidemics, and the First World War.

Additional Information

  • Decadal Growth Rate
  • Decadal growth rate refers to the percentage increase in the population over a decade.
  • It is calculated by comparing the population at the beginning and end of the decade.
  • It provides insights into the demographic changes and trends within a country.
  • Factors Influencing Population Growth
  • Birth rates and death rates are primary factors affecting population growth.
  • Migration, health conditions, economic factors, and government policies also play significant roles.
  • Efforts to control population growth through family planning and education can lead to changes in growth rates over time.

Question 80

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
A.BrundtlandI.Reducing the emission of six green houses gases
B.Kyoto protocolII.Five pillars- People, Prosperity, Planet, Peace, Partnership
C.Paris AgreementIII.Our Common Future
D.Sustainable development GoalsIV.To limit global warming to 1.5° C by this century.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

  3. COption (c)

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

  4. DOption (d)

    A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Key Points

  • Brundtland - Our Common Future
  • The Brundtland Commission, formally known as the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED), was chaired by Gro Harlem Brundtland.
  • In 1987, the commission published a report titled "Our Common Future" which is widely credited with popularizing the concept of sustainable development.
  • The report emphasized the need for economic development that could be sustained without depleting natural resources or harming the environment.
  • Kyoto Protocol - Reducing the emission of six greenhouse gases
  • The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
  • It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997 and entered into force in 2005.
  • The protocol aimed to reduce emissions of six greenhouse gases: carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆).
  • Paris Agreement - To limit global warming to 1.5° C by this century
  • The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change which was adopted by 196 parties at COP21 in Paris in December 2015.
  • Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2°C, preferably to 1.5°C, compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • The agreement outlines a global framework to avoid dangerous climate change by limiting global warming and to strengthen the ability of countries to deal with the impacts of climate change.
  • Sustainable Development Goals - Five pillars: People, Prosperity, Planet, Peace, Partnership
  • The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015 for the year 2030.
  • These goals are a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure that all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
  • The five pillars of the SDGs are People, Prosperity, Planet, Peace, and Partnership, emphasizing the holistic approach required to achieve sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • Brundtland Commission
  • The Brundtland Commission was established by the United Nations in 1983 to address growing concerns about the accelerating deterioration of the human environment and natural resources and the consequences of that deterioration for economic and social development.
  • The commission's report, "Our Common Future," also known as the Brundtland Report, laid the groundwork for the Earth Summit in 1992 and the subsequent establishment of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • Kyoto Protocol Commitments
  • The Kyoto Protocol separated countries into two groups: Annex I (industrialized countries and economies in transition) and Non-Annex I (developing countries).
  • Annex I countries were committed to reducing their emissions by an average of 5% below 1990 levels during the first commitment period (2008-2012).
  • The protocol introduced flexible mechanisms, such as emissions trading, the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), and Joint Implementation (JI) to help countries meet their targets.
  • Paris Agreement Commitments
  • The Paris Agreement requires all parties to put forward their best efforts through "nationally determined contributions" (NDCs) and to strengthen these efforts in the years ahead.
  • This includes requirements that all parties report regularly on their emissions and on their implementation efforts.
  • The agreement aims to enhance transparency and accountability through a robust transparency framework.
  • Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) Importance
  • The SDGs are integrated and indivisible, recognizing that action in one area will affect outcomes in others, and that development must balance social, economic, and environmental sustainability.
  • The SDGs build on decades of work by countries and the UN, including the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs.
  • The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future.

Question 81

Arrange the following gases in descending order of their share in the composition of the atmosphere.

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Hydrogen

C. Argon

D. Helium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    C, A, D, B

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, D, B

  3. COption (c)

    C, A, B, D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C, B, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C, A, D, B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C, A, D, B

Key Points

  • Argon (C)
  • Argon is a noble gas and makes up about 0.93% of the Earth's atmosphere.
  • It is the third most abundant gas in the atmosphere after nitrogen and oxygen.
  • Carbon Dioxide (A)
  • Carbon Dioxide is a trace gas in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • It comprises about 0.04% (400 ppm) of the atmosphere.
  • Despite its small proportion, it is significant for the greenhouse effect and plant photosynthesis.
  • Helium (D)
  • Helium is another noble gas present in the atmosphere.
  • It is much less abundant than argon and carbon dioxide, making up about 0.0005% of the atmosphere by volume.
  • Hydrogen (B)
  • Hydrogen is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe but is rare in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • It makes up a very small fraction of the Earth's atmosphere, less than 0.0001% by volume.

Additional Information

  • Other Gases in the Atmosphere
  • The Earth's atmosphere is primarily composed of nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%).
  • Other trace gases include neon, krypton, and methane, but they are present in even smaller quantities compared to argon, carbon dioxide, helium, and hydrogen.
  • Importance of Trace Gases
  • Despite their small quantities, trace gases like carbon dioxide play crucial roles in regulating the Earth's climate and supporting life.
  • Argon, being inert, does not participate in chemical reactions but helps in providing a stable environment.
  • Helium is used in various applications, including cryogenics and as a lifting gas in balloons.

Question 82

Which of the following spectral band of Landsat-1 is generally NOT used for production of colour composite?

  1. AOption (a)

    Band 4

  2. BOption (b)

    Band 6

  3. COption (c)

    Band 7

  4. DOption (d)

    Band 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Band 5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Band 5

Key Points

  • Band 5
  • Band 5 of Landsat-1 corresponds to the mid-infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  • This band is generally not used for producing color composites because its spectral characteristics do not align well with the visible color bands.
  • Mid-infrared bands are typically used for analyzing soil moisture content, vegetation moisture, and thermal properties rather than for color imagery.

Additional Information

  • Band 4
  • Band 4 corresponds to the green portion of the visible spectrum.
  • It is frequently used in color composites as it provides significant information about vegetation and water bodies.
  • Band 6
  • Band 6 corresponds to the red portion of the visible spectrum.
  • This band is crucial for creating color composites as it highlights vegetation, soil, and urban areas effectively.
  • Band 7
  • Band 7 corresponds to the near-infrared portion of the spectrum.
  • It is often used in color composites for its ability to distinguish between different types of vegetation and for monitoring plant health.

Question 83

Identify the correct statements about counter-urbanisation.

A. The people move from large urban areas to smaller urban settlements.

B. The people move from small urban areas to large urban settlements.

C. The processes have resulted in a renaissance in the demographic fortunes of rural areas.

D. The processes have resulted in a renaissance in the demographic fortunes of urban areas.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and C only'.

Key Points

  • The people move from large urban areas to smaller urban settlements.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Counter-urbanisation involves the movement of people from larger urban areas to smaller towns, suburbs, or rural areas, often driven by factors like lower cost of living and better quality of life.
  • Hence, Statement A is correct.
  • The processes have resulted in a renaissance in the demographic fortunes of rural areas.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Counter-urbanisation has led to a demographic revitalization in rural areas, as people relocate there from larger cities, bringing increased population and economic activity to these regions.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • The people move from small urban areas to large urban settlements.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • This describes urbanisation rather than counter-urbanisation. In counter-urbanisation, the movement is typically from larger cities to smaller towns or rural areas.
  • Hence, Statement B is incorrect.
  • The processes have resulted in a renaissance in the demographic fortunes of urban areas.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Counter-urbanisation leads to a decline in population growth in larger urban areas, as people move out, and does not typically result in a demographic renaissance for these urban centers.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Counter-urbanisation Effects:
  • Demographic Shift: Involves population movement from larger cities to smaller towns or rural areas, often bringing economic revitalization to rural communities.
  • Drivers: People seek better quality of life, lower living costs, and less congestion, leading to this trend.
  • Impact on Urban Areas: Often results in slowed population growth or population decline in major cities.

Question 84

Identify the correct statements about geo-politics of Indian Ocean.

A. World Super Power (USA) has showed no interest to mark its presence in Indian Ocean.

B. A very little part of world oil trade passes through Indian Ocean.

C. Bay of Bengal had been named according to dominant power of India in past.

D. The quasi-naval bases developed by China in Indian Ocean are called 'String of Pearls".

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and D only

  3. COption (c)

    C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - C and D only

Key Points

  • Bay of Bengal had been named according to dominant power of India in past.
  • The Bay of Bengal is named after the historic Bengal region, which was a major hub of trade and commerce, and played a significant role in the maritime history of India.
  • The Bengal region was a dominant power in the past, influencing the naming of the bay.
  • The quasi-naval bases developed by China in Indian Ocean are called 'String of Pearls'.
  • The "String of Pearls" is a geopolitical theory referring to the network of Chinese military and commercial facilities and relationships along its sea lines of communication.
  • This network extends from the Chinese mainland to Port Sudan in the Horn of Africa, which includes the Indian Ocean region.
  • These bases and relationships are perceived as efforts by China to expand its strategic influence in the Indian Ocean.

Additional Information

  • World Super Power (USA) has showed no interest to mark its presence in Indian Ocean.
  • This statement is incorrect. The USA has shown significant interest in the Indian Ocean, recognizing its strategic importance.
  • The USA has a military presence in Diego Garcia and engages in various naval exercises and partnerships with countries in the region.
  • A very little part of world oil trade passes through Indian Ocean.
  • This statement is incorrect. A significant portion of the world's oil trade passes through the Indian Ocean.
  • Key maritime chokepoints like the Strait of Hormuz and the Strait of Malacca are crucial for global oil trade.
  • Approximately 40% of the world’s oil supply passes through the Indian Ocean.

Question 85

The frequency of tornadoes in USA is highest in months from _______

  1. AOption (a)

    October to December

  2. BOption (b)

    November to January

  3. COption (c)

    June to September

  4. DOption (d)

    April to June

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

April to June

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - April to June

Key Points

  • April to June
  • The United States experiences the highest frequency of tornadoes during the spring months, particularly from April to June.
  • This period is known as the peak of the tornado season because the atmospheric conditions during these months are most favorable for tornado formation.
  • The combination of warm, moist air from the Gulf of Mexico and cool, dry air from Canada creates an ideal environment for severe thunderstorms, which can spawn tornadoes.
  • The central part of the United States, often referred to as "Tornado Alley," is especially prone to tornadoes during this time.

Additional Information

  • October to December
  • This period typically sees a decline in tornado activity as the cooler weather sets in.
  • While tornadoes can still occur, they are less frequent compared to the spring and early summer months.
  • November to January
  • These months are generally associated with winter conditions, which are less conducive to tornado formation.
  • Tornado activity is at its lowest during this period.
  • June to September
  • While tornadoes can occur during the summer months, the frequency is lower compared to the peak season of April to June.
  • Summer weather patterns tend to be more stable, reducing the likelihood of tornado-producing storms.

Question 86

The situation when people from a certain social background are denied to a particular facility is called _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Complete Exclusion

  2. BOption (b)

    Explicit Exclusion

  3. COption (c)

    Selective Exclusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Implicit Exclusion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Explicit Exclusion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Explicit Exclusion

Key Points

  • Explicit Exclusion
  • Explicit exclusion refers to a situation where people from a certain social background are openly denied access to a particular facility or service.
  • This form of exclusion is intentional and often based on specific criteria like race, ethnicity, gender, religion, or socioeconomic status.
  • Such practices are often discriminatory and can be legally challenged in many jurisdictions.
  • Examples include racial segregation in schools or public facilities, gender discrimination in employment, and other overt forms of discrimination.

Additional Information

  • Complete Exclusion
  • This refers to situations where a group is entirely barred from participating or accessing certain services or facilities.
  • It is more absolute in nature compared to selective or implicit exclusion.
  • An example would be a legal ban on a particular community from using public parks.
  • Selective Exclusion
  • This involves excluding certain individuals or groups based on selective criteria, not necessarily overtly stated.
  • It might not be as openly stated as explicit exclusion but is still based on specific attributes.
  • Examples include selective admission policies in schools or clubs that target certain demographics.
  • Implicit Exclusion
  • This type of exclusion is less overt and is often embedded within policies or practices that appear neutral.
  • It may occur through indirect means, such as through socioeconomic barriers that disproportionately affect certain groups.
  • An example is standardized tests that may favor certain cultural backgrounds over others.

Question 87

Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
(Spectral Resolution (μm))(Band Utility)
A.0.841-0.876I.Leaf-Area-index mapping
B.0.915-0.965II.Atmospheric Water Vapour
C.1.360-1.390III.Cirrus Clouds
D.13.185-13.485IV.Cloud-top altitude

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

  2. BOption (b)

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  3. COption (c)

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  4. DOption (d)

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Key Points

  • A. 0.841-0.876 μm - Leaf-Area-index mapping
  • This spectral range is commonly used for vegetation analysis as it corresponds to the near-infrared region where healthy green vegetation reflects strongly.
  • Leaf-Area-index (LAI) mapping is important for understanding plant growth, biomass production, and overall ecosystem health.
  • B. 0.915-0.965 μm - Atmospheric Water Vapour
  • This spectral range is sensitive to water vapour absorption, making it useful for atmospheric studies, especially for measuring atmospheric water vapour content.
  • Monitoring atmospheric water vapour is crucial for weather prediction and climate studies.
  • C. 1.360-1.390 μm - Cirrus Clouds
  • This range is used to detect cirrus clouds, which are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals.
  • Cirrus clouds have a significant impact on the Earth's radiation balance, and their detection is important for climate monitoring.
  • D. 13.185-13.485 μm - Cloud-top altitude
  • This spectral range falls in the thermal infrared region, which is used to measure the temperature of cloud tops.
  • Determining cloud-top altitude is important for understanding cloud dynamics and their impact on weather and climate.

Additional Information

  • Leaf-Area-index mapping
  • LAI is a dimensionless quantity that characterizes plant canopies, defined as the total leaf area per unit ground surface area.
  • It is a key parameter in models of biosphere-atmosphere exchanges, crop growth, and ecosystem function.
  • Atmospheric Water Vapour
  • Water vapour is the most important greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, and its concentration varies widely in time and space.
  • Remote sensing of atmospheric water vapour is crucial for understanding weather patterns and climate change.
  • Cirrus Clouds
  • Cirrus clouds are typically thin and wispy and are composed of ice crystals, forming at high altitudes.
  • They play a role in reflecting and trapping heat, influencing the Earth's energy balance.
  • Cloud-top altitude
  • Cloud-top altitude refers to the height of the top of a cloud layer above the Earth's surface.
  • It is an important parameter for understanding cloud formation processes and their effects on weather and climate.

Question 88

In the following, which one represents the group of erosional landforms.

  1. AOption (a)

    Zeugen, Truncated Spurs, Lapies

  2. BOption (b)

    Interlocking Spurs, Kame, Stalagmites

  3. COption (c)

    Hanging valley, Tombolo, Sea cave

  4. DOption (d)

    Pot holes, Dreikanter, Drumlin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Zeugen, Truncated Spurs, Lapies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Zeugen, Truncated Spurs, Lapies

Key Points

  • Zeugen
  • Zeugen are a type of erosional landform found in arid and semi-arid regions.
  • They are formed by wind erosion, which wears away softer rock layers, leaving harder rock layers standing as ridges.
  • Truncated Spurs
  • Truncated spurs are formed by river erosion, where interlocking spurs are cut off by a glacier, creating steep, cliff-like edges.
  • These landforms are common in glaciated valleys.
  • Lapies
  • Lapies, also known as lapiés or limestone pavement, are grooves or ridges formed by the chemical weathering of limestone.
  • They are typically found in karst landscapes, where acidic water dissolves the rock along joints and bedding planes.

Additional Information

  • Interlocking Spurs
  • Interlocking spurs are features of river valleys in their upper courses.
  • They are formed by the river winding and cutting through the landscape, leaving protrusions of land that interlock.
  • Kame
  • A kame is a mound or hill composed of sand, gravel, and till that accumulates in a depression on a retreating glacier and is then deposited on the land surface with further melting of the glacier.
  • Stalagmites
  • Stalagmites are mineral formations that rise from the floor of a cave due to the accumulation of material deposited by dripping water.
  • They are typically found in limestone caves.
  • Hanging Valley
  • A hanging valley is a valley that is cut across by a deeper valley or a cliff.
  • They are often formed by the differential erosion of glaciers, where a smaller tributary glacier meets a larger glacier.
  • Tombolo
  • A tombolo is a landform where an island is attached to the mainland by a narrow piece of land such as a spit or bar.
  • Sea Cave
  • Sea caves are formed by the wave action of the sea, eroding weaker parts of the rock along coastlines.
  • Pot Holes
  • Potholes are deep, cylindrical holes drilled into the bedrock of a riverbed by the abrasive action of pebbles and sediment.
  • Dreikanter
  • Dreikanter are wind-abraded pebbles typically found in desert environments.
  • They have three flat faces due to wind erosion.
  • Drumlin
  • A drumlin is an elongated hill formed by glacial ice acting on underlying unconsolidated till or ground moraine.

Question 89

Geometrical figures shaping the raster cell and completely covering a flat surface are called _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    elemental points

  2. BOption (b)

    buffering

  3. COption (c)

    tessellations

  4. DOption (d)

    digital line graphs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

tessellations

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Tessellations

Key Points

  • Tessellations
  • Tessellations are patterns made of shapes that fit perfectly together without any gaps or overlaps, covering a flat surface completely.
  • In the context of raster cells in geographic information systems (GIS), tessellations refer to the grid pattern that covers a surface, where each cell represents a specific area on the ground.
  • Tessellations are commonly used in digital mapping and computer graphics to manage spatial data efficiently.
  • Examples of tessellating shapes include squares, triangles, and hexagons.

Additional Information

  • Elemental Points
  • Elemental points refer to individual, discrete points in a spatial dataset. They do not cover a surface completely like tessellations do.
  • Buffering
  • Buffering is a GIS technique used to create zones around a feature (such as a point, line, or polygon) at a specified distance. It is not related to covering surfaces with shapes.
  • Digital Line Graphs (DLGs)
  • Digital Line Graphs are vector representations of cartographic information derived from USGS maps. They represent features like roads, rivers, and boundaries but do not cover surfaces completely.

Question 90

Identify the correct statements about Deep ecology,

A. All life has intrinsic value.

B. Humans have right to reduce richness and diversity of life-forms on earth.

C. The value of non-human life-forms is independent of the usefulness they may have for narrow human purposes.

D. The flourishing of non-human life requires increase in the human population.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: 'A and C only'.

Key Points

  • All life has intrinsic value.
  • This statement is correct.
  • A core tenet of deep ecology is the belief that all forms of life have intrinsic value, meaning that they possess value beyond their utility to humans.
  • Hence, Statement A is correct.
  • The value of non-human life-forms is independent of the usefulness they may have for narrow human purposes.
  • This statement is correct.
  • Deep ecology emphasizes that non-human life has intrinsic value, regardless of its usefulness to human beings, promoting respect for biodiversity for its own sake.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • Humans have the right to reduce the richness and diversity of life-forms on Earth.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Deep ecology opposes actions that reduce biodiversity and the richness of life forms, asserting that human interference with nature should be minimized.
  • Hence, Statement B is incorrect.
  • The flourishing of non-human life requires an increase in the human population.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Deep ecology advocates for a reduction in human population growth to alleviate pressure on natural ecosystems and allow non-human life to thrive.
  • Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Core Principles of Deep Ecology:
  • Intrinsic Value of Life: Recognizes the inherent worth of all living beings, irrespective of human benefit.
  • Biocentric Equality: Advocates for equal consideration of all species and supports biodiversity preservation.
  • Minimal Human Impact: Calls for reducing human population and consumption to maintain ecological balance and support non-human life.

The map displaying the distribution of objects/elements by using different colours are known as the Colour Patch Maps or the Choro-chromatic map. They are of three types based on colour selection and shading. In the first type of maps various areas are shown by selecting any random sequence of colours, arbitralily, and they are called Simple Colour Maps. In the second type of choro-chromatic types, the maps are prepared by using standard colours of international colour scheme. The third type of maps are prepared using Layer Tint Method where multiple densities or shades of the same colour are used to highlight various properties. The method of displaying the distribution of elements with the help of different shades of the black colour is used in the distribution map. This method is similar to colour patch method. The method of displaying the distribution of elements through pictures in the distribution map is called the pictorial method.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is NOT a qualitative method of map making?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chorochromatic

  2. BOption (b)

    Choropleth

  3. COption (c)

    Choroschematic

  4. DOption (d)

    Color-Patch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Choropleth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Choropleth’

Key Points

  • Choropleth:
  • A choropleth map represents quantitative data by shading or coloring areas based on numerical values or densities, such as population density or average rainfall.
  • This map type is used to show statistical data, making it quantitative rather than qualitative.
  • In choropleth mapping, colors or shades increase in intensity with the values represented, which differs from qualitative maps that categorize rather than quantify data.

Additional Information

  • Chorochromatic:
  • Chorochromatic maps, also known as qualitative area maps, display distinct regions or features using colors or patterns without representing quantities.
  • They are commonly used to illustrate land use, vegetation, or geological formations, emphasizing qualitative differences.
  • Choroschematic:
  • Choroschematic maps simplify spatial relationships, focusing on relative location and arrangement rather than precise quantitative data.
  • These maps are used in fields like transportation planning and urban studies to represent connectivity or spatial organization.
  • Color-Patch:
  • Color-Patch mapping employs distinct color patches to represent different qualitative categories or themes, such as soil types or climate zones.
  • Each color represents a unique category rather than a measurable quantity, aligning it with qualitative mapping.

Important Points

  • Qualitative maps, such as chorochromatic, choroschematic, and color-patch maps, are designed to display types or categories rather than numerical data.
  • Choropleth maps are distinctly quantitative, making them suitable for data visualization where variations in magnitude are essential.
  • The distinction between qualitative and quantitative mapping is critical in fields like geography and cartography for effective data representation.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In topographical maps of India, plateau is shown with the help of _______ colour

  1. AOption (a)

    Yellow

  2. BOption (b)

    Dark Brown

  3. COption (c)

    Light Brown

  4. DOption (d)

    Red

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Light Brown

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Light Brown’

Key Points

  • Light Brown:
  • In topographical maps, light brown is commonly used to represent plateaus, highlighting their intermediate elevation between plains and mountains.
  • The color helps indicate areas that are not as high as mountainous regions (which are usually shown in dark brown) but are elevated compared to plains (often depicted in green or yellow).
  • Light brown shading makes it easy to distinguish plateaus from other geographical features on a map, aiding in visual interpretation of India's varied terrain.

Additional Information

  • Yellow:
  • Yellow is generally used to represent plains or lowland areas on topographical maps, indicating relatively flat terrain with low elevation.
  • It provides a visual contrast to brown shades, helping users differentiate lower elevation regions from plateaus and mountains.
  • Dark Brown:
  • Dark brown is used to represent mountainous or high-elevation areas on topographical maps, distinguishing them from the relatively lower-elevation plateaus.
  • This color indicates steeper terrain and is often applied to regions with substantial elevation changes, such as the Himalayan range in India.
  • Red:
  • Red is typically used for man-made features such as roads, boundaries, or populated areas on topographical maps rather than natural terrain features like plateaus.
  • This color helps highlight infrastructure and settlements for easy identification on maps.

Important Points

  • Topographical maps use a color-coding scheme to represent various elevation levels, making it easy to identify the nature of landforms at a glance.
  • Light brown is specific to plateaus, providing a middle-ground color between plains (yellow) and high-elevation mountains (dark brown).
  • Understanding these color conventions is essential for accurate interpretation of physical features on topographical maps.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is a characteristics of Simple Shade Method?

  1. AOption (a)

    Variations of distribution are shown by using shades of any colour.

  2. BOption (b)

    Variations of distribution are shown by using shades of black or black and white scheme.

  3. COption (c)

    Variations of distribution are shown by using sketches or graphics based on pictures.

  4. DOption (d)

    There is no difference between Colour Patch Method and Simple Shade method.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Variations of distribution are shown by using shades of black or black and white scheme.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Variations of distribution are shown by using shades of black or black and white scheme’

Key Points

  • Simple Shade Method:
  • The Simple Shade Method uses varying intensities of black, white, or grayscale to represent different levels of distribution on a map.
  • This method is particularly effective for monochromatic maps where color is not used, allowing viewers to distinguish regions based on shades from light to dark.
  • It is commonly applied in situations where color may be unavailable, providing a straightforward way to show distribution patterns without relying on a color scheme.

Additional Information

  • Variations of distribution shown by using shades of any color:
  • This technique typically refers to a color-based shading method, where various colors indicate different levels of distribution, rather than relying solely on grayscale or black-and-white.
  • This is not characteristic of the Simple Shade Method, which avoids color variations.
  • Variations shown using sketches or graphics:
  • This approach uses symbolic sketches or graphics to represent distribution patterns, often applied in thematic maps with specific illustrative features.
  • This method differs from the Simple Shade Method, as it incorporates graphics rather than shades of black or grayscale.
  • No difference between Colour Patch Method and Simple Shade Method:
  • The Colour Patch Method is distinct from the Simple Shade Method, as it employs different colors to represent categorical data on a map.
  • In contrast, the Simple Shade Method uses black, white, and gray shades to indicate distribution variations without differentiating by color.

Important Points

  • The Simple Shade Method is ideal for monochrome maps, where colors are not utilized, simplifying distribution representation through grayscale.
  • It is commonly employed in print maps or situations with limited color resources, enabling effective communication of data using only black and white tones.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Political map of India is an example of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    International Colour Scheme Map

  2. BOption (b)

    Layer Tint Method Map

  3. COption (c)

    Simple Colour Map

  4. DOption (d)

    Choropleth Map

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Simple Colour Map

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Simple Colour Map’

Key Points

  • Simple Colour Map:
  • A political map of India is an example of a Simple Colour Map, where distinct colors are used to differentiate administrative boundaries and regions.
  • This type of map uses clear, contrasting colors to represent different states or countries, enhancing visual clarity without additional data overlays.
  • Simple Colour Maps are primarily used for reference purposes, providing clear boundaries and geographic distinctions without complex data representation.

Additional Information

  • International Colour Scheme Map:
  • This map type adheres to a standardized color scheme for representing international territories or conventions, differing from a simple political map.
  • It’s typically used for thematic maps that follow globally recognized color patterns, such as blue for water bodies and green for lowlands.
  • Layer Tint Method Map:
  • The Layer Tint Method applies various shades to represent elevation or depth on physical maps, using gradual color changes to denote altitude.
  • This method is used more for topographical or relief maps rather than for political boundaries, which is the focus of a Simple Colour Map.
  • Choropleth Map:
  • A Choropleth Map displays data values by shading regions based on statistical data, such as population density, unlike a Simple Colour Map used for political boundaries.
  • Choropleth Maps are thematic and quantitatively focused, unlike the Simple Colour Map’s focus on showing political divisions.

Important Points

  • A Simple Colour Map, such as a political map, focuses on clarity and ease of interpretation by using colors to demarcate administrative boundaries.
  • This map type differs significantly from thematic maps like choropleth maps, which display quantitative data distributions.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Map showing the major mining centers of India for different minerals is an example of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    chorochromatic maps

  2. BOption (b)

    choropleth maps

  3. COption (c)

    choroschematic maps

  4. DOption (d)

    Isopleth maps

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

choroschematic maps

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘choroschematic maps’

Key Points

  • Choroschematic Maps:
  • Choroschematic maps simplify geographic representations to highlight specific locations or points of interest, such as major mining centers for different minerals.
  • This map type focuses on depicting the relative location of features rather than precise geographic boundaries, making it useful for thematic topics like mining centers.
  • In India, choroschematic maps are often used to show major industrial, agricultural, or resource-based regions.

Additional Information

  • Chorochromatic Maps:
  • Chorochromatic maps, also known as qualitative maps, represent categorical or thematic data across regions by color-coding different zones, such as vegetation or land use.
  • They are not used for pinpointing specific sites like mining centers but rather to show the distribution of distinct categories across a geographic area.
  • Choropleth Maps:
  • Choropleth maps use shades or colors to represent statistical data over defined areas, such as population density or income levels.
  • This method is primarily quantitative and unsuitable for representing specific location-based information, as in the case of major mining centers.
  • Isopleth Maps:
  • Isopleth maps display continuous data across regions using lines (isolines) that connect points of equal value, such as temperature or elevation.
  • They are not appropriate for discrete locations like mining centers, as they are better suited for illustrating gradients and distributions across an area.

Important Points

  • Choroschematic maps simplify geographic information by highlighting specific themes without showing exact boundaries, ideal for maps focusing on key locations.
  • Unlike quantitative or regional maps, choroschematic maps are more illustrative, helping to represent point-based information such as industrial sites or mineral resources.

The concept of town can be understood with reference to village. Population size is not the only criteria. Specific functions such as manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade, and professional services exist in towns. A city may be regarded as a leading town which has outstripped its local or regional rivals. The city is in fact the physical form of the highest and most complex type of associative life. Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions. The term conurbation is applied to a large area of urban development that emerges due to the merging of originally separate towns or cities. The number of million cities in the world were 162 in the mid 70's and by 2030, a projected 662 cities will have at least 1 million residents. Megalopolis is a Greek word that means "great city. It signifies 'super metropolitan region extending as union of conurbations.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In the Census of India _______ criterion is NOT used to differentiate urban from rural.

  1. AOption (a)

    administrative

  2. BOption (b)

    demographic

  3. COption (c)

    social

  4. DOption (d)

    economic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

social

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘social’

Key Points

  • Social Criterion:
  • The Census of India does not include a social criterion when differentiating between urban and rural areas.
  • Distinctions are typically made based on economic, demographic, and administrative factors rather than social characteristics.
  • This approach focuses on quantifiable metrics rather than subjective or cultural indicators.

Additional Information

  • Administrative Criterion:
  • The administrative criterion considers official designations, such as whether an area has been notified as a municipality or urban area by the government.
  • This is a primary factor in classifying regions within the Census.
  • Demographic Criterion:
  • Demographic factors such as population size and density are used in the Census to distinguish urban areas, where population concentration tends to be higher.
  • This is a quantitative measure and widely used in defining urban characteristics.
  • Economic Criterion:
  • The economic criterion is also applied, focusing on the primary sources of income and employment types prevalent in the area, such as agriculture in rural areas versus industry in urban areas.
  • Economic factors provide insight into the functional nature of urban and rural regions.

Important Points

  • The Census of India employs objective criteria like administrative, demographic, and economic factors to classify areas, avoiding subjective social criteria.
  • These criteria help maintain consistency in classification, enabling accurate data comparison across different regions of India.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following city was NOT a million city of India as per Census, 2011?

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    Dehradun

  3. COption (c)

    Ranchi

  4. DOption (d)

    Kota

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dehradun

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Dehradun’

Key Points

  • Dehradun:
  • As per Census 2011, Dehradun did not meet the population criteria to be classified as a million city in India.
  • In India, a "million city" refers to an urban area with a population exceeding one million (10 lakh) residents, according to census data.
  • Dehradun, despite being a prominent city and capital of Uttarakhand, had a population below one million as per the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

  • Surat:
  • Surat was classified as a million city as it had a significant population increase, driven by rapid industrial and commercial growth.
  • It is one of the major cities in Gujarat and a key economic hub, particularly known for its diamond and textile industries.
  • Ranchi:
  • Ranchi, the capital of Jharkhand, was also classified as a million city in Census 2011 due to its growing urban population.
  • The city has seen an increase in population owing to its importance as a political and educational center in the region.
  • Kota:
  • Kota, known for its educational institutions and coaching centers, crossed the million-population threshold as per Census 2011.
  • It is a significant city in Rajasthan, attracting students from all over the country, which contributes to its population growth.

Important Points

  • The 2011 Census classified "million cities" based on a population criterion of over one million residents within urban areas.
  • Urbanization trends and economic factors contribute to cities achieving or surpassing this population level, reflecting growth in infrastructure and industry.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The term 'megalopolis' was popularised by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    P. Geddes

  2. BOption (b)

    L. Mumfard

  3. COption (c)

    J. Gottman

  4. DOption (d)

    H. Pirenne

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

J. Gottman

Why this answer is correct

ThThe correct answer is ‘J. Gottman’

Key Points

  • Jean Gottman:
  • Jean Gottman, a French geographer, popularized the term "megalopolis" to describe extensive urban regions formed by merging metropolitan areas.
  • He introduced the concept to explain the densely populated and highly urbanized northeastern U.S. region, spanning from Boston to Washington, D.C., known as "BosWash."
  • Gottman’s work highlighted the socio-economic and infrastructural integration within these large urban corridors, shaping modern urban geography.

Additional Information

  • Patrick Geddes:
  • Patrick Geddes was a prominent town planner and biologist who contributed to urban planning theory, but he did not coin the term "megalopolis."
  • He is known for his ideas on city planning and sustainable development, emphasizing the interrelationship between people, place, and work.
  • Lewis Mumford:
  • Lewis Mumford was an influential historian and sociologist who wrote extensively on urban development, but he did not popularize the term "megalopolis."
  • He focused on the evolution of urban centers and criticized the expansion of large cities, advocating for human-centered urban environments.
  • Henri Pirenne:
  • Henri Pirenne was a historian known for his work on medieval Europe and urban history, but he did not contribute to the concept of megalopolis.
  • His studies focused on the economic and social history of European cities, rather than modern urban corridors like megalopolises.

Important Points

  • The term "megalopolis" describes extensive urban regions where multiple metropolitan areas are interconnected, forming a large, continuous urban environment.
  • Gottman’s concept has influenced the understanding of urban expansion and the socio-economic integration of urban regions worldwide.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Urban landscape stretched from Boston to Washington in USA is the best example of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Conurbation

  2. BOption (b)

    Megalopolis

  3. COption (c)

    City

  4. DOption (d)

    Town

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Megalopolis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Megalopolis’

Key Points

  • Megalopolis:
  • The term "megalopolis" refers to a large, densely populated urban region formed by the merging of several metropolitan areas.
  • The Boston-Washington corridor, also known as "BosWash," is a prime example of a megalopolis in the USA, with extensive socio-economic and infrastructural integration.
  • Coined and popularized by Jean Gottman, this concept illustrates the continuous urban sprawl along the northeastern seaboard of the United States.
  • This urban region includes major cities like Boston, New York City, Philadelphia, Baltimore, and Washington, D.C., demonstrating a high degree of urban and economic interconnectivity.

Additional Information

  • Conurbation:
  • A conurbation is a region where two or more cities or towns have grown into each other, creating a single urban area.
  • It differs from a megalopolis, which is characterized by multiple large urban centers, while a conurbation typically involves smaller, closely connected cities.
  • City:
  • A city is an urban area with its own administrative and governance structure, usually distinguished by a large population and developed infrastructure.
  • Unlike a megalopolis, a city is a single entity and does not imply an extensive, interconnected urban region.
  • Town:
  • A town is a smaller urban area than a city, with fewer services and lower population density.
  • It does not fit the concept of a megalopolis, which involves large, densely populated urban regions.

Important Points

  • The concept of a megalopolis has become essential for studying urban planning and infrastructure development across interconnected urban areas.
  • Jean Gottman’s work on BosWash exemplifies how megalopolises form through economic, social, and infrastructural links between large urban centers.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The term conurbation was coined by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Geddes

  2. BOption (b)

    Gothman

  3. COption (c)

    Mumford

  4. DOption (d)

    Griffin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Geddes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Geddes’

Key Points

  • Patrick Geddes:
  • Patrick Geddes, a prominent urban planner and biologist, coined the term "conurbation" to describe a large urban area formed by the merging of multiple cities and towns.
  • His work emphasized the relationship between urban growth and social, economic, and environmental factors, which contribute to the formation of these large, interconnected areas.
  • Geddes' concept of conurbation highlights the blending of adjacent urban centers into a single, contiguous metropolitan region.

Additional Information

  • Jean Gottman:
  • Jean Gottman popularized the concept of "megalopolis" rather than conurbation, specifically through his study of the northeastern United States.
  • He focused on the interconnected nature of large cities like Boston, New York, and Washington, forming a continuous urban region.
  • Lewis Mumford:
  • Lewis Mumford was a historian and social critic who studied urbanization and its effects but did not introduce the term "conurbation."
  • He emphasized the cultural and social impacts of urban expansion, advocating for human-centered urban environments.
  • Clarence Griffin:
  • Clarence Griffin was not associated with the term "conurbation" and made no significant contributions to its development in urban studies.

Important Points

  • The term "conurbation" is significant in urban geography, describing the growth of adjacent cities into a continuous metropolitan region.
  • Geddes' concept of conurbation remains relevant for studying modern urban development and regional planning.

100 questions in the full paper