UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 28th August 2024 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Given Data for September:

 Votes for A: 2.0 lakh

 Votes for B: 2.0 lakh

 Votes for D: 4.5 lakh

Calculations:

1. Total Votes for A and B:

Total votes from A and B = 2.0 lakh + 2.0 lakh = 4.0 lakh
2. 7% of Votes for D:

7% of 4.5 lakh = 0.07 × 4.5 lakh = 0.315 lakh
3. Target Votes Needed by A and B:

Target votes = 4.5 lakh + 0.315 lakh = 4.815 lakh
4. Additional Votes Needed by A and B:

Additional votes needed = 4.815 lakh - 4.0 lakh = 0.815 lakh

Conclusion: The additional number of votes needed by A and B together to get 7% more votes than D is 0.815 lakh (or 81,500 votes).

Given Data for July:

 Votes for C: 2.5 lakh

 Votes for D: 4.5 lakh

Current Ratio:

Votes of D and C = 4.5 lakh (D) : 2.5 lakh (C) = 9:5

New Ratio Requirement:

New ratio of D to C should be 5:9.

Calculations:

1. Calculate New Votes for C:

Let the new votes for C be x.

From the new ratio:

4.5 / x = 5 / 9

Cross-multiplying:

4.5 × 9 = 5 × x

40.5 = 5x

x = 40.5 / 5 = 8.1 lakh
2. Calculate Increase in Votes for C:

Increase = New Votes - Current Votes

Increase = 8.1 - 2.5 = 5.6 lakh
3. Calculate Percentage Increase:

Percentage Increase = (Increase / Current Votes) × 100

Percentage Increase = (5.6 / 2.5) × 100

Percentage Increase = 2.24 × 100 = 224%

Conclusion: The votes of C should increase by 224% to make the ratio 5:9 with respect to D's votes.

Given:

 Votes of Company B in May = 1.0 lakh

 Votes of Company B in January = 2.5 lakh

 Votes of Company C in November = 1.5 lakh

 Votes of Company C in January = 3.0 lakh

Formula Used:

Percentage Decline = ((Old Value - New Value) / Old Value) × 100

Calculations:

1. Calculate the percentage decline in votes of B from January to May:

Old Value (January) = 2.5 lakh

New Value (May) = 1.0 lakh

Percentage Decline in B = ((2.5 - 1.0) / 2.5) × 100

⇒ ((1.5) / 2.5) × 100

⇒ 60%

2. Calculate the percentage decline in votes of C from January to November:

Old Value (January) = 3.0 lakh

New Value (November) = 1.5 lakh

Percentage Decline in C = ((3.0 - 1.5) / 3.0) × 100

⇒ (1.5 / 3.0) × 100

⇒ 50%

3. Ratio of percentage declines:

Ratio = Percentage Decline in B : Percentage Decline in C

⇒ 60 : 50

⇒ 6 : 5

∴ The ratio of percentage decline in votes of B in May to the percentage decline in votes of C in November is 6:5.

Given:

Votes for Company A (in lakh):

  January: 1.5

 March: 1.0

 May: 1.0

 July: 1.5

 September: 2.0

 November: 3.0

Votes for Company D (in lakh):

 January: 4.0

 March: 4.0

 May: 3.5

 July: 4.5

 September: 4.5

 November: 4.0

Calculations:

Total Votes for Company A = 1.5 + 1.0 + 1.0 + 1.5 + 2.0 + 3.0 = 10.0 lakh

Total Votes for Company D = 4.0 + 4.0 + 3.5 + 4.5 + 4.5 + 4.0 = 24.5 lakh

Additional Votes Needed = Total Votes for D - Total Votes for A = 24.5 - 10.0 = 14.5 lakh

Percentage Increase = (Additional Votes Needed / Total Votes for A) × 100

Percentage Increase = (14.5 / 10.0) × 100 = 145%

Conclusion: Company A needs 145% more votes to equal the total votes polled by Company D over the six months.

Given Data for Votes:

Votes for A and C in:

 January: A = 1.5 lakh, C = 3.0 lakh

 May: A = 1.0 lakh, C = 2.5 lakh

 September: A = 2.0 lakh, C = 3.5 lakh

Votes for B and D in:

 March: B = 3.0 lakh, D = 4.0 lakh

 July: B = 1.0 lakh, D = 4.5 lakh

 November: B = 2.0 lakh, D = 4.0 lakh

Calculations:

Total Votes for A and C:

January: 1.5 + 3.0 = 4.5 lakh

May: 1.0 + 2.5 = 3.5 lakh

September: 2.0 + 3.5 = 5.5 lakh

Total Votes for A and C = 4.5 + 3.5 + 5.5 = 13.5 lakh

Total Votes for B and D:

March: 3.0 + 4.0 = 7.0 lakh

July: 1.0 + 4.5 = 5.5 lakh

November: 2.0 + 4.0 = 6.0 lakh

Total Votes for B and D = 7.0 + 5.5 + 6.0 = 18.5 lakh

Difference = Total Votes for B and D - Total Votes for A and C = 18.5 - 13.5 = 5.0 lakh

Percentage Less = (Difference / Total Votes for B and D) × 100

Percentage Less = (5.0 / 18.5) × 100 ≈ 27.03%

Conclusion: The number of votes polled in favor of A and C is approximately 27 % less than the votes for B and D.

The correct answer is: - (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

Key Points

Chronological Sequence of College Establishments:

• St. Xavier's College (Calcutta) (E):
• Established in 1860 by the Jesuits.
• One of the oldest and most prestigious colleges in India.
• Notable for its contributions to education and society in Kolkata and beyond.
• St. Stephen's College (B):
• Founded in 1881 by the Cambridge Mission to Delhi.
• Known for its academic excellence and its role in the social and educational development of Delhi.
• Affiliated with the University of Delhi.
• Daly College (A):
• Established in 1882 in Indore as a residency school for the children of Indian nobility.
• Named after Sir Henry Daly, a British commander.
• Considered one of the oldest public schools in India.
• Bengal National College (C):
• Founded in 1906 by great nationalists like Aurobindo Ghosh during the Swadeshi movement.
• Part of the nationalist education movement reacting to British educational policies.
• Focused on imparting education imbued with nationalistic spirit.
• Bengal Technical Institute (D):
• Started in 1906, which later evolved into Jadavpur University.
• Initially set up to promote technical education in response to the need for indigenous self-reliance.
• Played a significant role in the technical and scientific education landscape of Bengal.

Additional Information

• St. Xavier's College has a significant alumni network and numerous notable alumni in various fields such as politics, arts, and science.
• St. Stephen's College is known for its liberal arts and sciences programs and has been a pioneer in social reforms and critical thinking.
• Daly College follows a public school model and has a strong emphasis on extracurricular activities, sports, and leadership development.
• Bengal National College was at the forefront of the nationalist education movement and emphasized indigenous culture and knowledge systems.
• Bengal Technical Institute was instrumental in spreading technical education and has played a key role in the industrial and technological advancements in India.

The correct answer is - (B) and (D) Only

Key Points

• Verbal Testimony (śabda pramāna) in Nyāya School of Logic
• Verbal testimony is considered a valid means of knowledge (pramāna) in the Nyāya school.
• It refers to knowledge gained through words, especially those of a trustworthy and authoritative source.
• According to Nyāya, verbal testimony includes:
• Words of a scripture (B)
• Words of a trustworthy person (D)

Additional Information

• Injunctive Sentences (A)
• Injunctive sentences alone are not considered sufficient for verbal testimony in Nyāya.
• Nyāya emphasizes the importance of the source of the statement, rather than the type of sentence.
• Words of Any Teacher (C)
• While teachers can be sources of knowledge, Nyāya specifically focuses on trustworthy persons and scriptures.
• Not all teachers may be considered trustworthy, hence they are not a universal source in this context.

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Key Points

• (A) Noise Pollution: Geothermal power plants can cause noise pollution due to the operation of heavy machinery, drilling processes, and steam venting. This can disturb nearby ecosystems and human settlements.
• (B) Production of SO₂ and NOₓ: Although geothermal energy is considered a clean energy source, certain geothermal plants release sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), contributing to air pollution.
• (C) Production of H₂S (toxic gas): Geothermal plants can emit hydrogen sulfide (H₂S), a toxic gas with a characteristic rotten egg smell. It poses health risks and environmental concerns.
• (D) Production of CO₂: While geothermal energy is much cleaner compared to fossil fuels, carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions can still occur due to the release of stored gases from geothermal reservoirs.

Additional Information

• Environmental Impact of Geothermal Power Plants
• Geothermal power plants are generally considered more environmentally friendly compared to fossil fuel plants.
• They have a smaller carbon footprint and provide a reliable source of renewable energy.
• However, the environmental hazards listed above must be managed effectively to minimize their impact.
• Mitigation Measures
• Advanced technologies and regulatory measures are in place to reduce emissions and noise pollution.
• Regular monitoring and maintenance can help in minimizing the release of harmful gases like H₂S and CO₂.

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points

• Primary Treatment
• Primary treatment involves the physical removal of large pieces of waste material such as sticks, stones, rags, and plastics.
• These materials are typically removed through processes like screening and sedimentation.
• Secondary Treatment
• Secondary treatment involves the removal of dissolved and suspended biological matter.
• This is typically achieved through biological processes such as activated sludge, trickling filters, or bio-towers.
• In the context of this question, it involves removal after flocculation and coagulation of wastes.
• Tertiary Treatment
• Tertiary treatment is an advanced cleaning process that further purifies wastewater.
• This stage often includes processes such as filtration, lagooning, nutrient removal, and disinfection.
• In this context, it involves the removal of wastes with the help of activated charcoal, etc.
• Advanced Treatment
• Advanced treatment goes beyond conventional tertiary treatment to remove pollutants that are difficult to treat by other methods.
• This includes ozonization and disinfection by ultraviolet rays.

Additional Information

• Flocculation and Coagulation
• These processes are used to remove suspended solids from water by aggregating smaller particles into larger masses (flocs) which can then be easily removed.
• Common coagulants include aluminum sulfate (alum) and ferric chloride.
• Activated Charcoal
• Activated charcoal is used in water treatment to remove organic compounds and chlorine from water.
• It works by adsorption, where contaminants adhere to the surface of the charcoal particles.
• Ozonization
• Ozonization involves using ozone gas to disinfect water by destroying bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.
• Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent and leaves no harmful residues.
• Ultraviolet (UV) Disinfection
• UV disinfection utilizes UV light to kill or inactivate microorganisms by damaging their DNA.
• It is a chemical-free method and is effective against a wide range of pathogens.

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (D) Only

Key Points

• Measurement
• Quantitative research often focuses on the precise measurement of variables.
• This involves using statistical tools to collect and analyze numerical data.
• Causality
• Quantitative researchers aim to identify cause-and-effect relationships between variables.
• This can involve using experimental or longitudinal studies to determine how one variable affects another.
• Generalization
• One of the goals of quantitative research is to generalize findings from a sample to a larger population.
• This is often achieved through random sampling and statistical inference.

Additional Information

• Description
• While description can be part of quantitative research, it is not the primary focus.
• Descriptive statistics are often used as a preliminary step before more complex analyses.

The correct answer is - Lead

Key Points

• Lead
• Lead is a heavy metal that can be found in drinking water due to the corrosion of plumbing systems containing lead pipes, fixtures, and solder.
• Exposure to lead, even at low levels, can cause various health issues, including elevated blood pressure, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke.
• Lead affects the cardiovascular system by causing damage to the blood vessels and by interfering with the body's ability to regulate blood pressure.
• It is particularly harmful to children and pregnant women, causing developmental issues and other severe health problems.
• The maximum contaminant level for lead in drinking water, as set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), is 0.015 mg/L (15 parts per billion).

Additional Information

• Sulphate
• Sulphates are naturally occurring substances found in minerals, soil, and rocks. They can also be present in water due to industrial discharges and agricultural runoff.
• While high levels of sulphate in drinking water can cause a laxative effect and gastrointestinal discomfort, they are not associated with elevated blood pressure.
• Zinc
• Zinc is an essential trace element necessary for various physiological functions, including immune response, DNA synthesis, and cell division.
• Although excessive zinc intake can cause health issues such as nausea and vomiting, it does not elevate blood pressure.
• Copper
• Copper is another essential trace element important for maintaining healthy bones, blood vessels, and nerves.
• Excessive copper levels in drinking water can cause gastrointestinal distress and liver or kidney damage, but it is not linked to elevated blood pressure.

The correct answer is - Nalanda

Key Points

• Nalanda
• Nalanda University was an ancient center of learning in the Indian state of Bihar, flourishing from around the 5^th century to 1200 CE.
• It was one of the first residential universities in the world, accommodating over 10,000 students and 2,000 teachers.
• The university offered a variety of subjects including theology, grammar, logic, astronomy, metaphysics, medicine, and philosophy.
• The buildings named Ratnasagara, Ratnadadhi, and Ratnaranjaka were among the key structures within Nalanda University, contributing to its grandeur and architectural beauty.
• Famous scholars like Xuanzang and Yijing from China visited Nalanda to study and later documented their experiences, providing valuable insights into the functioning and significance of the university.

Additional Information

• Takshashila (Taxila)
• Located in modern-day Pakistan, Takshashila was an ancient center of education dating back to at least the 5^th century BCE.
• It was known for its curriculum which included subjects like the Vedas, grammar, philosophy, medicine, politics, and military sciences.
• Famous scholars such as Chanakya (Kautilya), the author of the Arthashastra, and Panini, the grammarian, were associated with Takshashila.
• Odantapuri
• Located in Bihar, Odantapuri was another prominent Buddhist Mahavihara (monastic university) established in the 8^th century CE.
• It played a significant role in the dissemination of Buddhist teachings and practices in Eastern India and Tibet.
• Sridhanya Katak
• Sridhanya Katak is not widely recognized in historical records as a notable ancient university, making it less relevant to the context of the question.

Calculation:

Numerator: (0.22 × 0.22 × 0.22) + (0.022 × 0.022 × 0.022)

⇒ (0.22)³ + (0.022)³

⇒ (22/100)³ + (22/1000)³

⇒ (22/100)3 (1 + (1/10)³)

Denominator: (0.66 × 0.66 × 0.66) + (0.066 × 0.066 × 0.066)

⇒ (0.66)³ + (0.066)³

⇒ (66/100)³ + (66/1000)³

⇒ (66/100)³ (1 + (1/10)³)

Now,

Required answer = (22/100)3 (1 + (1/10)3) / (66/100)3 (1 + (1/10)3)

⇒  (22/100)3 / (66/100)3

⇒ 22³ / 66³

⇒ (22/66)³

⇒ (1/3)³ = 1/27

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

• Time (T) = 3 years
• Additional Interest = Rs. 360
• Let the principal amount be P.
• Let the original rate of interest be R.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculations:

1. Calculate interest at the original rate:

SI₁ = (P × R × 3) / 100

2. Calculate interest at the increased rate:

SI₂ = (P × (R + 2) × 3) / 100

3. The difference in interest:

SI₂ - SI₁ = 360

⇒ (P × (R + 2) × 3) / 100 - (P × R × 3) / 100 = 360

4. Simplifying the equation:

⇒ (3P/100) × ((R + 2) - R) = 360

⇒ (3P/100) × 2 = 360

⇒ 6P/100 = 360

5. Solving for P:

⇒ P = (360 × 100) / 6

⇒ P = 6000

∴ The amount deposited in the bank is:

Rs. 6000

The correct answer is - Anterograde amnesia

Key Points

• Anterograde amnesia
• Anterograde amnesia refers to the reduced ability to form new memories after the onset of amnesia.
• Patients with anterograde amnesia can remember information and events that occurred before the onset of amnesia but struggle to remember new information.
• This condition is often associated with damage to the hippocampus, a region of the brain critical for forming new memories.
• Anterograde amnesia can result from various causes, including traumatic brain injury, certain medications, or neurological diseases like Alzheimer's.

Additional Information

• Working Memory
• Working memory is a cognitive system with a limited capacity that is responsible for temporarily holding information available for processing.
• It is crucial for reasoning, decision-making, and behavior.
• Working memory is not specifically related to amnesia but can be affected in various cognitive disorders.
• Retrograde Amnesia
• Retrograde amnesia is the inability to recall information that was acquired before the onset of amnesia.
• This condition affects old memories while the ability to form new memories remains intact.
• It is often caused by brain trauma, stroke, or other neurological conditions.
• Phonological Loop
• The phonological loop is a component of working memory that deals with auditory information and the temporary storage and manipulation of verbal data.
• It is part of the broader working memory model proposed by Baddeley and Hitch.
• The phonological loop is not directly related to any form of amnesia but plays a role in the processing of verbal information.

The correct answer is - Using skills acquired in carpentry to excel in painting

Key Points

• Zero Transfer of Learning
• Zero transfer of learning occurs when the skills, knowledge, or abilities gained in one context have no impact on performance in another context.
• In this case, skills acquired in carpentry are not relevant or applicable to excelling in painting.
• Carpentry involves skills such as measuring, cutting, and assembling materials, which do not directly translate to painting techniques like brushwork, color mixing, and composition.

Additional Information

• Using knowledge of one programming language to another similar language
• This involves positive transfer of learning where skills in one programming language help in learning another similar language.
• Common programming concepts like loops, conditionals, and syntax structures can be applied across languages.
• Applying techniques of learning in basketball to improve skills in soccer
• This can involve positive transfer where general athletic skills like agility, coordination, and strategic thinking can benefit both sports.
• However, specific techniques such as dribbling or shooting are different and may require separate learning.
• Applying a mathematical problem-solving method to physics problems
• This represents positive transfer, where mathematical techniques are useful in solving physics problems, especially in areas involving calculations and logical reasoning.
• Mathematical methods like algebra, calculus, and vector analysis are often directly applicable in physics.

The correct answer is - Trojan Horse

Key Points

• Trojan Horse
• A Trojan Horse is a type of malicious software that disguises itself as a legitimate program.
• It requires the user to download and install it, believing it to be harmless or useful software.
• Once installed, it can perform various malicious activities such as stealing data, creating backdoors, or even downloading additional malware.
• The name is derived from the ancient Greek story of the Trojan Horse, where Greek soldiers hid inside a wooden horse to infiltrate the city of Troy.

Additional Information

• Time Bomb
• A Time Bomb is a type of malicious software that is programmed to activate at a specific time or date.
• It remains dormant in the system until the predefined time, at which point it executes its payload.
• Worm
• A Worm is a self-replicating type of malware that spreads without any user interaction.
• It can propagate through networks and systems, often causing widespread damage and disruption.
• Logic Bomb
• A Logic Bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when certain conditions are met.
• It can be triggered by specific events like a certain date, the deletion of a file, or a specific user action.

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points

• (A) Knowledge Commission - (III) Establishment of 50 National Universities
• The Knowledge Commission was established by the Government of India in 2005 to foster knowledge-based institutions and enhance the quality of education.
• One of its significant recommendations was the establishment of 50 National Universities to improve the higher education landscape in India.
• (B) Council of Education (Pre-Independence) - (IV) Setting up a university in Bengal
• The Council of Education was an advisory body during the British rule in India.
• It recommended the establishment of a university in Bengal, which led to the formation of the University of Calcutta in 1857.
• (C) Hunter Commission - (I) Grants for collegiate education
• The Hunter Commission, established in 1882, was tasked with assessing the state of education in India.
• One of its major recommendations was to provide grants to colleges to improve collegiate education and make it more accessible.
• (D) Kothari Commission - (II) Improvement of teaching at the university level
• The Kothari Commission (1964-66) was aimed at improving the education system in India.
• It emphasized the improvement of teaching standards at the university level to enhance the overall quality of higher education.

Additional Information

• Knowledge Commission
• It was chaired by Sam Pitroda and aimed to transform India into a knowledge superpower.
• Its focus areas included access to knowledge, knowledge concepts, knowledge creation, knowledge applications, and knowledge services.
• Hunter Commission
• It was officially known as the Indian Education Commission.
• The Commission was led by Sir William Hunter and aimed at assessing primary and secondary education in India.
• Kothari Commission
• It provided a comprehensive review of the Indian education system from elementary to university levels.
• Its recommendations led to the formulation of the National Policy on Education in 1968.

The correct answer is - Pie charts

Key Points

• Pie charts
• Pie charts are circular charts divided into sectors, each representing a proportion of the whole.
• They are particularly useful for depicting proportions and percentages of a whole dataset.
• The size of each sector is proportional to the quantity it represents, making it easy to compare relative sizes.
• Commonly used in business, media, and education to visually represent parts of a whole.

Additional Information

• Line charts
• Line charts are used to display data points over time or another continuous variable.
• They are helpful for identifying trends, patterns, and changes over periods.
• Not typically used for showing proportions as their primary purpose is to illustrate changes over intervals.
• Histograms
• Histograms are used to represent the frequency distribution of numerical data.
• They show how data is distributed across different intervals or bins.
• Useful for identifying the shape of data distribution, but not for depicting proportions directly.
• Scatter plots
• Scatter plots are used to display values for two variables for a set of data.
• They help identify correlations, relationships, and patterns between the two variables.
• Not designed to represent proportions, but rather to illustrate the relationship between variables.

The correct answer is - (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Understanding the relationship between TSS, RSS, and R²
• Total Sum of Squares (TSS) is the total variance in the observed data.
• Residual Sum of Squares (RSS) is the variance in the data that is not explained by the regression model.
• The coefficient of determination (R²) is calculated as .
• Calculations for each pair:
• For (A) RSS = 5, TSS = 20:
• R² = 1 - (5/20) = 1 - 0.25 = 0.75 (Matches with II)
• For (B) RSS = 5, TSS = 25:
• R² = 1 - (5/25) = 1 - 0.20 = 0.80 (Matches with III)
• For (C) RSS = 10, TSS = 25:
• R² = 1 - (10/25) = 1 - 0.40 = 0.60 (Matches with IV)
• For (D) RSS = 12, TSS = 32:
• R² = 1 - (12/32) = 1 - 0.375 = 0.625 ≈ 0.62 (Matches with I)

Additional Information

• Total Sum of Squares (TSS)
• It represents the total variance in the dependent variable and is calculated as the sum of the squared differences between each observed value and the mean of observed values.
• Residual Sum of Squares (RSS)
• It measures the amount of variance in the dependent variable that is not explained by the model. It is the sum of the squared differences between the observed values and the predicted values.
• Coefficient of Determination (R²)
• R² provides an indication of the goodness of fit of the model. It ranges from 0 to 1, where a value closer to 1 indicates that the model explains a higher proportion of the variance.

The logic followed here is:

'CONSTABLE' is coded as 91

 

And,

'STABLE' is coded as 59

Similarly,

'PORTABLE' is coded as

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - (B), (D), and (E) Only

Key Points

• Swayamprabha Channels under CEC
• Channel 1: This channel is managed by the Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC), New Delhi, and focuses on higher education content.
• Channel 3: This channel is also under the CEC and provides educational programs targeted at undergraduate and postgraduate students.
• Channel 6: Managed by the CEC, this channel offers a variety of educational content, including lectures, documentaries, and tutorials.

Additional Information

• Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)
• The CEC is an inter-university center of the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India.
• It aims to provide quality educational content through various media, including television and online platforms.
• CEC collaborates with various universities and colleges to produce and disseminate educational content.
• Swayamprabha
• Swayamprabha is a group of 34 DTH channels devoted to telecasting high-quality educational programs on a 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite.
• Each channel telecasts content of at least four hours, which is repeated five times a day, allowing students to choose the time of their convenience.
• The content includes various educational programs such as curriculum-based courses, lectures, and tutorials.

The correct answer is - L90

Key Points

• L90
• L90 represents the noise level exceeded for 90% of the measurement period.
• This measure is often used to determine the background noise level in an environment.
• It is considered a good indicator of the underlying ambient noise, excluding sporadic louder events.

Additional Information

• L10
• L10 represents the noise level exceeded for 10% of the measurement period.
• This measure is typically used to describe the higher noise levels, often indicating peak traffic noise.
• L25
• L25 represents the noise level exceeded for 25% of the measurement period.
• This measure is less commonly used but can indicate moderately high noise levels in an environment.
• L50
• L50 represents the noise level exceeded for 50% of the measurement period.
• This measure is the median noise level, providing a balance between high and low noise levels.

The correct answer is - (A) and (D) Only

Key Points

• (A) All squares are rectangles
• This proposition states that every square is a rectangle, which is true because a square is a specific type of rectangle.
• (D) Some squares are not rectangles
• This proposition states that there are squares that are not rectangles, which directly contradicts proposition (A).
• If (A) is true, (D) must be false, and if (D) is true, (A) must be false.
• Therefore, (A) and (D) can neither be true together nor false together.

Additional Information

• Other Options
• (B) Some squares are rectangles
• This proposition is true because a square is a type of rectangle, making "some squares are rectangles" a correct statement.
• (C) No squares are rectangles
• This proposition is false because all squares are indeed rectangles.

The correct answer is - Citizen journalism

Key Points

• Citizen journalism
• Refers to the collection, dissemination, and analysis of news and information by the general public, especially through the Internet.
• Ordinary individuals play an active role in the process of collecting, reporting, analyzing, and disseminating news and information.
• Empowered by the availability of digital tools like smartphones, blogs, and social media platforms.
• Allows for a more diverse range of voices and perspectives in the media landscape.

Additional Information

• Popular journalism
• Typically refers to journalism that appeals to the general public, often characterized by sensationalism or entertainment value.
• Focuses more on attracting large audiences rather than providing in-depth analysis or serious news reporting.
• Common journalism
• Not a widely recognized term in the field of journalism.
• Could be interpreted as journalism that is accessible and understandable to the general public.
• New journalism
• Refers to a style of news writing and journalism developed in the 1960s and 1970s.
• Involves the use of literary techniques and focuses on storytelling, character development, and immersive detail.
• Associated with writers like Tom Wolfe and Hunter S. Thompson.

Given:

Man A can complete the work in 8 days.

Man B can complete the same work in 10 days.

Formula used:

Work done by A and B in 1 day = \(\dfrac{1}{A's \ time} + \dfrac{1}{B's \ time}\)

Total time taken when both work together = \(\dfrac{1}{\text{Work done by both in 1 day}}\)

Calculations:

Work done by A in 1 day = \(\dfrac{1}{8}\)

Work done by B in 1 day = \(\dfrac{1}{10}\)

Work done by both in 1 day = \(\dfrac{1}{8} + \dfrac{1}{10}\)

⇒ Work done by both in 1 day = \(\dfrac{5+4}{40} = \dfrac{9}{40}\)

Total time taken = \(\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{9}{40}}\) = \(\dfrac{40}{9}\) days

∴ Total time taken = \(\dfrac{40}{9}\) days = \(4\frac{4}{9}\) days

The correct answer is - (B), (A), (D), (C)

Key Points

• Median
• The median is the value that separates a dataset into two equal halves. It corresponds to the 50^th percentile.
• As the median is the middle point, it is always lower than the third quartile and generally lower than the 67^th percentile.
• Sixth Decile
• The sixth decile is equivalent to the 60^th percentile.
• It falls between the median (50^th percentile) and the 67^th percentile.
• 67^th Percentile
• The 67^th percentile represents a value below which 67% of the observations in a dataset fall.
• It is higher than the sixth decile (60^th percentile) and the median (50^th percentile) but lower than the third quartile (75^th percentile).
• Third Quartile
• The third quartile corresponds to the 75^th percentile.
• It is the value below which 75% of the observations fall, making it higher than the 67^th percentile, the sixth decile, and the median.

Additional Information

• Percentiles and Quartiles
• Percentiles: Percentiles divide a dataset into 100 equal parts. For instance, the 67^th percentile means that 67% of the data values are below this point.
• Quartiles: Quartiles divide a dataset into four equal parts. The third quartile (Q3) represents the 75^th percentile.
• Deciles
• Deciles divide a dataset into ten equal parts. The sixth decile represents the 60^th percentile.

The correct answer is - (B) Non-violence, (C) Peace, and (D) Righteous conduct

Key Points

• Non-violence
• Non-violence is a fundamental human value that promotes peaceful coexistence and the resolution of conflicts without resorting to physical force.
• It is a core principle in many religious and philosophical traditions, including Gandhian philosophy, which played a crucial role in India's independence movement.
• Peace
• Peace is the absence of conflict and the presence of harmonious relationships among individuals and communities.
• Peace is essential for the development and well-being of societies, and it is often achieved through dialogue, understanding, and cooperation.
• Righteous conduct
• Righteous conduct involves ethical behavior, integrity, and adherence to moral principles.
• It is about doing what is right and just, and it forms the foundation for building trust and respect in relationships.

Additional Information

• Isolation
• Isolation is not considered a universal human value in the context of value-based education. It refers to the state of being separated from others, which can lead to negative psychological effects and hinder social development.
• Punishment to crime
• Punishment to crime is a legal concept rather than a universal human value. While it is important for maintaining law and order, it does not align with the core values of non-violence, peace, and righteous conduct.

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Key Points

• Video-on-demand (A) - Invocational (IV)
• Video-on-demand services allow users to select and watch video content whenever they choose, rather than at a scheduled broadcast time.
• This characteristic is termed "Invocational" as it invokes content on demand.
• Datacasting on Internet (B) - Absence of being live (I)
• Datacasting refers to broadcasting data over a wide area via the internet, often for recorded or pre-prepared content.
• This medium typically lacks the immediacy of live broadcasts, hence "Absence of being live."
• Cinema (C) - 'There and then' production (II)
• Cinema involves the production of films which are pre-recorded and edited before being shown to an audience.
• This process aligns with the characteristic "'There and then' production," emphasizing the creation and presentation of content at a specific time and place.
• Television (D) - Nowness (III)
• Television, especially live TV, brings events and news to audiences as they happen, creating a sense of immediacy and current relevance.
• This quality is known as "Nowness," reflecting the live and immediate nature of the medium.

Additional Information

• Video-on-demand
• Examples include services like Netflix, Hulu, and Amazon Prime Video.
• These platforms revolutionize how viewers consume media, offering flexibility and a vast library of content.
• Datacasting on Internet
• It can include services like podcasts, webinars, and other pre-recorded online content.
• This method allows for greater distribution of information across wide geographic areas.
• Cinema
• Known for its high production values and storytelling techniques.
• Cinema has the unique ability to create immersive experiences through visual and auditory storytelling.
• Television
• Live television includes news broadcasts, sports events, and reality shows.
• Television remains a powerful medium for real-time dissemination of information and entertainment.

The correct answer is - Affirming the consequent

Key Points

• Affirming the Consequent
• This is a formal fallacy that occurs when one assumes that if the consequent is true, then the antecedent must also be true.
• The general form of this fallacy is: If P, then Q. Q is true; therefore, P must be true.
• In the given

Argument:

"If Anup is a member of Animal Rights Society, then he opposes horse racing. Anup opposes horse racing, therefore, he is a member of Animal Rights Society." The fallacy is committed by assuming that because Anup opposes horse racing (Q), he must be a member of the Animal Rights Society (P).

• The correct logical structure should consider other possible reasons why Anup might oppose horse racing, independent of his membership in the Animal Rights Society.

Additional Information

• Hasty Generalisation
• This fallacy occurs when a conclusion is drawn from a sample that is not large enough or representative.
• Example: "All swans we have seen are white; therefore, all swans must be white."
• Inappropriate Authority
• This fallacy happens when an argument relies on an authority that is not an expert in the relevant field.
• Example: "A famous actor claims this diet works, so it must be effective."
• Denying the Antecedent
• This is a formal fallacy that occurs when it is assumed that if the antecedent is false, then the consequent must also be false.
• The general form is: If P, then Q. Not P; therefore, not Q.
• Example: "If it is raining, the ground is wet. It is not raining; therefore, the ground is not wet." (The ground could be wet for other reasons.)

The correct answer is - SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Plan

Key Points

• SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
• SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, not Simple Mail Transfer Plan.
• It is a protocol used for sending and receiving email messages between servers.
• SMTP operates on port 25 and is part of the application layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
• SMTP is used in conjunction with other protocols such as POP3 or IMAP for email retrieval.

Additional Information

• SIM - Subscriber Identity Module
• A SIM card is a small, removable smart card used in mobile phones.
• It securely stores the international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) and the related key used to identify and authenticate subscribers on mobile telephony devices.
• SQL - Structured Query Language
• SQL is a standardized programming language used for managing and manipulating relational databases.
• It is used to perform tasks such as querying data, updating records, and managing database structures.
• URL - Uniform Resource Locator
• A URL is a reference to a web resource that specifies its location on a computer network and a mechanism for retrieving it.
• URLs are commonly used to access websites, but they can also be used for other resources like databases, services, and files.

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (D)

Key Points

• (A) It uses the Internet to permit conferencing to take place.
• Web conferencing relies on the Internet as the primary medium for communication and interaction.
• Participants connect through web browsers or dedicated applications to join the conference.
• This facilitates global participation without geographical constraints.
• (B) Multiple computers are used with this system, all connected over the Internet.
• Web conferencing systems typically involve multiple participants connecting from different locations.
• Each participant uses their own device (computer, tablet, or smartphone) to join the conference.
• These devices are interconnected through the Internet, enabling seamless communication.
• (D) It is carried out in real-time.
• Web conferencing allows for real-time interaction, making it possible for participants to communicate instantly.
• Features like live video, audio, and chat enable immediate exchanges of ideas and information.
• This real-time aspect is crucial for collaborative work, meetings, and discussions.

Additional Information

• (C) Delegates cannot leave the conference once they join.
• This statement is incorrect as participants can leave a web conference at any time.
• Web conferencing platforms typically provide options for users to exit or disconnect from the session.
• Participants can rejoin if the session is still ongoing.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is - (C), (A), (D), (B)

Key Points

• CD-ROM
• CD-ROM stands for Compact Disc Read-Only Memory.
• It typically has a storage capacity of around 700 MB.
• DVD
• DVD stands for Digital Versatile Disc or Digital Video Disc.
• A standard single-layer DVD has a storage capacity of 4.7 GB.
• Blu-Ray Disc
• Blu-Ray Disc is designed for high-definition video and data storage.
• A standard single-layer Blu-Ray Disc can hold up to 25 GB of data.
• Hard Disk
• A Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is used for storing large amounts of data.
• Modern hard disks can store anywhere from a few hundred gigabytes to several terabytes (1 TB = 1024 GB).

Additional Information

• Storage Capacity Context
• Storage devices are categorized based on their ability to store data, typically measured in megabytes (MB), gigabytes (GB), and terabytes (TB).
• Optical discs like CD-ROMs, DVDs, and Blu-Ray Discs are often used for media storage and backups, while hard disks are used for extensive data storage needs.
• Technological Evolution
• As technology has advanced, the storage capacity of devices has increased significantly, allowing for more data to be stored in smaller physical spaces.
• From CD-ROMs to Blu-Ray Discs, and then to Hard Disks, there has been a notable increase in data storage capacity over the years.

The correct answer is - (B) and (C) Only

Key Points

• **Given

Statement:

"No squares are circles"**

• This statement means that there is no overlap between the set of squares and the set of circles.
• In logical terms, this can be represented as: ∀x (Square(x) → ¬Circle(x))
• Inference from "No squares are circles"
• If no squares are circles, then it is immediately clear that:
• (B) All squares are circles is false because the given statement directly negates this.
• (C) Some squares are circles is also false because the given statement directly negates this.

Additional Information

• Explanation of Other Options
• (A) Some circles are not squares
• This statement can be true even if no squares are circles. It simply states that there exist circles that are not squares, which is consistent with the given statement.
• (D) Some squares are not circles
• This statement is true based on the given statement because if no squares are circles, then certainly some squares are not circles (in fact, all squares are not circles).

The correct answer is - Subject reactivity

Key Points

• Subject reactivity
• Subject reactivity refers to the tendency of individuals to alter their behavior when they are aware that they are being observed.
• This phenomenon is also known as the "Hawthorne effect" and is a significant concern in research settings as it can lead to biased outcomes.
• For example, workers might increase their productivity when they know that their performance is being monitored, not necessarily because of any changes in the work environment but due to the awareness of being watched.
• It highlights the importance of designing studies that minimize the awareness of observation to ensure natural behavior from subjects.

Additional Information

• Observer bias
• Observer bias occurs when a researcher's expectations or beliefs influence their observations or interpretations of the data.
• It can lead to systematic errors in the recording and analysis of data, potentially skewing the results of a study.
• Observer drift
• Observer drift refers to the gradual change in the accuracy or consistency of an observer's data recording over time.
• This can occur due to fatigue, loss of concentration, or changes in the observer's criteria for recording behaviors.
• De briefing
• De briefing is a process that occurs after an experiment or study, where participants are informed about the true nature of the study and any deceptions that were used.
• It is an ethical practice aimed at ensuring participants understand the purpose of the research and to alleviate any potential negative effects of the study.

The correct answer is - Emoticons

Key Points

• Emoticons
• Emoticons are a combination of keyboard characters that represent facial expressions and emotions.
• They serve as a substitute for non-verbal cues in text-based communication, helping to convey the tone and emotion behind the message.
• Common examples include :-), :-D, and :-P, which represent a smile, a laugh, and a playful gesture, respectively.
• These are widely used in emails, text messages, and social media platforms to enhance the clarity and emotional context of written communication.

Additional Information

• Infographics
• Infographics are visual representations of information, data, or knowledge intended to present complex information quickly and clearly.
• They use graphics, charts, and minimal text to explain concepts or data, making them more accessible and engaging for the audience.
• Photographs
• Photographs are images captured by a camera that depict real-life scenes, objects, or events.
• They are used in various contexts, such as news articles, social media, and personal communication, to visually convey information or emotions.
• Anonymous attachments
• Anonymous attachments refer to files sent via email or other digital communication platforms without revealing the sender's identity.
• These can include documents, images, or other types of files, often shared to maintain privacy or confidentiality.

The correct answer is - (A), (B), and (C) Only

Key Points

• (A) No plants are animals
• This statement indicates that there is no overlap between the set of plants and the set of animals.
• (B) No animals are plants
• This is logically equivalent to (A) because it represents the same non-overlapping sets but from a different perspective.
• (C) All plants are non-animals
• This statement is logically equivalent to (A) and (B) because if no plants are animals, then all plants must be non-animals.

Additional Information

• (D) All non-animals are plants
• This statement is not logically equivalent to (A), (B), or (C). It would mean that every entity that is not an animal is a plant, which is not necessarily true (e.g., rocks, bacteria, etc.).

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (C), (D)

Key Points

• Soot
• Formed due to incomplete combustion of coal and consists of fine carbon particles.
• It contributes to air pollution and is a known health hazard.
• Sulfate
• Coal contains sulfur compounds that form sulfur dioxide (SO₂) on burning.
• SO₂ reacts with atmospheric components to form sulfate aerosols, a contributor to acid rain.
• Nitrate
• High-temperature combustion in power plants produces nitrogen oxides (NOₓ).
• These oxides can convert to nitrates in the atmosphere, contributing to particulate matter pollution.
• Flyash
• A fine particulate residue expelled along with flue gases during coal combustion.
• It contains heavy metals like arsenic, lead, and mercury and is a major environmental concern.

Additional Information

• Ammonia
• Not a significant by-product of coal combustion.
• Primarily released from agricultural activities, fertilizer use, and waste decomposition.
• May be used in flue gas treatment (e.g., selective catalytic reduction), but is not emitted during combustion itself.
• Environmental Impact of Coal Combustion
• Major contributor to air pollution, acid rain, and climate change.
• Releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, along with harmful particulates.
• Management of flyash and reduction of NOₓ/SO₂ emissions are part of emission control strategies in thermal power plants.

The correct answer is - (A) and (D) Only

Key Points

• Free access to quality educational resources (A)
• SWAYAM provides students with free access to high-quality educational materials developed by top institutions in India.
• This ensures that all students, regardless of their financial background, have the opportunity to learn from the best resources available.
• Self-paced learning (D)
• SWAYAM allows students to learn at their own pace, giving them the flexibility to manage their study schedules according to their personal needs and commitments.
• This is especially beneficial for students who may have other responsibilities or commitments outside of their academic pursuits.

Additional Information

• Opportunity for live interactions with instructors (B)
• While SWAYAM does offer some live interaction opportunities, it is not the primary feature. The platform mainly focuses on providing self-paced learning modules.
• Peer-reviewed assignments (C)
• SWAYAM does include peer-reviewed assignments, which help in collaborative learning and gaining diverse perspectives, but this is not a core feature highlighted for integration into a curriculum.

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Key Points

• Software
• Software is a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks.
• Examples include operating systems, applications, and development tools.
• Web Browser
• A web browser is the software that accesses and displays pages on the web.
• Examples include Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Safari.
• PDA (Personal Digital Assistant)
• A PDA is a small mobile computing device.
• Typically used for managing personal information such as contacts, calendars, and emails.
• Firewall
• A firewall is a mechanism that isolates a network from the rest of the Internet, permitting only specific traffic to pass in and out.
• Helps in protecting the network from unauthorized access and cyber threats.

Additional Information

• Software (III)
• Software encompasses a wide range of programs, from simple applications to complex systems that run entire organizations.
• It is categorized into system software (like operating systems) and application software (like word processors).
• Web Browser (I)
• Web browsers use protocols such as HTTP and HTTPS to request and display web pages.
• They often support additional functionalities like bookmarks, extensions, and web development tools.
• PDA (IV)
• PDAs were popular in the late 1990s and early 2000s before smartphones became ubiquitous.
• They typically featured touchscreens, a stylus, and basic connectivity options like Wi-Fi and Bluetooth.
• Firewall (II)
• Firewalls can be hardware-based, software-based, or a combination of both.
• They are essential for network security, helping to prevent unauthorized access and cyber-attacks.

The correct answer is - (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Labster (A) - Virtual labs and simulations (II)
• Labster provides fully interactive advanced lab simulations, allowing students to perform experiments in a virtual lab environment.
• These simulations are used in educational settings to enhance learning in the sciences.
• Google Earth (B) - Virtual field trips and geographic exploration (III)
• Google Earth offers satellite imagery, maps, terrain, 3D buildings, and more, allowing users to explore the globe virtually.
• It is used for educational purposes, such as virtual field trips and geographic exploration.
• Kahoot (C) - Online quizzes and assessments (IV)
• Kahoot is a game-based learning platform used to create quizzes, discussions, and surveys.
• It is widely utilized in classrooms and educational settings for conducting online quizzes and assessments.
• Poll Everywhere (D) - Real-time polling (I)
• Poll Everywhere is an audience engagement tool used for real-time polling, surveys, and feedback collection.
• It allows participants to respond to questions live using their devices, making it useful for interactive presentations and classroom engagement.

Additional Information

• Labster
• Labster's simulations cover a range of scientific disciplines, including biology, chemistry, and physics.
• These simulations are designed to supplement traditional lab experiences, especially in remote or online learning environments.
• Google Earth
• Google Earth also includes historical imagery and layers of data, such as roads, borders, and places of interest, aiding in detailed geographic studies.
• It can be used to visualize changes in landscapes over time, explore underwater oceanic environments, and even tour Mars and the Moon.
• Kahoot
• Kahoot quizzes can be customized and shared, making it a versatile tool for educators to assess student understanding in an engaging manner.
• It supports multiple-choice questions, true/false questions, and puzzles, among other formats.
• Poll Everywhere
• Poll Everywhere integrates with presentation software like PowerPoint and Google Slides, enhancing audience interaction during presentations.
• It supports various question types, including multiple choice, open-ended, and word clouds, making it a flexible tool for gathering audience input.

The correct answer is - (A), (B), and (C) Only

Key Points

• (A) Inaccurate media coverage may mislead active audiences
• Active audiences critically engage with media content, and inaccurate coverage can lead to misinformation and misunderstanding.
• This highlights the importance of media literacy and critical thinking among audiences.
• (B) Audiences consume media content on the expectation of reward
• Uses and Gratifications Theory suggests that audiences actively seek out media that they find rewarding, whether for information, entertainment, or social interaction.
• Audiences are not passive; they have specific needs and expectations when engaging with media.
• (C) Infotainment can be a dysfunction
• Infotainment blends information with entertainment, which can sometimes lead to the trivialization of important news and issues.
• This can contribute to a less informed public and the erosion of serious journalism.

Additional Information

• (D) Audiences are uniform for all media
• This statement is incorrect because audiences are diverse and consume different types of media based on their preferences, demographics, and cultural backgrounds.
• (E) The new media do not provide variety of contents to audience
• This statement is also incorrect as new media, particularly digital platforms, offer a vast array of content catering to various interests and niches.
• New media has expanded the diversity and accessibility of content available to audiences globally.

The correct answer is - (B), (C) and (D) Only

Key Points

• Multi-data networking
• The Internet supports multiple types of data, including text, audio, video, and more. This is crucial for comprehensive communication.
• High fidelity realism
• High fidelity realism refers to the accurate and detailed representation of information, enhancing the overall user experience.
• Sophisticated reciprocity
• Sophisticated reciprocity implies advanced two-way communication, allowing for interactive and responsive exchanges.

Additional Information

• Absence of sub-media
• The Internet actually integrates various sub-media (text, audio, video), making this statement incorrect.
• Non-interactive
• The Internet is inherently interactive, enabling real-time communication and engagement.

The correct answer is - weeks

Key Points

• SWAYAM Course Classification
• SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is an initiative by the Government of India designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of education policy, namely, access, equity, and quality.
• Courses on SWAYAM are classified based on their duration in weeks and the number of video hours included in the course.
• This classification helps learners identify the time commitment required for each course.
• For instance, a short-term course might be spread over a few weeks with a certain number of video hours, while a longer course could span several weeks with more extensive video content.

Additional Information

• Semesters
• Semesters typically refer to half-year academic terms used in traditional educational institutions.
• SWAYAM courses are generally shorter than an academic semester and are not classified based on semester duration.
• Months
• While months are a common unit of time measurement, SWAYAM courses are more granularly classified in weeks to offer a more precise understanding of course duration.
• Weeks allow for better scheduling and tracking of course progress.
• Years
• Years are too long a duration for the majority of online courses offered on platforms like SWAYAM.
• Most SWAYAM courses are designed to be completed in a shorter time frame, making years an inappropriate measure for classification.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Kapilendra Dev expanded the dominion of Orissa in the South up to the Krishna river.
• This information is clearly stated in the provided passage.
• The passage notes Kapilendra Dev's conquests up to the Krishna river in the southern peninsula.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Kapilendra Dev showed his support for the Oriya language by including one Oriya poem in his Sanskrit work Parashurama Vyayoga.
• The passage explicitly mentions this as a way he encouraged the use of Oriya.
• This action was part of his larger effort to promote the Oriya language, which included accepting Oriya as the state language.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not state that the entire work was written in Oriya.
• Option 3 is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage of Parashurama Vyayoga being translated into multiple languages.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not mention Kapilendra Dev prohibiting Sanskrit and Tamil languages; instead, he accepted Oriya as the state language.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that the beginning of the 15^th century opened a new horizon for Oriya poets and attributes this to the reign of Kapilendra Dev.
• Kapilendra Dev's efforts, including encouraging people to write in Oriya and accepting it as the state language, were significant in fostering a flourishing literary environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2 is incorrect because Sarala Das was a great poet who emerged during this period, but he was not the monarch responsible for the new horizon for Oriya poets.
• Option 3 is incorrect because Tulsidas is not mentioned in the passage and was a poet from a different region and period.
• Option 4 is incorrect because Kalidasa is also not mentioned in the passage and was a classical Sanskrit author from an earlier period, not the 15^th century Oriya context.

The correct answer is The encouragement of Oriya literary composition.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that King Kapilendra Dev encouraged his people to write in Oriya.
• He himself included one Oriya poem in his Sanskrit work Parashurama Vyayoga and accepted Oriya as the state language.
• This indicates a significant cultural impact of promoting Oriya literary composition.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage highlights the rise, not the decline, of the Oriya language.
• Option 2 is incorrect as the passage indicates the replacement of Sanskrit with Oriya as the state language.
• Option 4 is incorrect since the passage does not mention the prohibition of all regional languages but rather the promotion of Oriya.

The correct answer is Option 3: Jagannath.

 

Key Points

• The passage specifically mentions King Kapilendra Dev's "ardent love for Jagannatha."
• This devotion played a significant role in creating a supportive and creative cultural atmosphere.
• The king's reliance on and reverence for Jagannath likely inspired and unified the people under a common religious and cultural identity.
• Jagannath is a central deity in Orissa's spiritual and cultural life, fostering artistic and literary growth.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Jagannath.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not mention King Kapilendra Dev's devotion to Shiva.
• Option 2 is incorrect because the passage does not mention King Kapilendra Dev's devotion to Vishnu. Although Jagannath is a form of Vishnu, the passage specifically names Jagannath.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not mention King Kapilendra Dev's devotion to Lakshmi.