UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 29th August 2024 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Given Data for Rejected Sports Shoes in 2022:

Calculating Rejected Shoes:

• Company A: (3/100) * 25 = 0.75 lakh
• Company B: (5/100) * 26 = 1.30 lakh
• Company C: (2/100) * 32 = 0.64 lakh
• Company D: (9/100) * 24 = 2.16 lakh
• Company E: (4/100) * 35 = 1.40 lakh
• Company F: (5/100) * 18 = 0.90 lakh
• Company G: (4/100) * 30 = 1.20 lakh

Summing Total Rejected Shoes:

Total Rejected = 0.75 + 1.30 + 0.64 + 2.16 + 1.40 + 0.90 + 1.20 = 8.35 lakh

Conclusion: The total number of rejected sports shoes from all companies together in the year 2022 is 8.35 lakh.or 835000

Given:

Production in 2022 = 32 lakh

Production in 2023 = 37 lakh

Calculations:

Increase in Production = Production in 2023 - Production in 2022

Increase = 37 - 32 = 5 lakh

Percentage Rise = (Increase / Production in 2022) × 100

Percentage Rise = (5 / 32) × 100

Percentage Rise = 0.15625 × 100 = 15.625%

Conclusion: The percentage rise in the production of sports shoes by Company C from the year 2022 to 2023 is approximately 15.625%.

Given:

Production and Sales Data for 2023:

Calculating Total Sold:

Total Sold = 23.76 + 22.8 + 30.34 + 27.84 + 32.8 + 19.44 + 27.3 = 184.28 lakh

Calculating Total Produced:

Total Produced = 33 + 30 + 37 + 32 + 41 + 24 + 35 = 232 lakh

Calculating Percentage:

Percentage = (Total Sold / Total Produced) × 100

Percentage = (184.28 / 232) × 100

Percentage = 0.7941 × 100 = 79.41%

Conclusion: The total number of sports shoes sold by all companies in the year 2023 is approximately 79% of the total number of sports shoes produced.

Given:

Production Data:

Calculations of Percentage Rise:

Company A:

Percentage Rise = ((33 - 25) / 25) × 100 = (8 / 25) × 100 = 32%

Company B:

Percentage Rise = ((30 - 26) / 26) × 100 = (4 / 26) × 100 ≈ 15.38%

Company C:

Percentage Rise = ((37 - 32) / 32) × 100 = (5 / 32) × 100 ≈ 15.625%

Company D:

Percentage Rise = ((32 - 24) / 24) × 100 = (8 / 24) × 100 = 33.33%

Company E:

Percentage Rise = ((41 - 35) / 35) × 100 = (6 / 35) × 100 ≈ 17.14%

Company F:

Percentage Rise = ((24 - 18) / 18) × 100 = (6 / 18) × 100 = 33.33%

Company G:

Percentage Rise = ((35 - 30) / 30) × 100 = (5 / 30) × 100 ≈ 16.67%

Companies with Percentage Rise > 25%:

• Company A: 32%
• Company D: 33.33%
• Company F: 33.33%

Conclusion: The percentage rise in the production of sports shoes from the year 2022 to 2023 is more than 25% for exactly 3 companies.

Given:

Sales in 2022:

• Production = 18 lakh
• Sold Percentage = 90%
• Sold = (90/100) × 18 = 16.2 lakh

Sales in 2023:

• Production = 24 lakh
• Sold Percentage = 81%
• Sold = (81/100) × 24 = 19.44 lakh

Calculations:

Increase in Sales = Sales in 2023 - Sales in 2022

Increase = 19.44 - 16.2 = 3.24 lakh

Percentage Rise = (Increase / Sales in 2022) × 100

Percentage Rise = (3.24 / 16.2) × 100

Percentage Rise = 0.2 × 100 = 20%

Conclusion: The percentage rise in the sale of sports shoes by Company F from the year 2022 to 2023 is 20%.

The correct answer is 'Postulation'

Key Points

• Postulation:
• In classical Indian philosophy, postulation (Arthāpatti) is an instrument of knowledge used to explain a phenomenon when direct evidence is not available.
• It involves hypothesizing a situation that must be true in order to explain a known fact. In this case, Somdutta's weight gain despite not eating during the day implies she must be eating at night.
• Postulation is used to fill in gaps in reasoning, where direct perception or other means of knowledge are insufficient.

Additional Information

• Perception:
• Perception (Pratyakṣa) is direct sensory experience or observation. It is not applicable here as Somdutta's night eating is not directly observed.
• Analogy:
• Analogy (Upamāna) is reasoning based on similarity. This is not used in the statement as the reasoning is not based on comparing similar cases.
• Verbal Authority:
• Verbal authority (Śabda) refers to knowledge gained from reliable sources or texts. The statement does not rely on any authoritative source.

Given:

Dataset A: σ = 4.3, X̅ = 13.8

Dataset B: σ = 3.8, X̅ = 12.7

Dataset C: σ = 5.7, X̅ = 14.9

Dataset D: σ = 4.7, X̅ = 14.1

Calculations:

CV(A) = (σ / X̅) × 100 = (4.3 / 13.8) × 100 = 31.15%

CV(B) = (σ / X̅) × 100 = (3.8 / 12.7) × 100 = 29.92%

CV(C) = (σ / X̅) × 100 = (5.7 / 14.9) × 100 = 38.26%

CV(D) = (σ / X̅) × 100 = (4.7 / 14.1) × 100 = 33.33%

Summary of Coefficients of Variation:

CV(A) = 31.15%

CV(B) = 29.92%

CV(C) = 38.26%

CV(D) = 33.33%

Arranging in Decreasing Order:

1. (C) 38.26%
2. (D) 33.33%
3. (A) 31.15%
4. (B) 29.92%

∴ The datasets arranged in decreasing order of their coefficients of variation are: (C), (D), (A), (B).

The correct answer is 'Option (D)'.

Key Points

• Understanding the statement "Some rectangles are squares":
• This means that there is at least one rectangle that is also a square.
• It does not imply that all rectangles are squares, nor does it mean that no rectangles are squares.
• Evaluating the options:
• (A) All rectangles are squares:
• This statement is false because the original statement only indicates that some rectangles are squares, not all.
• (B) Some rectangles are not squares:
• This can be true as the original statement does not exclude the possibility of some rectangles not being squares.
• (C) Some squares are not rectangles:
• This is false because all squares are rectangles by definition.
• (D) No rectangles are squares:
• This is false because the original statement explicitly states that some rectangles are squares.

The correct answer is 'Liquid extract from landfill site'

Key Points

• Leachate:
• Leachate is a liquid that has percolated through a landfill and has extracted dissolved or suspended materials from it.
• It is typically generated by rainfall percolating through waste materials and can be highly contaminated, containing harmful chemicals, heavy metals, and other pollutants.
• Proper management and treatment of leachate are crucial to prevent environmental contamination and protect groundwater quality.

Additional Information

• Greenhouse gas:
• Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide and methane, trap heat in the atmosphere and contribute to global warming and climate change.
• While leachate can produce gases, it is not classified as a greenhouse gas itself.
• Air pollutant:
• Air pollutants are substances in the air that can harm human health or the environment.
• Leachate is not an air pollutant; it is a liquid that can contaminate soil and water.
• Ozone depleting substance:
• Ozone depleting substances are chemicals that contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
• Leachate does not directly deplete the ozone layer.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

Key Points

• VOIP (Voice Over Internet Protocol):
• VOIP is a technology that allows you to make voice calls using a broadband Internet connection instead of a regular (or analog) phone line.
• It converts your voice into a digital signal, allowing you to make a call directly from a computer, a VOIP phone, or other data-driven devices.
• Common VOIP services include Skype, Zoom, and Google Voice.
• Instant Messaging (IM):
• Instant messaging is a form of real-time, direct text-based communication between two or more people using personal computers or other devices.
• Examples of IM services include WhatsApp, Facebook Messenger, and Slack.
• IM allows users to send messages that are delivered immediately, enabling a conversation-like exchange.
• VPN (Virtual Private Network):
• A VPN is a service that encrypts your Internet traffic and protects your online identity by hiding your IP address.
• It creates a secure and encrypted connection over a less secure network, such as the internet.
• VPNs are commonly used for securing sensitive data and accessing region-restricted websites.
• WWW (World Wide Web):
• The World Wide Web is a system of interlinked hypertext documents and other resources, accessed via the Internet.
• It was invented by Sir Tim Berners-Lee in 1989 and allows users to view and navigate web pages using a web browser.
• WWW is not to be confused with the Internet; it is a service that operates over the Internet.

Additional Information

• Additional Details:
• VOIP: Besides voice calls, VOIP can also facilitate video calls and text messaging, making it a versatile communication tool.
• Instant Messaging: IM services often include features such as file sharing, voice messages, and video calls, enhancing the communication experience.
• VPN: VPNs are particularly useful for protecting privacy and avoiding censorship in countries with strict Internet regulations.
• WWW: The WWW forms a significant part of the Internet, containing websites and web pages that can be accessed through browsers like Chrome, Firefox, and Safari.

The correct answer is 6 percent.

Key Points

• Kothari Commission (1963-64):
• The Kothari Commission, also known as the Indian Education Commission, was formed in 1964 and chaired by Dr. D. S. Kothari.
• It was tasked with examining all aspects of the educational sector in India and suggesting improvements to develop a comprehensive national education system.
• One of the key recommendations of the Kothari Commission was that the government should allocate 6 percent of the national income to education to ensure adequate funding for educational reforms and development.

Additional Information

• Other Options:
• 3 percent: This figure is lower than what the Kothari Commission recommended and would not be sufficient to meet the educational needs of the country.
• 7 percent: While higher than the recommended 6 percent, this option was not the specific recommendation given by the Kothari Commission.
• 9 percent: This figure is also higher than the recommendation but was not suggested by the Kothari Commission.

The correct answer is (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)

Key Points

• Face-to-face communication:
• It is the most direct form of communication where individuals interact in person.
• This mode allows for immediate feedback and non-verbal cues, making it highly effective for understanding and clarity.
• Written communication:
• Involves the exchange of information through written words, such as letters, emails, and reports.
• It is useful for maintaining records and conveying complex information that requires careful consideration.
• Print communication:
• Refers to the dissemination of information through printed materials like newspapers, magazines, and brochures.
• This mode is effective for reaching a large audience and providing detailed information.
• Broadcasting:
• Involves transmitting information via television or radio to a broad audience.
• This method is efficient for delivering news, entertainment, and educational content to the public.
• Datacasting:
• Refers to the transmission of data over a wide area network, often using digital signals.
• This mode is particularly useful for delivering large amounts of data quickly and efficiently.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• Option 1 (A), (C), (B), (E), (D): This sequence does not follow the progression from direct to indirect and from personal to mass communication.
• Option 3 (C), (D), (E), (A), (B): This sequence places print communication before broadcasting and datacasting, which is not a logical progression.
• Option 4 (D), (E), (A), (B), (C): This sequence starts with broadcasting and datacasting, which are more advanced and less personal forms of communication compared to face-to-face and written communication.

Microsoft Access is an example of a Database Management System (DBMS).

Key Points

• Database Management System (DBMS):
• A DBMS is a software system that uses a standard method to store and organize data, which can be retrieved and manipulated efficiently.
• Microsoft Access is a prominent example of a DBMS, providing tools to create and manage databases, including forms, queries, and reports.
• It allows users to store data in tables, create relationships between tables, and perform operations like data entry, updating, and querying.

Additional Information

• Operational Resource Toolkit System:
• This type of system provides tools and resources for managing operational tasks but does not specifically focus on database management.
• Examples include project management software and workflow automation tools.
• ERP System:
• ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) systems integrate various business processes, such as finance, HR, and supply chain, into a unified system.
• While ERP systems may include database management components, their primary focus is on resource planning and management.
• Knowledge Management System:
• A Knowledge Management System (KMS) helps in capturing, distributing, and effectively using knowledge within an organization.
• These systems are designed to facilitate sharing and managing knowledge, rather than focusing on traditional database management tasks.

The most suitable tool for a teacher wanting students to watch pre-recorded videos and answer questions embedded in the videos is Edpuzzle.

Key Points

• Edpuzzle:
• Edpuzzle is an interactive video learning platform that allows teachers to embed questions within videos.
• It provides the functionality to track student progress and engagement with the video content.
• Teachers can add multiple types of questions, such as multiple-choice, short answer, and true/false, directly into the video timeline.
• It supports a wide range of video sources, including YouTube and Vimeo, and allows teachers to upload their own videos.
• Edpuzzle's analytics tools enable teachers to monitor how students interact with the video and their responses to the embedded questions.

Additional Information

• **Ever

note:

**

• Evernote is a note-taking app that allows users to organize their notes, tasks, and schedules.It is not specifically designed for embedding questions in videos and tracking student responses.
• Google Docs:
• Google Docs is a word processing tool within the Google Workspace suite.
• While it allows collaboration and sharing of documents, it lacks the specific features for embedding questions within videos.
• Strawpoll:
• Strawpoll is an online polling tool that enables users to create and share polls to collect responses.
• It does not offer the capability to embed questions within video content or provide detailed analytics on video engagement.

The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (D) Only'

Key Points

• Portfolio Assessments in Art Class:
• Portfolio assessments are a method of evaluating students' learning and creative processes through a collection of their work over time.
• This type of assessment allows instructors to understand students' progress, skills, and reflections on their art-making journey.
• Collection of Completed Art Works:
• Including completed art works in a portfolio helps showcase the students' technical abilities and creativity.
• It provides a tangible record of their development and achievements in the art class.
• Reflective Essays on Their Creative Process:
• Reflective essays enable students to articulate their thoughts, inspirations, challenges, and learning experiences.
• This component helps students develop critical thinking and self-assessment skills.
• Peer Feedback and Critiques:
• Incorporating peer feedback and critiques encourages collaborative learning and provides diverse perspectives on students' work.
• It helps students understand how their work is perceived by others and identify areas for improvement.

Additional Information

• Standardized Test Scores:
• Standardized test scores are not relevant to portfolio assessments in an art class as they do not reflect the creative and subjective nature of art-making.
• These scores are typically used in subjects that require objective measurement, such as mathematics or reading comprehension.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

According to the given information:

"Bitter patience sweet fruit" is coded as : "Bo Po So To"

"Art is sweet happiness" is coded as : "Ao Io So Ho"

"Hoping is concealing bitter" is coded as : "Hp Io Co Bo"

"Patience is art of hoping" is coded as : "Po Io Ao Fo Hp"

So,

Patience is happiness is coded as 'Ho Io Po'

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given:

Total investment = ₹1550

Interest from one part at 8% and another part at 6%

Total interest earned in one year = ₹106

Formula used:

Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

Let:

Amount invested at 8% = ₹x

Amount invested at 6% = ₹(1550 - x)

Calculations:

Interest from ₹x at 8% = (x × 8 × 1) / 100 = 0.08x

Interest from ₹(1550 - x) at 6% = [(1550 - x) × 6 × 1] / 100 = 0.06(1550 - x)

Total interest = ₹106

⇒ 0.08x + 0.06(1550 - x) = 106

⇒ 0.08x + 93 - 0.06x = 106

⇒ 0.02x = 106 - 93

⇒ 0.02x = 13

⇒ x = 13 / 0.02

⇒ x = ₹650

Amount invested at 8% = ₹650

Amount invested at 6% = ₹(1550 - 650) = ₹900

∴ The amount invested at 8% is ₹650 and the amount invested at 6% is ₹900.

The correct answer is 'Three years'

Key Points

• University Education Commission (1948-49):
• The University Education Commission, also known as the Radhakrishnan Commission, was established by the Government of India in 1948 to report on Indian university education and suggest improvements.
• The Commission was chaired by Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who later became the second President of India.
• Bachelor Degree Duration:
• The commission recommended a three-year duration for bachelor's degree programs.
• This recommendation was aimed at standardizing the duration of undergraduate courses across the country.

Additional Information

• Five years:
• A five-year duration is typically associated with integrated programs or professional degrees like law (LLB) or architecture (B.Arch), not general bachelor's degrees.
• Four years:
• Some countries have a four-year bachelor's degree program, but the commission suggested a three-year duration for India, although some specialized courses in engineering or technology may last four years.
• Two years:
• A two-year duration is usually for associate degrees or diploma courses, which are different from bachelor's degree programs.

Scatter plots

Key Points

• Scatter plots:
• Scatter plots are used to display the relationship between two variables.
• Each point on the scatter plot represents an observation in the dataset, with the x-axis representing one variable and the y-axis representing the other.
• This method helps in identifying patterns, correlations, and outliers in the data.
• Scatter plots are particularly useful for identifying the type of relationship (linear, non-linear) between variables.

Additional Information

• Ogive:
• An ogive, or cumulative frequency graph, is used to represent the cumulative frequencies for the classes in a frequency distribution.
• It is not used to show the relationship between two variables but rather to understand the distribution of a single variable.
• Pie charts:
• Pie charts are used to represent data as proportions of a whole.
• They are not suitable for showing relationships between two variables but are effective in displaying the relative sizes of data categories.
• Histogram:
• Histograms are used to represent the distribution of a single variable by showing the frequency of data points within certain ranges or bins.
• They do not show the relationship between two variables but are useful for understanding the distribution and spread of data.

The correct answer is 'Flipped classroom'

Key Points

• Flipped classroom:
• In a flipped classroom model, students first engage with new content at home through pre-recorded lectures or other materials.
• Classroom time is then dedicated to discussions, problem-solving activities, and interactive learning, allowing students to apply what they have learned and engage more deeply with the material.
• This approach aims to foster a more active learning environment and provides opportunities for personalized instruction and immediate feedback.

Additional Information

• Lecture-demonstration:
• In a lecture-demonstration, the teacher provides a lecture while simultaneously demonstrating the concepts or procedures being taught.
• This method does not typically involve students first engaging with the material independently before class.
• Asynchronous learning:
• Asynchronous learning refers to a learning model where students access course materials and complete work at their own pace, without real-time interaction with the instructor or classmates.
• While flipped classrooms involve some asynchronous elements (pre-recorded videos), they also include synchronous, interactive components during class time.
• Synchronous learning:
• Synchronous learning occurs when students and instructors interact in real-time, often through live lectures or online meetings.
• The flipped classroom model includes synchronous components during class, but it is not exclusively synchronous since it also involves asynchronous pre-class activities.

The correct answer is (C), (D) and (E) Only

Key Points

• Tropospheric or ground-level ozone:
• Ground-level ozone is a harmful air pollutant that affects human health and the environment.
• It is not called "good ozone"; good ozone is found in the stratosphere where it protects life on Earth by filtering out ultraviolet radiation.
• Ground-level ozone is not formed by the downward transfer of ozone from the ozone layer. It is primarily formed by the reaction of sunlight with pollutants such as volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and nitrogen oxides (NOx).
• It is considered a greenhouse gas and contributes to global warming.
• Ground-level ozone is a key component of photochemical smog, which is a type of air pollution that forms in urban areas.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• (A) It is called as good ozone: Incorrect because good ozone refers to ozone in the stratosphere, not at ground level.
• (B) It is formed due to downward transfer of ozone from the ozone layer: Incorrect as ground-level ozone is formed by chemical reactions in the troposphere, not by transfer from the stratosphere.

The major difference between Television and Cinema is 'Liveness differential'

Key Points

• Liveness differential:
• Liveness differential refers to the extent to which a medium is perceived as live or immediate. Cinema is a recorded medium, typically experienced in a communal setting, while television can offer both live and recorded content, often consumed in more personal settings.
• Television can broadcast events live, such as news, sports, and live shows, providing a sense of immediacy and real-time engagement with the audience.
• Cinema, on the other hand, involves pre-recorded content that is edited and produced to create a polished final product, viewed by audiences at a later time in theaters.
• This difference in liveness affects how viewers experience and engage with the content, with television often fostering a more immediate and interactive viewing experience.

Additional Information

• Eye movement:
• While eye movement may differ when watching television versus cinema due to screen size and viewing distance, it is not the primary difference between the two mediums.
• Both mediums require viewers to follow the action and visual cues, but the fundamental nature of content delivery and consumption is not determined by eye movement.
• Sound reverberation:
• Sound reverberation can be a factor in the viewing experience, with cinema theaters often designed for optimal acoustics, while television sound depends on home audio systems.
• However, sound quality variations do not constitute the major difference between television and cinema.
• Bandwidth:
• Bandwidth relates to the amount of data transmitted over a network, which can affect streaming quality for television, especially with online content.
• Nonetheless, bandwidth is more relevant to the technical aspects of content delivery rather than the fundamental nature of the viewing experience.

The correct answer is 'Plotter, Projector, and Speaker'.

Key Points

• Computer Output Devices:
• Output devices are hardware components that convey information to one or more people. They take data from the computer and convert it into a form that can be perceived by the user.
• Common output devices include monitors, printers, speakers, and projectors.
• Plotter:
• A plotter is an output device that is used for printing vector graphics. It draws images on paper using a pen.
• Plotters are typically used in engineering and architectural designs to produce high-quality, large-scale drawings.
• Projector:
• A projector is an output device that projects visual output from a computer onto a larger screen for viewing by an audience.
• Projectors are commonly used in presentations, classrooms, and home theaters.
• Speaker:
• Speakers are output devices used to produce sound. They convert digital audio signals from the computer into audible sound.
• Speakers are used for playing music, videos, and other audio content.

Additional Information

• Scanner:
• A scanner is an input device that converts physical documents into digital format. It is not an output device.
• Light Pen:
• A light pen is an input device used for drawing or selecting objects on a display screen. It is not an output device.

The correct answer is 'Affirming the consequent'

Key Points

• Affirming the consequent:
• This is a logical fallacy where one assumes that if 'A' leads to 'B', then the occurrence of 'B' must mean 'A' has happened.
• In the given argument, the person assumes that because they are experiencing digestive issues (B), it must be because they ate mushrooms (A) the previous night. This fallacy overlooks other possible causes for the digestive issues.
• Just because mushrooms can cause illness does not necessarily mean that all instances of digestive issues are due to eating mushrooms.

Additional Information

• Hasty Generalization:
• This fallacy involves making a broad generalization based on a small sample size. This is not applicable here as the argument is not making a generalization.
• Begging the question:
• This fallacy occurs when an argument's premise assumes the truth of the conclusion instead of supporting it. This is not applicable here as the argument does not have a premise that assumes the conclusion.
• **Valid

Argument:

**

• A valid argument is one where if the premises are true, the conclusion must also be true. In this case, the argument is not valid because the premise does not necessarily lead to the conclusion.

The correct answer is 'Phonological loop'

Key Points

• Phonological loop:
• The phonological loop is a component of Baddeley's working memory model that is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of verbal and auditory information.
• It consists of two subcomponents: the phonological store (which holds words we hear) and the articulatory rehearsal process (which allows us to repeat words in our mind).
• When rapidly repeating the word like "See-Saw," the phonological loop is actively engaged in maintaining and rehearsing the sound of the word.

Additional Information

• Visuospatial sketchpad:
• The visuospatial sketchpad is another component of Baddeley's working memory model, responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of visual and spatial information.
• It is not involved in tasks that require auditory or verbal processing, such as repeating words.
• Bounded rationality:
• Bounded rationality is not a component of Baddeley's working memory model. It is a concept in decision-making theory that suggests individuals make decisions based on the limited information they have and within the constraints of their cognitive capabilities.
• This concept is unrelated to the processes involved in working memory.
• Meta-cognition:
• Meta-cognition refers to the awareness and understanding of one's own thought processes. It involves higher-level cognitive processes used to plan, monitor, and evaluate one's understanding and performance.
• While important in many cognitive tasks, it is not specifically a component of Baddeley's working memory model.

The correct answer is 'Adware'

Key Points

• Adware:
• Adware is a type of software that automatically delivers advertisements to the user, often through pop-up windows or banners.
• It is generally considered intrusive and can slow down your device's performance.
• Adware is often bundled with free software and can be installed without the user's knowledge.
• While not always malicious, adware can sometimes track user activity and sell data to third parties.

Additional Information

• Spyware:
• Spyware is a type of malware that secretly monitors user activity and collects personal information without their consent.
• It can capture keystrokes, passwords, and sensitive data, posing a significant security risk.
• Worm:
• A worm is a type of malware that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers, often exploiting vulnerabilities in network security.
• Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to an existing program or file.
• Trojan Horse:
• A Trojan Horse is a type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it.
• Once installed, it can create backdoors, steal information, or allow unauthorized access to the user's system.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points

• (A) Closed text - (III) A text to elicit a single response:
• A closed text is structured to guide the reader towards a specific, predetermined response.
• This concept is used in various forms of standardized testing and instructional materials.
• The primary goal is to assess specific knowledge or understanding without ambiguity.
• (B) Principle of safety - (IV) Avoidance of risk:
• The principle of safety emphasizes minimizing or eliminating risk.
• This principle is fundamental in fields such as engineering, healthcare, and workplace safety.
• It aims to protect individuals and property from harm or damage.
• (C) Orality - (I) Verbal expressions:
• Orality refers to the reliance on spoken language and verbal communication.
• This concept is crucial in cultures with strong oral traditions and in contexts where written communication is less prevalent.
• Verbal expressions include storytelling, spoken instructions, and oral presentations.
• (D) Cluster - (II) Basic rhetorical structure:
• A cluster involves grouping related ideas or concepts together.
• This method is often used in writing and speech to create a clear and organized argument or presentation.
• The basic rhetorical structure helps in effectively conveying the message to the audience.

Given:

(A) Selling Price = ₹ 40, Profit = 15%

(B) Cost Price = ₹ 150, Profit = 8%

(C) Cost Price = ₹ 500, Selling Price = ₹ 400

(D) Selling Price = ₹ 210, Loss = 30%

Calculations:

For (A):

Profit% = (Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price × 100

Let Cost Price = CP

15 = (40 - CP) / CP × 100

⇒ 0.15CP = 40 - CP

⇒ 1.15CP = 40

⇒ CP = 40 / 1.15 = 34.78 (approximately)

So, (A) is false.

For (B):

Profit = Cost Price × Profit% / 100

Profit = 150 × 8 / 100 = 12

Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit = 150 + 12 = ₹ 162

So, (B) is true.

For (C):

Loss% = (Cost Price - Selling Price) / Cost Price × 100

Loss = 500 - 400 = 100

Loss% = (100 / 500) × 100 = 20%

So, (C) is false.

For (D):

Loss% = (Cost Price - Selling Price) / Cost Price × 100

Let Cost Price = CP

30 = (CP - 210) / CP × 100

⇒ 0.30CP = CP - 210

⇒ 0.30CP = CP - 210

⇒ 0.70CP = 210

⇒ CP = 210 / 0.70 = ₹ 300

So, (D) is true.

Summary of Truth Values:

(A) False

(B) True

(C) False

(D) True

∴ The true statements are (B) and (D).

The correct answer is (A), (D) and (E) Only

Key Points

• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• ISA is an alliance of more than 120 countries, most of them being sunshine countries which lie either completely or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The primary objective of the alliance is to work for efficient consumption of solar energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
• The headquarters of the ISA is located in Gurugram, India.
• ISA was jointly launched by India and France during the COP21 held in Paris in November 2015.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• (B): The headquarters of ISA is in Gurugram, India, not Geneva, Switzerland.
• (C): While many member countries lie between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, the membership is open to all countries.

The correct answer is ‘(A) and (D) Only’

Key Points

• In the Square of Opposition, propositions are related to each other in specific ways:
• Contraries:
• ​Two propositions that cannot both be true but can both be false.
• In the given scenario, "All squares are rectangles" (A) and "No squares are rectangles" (E) are contraries.
• Contradictories:
• ​Two propositions that cannot both be true and cannot both be false.
• In the given scenario, "All squares are rectangles" (A) and "Some squares are not rectangles" (O) are contradictories.
• Subcontraries:
• ​Two propositions that cannot both be false but can both be true.
• In the given scenario, "Some squares are rectangles" (I) and "Some squares are not rectangles" (O) are subcontraries.
• Subalternation:
• A relationship between a universal proposition (A or E) and a particular proposition (I or O) where the truth of the universal implies the truth of the particular.

In the given scenario, "All squares are rectangles" (A) implies "Some squares are rectangles" (I).

 

• Therefore, the correct answer is (A) and (D) Only, as they form a contradictory pair.

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Key Points

• Threats to Internal Validity:
• Selection Threat: Refers to biases that result from the selection of participants. For example, differences between groups that exist before the treatment is applied can affect the outcome.
• Maturation Threat: Refers to changes that occur within participants over time, which can influence the results independently of the experimental treatment.
• Attrition Threat: Occurs when participants drop out of a study at different rates across conditions, leading to non-random loss of participants and potentially biased outcomes.
• Testing Threat: Refers to changes in participants' performance due to repeated testing, which can influence the results independently of the experimental treatment.

Additional Information

• Other Threats to Internal Validity:
• Instrumentation Threat: Refers to changes in the measurement instruments or procedures that can affect the results.
• History Threat: Involves events that occur between the pre-test and post-test that are not part of the treatment but can influence the outcome.
• Regression to the Mean: Occurs when extreme scores tend to move closer to the average upon retesting, which can affect the results independently of the treatment.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Scales of Measurement:
• Nominal Scale: This is a categorical scale where variables are simply named or labeled without any quantitative value. Example: Caste.
• Ordinal Scale: This scale provides a rank order among variables but the intervals between ranks are not necessarily equal. Example: Rank of Army personnel.
• Interval Scale: This scale provides the order of variables, and the difference between the variables can be measured. However, it does not have a true zero point. Example: Time of Day.
• Ratio Scale: This is the most informative scale. It has a true zero point and allows for the comparison of both differences and ratios. Example: Height of students.

Additional Information

• Understanding the Scales:
• Nominal and ordinal scales are qualitative, used for categorizing or ranking data respectively.
• Interval and ratio scales are quantitative, used for measuring data with interval scale lacking a true zero point, unlike ratio scale.

The correct answer is '(A), (C) and (D) Only'

Key Points

• Routes for exposure to pollutants in humans:
• Inhalation: Breathing in polluted air is a common route of exposure. Pollutants such as particulate matter, gases, and vapors can enter the respiratory system and cause health issues.
• Ingestion: Consuming contaminated food and water is another major route of exposure. Pollutants can enter the body through the digestive system, leading to potential harm.
• Dermal: Skin contact with pollutants can lead to absorption through the skin. This route is significant for certain chemicals and substances that can penetrate the skin barrier.

Additional Information

• Consumption:
• While consumption can refer to eating or drinking, it is generally covered under ingestion. Therefore, it is not listed separately in the correct answer.
• Digestion:
• Digestion is the process by which food is broken down in the body. It is not a route of exposure but a biological process that happens after ingestion.

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only

Key Points

• Measures initiated by Lord Auckland:
• Lord Auckland guaranteed the maintenance of oriental colleges, ensuring that traditional forms of education were preserved and supported.
• He promoted the publication of useful works for instruction in oriental languages, thereby fostering the spread of knowledge and learning in native languages.
• He selected certain places for establishing central colleges for higher instruction, which aimed at improving the quality and accessibility of higher education in India.

The correct answer is (D), (B), (C), (A)

Key Points

• Personal Area Network (PAN):
• PAN covers a very small area, typically within a range of a few meters.
• It is used for communication among devices such as laptops, mobile phones, and tablets in close proximity.
• Examples include Bluetooth and Infrared connections.
• Local Area Network (LAN):
• LAN covers a small geographic area like a single building or a group of buildings.
• It is used for connecting computers and devices within a limited area, such as an office, school, or home.
• Commonly used technologies include Ethernet and Wi-Fi.
• Metropolitan Area Network (MAN):
• MAN covers a larger geographic area than a LAN, typically a city or a large campus.
• It is used to connect multiple LANs within a metropolitan area.
• Examples include city-wide Wi-Fi networks and cable television networks.
• Wide Area Network (WAN):
• WAN covers a very large geographic area, such as a country, continent, or even the entire globe.
• It is used to connect multiple LANs and MANs over long distances.
• The Internet is the most well-known example of a WAN.

The correct answer is 'Radon'

Key Points

• Radon:
• Radon is a radioactive gas that can be found indoors, particularly in homes and buildings constructed on soil with natural uranium deposits.
• It is a significant indoor air pollutant because it can accumulate to high levels and pose serious health risks, including lung cancer.
• Radon is colorless, tasteless, and odorless, making it difficult to detect without proper testing equipment.

Additional Information

• Mercury:
• Mercury is a toxic element that can be found in certain household items like thermometers and fluorescent bulbs.
• While it poses health risks, it is not considered a prominent indoor air pollutant as it is not typically found in gaseous form indoors.
• Helium:
• Helium is an inert, non-toxic gas commonly used in balloons and as a cooling agent in various applications.
• It does not pose significant health risks and is not considered an indoor air pollutant.
• Argon:
• Argon is another inert gas used in various industrial and scientific applications.
• Like helium, it is non-toxic and does not contribute to indoor air pollution.

The correct answer is '(E), (A), (B), (D), (C)'

Key Points

• Sanskrit College, Benares (E):
• Established in 1791, it is one of the oldest educational institutions in India.
• Founded by Jonathan Duncan, the then British Resident of Benares, to promote the study of Sanskrit literature and Hindu law.
• Fort William College, Calcutta (A):
• Founded in 1800 by Lord Wellesley, the then Governor-General of India, to train British civil servants in languages and administrative skills.
• Played a crucial role in the development of modern Indian languages and literature.
• Sanskrit College, Poona (B):
• Founded in 1821 by the Peshwas of the Maratha Empire.
• Focused on the teaching of traditional Indian subjects, including Sanskrit, Vedanta, and Nyaya.
• Anglo-Vedic College, Lahore (D):
• Established in 1886 by the Arya Samaj movement.
• Aimed at combining traditional Vedic education with modern scientific subjects.
• Central Hindu College, Benares (C):
• Founded in 1898 by Annie Besant, a prominent theosophist and social reformer.
• Later became a part of Banaras Hindu University, which was established in 1916.

The correct answer is '44%'

Key Points

• UGC Regulations 2018 on Plagiarism:
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) established regulations in 2018 to address the issue of plagiarism in academic research and publications.
• These regulations categorize plagiarism into different levels based on the percentage of similarity detected in a research document.
• The regulations aim to uphold academic integrity and prevent unethical practices in research.
• Level 2: Similarities above 40% to 60%

i) Shall be asked to withdraw manuscript.

ii) Shall be denied a right to one annual increment.

iii) Shall not be allowed to be a supervisor to any new Master’s, M.Phil., Ph.D. Student/scholar for a period

of two years.

• Levels of Plagiarism and Consequences:
• Level 0: Similarity up to 10% - Minor similarities; no penalty.
• Level 1: Similarity between 10% and 40% - Submission to be revised.
• Level 2: Similarity between 40% and 60% - Submission to be revised, and the researcher is debarred from submitting a new proposal for one year.
• Level 3: Similarity above 60% - Submission is rejected, and the researcher is debarred from submitting a new proposal for two years.

The correct answer is 'Universalist, Redemptive, Electronic assembly'

Key Points

• Universalist:
• The Internet is often described as universalist because it provides a platform that is accessible to people from all over the world, regardless of their geographical location.
• This universality allows for the free exchange of information and ideas across different cultures and societies.
• Redemptive:
• The term 'redemptive' in the context of the Internet implies that it has the potential to bring about positive change and improvements in various aspects of society.
• It can be a tool for education, social justice, and economic development, offering opportunities for individuals and communities to improve their circumstances.
• Electronic assembly:
• The Internet serves as an electronic assembly, meaning it is a virtual space where people can gather, communicate, and collaborate, much like a physical assembly or meeting place.
• This aspect of the Internet enables the formation of online communities, forums, and social networks where individuals can share interests, ideas, and support.

Additional Information

• Restricted possibility:
• This option is incorrect because the Internet is characterized by its vast and unrestricted possibilities, allowing for a wide range of activities and access to information.
• Rather than being restricted, the Internet is often seen as an open platform that fosters innovation and creativity.
• Unimpressive theology:
• This option is incorrect because it does not accurately describe the Internet. Theology pertains to the study of religious beliefs, and the term 'unimpressive' does not align with the transformative and impactful nature of the Internet.
• The Internet's significance extends far beyond any unimpressive theological perspective, influencing various facets of modern life.

The correct answer is 'Medium'

Key Points

• Medium:
• David Holmes emphasizes that the medium through which communication occurs significantly impacts the textual or behavioral qualities of that communication.
• Medium refers to the channel or mode used to convey messages, such as print, digital, face-to-face, etc.
• The characteristics of the medium can shape how the message is perceived and understood by the audience.
• For example, the nuances of a face-to-face conversation can be very different from those of a written text or an email, influencing the behavior and interpretation of the message.

Additional Information

• Message:
• While the message is the content being communicated, it is the medium that shapes how the message is delivered and perceived.
• The message itself does not determine the textual or behavioral qualities of the communication; it is influenced by the medium used to convey it.
• Noise:
• Noise refers to any interference that may distort or hinder the communication process, such as background noise or technical issues.
• While noise can affect communication, it does not determine the inherent qualities of the communication in the way the medium does.
• Ideology:
• Ideology pertains to a set of beliefs or values that can influence the content of a message but not the medium's inherent qualities.
• Ideology shapes what is communicated rather than how it is communicated, which is the primary concern of the medium.

The correct answer is ‘(A), (B), (C) and (D)’

Key Points

• Logically Equivalent Propositions:
• Logically equivalent propositions are statements that have the same truth value in every possible scenario.
• In this context, all four statements (A), (B), (C), and (D) are logically equivalent because they essentially convey the same idea using different wording.
• Statement (A): Some books are novels.
• This directly states that there is at least one book that is a novel.
• Statement (B): Some books are not non-novels.
• This is a double negative that simplifies to "Some books are novels," making it logically equivalent to (A).
• Statement (C): Some novels are not non-books.
• This double negative simplifies to "Some novels are books," which is logically equivalent to (A).
• Statement (D): Some novels are books.
• This directly states that there is at least one novel that is a book, making it logically equivalent to (A).

The correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Matching Channels with Names:
• Channel 04 is correctly matched with Saaraswat  (IV).
• Channel 05 is correctly matched with Prabandhan (III).
• Channel 06 is correctly matched with Vidhik (II).
• Channel 07 is correctly matched with Kautilya (I).

Given:

(0.12 × 0.12 × 0.12) + (0.012 × 0.012 × 0.012) / (0.48 × 0.48 × 0.48) + (0.048 × 0.048 × 0.048)

Calculations:

Numerator:

0.12 × 0.12 × 0.12 = 0.001728

0.012 × 0.012 × 0.012 = 0.000001728

Total numerator = 0.001728 + 0.000001728 = 0.001729728

Denominator:

We take common factor of 4³ from both terms:

0.48 = 4 × 0.12, so 0.48 × 0.48 × 0.48 = 4³ × 0.12 × 0.12 × 0.12 = 4³ × 0.001728

0.048 = 4 × 0.012, so 0.048 × 0.048 × 0.048 = 4³ × 0.012 × 0.012 × 0.012 = 4³ × 0.000001728

Total denominator = 4³ × (0.001728 + 0.000001728)

Factor out the common term in the denominator:

⇒ 0.001729728 / (4³ × 0.001729728)

Simplify:

⇒ 1 / 4³ = 1 / 64

∴ The value of the expression is 1 / 64.

Alternate Method Take 0.12 = x and 0.012 = y

So, 0.48 = 4x and 0.048 = 4y

Put the value in given term i.e. \(\frac{(0.12 \times 0.12 \times 0.12)+(0.012 \times 0.012 \times 0.012)}{(0.48 \times 0.48 \times 0.48)+(0.048 \times 0.048 \times 0.048)}\)

\(\frac{(x \times x \times x)+(y \times y \times y)}{(4x \times 4x \times 4x)+(4y \times 4y \times 4y)}\) = \(\frac{x^3+y^3}{(4x)^3+(4y)^3}\)

\(\frac{x^3+y^3}{4^3(x^3+y^3)}\) = 1/4³ = 1/64

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Hunter Commission (A) - Withdrawal of government support to collegiate education (II):
• The Hunter Commission, also known as the Indian Education Commission (1882-1883), was established to review the progress of education in India since the Despatch of 1854.
• It recommended the withdrawal of government support to collegiate education and instead emphasized the promotion of primary education.
• Sadler Commission (B) - Development of mofussil colleges into future university centres (III):
• The Sadler Commission (1917-1919) aimed to investigate the problems of Calcutta University and associated colleges.
• It recommended the development of mofussil (provincial) colleges into future university centers to decentralize higher education and improve its quality.
• Hartog Committee (C) - Enrichment of college libraries and concentration on Honours courses in select centres (IV):
• The Hartog Committee was appointed in 1929 to review the progress of education in India since the reforms of 1919.
• One of its recommendations was to enrich college libraries and concentrate on Honours courses in select centers to improve the quality of higher education.
• Sargent Plan (D) - University technological departments providing for research and teaching (I):
• The Sargent Plan (1944) was a post-war educational development plan for India proposed by the Central Advisory Board of Education.
• It recommended the establishment of university technological departments to provide for research and teaching, aiming to improve technical education and research capabilities.

The correct answer is Option 2: They are healthy bacteria living in the body.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that microbiomes are "trillions of healthy bacteria living" in the gut.
• These healthy bacteria have a direct impact on how the immune system functions, which is crucial for overall health.
• Maintaining a healthy microbiome is particularly important during times when illnesses like colds and flu peak, as noted by the experts in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: They are healthy bacteria living in the body.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not mention that microbiomes create lots of sugar in the body.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the passage does not link microbiomes to raising blood pressure and heart disease risk.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not state that microbiomes increase the tendency for processed food.

The correct answer is Option 2: The relationship between diet and immune system.

 

Key Points

• Heather Moday's statement focuses on the effects of diet on the immune system.
• She emphasizes that what we eat is crucial for our immune function, especially during winter holidays when illnesses peak.
• Heather highlights the importance of diet in maintaining a healthy microbiome, which in turn impacts the immune system.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: The relationship between diet and immune system.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the primary focus is not on the general benefits of a balanced diet.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the statement does not discuss the importance of regular exercise.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the statement does not mention the effects of meditation on health.

The correct answer is Occasional food indulgence will cause lasting damage.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that "an occasional indulgence probably won't cause lasting damage".
• It emphasizes that it's the prolonged disregard for nutrition that is unhealthy and affects the microbiome.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Option 1 is correct as it is inferred from the passage which suggests moderation ("an occasional indulgence probably won't cause lasting damage").
• Option 2 is correct as it implies celebrating smarter without hurting nutrition, aligning with the passage's advice.
• Option 3 is correct since the passage explicitly states that what we eat impacts the immune system.

The correct answer is Direct impact on immune system functions.

 

Key Points

• The passage states that what we eat affects the health of the entire body, including the immune system.
• It specifies that the body's immune system is concentrated in the gut, where the microbiome resides, and that diet has a direct impact on how the immune system functions.
• Heather Moday emphasizes the crucial role of diet in maintaining a healthy immune system, especially during the winter holidays when illnesses are more common.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not mention increased cholesterol levels as an effect of diet on the immune system.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the passage does not discuss improved skin health in relation to diet and the immune system.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not mention loss of appetite as an effect of diet on the immune system.

The correct answer is Occasional indulgence is unlikely to cause lasting damage.

 

Key Points

• The passage acknowledges that while holiday indulgence is common, occasional indulgence likely won't cause lasting damage.
• Kristin Kirkpatrick notes that prolonged neglect of nutrition can impact the microbiome, suggesting moderation rather than total avoidance.
• Heather Moday emphasizes the importance of diet on the immune system, especially during times when illnesses are more common.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage does not advocate for completely avoiding indulgence.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the passage clearly states that diet has a significant impact on the immune system.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage does not suggest experimenting with extreme diets during holidays.