UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 27th August 2024 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Total viewers of COLORS TV in City-C = 2400

Ratio of M:F for COLORS TV in City-C = 2:3

Total viewers of JIO in City-A = 2778

Ratio of M:F for JIO in City-A = 7:10

Formula used:

Number of females = \(\dfrac{\text{Total viewers} \times \text{F}}{\text{M+F}}\)

Percentage = \(\dfrac{\text{Female viewers of City-C}}{\text{Female viewers of City-A}} \times 100\)

Calculation:

Number of female viewers of COLORS TV in City-C:

⇒ Females = 2400 × 3 / (2+3)

⇒ Females = 2400 × 3 / 5

⇒ Females = 1440

Number of female viewers of JIO in City-A:

⇒ Females = 2778 × 10 / (7+10)

⇒ Females = 2778 × 10 / 17

⇒ Females ≈ 1634

Percentage:

⇒ Percentage = (1440 / 1634) × 100

⇒ Percentage ≈ 88.11%

Therefore, the total number of female viewers of COLORS TV from City-C is approximately 88% of the total number of female viewers of JIO from City-A.

Given:

Total viewers of ZEE TV from six cities:

City A = 2346, M:F = 2:1

City B = 3094, M:F = 8:9

City C = 2610, M:F = 3:2

City D = 2976, M:F = 7:9

City E = 2670, M:F = 8:7

City F = 2398, M:F = 5:6

Formula used:

Males = \(\dfrac{\text{Total viewers} \times \text{M}}{\text{M+F}}\)

Females = \(\dfrac{\text{Total viewers} \times \text{F}}{\text{M+F}}\)

Calculation:

City A:

⇒ Males = 2346 × 2 / (2+1) = 1564

⇒ Females = 2346 × 1 / 3 = 782

City B:

⇒ Males = 3094 × 8 / (8+9) ≈ 1457

⇒ Females = 3094 × 9 / 17 ≈ 1637

City C:

⇒ Males = 2610 × 3 / (3+2) = 1566

⇒ Females = 2610 × 2 / 5 = 1044

City D:

⇒ Males = 2976 × 7 / (7+9) = 1302

⇒ Females = 2976 × 9 / 16 = 1674

City E:

⇒ Males = 2670 × 8 / (8+7) = 1424

⇒ Females = 2670 × 7 / 15 = 1246

City F:

⇒ Males = 2398 × 5 / (5+6) ≈ 1090

⇒ Females = 2398 × 6 / 11 ≈ 1308

Total Males = 1564 + 1457 + 1566 + 1302 + 1424 + 1090 = 8402

Total Females = 782 + 1637 + 1044 + 1674 + 1246 + 1308 = 7692

Therefore, the difference = 8402 - 7692 = 710

Given:

Total viewers of ZEE TV from six cities:

City A = 2346, M:F = 2:1

City B = 3094, M:F = 8:9

City C = 2610, M:F = 3:2

City D = 2976, M:F = 7:9

City E = 2670, M:F = 8:7

City F = 2398, M:F = 5:6

Formula used:

Females = \(\dfrac{\text{Total viewers} \times \text{F}}{\text{M+F}}\)

Average = \(\dfrac{\text{Total Female Viewers}}{6}\)

Calculation:

City A:

⇒ Females = 2346 × 1 / (2+1) = 782

City B:

⇒ Females = 3094 × 9 / (8+9) ≈ 1637

City C:

⇒ Females = 2610 × 2 / (3+2) = 1044

City D:

⇒ Females = 2976 × 9 / (7+9) = 1674

City E:

⇒ Females = 2670 × 7 / (8+7) = 1246

City F:

⇒ Females = 2398 × 6 / (5+6) ≈ 1308

Total Female Viewers = 782 + 1637 + 1044 + 1674 + 1246 + 1308 = 7692

⇒ Average = 7692 / 6 = 1282

Therefore, the average number of female viewers of ZEE TV across all six cities is approximately 1282.

Given:

Total male viewers of SONY TV from six cities:

City A = 3:4, Total = 2086, Males = (3/7) * 2086 = 894

City B = 1:2, Total = 2646, Males = (1/3) * 2646 = 882

City C = 7:5, Total = 2808, Males = (7/12) * 2808 = 1642

City D = 3:2, Total = 2390, Males = (3/5) * 2390 = 1434

City E = 9:8, Total = 2856, Males = (9/17) * 2856 = 1512

City F = 9:10, Total = 2508, Males = (9/19) * 2508 = 1187

JIO TV viewers in City D = 2472

Formula used:

Percentage = (Total male viewers of SONY TV / JIO TV viewers in City D) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Total male viewers of SONY TV = 894 + 882 + 1638 + 1434 + 1344 + 1188 = 7380

⇒ Average male viewers of SONY TV = 7380 / 6 = 1230

⇒ Percentage = (1230 / 2472) × 100

⇒ Percentage ≈ 50%

∴ The correct answer is approximately 50%.

Given:

Total viewers of ZEE TV from City C = 2610, M:F = 3:2

Total viewers of SONY TV from City F = 2508, M:F = 9:10

Formula used:

Number of males = \(\dfrac{\text{Total viewers} \times \text{M}}{\text{M+F}}\)

Number of females = \(\dfrac{\text{Total viewers} \times \text{F}}{\text{M+F}}\)

Percentage more = \(\dfrac{\text{Male viewers of ZEE from City C - Female viewers of SONY from City F}}{\text{Female viewers of SONY from City F}} \times 100\)

Calculation:

Number of male viewers of ZEE TV from City C:

⇒ Males = 2610 × 3 / (3+2) = 1566

Number of female viewers of SONY TV from City F:

⇒ Females = 2508 × 10 / (9+10) ≈ 1320

Percentage more:

⇒ Percentage more = (1566 - 1320) / 1320 × 100

⇒ Percentage more ≈ 18.64%

Therefore, the number of male viewers of ZEE TV from City C is approximately 18.64% more than the number of female viewers of SONY TV from City F.

The correct answer is 'Only A, B, C and D'

Key Points

• Pedagogical dilemmas in constructivism:
• Constructivism is an educational philosophy that emphasizes the learner's active role in constructing knowledge through experience and reflection.
• Teachers practicing constructivism face several dilemmas as they strive to balance various instructional and developmental needs.
• Developing a more in-depth knowledge of the subject matter (A):
• Teachers must have a comprehensive understanding of the subjects they teach to facilitate deeper learning and address students' inquiries effectively.
• Managing new ideas of discourse and participatory work in the classroom (B):
• Constructivist classrooms encourage active discourse and participation, which requires teachers to adeptly manage and integrate these new ideas into the learning environment.
• Respecting students’ efforts to think for themselves while remaining faithful to accepted thematic ideas (C):
• Teachers must balance encouraging independent thinking with guiding students toward understanding established concepts and themes.
• Mastering the art of facilitation (D):
• In constructivist classrooms, the teacher acts more as a facilitator than a traditional instructor, helping guide students through their learning processes.

Additional Information

• Dealing with issues of accountability with various stakeholders in the school community (E):
• While accountability is important, it is not specifically a dilemma of constructivist teaching but rather a broader issue in educational practice.

The correct answer is 'Camtasia'

Key Points

• Camtasia:
• Camtasia is a powerful screen recording and video editing tool that is widely used for creating professional-quality videos.
• It allows users to capture screen activity, add effects, transitions, and annotations, making it ideal for educational videos.
• The software provides an intuitive interface and extensive editing features, enabling instructors to produce polished and engaging content.
• Camtasia also supports easy sharing and exporting options to various platforms, ensuring that the videos can be accessed by students worldwide.

Additional Information

• Flipgrid:
• Flipgrid is a video discussion platform that allows students and educators to create and share short video responses on given topics.
• While it is excellent for fostering interactive discussions, it lacks the robust editing and screen recording capabilities needed to create comprehensive instructional videos.
• Padlet:
• Padlet is a digital bulletin board that allows users to post notes, images, links, and videos.
• It is more suited for collaborative activities and sharing resources rather than recording and editing detailed instructional videos.
• Google Forms:
• Google Forms is a survey and quiz tool used to collect information and assess students' understanding through forms and questionnaires.
• It is not designed for video recording or editing, making it unsuitable for creating instructional videos.

The correct answer is 280 ppm

Key Points

• Pre-industrial CO2 levels:
• The pre-industrial era is generally considered to be the period before the onset of large-scale industrial activities, around the year 1750.
• During this time, the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) was about 280 parts per million (ppm).
• CO2 levels have significantly increased since the industrial revolution, primarily due to human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation.

Additional Information

• Other Options:
• 200 ppm: This level is significantly lower than the actual pre-industrial CO2 levels. It would represent a much cooler global climate than what was historically recorded.
• 350 ppm: This level was first surpassed in the late 1980s. It is higher than the pre-industrial levels and indicates an increase due to industrial activities.
• 420 ppm: This level is closer to current CO2 concentrations in the atmosphere, reflecting the ongoing rise due to continued industrial emissions.

The correct answer is 'B, C and D only'

Key Points

• Sample Attrition in Research Designs:
• Sample attrition refers to the loss of participants over time in a study, which can impact the validity and reliability of the research findings.
• Longitudinal studies, panel studies, and cohort studies are more prone to this issue because they involve repeated observations or measurements over time.
• In longitudinal studies, researchers collect data from the same subjects at multiple time points, making them susceptible to sample attrition if participants drop out.
• Panel studies, which also involve repeated measurements on the same subjects, face similar challenges with participant retention over time.
• Cohort studies follow a group of individuals who share a common characteristic over a period, and they can experience sample attrition as participants may not remain in the study for its entire duration.

Additional Information

• Cross-sectional studies:
• Cross-sectional studies collect data at a single point in time from a sample population, which means they do not face the problem of sample attrition.
• These studies are useful for providing a snapshot of a particular phenomenon at one moment but cannot examine changes over time.
• Implications of Sample Attrition:
• Sample attrition can lead to biased results if the participants who drop out differ systematically from those who remain.
• Researchers can use various methods to address sample attrition, such as follow-up strategies, statistical adjustments, or using replacement subjects.

The correct answer is 'A, and D only'

Key Points

• Ordinal Variables:
• Ordinal variables are categorical variables where the categories have a meaningful order, but the intervals between the categories are not necessarily equal.
• They allow for rank-ordering of data points but do not assume that the differences between ranks are equal.
• Rank of army personnel (A):
• Ranks in the army represent different levels of authority and responsibility, which are ordered in a hierarchical structure.
• These ranks are ordinal because they can be ordered from lowest to highest, but the difference in authority or responsibility between each rank is not necessarily uniform.
• Annoyance level (D):
• Annoyance level can be measured on a scale (e.g., not annoyed, slightly annoyed, moderately annoyed, very annoyed, extremely annoyed), which has a clear order.
• This is an ordinal variable because it shows an ordered relationship, even though the distance between each level is not quantitatively defined.

Additional Information

• Religion (B) and Caste (C):
• Religion and caste are nominal variables, not ordinal. They categorize data without any inherent order.
• Nominal variables are used to label variables without any quantitative value.
• Temperature in Celsius (E):
• Temperature in Celsius is a continuous variable, not ordinal. It is measured on an interval scale with equal intervals between each degree.
• Continuous variables allow for a wide range of values with meaningful distances between them.

The correct answer is 'D, B, C, A'

Key Points

• Understanding base-M number system:
• A number in base-M means that the number is represented using digits from 0 to M-1.
• To convert a base-M number to a decimal, each digit is multiplied by M raised to the power of its positional index (counting from right, starting at 0), and then these values are summed.
• Conversion to decimal:
• A. (203)₄:
• 24²+ 04¹+ 34⁰= 216 + 0 + 3 = 32 + 3 = 35
• B. (100001)₂:
• 12⁵ + 02⁴ + 02³ + 02² + 02⁰ + 12⁰ = 1*32 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 32 + 1 = 33
• C. (114)₅:
• 15² + 15¹ + 45⁰= 125 + 1*5 + 4 = 25 + 5 + 4 = 34
• D. (1012)₃:
• 13³ + 03² + 13¹+ 23⁰ = 127 + 0 + 13 + 2 = 27 + 0 + 3 + 2 = 32
• Arranging in ascending order:
• The decimal equivalents are:
• D. 32
• B. 33
• C. 34
• A. 35
• Thus, the ascending order is D, B, C, A.

The correct answer is 'Meta cognitive knowledge'

Key Points

• Meta cognitive knowledge:
• Meta cognitive knowledge refers to the awareness and understanding of one's own thought processes. It involves self-regulation of cognition through planning, monitoring, and evaluating.
• It helps individuals understand which learning strategies work best for them and enables them to adapt these strategies to different learning tasks.
• Using learning strategies and tactics effectively is a clear reflection of meta cognitive knowledge, as it requires awareness of one’s cognitive processes and the ability to control them.

Additional Information

• Intellectual Humility:
• Intellectual humility involves recognizing the limits of one's knowledge and being open to new ideas and perspectives.
• While it is an important trait for effective learning, it does not directly reflect the use of learning strategies and tactics.
• Overlearning:
• Overlearning refers to the continued practice of a skill or study of material beyond initial mastery, which helps in better retention.
• Although beneficial, overlearning is a specific technique rather than a broad reflection of using various learning strategies and tactics.
• Rote learning:
• Rote learning involves memorizing information without necessarily understanding it, often through repetition.
• This approach does not typically involve the strategic and reflective processes that characterize meta cognitive knowledge.

The correct answer is 'Quasi-scientific'

Key Points

• Quasi-scientific:
• The semiotic study of Charles Pierce is considered quasi-scientific because it systematically analyzes signs and symbols, similar to scientific methodologies.
• Pierce’s approach incorporates logical and empirical methods to study the nature of signs and how they represent objects, concepts, and thoughts.
• This method involves observation, classification, and hypothesis testing, which are core scientific principles applied to the study of semiotics.

Additional Information

• Experimental:
• Experimental studies involve controlled conditions to test hypotheses, which is not the primary approach in Pierce’s semiotics. His method is more observational and analytical rather than experimental.
• Historical:
• While historical analysis may be part of semiotic studies, Pierce’s approach is not primarily historical. It focuses more on the structure and function of signs rather than their historical development.
• Quasi-legal:
• Quasi-legal approaches pertain to the application of legal principles and reasoning. Pierce’s study does not focus on legal interpretations but rather on the logical and systematic study of signs.

The correct answer is 'A, C, D and E only'

Key Points

• Moderators in Nuclear Reactors:
• Moderators are materials used in nuclear reactors to slow down fast neutrons, making them more likely to cause fission when they collide with the fuel nuclei.
• By slowing down the neutrons, moderators help sustain the chain reaction within the reactor, which is crucial for the reactor's continuous operation.
• Without moderators, the chain reaction would not be efficient or could even stop, as fast neutrons are less likely to induce further fission events.
• Common examples of moderators include heavy water (D2O) and graphite.

Additional Information

• Other Options:
• Option 1 (A, B, C, and D only): This option is incorrect as it does not include E, which specifies examples of moderators such as heavy water or D2O.
• Option 3 (B, C, and D only): This option is incorrect because it does not include A, which is a fundamental function of moderators to slow down neutrons.
• Option 4 (A, B, and E only): This option is incorrect as it excludes C and D, which are also critical roles of moderators in sustaining the chain reaction and ensuring the reactor's operation.

The correct answer is 'B, C and D only'

Key Points

• **Logically equivalent

Statements:

**

• Statement B: "Some apes are not intelligent animals" implies that there are apes that lack intelligence.
• Statement C: "Some apes are non-intelligent animals" is another way of stating that some apes are not intelligent.
• Statement D: "Some non-intelligent animals are not non-apes" can be rephrased to "Some non-intelligent animals are apes," which aligns with Statements B and C.

Additional Information

• Incorrect options:
• Option 1 (A, B, and C only): Statement A ("Some non-intelligent animals are non-apes") does not align with the logical structure of B and C.
• Option 2 (A and C only): Excludes Statement B, which is logically equivalent to C.
• Option 3 (A and D only): Statement A is not logically equivalent to D, even though D is equivalent to B and C.

The correct answer is 'B, C, D only'

Key Points

• Public sector funding agencies for research in India:
• Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR): ICAR is an autonomous organization under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It is responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India.
• Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR): ICHR is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education, Government of India. It provides financial assistance to historians and scholars through fellowships, grants, and projects to promote historical research.
• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR): ICMR is one of the oldest and largest medical research bodies in the world, funded by the Government of India through the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is responsible for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research in India.

Additional Information

• TATA Trust:
• TATA Trusts are private philanthropic organizations that provide grants and funding for various social and developmental projects, including research. However, they are not part of the public sector.
• Population Foundation of India (PFI):
• PFI is a non-governmental organization (NGO) that focuses on population stabilization and reproductive health. While it supports research and advocacy, it is not a public sector agency.

The correct answer is 'LIDAR'

Key Points

• LIDAR:
• LIDAR stands for Light Detection and Ranging.
• It is a remote sensing technology that uses laser light to measure distances to the Earth's surface.
• LIDAR is used to measure and monitor air pollution by detecting particles and gases in the atmosphere.
• This technology can provide precise and high-resolution data on pollutants such as aerosols, carbon dioxide, and methane.

Additional Information

• RADAR:
• RADAR stands for Radio Detection and Ranging.
• It uses radio waves to detect objects and measure their distance and speed.
• RADAR is primarily used for applications such as air traffic control, weather monitoring, and military surveillance, not for measuring air pollution.
• SONAR:
• SONAR stands for Sound Navigation and Ranging.
• It uses sound waves to detect objects underwater and measure their distance.
• SONAR is used in marine applications, such as submarine navigation and underwater mapping, rather than air pollution monitoring.
• SODAR:
• SODAR stands for Sonic Detection and Ranging.
• It uses sound waves to measure atmospheric turbulence and temperature profiles.
• While SODAR can provide information on atmospheric conditions, it is not primarily used for monitoring air pollution.

The correct answer is 'Sound is eternal because it is produced'

Key Points

• **Explanation of fallacious

Argument:

**

• In logical arguments, the middle term must be present in both the major and minor premises for the conclusion to be valid.
• If the middle term is pervaded by the absence of the major term instead of its presence, the argument is fallacious.
• In this case, "Sound is eternal because it is produced" is fallacious because the production of sound (middle term) does not imply eternity (major term); it actually suggests temporality.

Additional Information

• Explanation of other options:
• The hill has fire because it is knowable: This statement is incorrect because knowability does not directly imply the presence of fire. However, it is not fallacious in the specific way described.
• Sound is eternal because it is audible: This statement is incorrect as audibility does not imply eternity. But again, it does not exhibit the fallacy where the middle term is pervaded by the absence of the major term.
• Sound is quality because it is visible: This statement is incorrect because sound is not visible, and visibility does not imply quality. However, it does not fall under the specific fallacy being addressed.

The correct answer is 'A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I'

Key Points

• Forerunner Colleges and Their Associated Universities:
• Muir Central College (A - II): Muir Central College was a prominent educational institution in Allahabad and became a part of Allahabad University.
• Oriental College (B - III): Oriental College was one of the foundational institutions leading to the establishment of Aligarh University.
• University College (C - IV): University College was instrumental in the establishment of Panjab University.
• Canning College (D - I): Canning College was a precursor to Lucknow University.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• Option 1 (A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV): This option incorrectly matches the colleges to universities, such as associating Muir Central College with Lucknow University and others incorrectly.
• Option 3 (A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II): This option also wrongly pairs colleges with universities, such as matching Muir Central College with Aligarh University.
• Option 4 (A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III): This option incorrectly links the colleges to universities, such as matching Muir Central College with Panjab University.

The correct answer is 'Biosocial effect'

Key Points

• Biosocial effect:
• The biosocial effect refers to the influence that the characteristics of a researcher, such as age, sex, or race, can have on the behavior of participants in a study.
• This effect occurs because participants may react differently based on their perceptions of the researcher’s attributes.
• For example, a participant might behave differently when interviewed by a young researcher versus an older one, or by a researcher of the same sex versus one of the opposite sex.

Additional Information

• Psychological effect:
• This refers to the influence that psychological factors can have on the behavior and responses of participants, such as stress, anxiety, or the presence of a psychological disorder.
• However, this does not specifically pertain to the characteristics of the researcher.
• Hawthorne effect:
• The Hawthorne effect occurs when participants alter their behavior because they are aware they are being observed as part of a study.
• This effect is related to the awareness of observation rather than the specific characteristics of the researcher.
• Evaluation apprehension:
• Evaluation apprehension refers to the anxiety or concern participants may feel about being evaluated or judged by the researcher or others.
• While this can influence behavior, it is not directly related to the researcher’s characteristics like age, sex, or race.

The correct answer is 'Only A, C, E'

Key Points

 

• The Tenth Five-Year Plan (2002-2007)
• Focused on Higher Education Reform The Tenth Five-Year Plan, spanning from 2002 to 2007, had a primary objective of revamping the higher education sector.
• Establishment of World-Class Universities
• ​A significant proposal under this plan was to establish fourteen world-class universities.
• This move was crucial for elevating the standards of higher education in the country.
• Emphasis on Science-Based Higher Education and Research
• The plan laid strong emphasis on bolstering science-based higher education and research.
• The aim was to equip students with the latest knowledge in science and technology.
• Financial Assistance
• Providing financial assistance to universities and colleges in underprivileged states was another facet of this plan.
• This was pivotal for promoting educational development in regions where educational standards were relatively lower.

Additional Information

• Diversion of funds to private universities
• Funds were not diverted to private universities in the Tenth Five-Year Plan.
• This option is incorrect because the objective of government schemes is to support government and public educational institutions.
• Restructuring of various councils
• This plan did not focus on the restructuring of various councils.
• This option is also incorrect because the main objective of this plan was to improve higher education.

The correct answer is 'Taxila'

Key Points

• Taxila:
• Taxila, an ancient city located in present-day Pakistan, was one of the world's earliest and most renowned centers of learning.
• The city is believed to have been a hub of education and intellectual activity from as early as the 5^th century BCE.
• Panini, the ancient Indian grammarian known for his work on Sanskrit grammar, was among the scholars associated with Taxila.
• His renowned text, the 'Ashtadhyayi,' laid the foundation for the grammatical structure of classical Sanskrit.

Additional Information

• Nalanda:
• Nalanda was another prominent ancient center of learning located in present-day Bihar, India.
• It flourished between the 5^th and 12^th centuries CE and attracted students from across Asia.
• Although Nalanda was famous, it was established much later than the period of Panini.
• Sri Dhanya Cuttack:
• There are no historical records or evidence suggesting that Sri Dhanya Cuttack was an ancient center of learning.
• Odantapuri:
• Odantapuri, also in Bihar, was another ancient Buddhist monastic university established in the 8^th century CE.
• Like Nalanda, it existed much later than the period in which Panini lived.

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹235

Discount = 6%

Formula used:

Marked Price (MP) = \(\dfrac{SP \times 100}{100 - \text{Discount}}\)

Calculation:

MP = \(\dfrac{235 \times 100}{100 - 6}\)

⇒ MP = \(\dfrac{235 \times 100}{94}\)

⇒ MP = ₹250

New Discount = 15%

New Selling Price (SP) = \(\dfrac{MP \times (100 - \text{New Discount})}{100}\)

⇒ New SP = \(\dfrac{250 \times (100 - 15)}{100}\)

⇒ New SP = \(\dfrac{250 \times 85}{100}\)

⇒ New SP = ₹212.5

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is 'A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II'.

Key Points

• Swayamprabha DTH Channel No and Channel Name Matching:
• A. Channel - 05: This corresponds to 'PRABANDHAN'.
• B. Channel - 06: This corresponds to 'VIDHIK'.
• C. Channel - 07: This corresponds to 'KAUTILIYA'.
• D. Channel - 08: This corresponds to 'ARYABHATT'.

Given:

Correct marks per question = 4

Wrong marks per question = -1

Total questions attempted = 200

Total score = 400

Formula used:

Let x be the number of correct answers.

Then, the number of wrong answers = 200 - x

Total score = (Correct marks per question × Number of correct answers) + (Wrong marks per question × Number of wrong answers)

Calculation:

4x + (-1) × (200 - x) = 400

⇒ 4x - 200 + x = 400

⇒ 5x - 200 = 400

⇒ 5x = 600

⇒ x = 120

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is 'Both 1 and 2'

Key Points

• National Education Policy, 2020:
• The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 aims to transform the education system in India by making it more holistic, flexible, multidisciplinary, aligned to the needs of the 21^st century, and aimed at bringing out the unique capabilities of each student.
• One of the major recommendations is the restructuring of higher education institutions into large multidisciplinary universities, colleges, and clusters of higher education institutions (HEIs).
• Establishment of Higher Education Institutions clusters:
• This recommendation involves creating clusters of higher education institutions to foster interdisciplinary education and research. It aims to reduce the isolation of institutions and promote resource sharing and collaboration.
• These clusters will provide a more diverse and robust learning environment for students, enhancing their overall educational experience.
• Autonomous colleges:
• The policy also emphasizes the creation of more autonomous colleges to promote academic freedom and innovation in teaching and research.
• Autonomous colleges will have the freedom to design their curricula, introduce new courses, and conduct examinations independently, leading to improved quality of education.

Additional Information

• Technology clubs:
• While technology clubs are important for fostering innovation and practical skills among students, they are not a major structural recommendation in the NEP 2020 for higher education restructuring.
• Technology clubs can be part of the extracurricular activities in educational institutions but do not directly contribute to the large-scale restructuring proposed by the NEP.
• Importance of restructuring:
• The restructuring aims to create a more integrated and comprehensive educational ecosystem that can adapt to changing societal and economic needs.
• It seeks to break down silos between different fields of study and promote a culture of innovation and research.

The correct answer is 'A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II'

Key Points

• A. Misinformation - III. False information about the opposition:
• Misinformation refers to the distribution of false or inaccurate information, which can mislead people. In this context, it specifically pertains to spreading false information about the opposition to damage their reputation or credibility.
• B. Black propaganda - IV. Tactical transmission of lies:
• Black propaganda involves the deliberate and strategic dissemination of lies and false information to deceive the target audience. This type of propaganda is often covert and aims to manipulate public perception and opinion.
• C. White propaganda - I. Intentional suppression of conflicting opinions:
• White propaganda is characterized by its open and overt nature. It typically involves promoting a specific viewpoint while intentionally suppressing conflicting opinions to ensure that the desired message is the only one heard.
• D. Grey overpropagation - II. The information transmitted may or may not be false:
• Grey overpropagation involves spreading information where the truthfulness of the content is ambiguous. The information may be a mix of truth and falsehood, making it difficult for the audience to discern the accuracy of the message.

Additional Information

• Other options explained:
• Option 1: A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV: Incorrect because misinformation (A) does not involve intentional suppression (I), and other pairings are also incorrect.
• Option 2: A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I: Incorrect because misinformation (A) is not accurately described by II, and other pairings are also incorrect.
• Option 4: A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III: Incorrect because misinformation (A) is not related to tactical transmission of lies (IV), and other pairings are also incorrect.

The correct answer is 'Uranium and Radon'

Key Points

• Uranium and Radon as Naturally Occurring Radionuclides:
• Uranium is a naturally occurring element found in small amounts in rocks, soil, water, and air. It can dissolve in water and may contaminate drinking water sources, especially in areas with high natural uranium deposits.
• Radon is a radioactive gas that is produced from the natural decay of uranium in soil, rock, and water. It can seep into water supplies, particularly groundwater, and may contaminate drinking water.
• Both uranium and radon are considered significant naturally occurring radionuclides that can pose a risk to human health if present in drinking water.

Additional Information

• Plutonium:
• Plutonium is a man-made radioactive element and does not occur naturally in the environment in significant amounts. It is primarily produced in nuclear reactors and as a byproduct of nuclear weapon production. Therefore, it is not a common contaminant in drinking water from natural sources.
• Other Radionuclides:
• While there are other radionuclides that can contaminate drinking water, such as thorium or potassium-40, they are not as commonly discussed or as significant in the context of natural contamination as uranium and radon.
• Human activities, such as mining, industrial processes, and improper disposal of radioactive materials, can also introduce radionuclides into water sources. However, the question specifically asks about naturally occurring radionuclides.

The correct answer is 'A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II'

Key Points

• Declarative Memory:
• Declarative memory is the conscious collection of information such as specific facts and events that can be described verbally.
• It includes both episodic and semantic memory.
• Procedural Memory:
• Procedural memory refers to knowledge as skills and cognitive operations.
• This type of memory is responsible for knowing how to do things, like riding a bike or playing a musical instrument.
• Episodic Memory:
• Episodic memory involves the recall of information about the where and when of life events.
• It allows individuals to remember personal experiences and specific events in time.
• Semantic Memory:
• Semantic memory is a student's general knowledge about the world.
• It encompasses facts, concepts, and meanings that are not tied to personal experiences.

Additional Information

• Declarative vs. Procedural Memory:
• Declarative memory involves facts and events that can be consciously recalled, whereas procedural memory is about skills and tasks that are performed automatically without conscious thought.
• Episodic vs. Semantic Memory:
• Episodic memory is autobiographical and specific to personal experiences, while semantic memory is about general knowledge and facts.
• Incorrect Options:
• Option 1 (A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I) incorrectly matches procedural memory with declarative memory's definition and episodic memory with semantic memory's definition.
• Option 3 (A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I) incorrectly matches declarative memory with semantic memory's definition and procedural memory with declarative memory's definition.
• Option 4 (A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV) incorrectly matches declarative memory with episodic memory's definition and procedural memory with semantic memory's definition.

The correct answer is 'Q-Wave'

Key Points

• Waves produced during an earthquake:
• P-Wave (Primary Wave): These are the fastest seismic waves and the first to be detected by seismographs. They move through both solid and liquid layers of the Earth.
• S-Wave (Secondary Wave): These waves are slower than P-waves and can only move through solid materials. They cause more damage compared to P-waves due to their larger amplitudes.
• Love Wave: A type of surface wave that causes horizontal shifting of the Earth during an earthquake. They are slower than body waves (P and S waves) but typically cause the most damage.

Additional Information

• Q-Wave:
• Q-Wave is not a type of wave produced during an earthquake. The term 'Q-Wave' is more commonly associated with an electrocardiogram (ECG) in the field of medicine, representing a part of the heart's electrical activity.
• In the context of seismology, there is no recognized seismic wave known as a Q-Wave.
• Surface Waves:
• Besides Love waves, another type of surface wave is the Rayleigh wave, which rolls along the ground just like a wave rolls across a lake or an ocean. Most of the shaking felt from an earthquake is due to these surface waves.

The correct answer is 'A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II'

Key Points

• File Extensions and Their Corresponding File Types:
• .dox - MS WORD File: This extension is used for Microsoft Word documents, although the more common extension is .docx.
• .jpg - Image file: This extension is used for JPEG image files, which are commonly used for photos and graphics.
• .mp3 - Audio file: This extension is used for MPEG-1 Audio Layer 3 files, which are widely used for storing and playing music and audio recordings.
• .mov - Video file: This extension is used for QuickTime Movie files, which are multimedia container files used for storing video, audio, and text.

Additional Information

• Other Options Explained:
• Option 1: A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV: Incorrect because it incorrectly matches .mp3 (C) to a Video file (II) instead of an Audio file (IV).
• Option 3: A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II: Incorrect because it incorrectly matches .dox (A) to an Audio file (IV) instead of an MS WORD file (III).
• Option 4: A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II: Incorrect because it incorrectly matches .jpg (B) to an Audio file (IV) instead of an Image file (I), and .mp3 (C) to an Image file (I) instead of an Audio file (IV).

The correct answer is 'Why' questions.

Key Points

• Explanatory Journalism:
• Explanatory journalism is a type of journalism that seeks to provide deeper insights and context to news stories, focusing on the reasons behind the events and issues being reported.
• It aims to help the audience understand the complexities and nuances of various topics, making the information more accessible and comprehensible.
• The primary focus of explanatory journalism is to answer 'why' questions, as these questions delve into the causes, implications, and background of the news story.

Additional Information

• Other Types of Questions:
• Where questions: These questions focus on the location or place where events occur. While important, they do not provide the context or reasons behind the events.
• Which questions: These questions are often used to identify or select among options or alternatives. They are more about choices rather than understanding the underlying causes.
• Who questions: These questions aim to identify the people involved in an event or situation. They provide information about the participants but not the reasons behind their actions.
• Importance of 'Why' Questions:
• Answering 'why' questions helps readers and viewers gain a deeper understanding of the context, motivations, and consequences of news events, leading to a more informed public.
• It helps in uncovering the underlying issues and contributing factors, which can be crucial for developing informed opinions and making educated decisions.

Given:

6 pumps work 12 hours/day to empty the tank in 15 days.

8 pumps need to empty the tank in 9 days.

Formula used:

Pumps × Hours/day × Days = Constant (Tank Capacity)

Calculation:

For 6 pumps:

⇒ 6 × 12 × 15 = Constant

⇒ Constant = 1080

For 8 pumps working for 9 days:

⇒ 8 × Hours/day × 9 = 1080

⇒ Hours/day = 1080 / (8 × 9)

⇒ Hours/day = 1080 / 72 = 15 hours

∴ The correct answer is option (3), 15 hours.

Note: According to the official answer key, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is 'An approach to the Internet in which users can share their thoughts, opinions and ideas on free and open platforms such as blogs, wikis and podcasts.'

Key Points

• Web 2.0:
• Web 2.0 refers to the second generation of Internet services that emphasize user-generated content, usability, and interoperability for end users.
• It marks a shift from static web pages to dynamic and user-interactive websites.
• Key components include social networking sites, blogs, wikis, and other collaborative platforms.
• These platforms allow users to create, share, and exchange information and ideas in virtual communities and networks.

Additional Information

• Software packages developed by Microsoft and available to teachers at a discount:
• This statement is incorrect as it refers to a specific service or product offering, not a broad approach to the Internet like Web 2.0.
• An approach to the Internet in which websites and apps can process information like smart humans through technologies such as machine learning, big data, decentralized ledger technology, etc.:
• This describes Web 3.0, the next evolution of the Internet, which focuses on semantic web, AI, and decentralized technologies.
• Faster Internet for Big Business:
• This option is unrelated to the concept of Web 2.0, as it focuses on the speed of Internet services rather than the interactive and user-generated content aspect of Web 2.0.

The correct answer is 'A, B and D only'

Key Points

• Contradictory Propositions:
• Contradictory propositions are pairs of statements where one must be true and the other must be false.
• This means they cannot both be true simultaneously (Option A).
• By definition, exactly one of the pair is true and exactly one is false (Option B).
• They also cannot both be false at the same time (Option D).

Additional Information

• Other Options Explained:
• Option C: The statement that contradictory propositions can both be false is incorrect because if one proposition is true, the other must be false.

The correct answer is 'Uniform Resource Locator (URL)'

Key Points

• Uniform Resource Locator (URL):
• A Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a reference or address used to access resources on the Internet.
• It specifies the location of a resource on a computer network and a mechanism for retrieving it.
• URLs are most commonly used in web browsers to access webpages, images, videos, and other types of media.
• A URL consists of several components including the protocol (e.g., HTTP, HTTPS), the domain name (e.g., www.example.com), and a path to the specific resource (e.g., /page.html).

Additional Information

• Internet Protocol (IP):
• The Internet Protocol (IP) is a set of rules governing the format of data sent over the Internet or other networks.
• It is used for routing data across networks and ensuring that data packets reach the correct destination.
• IP addresses are numerical labels assigned to devices connected to a network, but they do not directly locate webpages.
• Top-Level Domain (TLD):
• A Top-Level Domain (TLD) is the last segment of a domain name, such as .com, .org, or .net.
• While TLDs are part of URLs, they are not the complete address that identifies the location of a webpage on the Internet.
• Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP):
• HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting hypertext requests and information on the World Wide Web.
• While HTTP is a component of a URL, it alone does not specify the complete address of a webpage.

The correct answer is 'Experimental research'

Key Points

• Experimental research:
• Experimental research is a research design that allows researchers to systematically eliminate extraneous variables other than those of interest by manipulating one or more independent variables and controlling other variables.
• This approach involves the use of control groups and random assignment to ensure that the only difference between groups is the variable being tested.
• It is highly effective in establishing causality, as it isolates the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable.
• By controlling extraneous variables, researchers can make more accurate and reliable conclusions about the relationship between variables.

Additional Information

• Longitudinal research:
• Longitudinal research involves studying the same subjects over an extended period of time to observe changes and developments.
• While it is useful for understanding changes over time, it does not systematically eliminate extraneous variables and is not designed to establish causality.
• Qualitative research:
• Qualitative research focuses on exploring phenomena in-depth and understanding participants' perspectives through methods like interviews and observations.
• It is not structured to control for extraneous variables and does not aim to establish causal relationships.
• Correlational research:
• Correlational research examines the relationship between two or more variables without manipulating them.
• It can identify associations but cannot establish causation or control for extraneous variables effectively.

The correct answer is 'Left tailed test'

Key Points

• Left tailed test:
• A left-tailed test is used in statistical hypothesis testing when the researcher wants to determine if the population mean is less than a hypothesized value.
• In this test, the critical region (the area where we would reject the null hypothesis) is located in the left tail of the probability distribution.
• The null hypothesis (H0) typically states that the population mean is equal to the hypothesized value, while the alternative hypothesis (H1) states that the population mean is less than the hypothesized value.
• It is appropriate to use a left-tailed test when the research question specifically looks for a decrease or a value lower than the hypothesized mean.

Additional Information

• Z-tailed test:
• This term is not standard in hypothesis testing. It might refer to tests that use the Z-distribution, such as Z-tests, but it does not specify the direction of the test (left, right, or two-tailed).
• Z-tests are used when the sample size is large, and the population variance is known.
• Right tailed test:
• A right-tailed test is used when the researcher wants to determine if the population mean is greater than the hypothesized value.
• The critical region is in the right tail of the probability distribution.
• It is not suitable for testing if the population mean is lower than the hypothesized value.
• F-test:
• An F-test is used to compare the variances of two populations and is often used in the context of Analysis of Variance (ANOVA).
• It does not directly address questions about the mean being lower or higher than a hypothesized value.

The correct answer is 'Appeal to ignorance'

Key Points

• Appeal to ignorance:
• An appeal to ignorance fallacy occurs when it is argued that a proposition is true simply because it has not been proven false, or vice versa.
• In the given statement, the argument is that psychic powers must exist because no one has proven that they do not exist. This is a classic example of an appeal to ignorance.
• This type of argument is flawed because the lack of evidence against a claim does not constitute evidence for the claim.

Additional Information

• Hasty generalization:
• Hasty generalization is a fallacy in which a conclusion is not logically justified by sufficient or unbiased evidence.
• It involves making a rushed conclusion without considering all of the variables or evidence.
• In this context, it does not apply because the argument is not about making a generalization based on limited evidence.
• Slippery slope:
• The slippery slope fallacy occurs when an argument suggests that a minor action will lead to major and oftentimes ludicrous consequences.
• This fallacy is not relevant here because the argument does not predict a series of events resulting from a single action.
• Equivocation:
• Equivocation is a fallacy that uses ambiguous language to conceal the truth or to mislead.
• This is not applicable in the given statement because the argument does not rely on the ambiguity of language.

The correct answer is 'Mathematics, arithmetic, numbers, prime numbers'

Key Points

• Mathematics, arithmetic, numbers, prime numbers:
• This sequence is arranged in the order of decreasing extension.
• Mathematics: The broadest category that encompasses all types of numerical and theoretical disciplines.
• Arithmetic: A branch of mathematics dealing specifically with numbers and basic operations.
• Numbers: Fundamental elements used in arithmetic operations.
• Prime numbers: A specific subset of numbers that have exactly two distinct positive divisors: 1 and the number itself.

Additional Information

• Prime numbers, numbers, arithmetic, Mathematics:
• This option is in the reverse order, starting from the most specific (prime numbers) to the most general (mathematics).
• It does not reflect the concept of decreasing extension.
• Arithmetic, mathematics, numbers, prime numbers:
• This sequence incorrectly places arithmetic before mathematics, which is not accurate since arithmetic is a subset of mathematics.
• It also places numbers and prime numbers in the wrong order.
• Numbers, prime numbers, arithmetic, mathematics:
• This sequence incorrectly places numbers before prime numbers, which does not follow the decreasing extension order.
• It also places arithmetic and mathematics in the incorrect order.

Logic: Positional value of alphabets are increasing and decreasing by 3 alternatively.

FLOUT is coded as IIRRW,

Similarly, CLING will be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is "FILKJ".

The correct answer is 'B, C, E, A, D'

Key Points

• Telegraph:
• The telegraph was invented by Samuel Morse in the 1830s and 1840s, revolutionizing long-distance communication by allowing messages to be sent quickly over long distances using electrical signals.
• Telephone:
• Alexander Graham Bell invented the telephone in 1876, allowing for voice communication over wires, a significant advancement over the telegraph.
• Phonograph:
• Thomas Edison invented the phonograph in 1877, which was the first device capable of both recording and reproducing sound, leading to the birth of the music recording industry.
• Cable television:
• Cable television was developed in the late 1940s and 1950s, initially to improve television reception in remote areas, and later evolved to provide a wide range of channels and content.
• MP3:
• MP3 technology was introduced in the early 1990s, revolutionizing the way music was stored and shared by compressing audio files without significantly compromising sound quality, facilitating the digital music revolution.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Order in Other Options:
• Option 1: A, C, D, B, E - Incorrect because it places Cable television before the Telegraph.
• Option 3: C, A, B, D, E - Incorrect because it places Telephone before Telegraph and MP3 before Phonograph.
• Option 4: E, A, C, B, D - Incorrect because it places Phonograph before Telegraph and Cable television before Telephone.

Logic: First number is decreasing by number which is a multiple of 11.

Given series:

Here, 202 term is wrong. There should be difference of multiple of 11. So, the difference should be 55.

Correct series:

Thus, the correct term is 204 instead of 202.

Hence, the wrong term is "202".

The correct answer is 'Only A, B, C, D'

Key Points

• New mass communication is spontaneous and social:
• This statement highlights the dynamic and interactive nature of modern mass communication, which often relies on real-time engagement and social interaction across various platforms.
• Examples include social media platforms like Twitter and Facebook, where users can instantly share and respond to information.
• People are polite to well-designed computers:
• This statement refers to the human-computer interaction (HCI) field, which studies how people interact with computers and how design can influence user behavior.
• Research shows that users tend to treat well-designed interfaces with the same courtesy they would afford human interactions.
• There is a passive relationship between communication devices and people:
• This statement reflects the traditional view of media consumption, where audiences are seen as passive recipients of information.
• Although this view has evolved with interactive media, it is still relevant in certain contexts, such as broadcast television.
• New mass communication technology has created a kind of technological euphoria:
• This statement refers to the excitement and optimism surrounding the potential of new communication technologies to transform society.
• Examples include the early days of the internet, where there was widespread belief that it would democratize information and empower individuals.

Additional Information

• Technological mass communication environment is an ideal environment:
• This statement is overly optimistic and does not fully capture the complexities and challenges of the technological mass communication environment.
• While technology offers many benefits, it also presents issues such as digital divide, misinformation, and privacy concerns.
• This is why it is not included in the correct answer set.

The correct answer is 'Only B and C'

Key Points

• CERT-In:
• CERT-In stands for the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
• It acts as an early warning system for cyber threats and attacks in India by monitoring and responding to cybersecurity incidents.
• CERT-In provides advisories on potential vulnerabilities and threats to help organizations safeguard their systems.
• Tor (The Onion Router):
• Tor is an acronym for 'The Onion Router'.
• It is a web browser that enables people to communicate online anonymously.
• This anonymity helps prevent bad actors from tracking users' internet activity.

Additional Information

• Incident Response in Cyber Security:
• Incident response involves identifying, managing, and mitigating cybersecurity incidents after they occur, not before.
• Its goal is to minimize the impact of cyber attacks and restore normal operations as quickly as possible.
• Virtual Private Network (VPN):
• Using a VPN can secure a network by encoding data transmitted over it, providing privacy and security for users.
• However, VPNs do not close vulnerabilities or act as an early warning system; they primarily focus on data encryption and anonymity.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• Explanation: The passage mentions that the inhabitants of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands include immigrants especially from the Indian mainland areas like Punjab, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and also from Myanmar and Burma.
• Since the question asks about the group of inhabitants that migrated from the Indian mainland, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka, the correct group based on the passage is the Indian immigrants.
• Although the passage does not explicitly mention Sri Lanka, it is implied that the "Indian" group includes a wide range of immigrants.
• In summary, option 1 is the correct answer as it correctly identifies the group of inhabitants who migrated from various parts of the Indian mainland, Myanmar, and potentially Sri Lanka. The passage clearly supports this with details of Indian immigrants from specific regions.

Additional Information

• Native: Refers to the indigenous inhabitants of the islands, not those who migrated from other countries.
• Naga: There is no mention of the Naga people in the passage in relation to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Marwari: The passage does not mention the Marwari community as part of the migrant groups to these islands.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• Explanation: The passage describes the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as being located in the Bay of Bengal and identifies them as a union territory with a tropical climate, consisting of distinct tribal groups and cultural diversity.
• The passage focuses on their geographical location and unique culture, which clearly indicates that it is a group of many beautiful islands.
• In summary, option 2 best matches the context of the passage, which describes the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as a group of many beautiful islands with distinct cultural and tribal groups.

Additional Information

• It is a group of some small beautiful countries: The passage mentions that Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a union territory of India, not separate countries.
• It is a group of a few villages: While the islands may contain villages, the passage refers to them on a larger scale, describing them as islands rather than just villages.
• It is a group of deserts: The passage describes a tropical climate nourished by both rainy seasons, indicating it is not a desert region.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• Explanation: The passage clearly states that the capital of the union territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is Port Blair. This indicates that Port Blair is part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• In summary, option 4 is the correct answer as it identifies the correct location of Port Blair within the union territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as stated in the passage.

Additional Information

• Kerala: Kerala is a state on the Indian mainland, and Port Blair is not part of it.
• Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh is also a state on the Indian mainland, and Port Blair is not part of it.
• Sri Lanka: Sri Lanka is a separate country, and Port Blair is not part of it.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• Explanation: The passage emphasizes the distinct linguistic, cultural, and regional aspects that have helped the inhabitants of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands maintain their separate identity.
• It specifically mentions their diversification into different linguistic, cultural, and regional groups.
• In summary, option 4 is the correct answer because the nutritional side is not discussed in the passage as a factor contributing to the inhabitants' separate identity.

Additional Information

• Linguistic side: The passage explains that the inhabitants have diversified into distinct linguistic groups.
• Cultural side: The passage mentions the distinct and unique culture of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Regional sides: The passage notes the regional diversification of the inhabitants.
• Why the nutritional side is incorrect: The passage does not mention the nutritional aspects related to the inhabitants' ability to maintain their separate identity.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• Explanation: The passage lists various tribes that inhabit the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, including the Great Andamanese tribes such as the Jakha, Aage, and Sentinelese, and the Nicobarese tribes such as the Great Nicobari and the Shompen.
• While it does not explicitly mention the Jarawa tribe, it is well-known that the Jarawa is one of the indigenous tribes of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• In summary, option 4 is the correct answer as the Jarawa community is indeed associated with the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Additional Information

• Cough: This is not a community; it is a symptom of illness.
• Santhal: The Santhal are an ethnic group primarily found in West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand and Assam, not in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Bodo: The Bodo people are an ethnic group in Assam, not in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.