General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Anti-clockwise.

Key Points

• When observed from above the North Pole, the Earth rotates in an anti-clockwise direction, which is consistent with its west-to-east rotational motion.
• The Earth completes one full rotation approximately every 24 hours, causing the alternation of day and night.
• This rotational direction is referred to as prograde rotation, as it aligns with the orbit of most planets in the Solar System.
• The anti-clockwise rotation is a result of the conservation of angular momentum from the time of the Earth's formation in the Solar Nebula.
• As a consequence of this rotation, celestial objects such as the Sun and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west.

Additional Information

• Direction of Earth's Rotation:
• The Earth's rotation is defined as counterclockwise (anti-clockwise) when viewed from the North Pole.
• Conversely, when viewed from the South Pole, the rotation appears to be clockwise.
• Axial Tilt and Seasons:
• The Earth is tilted at an angle of approximately 23.5 degrees to its orbital plane, which leads to the variation in seasons.
• This tilt, combined with the anti-clockwise rotation, affects the distribution of sunlight across the planet.
• Time Zones and Rotation:
• The Earth's rotation results in the division of the globe into 24 time zones.
• Each time zone corresponds to 15 degrees of longitude, representing one hour of time.
• Conservation of Angular Momentum:
• Earth's rotation direction is a consequence of the conservation of angular momentum during the formation of the Solar System.
• This principle ensures that the rotational characteristics of the early solar nebula were preserved in the motion of planets.
• Prograde vs. Retrograde Rotation:
• Most planets, including Earth, have a prograde rotation (rotating anti-clockwise when viewed from above their north poles).
• However, Venus and Uranus exhibit retrograde rotation, rotating in the opposite direction.

The correct answer is Article 73.

Key Points

• Article 73 of the Indian Constitution specifies the extent of the executive power of the Union.
• It states that the executive power of the Union shall extend to matters on which Parliament has the power to make laws.
• The scope also includes exercising rights, authority, and jurisdiction conferred on the Union by any treaty or agreement.
• This Article ensures that the Union government can act on subjects mentioned in the Union List and subjects under its jurisdiction.
• It emphasizes the exclusive domain of the Union’s executive power, distinguishing it from the powers of the states.

Additional Information

• Union Executive Power:
• The Union executive power is executed by the President as per Article 53 of the Constitution.
• The President exercises these powers directly or through officers subordinate to him, following constitutional provisions.
• Division of Powers:
• The Constitution divides legislative and executive powers between the Union and State governments through the Seventh Schedule.
• The Union List contains subjects where the Union has exclusive authority, while the State List and Concurrent List outline other areas of jurisdiction.
• Executive Power in Treaties:
• Article 73 extends the Union’s executive power to obligations under international treaties or agreements.
• This ensures compliance with external commitments that fall within the Union’s jurisdiction.
• Limitations on State Power:
• Article 73 restricts state governments from interfering in matters exclusively under Union control.
• This creates a clear separation of powers and avoids overlap in governance.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The jaherthan is a sacred grove central to the religious practices of the Santhal tribe, particularly during the sacrificial rituals of Erok Sim.
• The jaherthan is believed to be inhabited by spirits and deities, including Jaherera, the Lady of the Sacred Grove, who is considered the guardian of the space.
• The assertion (A) that the jaherthan plays a central role in sacrificial rituals is correct, as it serves as the primary site for these practices.
• The reason (R) is also correct, as the belief in the spirits and deities inhabiting the jaherthan explains its sacredness and central role in rituals.
• Thus, both A and R are true, and R provides a valid explanation for A.

Additional Information

• Santhal Tribe
• The Santhal tribe is one of the largest tribal communities in India, primarily residing in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam.
• They have a rich cultural heritage and follow animistic religious practices, emphasizing the worship of nature and spirits.
• Jaherthan
• The jaherthan, also known as "sacred grove" or "holy grove," is a designated area for worship and rituals among the Santhal tribe.
• It is considered a spiritual space where offerings are made to spirits and deities, including the supreme deity, Thakur, and other ancestral spirits.
• Erok Sim
• Erok Sim refers to a significant sacrificial ritual performed by the Santhal tribe to honor spirits and deities and seek their blessings.
• These rituals involve animal sacrifices, offerings, and prayers conducted in the jaherthan under the guidance of the village priest (Pahan).
• Jaherera
• Jaherera, also known as the Lady of the Sacred Grove, is a revered deity believed to reside in the jaherthan.
• She is considered the protector of the sacred grove and plays a central role in the religious beliefs of the Santhal tribe.

The correct answer is Dara Shikoh.

Key Points

• The Battle of Samugarh was fought on 29 May 1658 near Agra during the Mughal succession war.
• It was a decisive battle between Aurangzeb and his elder brother Dara Shikoh, both sons of Emperor Shah Jahan.
• Dara Shikoh led an army to defend his claim to the throne but was defeated by Aurangzeb’s more disciplined forces.
• Aurangzeb's victory in the battle enabled him to capture Agra and imprison their father, Shah Jahan, solidifying his claim to the Mughal throne.
• Dara Shikoh was eventually captured and executed on Aurangzeb’s orders in 1659.

Additional Information

• Dara Shikoh:
• Dara Shikoh was the eldest son of Shah Jahan and considered his father’s preferred successor.
• He was known for his interest in art, philosophy, and religious syncretism, particularly his efforts to bridge Hindu and Islamic traditions.
• His writings include the translation of the Upanishads into Persian, titled Sirr-e-Akbar (The Great Secret).
• Aurangzeb:
• Aurangzeb, the sixth Mughal emperor, is known for his military prowess and expansion of the empire.
• He was a staunch follower of Islamic orthodoxy and implemented policies that were often seen as anti-Hindu.
• His reign marked the peak of the Mughal Empire but also sowed seeds of its eventual decline.
• The Mughal Succession Wars:
• The Mughal Empire followed no fixed succession system, often leading to violent struggles between heirs.
• Key battles like Samugarh reflected the intense rivalry among Shah Jahan’s sons: Dara Shikoh, Aurangzeb, Murad Baksh, and Shuja.
• Samugarh:
• Samugarh is located near Agra and has historical significance due to the battle fought there.
• The battle demonstrated Aurangzeb’s superior military strategy and discipline under his general Mir Jumla.

The correct answer is Deccan Plateau.

Key Points

• The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau in western and southern India and is known for its volcanic origin.
• This plateau was primarily formed due to the Deccan Traps volcanic activity that occurred around 66 million years ago during the Late Cretaceous period.
• The Deccan Traps consist of basaltic lava flows spread across an area of around 500,000 square kilometers.
• It is one of the largest volcanic features on Earth and is known for its step-like formation of hardened lava layers.
• The plateau covers parts of states such as Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• Deccan Traps:
• The term "trap" is derived from the Swedish word "trappa," meaning stairs, due to the step-like appearance of the rock formations.
• The volcanic activity is linked to the breakup of the Gondwana supercontinent and the impact of the Reunion hotspot.
• The lava flows of the Deccan Traps are primarily composed of basalt, a type of igneous rock.
• Geological significance of the Deccan Plateau:
• The Deccan Plateau is rich in minerals such as iron ore, manganese, and bauxite.
• The black soil in the region, known as regur soil, is highly fertile and suitable for cotton cultivation.
• Climatic influence:
• The plateau has a semi-arid to tropical climate, with distinct wet and dry seasons.
• It plays a crucial role in shaping the weather patterns of southern India.
• Ecological importance:
• The plateau hosts a wide variety of flora and fauna, including several endemic species.
• It is home to significant biodiversity hotspots such as the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mridangam is a percussion instrument used to provide rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic music, not to outline the raga, which is the role of melodic instruments.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Nadaswaram is a double-reed wind instrument widely used in South Indian classical music, especially in temples and during auspicious occasions such as weddings.
• The Nadaswaram is often considered an auspicious instrument, symbolizing traditional and cultural heritage in South Indian ceremonies.
• The Mridangam, though crucial in Carnatic music performances, is primarily a rhythm-providing instrument and does not define the melodic structure of the raga.

Additional Information

• Mridangam:
• It is a double-headed drum made of jackwood, with heads covered by animal skin.
• The Mridangam is tuned to the tonic note of the vocalist or lead instrumentalist and is played with the hands.
• It is an integral part of Carnatic music concerts, providing complex rhythmic patterns.
• Nadaswaram:
• It is one of the loudest non-brass acoustic instruments and is made of wood, often from the aacha or blackwood tree.
• The instrument has a conical bore, which helps produce a rich, resonant tone.
• It is traditionally accompanied by the Thavil, a percussion instrument.
• Raga in Carnatic Music:
• Raga is a melodic framework that defines the mood and structure of a composition in Carnatic music.
• It is elaborated using melodic instruments such as the violin, flute, or veena, and through vocal improvisation.
• Carnatic Music:
• A classical music tradition of South India with a rich history and theoretical foundation.
• It is characterized by intricate compositions and improvisational techniques such as alapana, neraval, and swara kalpana.

The correct answer is Affidavits submitted before court officer.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (Indian Evidence Act, 2023), primarily governs the rules of evidence admissible in courts of law.
• Under Chapter I (Preliminary), the Act does not apply to affidavits submitted before court officers as they are governed by separate procedural laws.
• Affidavits are considered written sworn statements of fact and are regulated under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and other applicable laws.
• The Act explicitly applies to proceedings before judicial courts, including civil and criminal courts, but excludes certain quasi-judicial and administrative proceedings.
• Trials before Military Courts (Court-Martial) are also explicitly excluded from the purview of this Act under the provisions of specific military laws such as the Army Act, 1950.

Additional Information

• Key Terminology of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam:
• "Evidence" includes oral evidence (testimony of witnesses) and documentary evidence (written or recorded materials).
• "Fact in issue" refers to the primary points of dispute between parties in a legal proceeding.
• "Relevance" determines which facts are admissible as evidence in a particular case.
• Exclusion of Certain Proceedings:
• Military Court proceedings are excluded under the Indian Evidence Act and are governed by military-specific laws.
• Affidavits and administrative proceedings are governed by procedural and administrative law, not the Evidence Act.
• Military Courts (Court-Martial):
• Military courts operate under the Army Act, Air Force Act, or Navy Act, depending on the armed force concerned.
• They have their own rules of evidence and procedures, distinct from the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.
• Civil vs. Criminal Trials:
• Civil trials deal with disputes between individuals or organizations (e.g., property disputes).
• Criminal trials involve offenses against the state and are prosecuted by the government (e.g., theft, murder).
• Role of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:
• The Code governs the procedural aspects of civil cases, including the submission of affidavits.
• It provides guidelines for the admissibility and format of affidavits in civil proceedings.

The correct answer is Kathakali.

Key Points

• Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form that originated in Kerala, India.
• It is renowned for its elaborate costumes, intricate makeup, and expressive gestures, which depict themes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• The dance form combines music, vocal performances, and hand gestures (mudras) to convey stories and emotions.
• Kathakali is traditionally performed during the night and can last for several hours, showcasing Kerala's rich cultural heritage.
• Renowned for its vibrant storytelling, Kathakali is recognized globally as one of the most visually impressive forms of Indian classical dance.

Additional Information

• Costumes and Makeup:
• Costumes are elaborate, featuring a large headgear, colorful attire, and intricate facial makeup.
• Facial makeup uses natural pigments and colors to emphasize characters' traits—green for noble characters, red for villains, etc.
• Music and Instruments:
• Kathakali performances are accompanied by traditional instruments like chenda (drum), idakka, and shankh (conch).
• Vocal music plays a crucial role, with lyrics often sung in Malayalam or Sanskrit.
• Training and Preparation:
• Kathakali artists undergo rigorous training, including mastering kalaripayattu (traditional martial art) for flexibility and stamina.
• The training includes learning complex gestures and expressions to convey emotions effectively.
• Historical Significance:
• Kathakali originated in the 17^th century and is believed to have evolved from earlier temple art forms such as Krishnanattam.
• The dance form represents Kerala's cultural identity and is often performed during festivals and cultural events.

The correct answer is Higher level of peace.

Key Points

• The Global Peace Index (GPI) measures the relative peacefulness of nations and regions based on various indicators such as societal safety, security, and levels of conflict.
• A lower GPI score signifies a higher level of peace, indicating minimal violence, conflict, and political instability in the evaluated region.
• Countries with lower GPI scores often exhibit strong governance, higher levels of economic stability, and effective law enforcement practices.
• GPI uses metrics like the number of deaths from conflict, perceptions of criminality, and military expenditure to calculate peace levels.
• According to the latest GPI report (2023), Iceland continues to rank as the most peaceful country globally, maintaining its low GPI score.

Additional Information

• Global Peace Index (GPI):
• The Global Peace Index is published annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP).
• It ranks 163 countries based on 23 qualitative and quantitative indicators divided into three domains: ongoing conflict, safety and security, and militarization.
• The GPI serves as a comprehensive framework to understand global peace trends and their economic impact.
• Impact of Peace on Socio-Economic Development:
• Countries with higher levels of peace tend to have better education systems, healthcare facilities, and economic growth.
• Peaceful nations typically attract more foreign investments, contributing to sustainable development and reducing poverty.
• Notable GPI Trends (2023):
• Iceland remains the most peaceful country for over a decade, followed by New Zealand and Ireland.
• Afghanistan ranks as the least peaceful country due to ongoing conflict and instability.
• Europe is the most peaceful region globally, while Sub-Saharan Africa faces significant challenges in achieving peace.
• Terminology:
• Militarization: Refers to the level of military activity and expenditure in a country.
• Ongoing Conflict: Measures the intensity and duration of conflicts within or involving a country.
• Safety and Security: Encompasses indicators such as crime rates, terrorism impact, and political stability.

The correct answer is Both statements I and II are correct.

Key Points

• Statement I: Land and agriculture are included in the State List as per the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This means state governments have exclusive powers to legislate on these matters.
• Subjects in the State List (such as agriculture, police, and public health) are of local or regional importance and fall under the jurisdiction of state governments.
• Statement II: Marriage laws and adoption are included in the Concurrent List, allowing both the Union and State governments to legislate on these matters.
• The Concurrent List contains subjects like criminal law, marriage, bankruptcy, and education that require uniformity across the country but also allow states to address local nuances.
• Since both statements are accurate, the correct answer is that both statements I and II are correct.

Additional Information

• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
• The Seventh Schedule divides the legislative powers between the Union and State governments into three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• The Union List includes subjects of national importance, such as defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy.
• The State List includes subjects of regional and local importance, such as police, public health, and agriculture.
• The Concurrent List includes subjects on which both Union and State governments can legislate, such as marriage, education, and criminal law.
• Land and Agriculture in the Indian Context:
• Agriculture is a key sector in India and is primarily governed by state laws.
• Land reforms and policies related to tenancy, land ceilings, and land acquisitions are under the purview of state governments.
• Marriage and Adoption Laws:
• These are governed by personal laws based on religion (e.g., Hindu Marriage Act, Muslim Personal Law).
• Uniform laws, such as the Special Marriage Act, apply to interfaith or inter-caste marriages.
• Since these laws fall under the Concurrent List, both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws governing these areas.
• Importance of the Concurrent List:
• The Concurrent List ensures uniformity in legislation while allowing states to address local needs.
• In case of a conflict between Union and State legislation, the law made by Parliament prevails, as per Article 254 of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is 10 years.

Key Points

• India signed a long-term agreement with Iran for the operationalization of the Chabahar Port in May 2024.
• The duration of the agreement is 10 years, ensuring India's strategic and economic interests in the region.
• The Chabahar Port is India's gateway to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
• This port plays a critical role in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), enhancing regional connectivity.
• The agreement reflects India's commitment to strengthening its ties with Iran despite geopolitical challenges.

Additional Information

• Chabahar Port
• Located in southeastern Iran, Chabahar is the only Iranian port with direct access to the Indian Ocean.
• It consists of two terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
• The port is strategically important for India to bypass Pakistan for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia.
• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
• An international multimodal transportation project connecting India, Iran, and Russia.
• It aims to reduce the time and cost of freight transport compared to the Suez Canal route.
• Chabahar Port is a key node in this corridor.
• India-Iran Relations
• India and Iran share strong cultural, economic, and strategic ties.
• Chabahar Port is a cornerstone of these bilateral relations.
• Both countries cooperate on counterterrorism and regional stability initiatives.
• Geopolitical Significance
• Chabahar Port counters China's influence in the region, particularly the Gwadar Port in Pakistan under the CPEC.
• It enhances India's connectivity with resource-rich Central Asia.
• The port is vital for the economic development of landlocked Afghanistan.

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are a group of rock-cut caves located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha, India.
• The caves were primarily meant for Jain monks, serving as their dwellings and meditation spaces.
• These caves are believed to have been commissioned by King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty in the 2^nd century BCE.
• The caves are not shaped like flowers or carved from independent boulders; they are instead excavated from the hillside.
• While primarily Jain in nature, the caves do not have multiple shrines dedicated to Buddhist deities, making statements 2 and 3 incorrect.

Additional Information

• Jain Influence:
• The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are among the earliest Jain rock-cut architecture in India.
• They reflect the ascetic practices and the art patronage of Jainism during the rule of King Kharavela.
• Architectural Highlights:
• The most notable caves include the Hathi Gumpha (Elephant Cave), which has inscriptions detailing King Kharavela's reign, and the Rani Gumpha (Queen's Cave), known for its elaborate carvings.
• The caves are adorned with sculptures of Jain Tirthankaras and scenes depicting Jain mythology.
• Historical Significance:
• The inscriptions in the caves provide valuable insights into the socio-political and religious landscape of ancient Odisha.
• They highlight the spread of Jainism and its integration into local culture during the early Common Era.
• Tourism and Preservation:
• The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are a protected monument under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
• The site attracts tourists and scholars interested in ancient Indian art, history, and religion.

The correct answer is 2) 1 only.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is correct: A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, casting its shadow on Earth.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: A lunar eclipse occurs during the full moon phase, not the new moon phase, when the Moon passes through Earth's shadow.
• During a solar eclipse, the Sun appears partially or completely obscured as seen from Earth due to the Moon's shadow.
• Lunar eclipses happen only when the Sun, Earth, and Moon align perfectly in a straight line, with Earth in the middle.

Additional Information

• Solar Eclipse:
• Occurs during the new moon phase when the Moon blocks sunlight from reaching Earth.
• The three types of solar eclipses are total, partial, and annular.
• A total solar eclipse occurs when the Moon completely covers the Sun, casting a shadow on Earth.
• Lunar Eclipse:
• Occurs during the full moon phase when Earth casts its shadow on the Moon.
• The two types of lunar eclipses are total and partial, depending on the extent of the Earth's shadow covering the Moon.
• The reddish appearance of the Moon during a total lunar eclipse is due to Earth's atmosphere scattering sunlight, known as the "blood moon" effect.
• Phases of the Moon: The Moon goes through eight phases (new moon, waxing crescent, first quarter, waxing gibbous, full moon, waning gibbous, last quarter, waning crescent) in its monthly cycle.
• Alignment (Syzygy): A solar or lunar eclipse can only occur during syzygy, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth align in a straight line.
• Umbra and Penumbra:
• The umbra is the darkest part of the shadow where the Sun is completely blocked.
• The penumbra is the lighter shadow where the Sun is only partially obscured.

The correct answer is Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases.

Key Points

• The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 extended the permissible gestational limit for abortion from 20 weeks to 24 weeks for certain categories of women, such as survivors of rape, incest, minors, and other vulnerable women.
• The amendment introduced a provision where the opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required for termination of pregnancies between 20 and 24 weeks.
• The Act allows abortion at any time during the pregnancy if it is necessary to save the life of the pregnant woman or prevent grave physical or mental injury.
• A new provision was added for the establishment of a Medical Board in every state and union territory to decide on cases involving substantial fetal abnormalities after 24 weeks of gestation.
• The confidentiality of the woman seeking an abortion is protected under the Act, and her identity cannot be revealed except to a person authorized by law.

Additional Information

• Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
• Initially, the Act permitted abortion up to 20 weeks of pregnancy under specific conditions, including risk to the woman’s life, physical or mental health, and substantial fetal abnormalities.
• This was one of the earlier laws in India that provided a legal framework for safe abortion services.
• Categories of Women Eligible for 24-Week Limit
• Survivors of sexual assault, rape, or incest.
• Minors and victims of human trafficking.
• Women with physical disabilities or mental illnesses.
• Women facing a substantial risk of fetal abnormalities.
• Medical Boards
• Each Medical Board is required to consist of a gynecologist, pediatrician, radiologist, and other relevant experts.
• These boards are tasked with deciding cases of abortion beyond 24 weeks in cases of fetal abnormalities.
• Confidentiality Clause
• The identity and details of the woman undergoing abortion must remain confidential.
• Violation of confidentiality is punishable under the Act.
• Global Context
• India’s updated abortion laws are considered progressive compared to many countries that have stricter regulations on gestational limits for abortion.
• However, access to safe and legal abortion services remains a challenge in rural and underserved areas.

The correct answer is Strategic innovation in both materials and process R&D.

Key Points

• Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi's contributions in Atomic Energy are distinct due to his strategic innovation in both materials and process research and development (R&D).
• His work focuses on designing advanced materials and innovative processes to enhance the efficiency and safety of atomic energy applications.
• Dr. Tyagi’s research bridges the gap between fundamental science and industrial-scale applications, which is vital for strategic atomic energy programs.
• His contributions align with India’s goals of achieving self-reliance in nuclear technology and advancing sustainable energy solutions.
• Such innovations have significant implications for nuclear fuel development, waste management, and high-performance reactor technologies.

Additional Information

• Atomic Energy:
• It refers to energy released during nuclear reactions such as fission, fusion, or radioactive decay.
• It is widely used for electricity generation, medical applications, and scientific research.
• Material Innovation in Atomic Energy:
• Advanced materials like zirconium alloys and high-temperature ceramics are critical for reactor performance.
• Materials research ensures safety, longevity, and efficiency in extreme conditions of nuclear reactors.
• Process R&D in Nuclear Technology:
• Process innovation includes advancements in fuel fabrication, reprocessing of spent fuel, and radioactive waste management.
• It also involves improving isotopic separation techniques for better utilization of nuclear fuel.
• Strategic Importance of R&D:
• Strategic R&D in atomic energy enhances energy security, reduces dependence on fossil fuels, and supports clean energy initiatives.
• It also plays a crucial role in national defense and space exploration programs.

The correct answer is To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality.

Key Points

• Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) are developed with the aim of addressing challenges such as low crop yields, pest infestations, and poor nutritional quality.
• GMOs are engineered to have higher resistance to pests and diseases, reducing the need for chemical pesticides.
• They are modified to enhance nutritional profiles, such as adding vitamins or nutrients to crops like rice and maize.
• Improving crop yield through genetic modification ensures better food security for growing populations worldwide.
• GMOs contribute to sustainable farming practices by minimizing resource use and addressing environmental concerns.

Additional Information

• Genetic Engineering:
• Genetic engineering involves modifying the DNA of organisms to introduce desirable traits.
• It uses techniques such as CRISPR, gene splicing, and recombinant DNA technology.
• Golden Rice:
• A genetically modified variety of rice enriched with vitamin A to combat deficiencies in developing countries.
• It is an example of using GMOs to improve nutritional quality.
• Pest Resistance:
• Crops like Bt cotton and Bt corn are engineered with Bacillus thuringiensis genes to combat pests naturally.
• This reduces dependence on chemical pesticides, benefiting both farmers and the environment.
• Controversies Surrounding GMOs:
• GMOs face criticism over potential health impacts, environmental risks, and ethical concerns.
• Regulatory measures and scientific assessments are in place to ensure safety.
• Sustainable Agriculture:
• GMOs play a significant role in addressing challenges like climate change, soil degradation, and water scarcity.
• They are part of modern sustainable farming practices aimed at feeding growing populations efficiently.

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

• The first Commonwealth Games were held in Hamilton, Canada, from August 16 to August 23, 1930.
• The event was initially called the British Empire Games and later renamed to Commonwealth Games in 1950.
• A total of 11 nations participated in the inaugural games, featuring 6 sports and 59 events.
• The vision for the games was conceived by Melville Marks Robinson, a Canadian sports administrator.
• Hamilton, Canada, provided a $30,000 fund to cover travel expenses for competitors from participating countries.

Additional Information

• Commonwealth Games Overview
• The Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport international event involving athletes from nations part of the Commonwealth of Nations.
• It is held every four years, with participation limited to Commonwealth member countries.
• The games promote friendship and cooperation among member nations through sports.
• Evolution of the Games
• The name transitioned from the British Empire Games (1930–1950) to the British Empire and Commonwealth Games (1954–1966), the British Commonwealth Games (1970–1974), and finally the Commonwealth Games (from 1978).
• Women’s participation expanded significantly over time, making the games more inclusive.
• Key Sports at the Commonwealth Games
• Some popular sports include athletics, swimming, badminton, boxing, cycling, hockey, and weightlifting.
• Para-sports have been integrated into the games since the 2002 edition in Manchester.
• Recent Commonwealth Games
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games were held in Birmingham, England.
• The games witnessed participation from 72 nations and territories$.

The correct answer is Justice delivery and citizen rights.

Key Points

• The new criminal laws in India aim to replace British-era laws with a focus on ensuring justice delivery and safeguarding citizen rights.
• These reforms emphasize modernizing the legal framework to address contemporary challenges and align with India’s democratic ethos.
• The laws aim to eliminate colonial legacies that were primarily designed to suppress dissent and control the population.
• Provisions are being introduced to ensure speedy trials, victim-centric justice, and a robust rights-based framework.
• The reforms are part of efforts to establish a justice system that reflects India’s constitutional values and promotes fairness, equality, and transparency.

Additional Information

• British-era criminal laws:
• The Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and Indian Evidence Act were introduced during colonial rule, primarily to serve the interests of the British Empire.
• The IPC was drafted in 1860 by Lord Macaulay, reflecting a colonial mindset.
• These laws were criticized for being outdated and not aligned with modern democratic principles.
• Citizen rights focus:
• The new laws aim to strengthen fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution, such as the right to equality, freedom, and life.
• They also emphasize victim protection and ensuring accountability of law enforcement agencies.
• Key objectives of reforms:
• Ensuring timely delivery of justice through simplified and efficient legal processes.
• Promoting fair trials and reducing delays in the judicial system.
• Victim-centric approach:
• Provisions for enhanced rights and compensation for victims of crimes.
• Special focus on crimes against women, children, and marginalized groups.
• Modernization of laws:
• Incorporating provisions to address emerging crimes, such as cybercrimes and financial frauds.
• Ensuring alignment with international human rights standards and treaties.

The correct answer is 6.75 meters.

Key Points

• The 3-point line in international basketball competitions is set at 6.75 meters (22.15 feet) from the basket.
• This distance is standardized by FIBA (International Basketball Federation), the governing body for basketball worldwide.
• The 3-point line was first introduced in international competitions in 1984.
• The purpose of the 3-point line is to reward players for making long-distance shots, enhancing the strategic element of the game.
• In comparison, the NBA 3-point line is slightly farther, ranging from 6.7 meters (22 feet) in the corners to 7.24 meters (23.75 feet) at the top of the arc.

Additional Information

• FIBA Rules:
• FIBA governs basketball rules for international competitions, including the dimensions of the court and the placement of the 3-point line.
• The FIBA court dimensions are slightly smaller than NBA courts, with a width of 15 meters and a length of 28 meters.
• 3-Point Line Evolution:
• The 3-point line was first used in the American Basketball League in the 1960s before being popularized by the ABA and later adopted by the NBA and FIBA.
• It has significantly influenced modern basketball strategies, emphasizing perimeter shooting.
• Comparison with Other Leagues:
• In college basketball (NCAA), the 3-point line is set at 6.32 meters (20.75 feet).
• High school basketball in the U.S. uses a 3-point line at 6.02 meters (19.75 feet).
• Impact on Gameplay:
• The 3-point line has transformed basketball, leading to an increase in long-range shooting attempts.
• Teams now design plays to create open 3-point opportunities, making sharpshooters a valuable asset.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• Chambal River is famous for its badland topography, which is called the Chambal ravines.
• The Chambal ravines are formed due to years of soil erosion caused by water and weathering.
• The river flows through a deep gorge and rugged terrain, contributing to the formation of these ravines before it joins the Yamuna River.
• Badland topography is characterized by irregular and steep slopes, often unsuitable for agriculture or habitation.
• The statement correctly explains the connection between Chambal’s deep gorge and the formation of its ravines.

Additional Information

• Badland Topography:
• It refers to a type of terrain that is heavily eroded and unsuitable for agriculture due to poor soil quality.
• Badlands typically occur in arid or semi-arid regions where water erosion is the primary shaping force.
• Chambal River:
• It is a tributary of the Yamuna River and flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
• The river originates from the Janapav Hills in the Vindhya Range.
• Chambal Ravines:
• The Chambal ravines are a result of gully erosion, which occurs when surface water runoff carves narrow channels in the soil.
• This type of erosion is accelerated by deforestation, overgrazing, and poor land management practices.
• Ravine Rehabilitation:
• Efforts are being made to prevent further erosion in the Chambal ravines through afforestation and soil conservation measures.
• Ravine reclamation projects aim to make the land usable for agriculture and to prevent desertification.