General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Ireland.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, covering Articles 36 to 51.
• The concept was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had itself borrowed it from the Spanish Constitution.
• These principles serve as guidelines or instruments of instruction for the government to establish a socialist, secular, and democratic state as envisioned in the Preamble.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, the DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by a court of law; however, they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The primary objective of these principles is to ensure social and economic justice and to transform India into a Welfare State.

 Additional Information

• Other major sources of the Indian Constitution include:
• United States of America: Source for Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review, Preamble, and the Impeachment of the President.
• United Kingdom: Contributed the Parliamentary form of government, Rule of Law, Single Citizenship, and the Cabinet System.
• Canada: Provided the framework for a Federation with a strong Centre, Residuary Powers with the Centre, and the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Australia: Inspired the Concurrent List and the Joint Sitting of the two houses of Parliament.
• Soviet Union (USSR): The concept of Fundamental Duties and the ideals of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• In the Indian political system, a bicameral legislature refers to a state government that consists of two distinct houses: the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• Article 168 of the Indian Constitution provides for the constitution of legislatures in states. While most states have a unicameral system, Bihar is one of the few that maintains both houses.
• The Bihar Legislative Council is a permanent body and was first established in 1912. It represents the upper house of the state legislature, ensuring a system of checks and balances over the popularly elected Legislative Assembly.
• Currently, only six states in India have a bicameral arrangement: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.

 Additional Information

• Unicameral States:
• States like Haryana, Rajasthan, and Himachal Pradesh possess a unicameral legislature, meaning they only have the Legislative Assembly.
• In these states, the legislative process is streamlined into a single house, and all legislative powers are vested in the Vidhan Sabha.
• Constitutional Provisions for Legislative Councils:
• Under Article 169, the Parliament of India has the authority to create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution by a special majority.
• The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state cannot exceed one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly and must not be less than 40.
• Members of the Legislative Council (MLCs) are chosen through various methods, including election by local bodies, graduates, teachers, and nomination by the Governor.

The correct answer is Main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers.

Key Points

• The Census of India classifies the entire population into three categories based on economic activity: Main Workers, Marginal Workers, and Non-workers.
• Main Workers are individuals who worked for a major part of the reference year, specifically for at least 183 days (six months) or more. This group constitutes the primary workforce contributing to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Marginal Workers are those who worked for less than 183 days in the reference year. This category often includes seasonal laborers in the Agricultural sector or temporary workers in the informal economy.
• Non-workers are persons who did not participate in any economically productive activity during the entire reference period. This includes students, rentiers, dependents, pensioners, and individuals engaged in unpaid household duties.
• According to the 2011 Census, the work participation rate in India was approximately 39.8 percent, meaning nearly 60 percent of the population were classified as non-workers.

 Additional Information

• Conceptual Distinctions:
• Agricultural, Industrial, and Service Workers: These terms describe the Three-Sector Model of an economy rather than the specific demographic classification used by the Registrar General of India.
• Organized and Unorganized: These refer to the regulatory framework of employment. The unorganized sector comprises units typically not registered with the government and where labor laws are not strictly enforced.
• Migrant Workers: This classification is based on the place of birth or place of last residence being different from the place of enumeration, rather than employment duration.
• Census Sub-categories:
• The Census further divides workers into four broad occupational categories: Cultivators, Agricultural Labourers, Household Industry Workers, and Other Workers (including trade, commerce, and construction).
• Data from the 2011 Census highlighted that Agricultural Labourers and Cultivators still make up the largest portion of the Indian workforce, despite the growing Service Sector.

The correct answer is Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

Key Points

• The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 was enacted to consolidate various existing laws related to food safety and standards into a single, comprehensive framework in India.
• This Act mandated the establishment of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), which serves as the apex statutory body for regulating food products and ensuring their safety for human consumption.
• The legislation aimed to replace a multi-level, multi-departmental control system with a single integrated line of command, shifting from a regulatory to a self-compliance based approach.
• It repealed several older and overlapping laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the Fruit Products Order, 1955, the Meat Food Products Order, 1973, and the Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order, 1998.
• The FSSAI operates under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and is responsible for framing science-based standards and guidelines for food items.

 Additional Information

• National Food Security Act, 2013:
• The primary objective is to provide nutritional security by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at subsidized prices to approximately two-thirds of India's population.
• It grants legal entitlements to existing programs like the Public Distribution System (PDS) and the Mid-Day Meal Scheme.
• Competition Act, 2002:
• This Act replaced the MRTP Act, 1969 and established the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to prevent practices that have an adverse effect on market competition.
• It regulates mergers, acquisitions, and anti-competitive agreements to ensure fair trade and consumer welfare.
• Consumer Protection Act, 2019:
• It replaced the 1986 legislation to address modern challenges such as e-commerce and misleading advertisements.
• It established the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to protect, promote, and enforce the rights of consumers as a class.

The correct answer is rice and wheat.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution in India was launched in the mid-1960s (around 1966-67) to transform the country into a self-reliant nation in food grain production.
• The core of this movement was the introduction of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, which were scientifically developed to produce more grain per plant compared to traditional seeds.
• The revolution primarily focused on wheat and rice. For wheat, semi-dwarf varieties like Lerma Rojo and Sonora 64 were imported from Mexico, which were highly resistant to lodging and responsive to fertilizers.
• For rice, the IR8 variety (developed at the International Rice Research Institute in the Philippines) was introduced, which significantly increased yields in tropical conditions.
• These HYV seeds are characterized by a shorter life cycle, allowing farmers to engage in multiple cropping, and are often referred to as dwarf varieties because of their shorter stems.

 Additional Information

• Key Personalities:
• M.S. Swaminathan: Known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India, he collaborated with global scientists to adapt seeds to Indian agro-climatic zones.
• Norman Borlaug: Known as the Father of the Green Revolution worldwide, his development of high-yield Mexican wheat earned him the Nobel Peace Prize.
• Essential Inputs:
• Irrigation: HYV seeds require a continuous and controlled water supply, which led to the expansion of canal systems and tube wells in states like Punjab and Haryana.
• Chemical Fertilizers: The success of these seeds is heavily dependent on the intensive use of NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium) fertilizers to maximize growth.
• Geographical Concentration:
• The initial phase of the revolution was highly concentrated in North India, specifically in Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh, where agricultural infrastructure was relatively better.
• Other Options:
• While jowar and bajra (millets) and mustard (oilseeds) are vital crops, they were not the primary focus of the first phase of the Green Revolution, which prioritized staples to tackle acute food shortages.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Chola inscriptions (9^th to 13^th centuries) provide a meticulous record of land administration, classifying land into several distinct categories based on the recipient and the purpose of the grant.
• Shalabhoga was the specific nomenclature used for land designated for the maintenance of a school. The term is derived from Shala (educational institution) and Bhoga (possession or enjoyment), indicating that the revenue from such lands was exclusively utilized for educational purposes and supporting scholars. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Devadana and Tirunamattukkani refer to lands gifted to temples. These grants were vital for the socio-economic role of temples in the Chola period, allowing them to function as centers of religious, cultural, and economic activity. Such lands were often exempt from tax or had their revenues redirected to the temple treasury. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• The Chola land revenue system also recognized other significant categories:
• Vellanvagai: This was land held by non-Brahmana peasant proprietors. It represented the most common form of landholding and was the primary source of state revenue.
• Brahmadeya: These were lands donated to Brahmanas. These grants led to the emergence of prosperous Brahmana settlements, particularly in the fertile Kaveri valley, where local assemblies known as Sabhas managed the land.
• Pallichchhandam: This category referred to land donated to Jaina institutions, reflecting the pluralistic religious patronage of the Chola monarchs.
• Land Grants: These grants were typically recorded on copper plates or engraved on the stone walls of temples to ensure permanence and legal validity, detailing the boundaries and the rights of the donees.

The correct answer is Annapurna Devi.

Key Points

• In November 2024, the Union Minister for Women and Child Development, Annapurna Devi, officially launched the Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat (Child Marriage Free India) campaign to eliminate the social evil of child marriage.
• The campaign is designed to be a Jan Andolan (people’s movement), encouraging community participation to ensure every child is protected from early marriage and provided with opportunities for education and growth.
• The initiative emphasizes the effective implementation of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, and seeks to empower local governance bodies like Panchayats to monitor and prevent such instances.
• This movement is part of the government's broader vision of Viksit Bharat, recognizing that ending child marriage is crucial for improving Maternal and Child Health and overall human development indices.

 Additional Information

• Annapurna Devi:
• She is a senior political leader serving as the Union Minister of Women and Child Development since June 2024.
• Before her current role, she served as the Union Minister of State for Education, where she focused on foundational literacy and the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
• Child Marriage Regulations in India:
• The legal age for marriage in India is currently 18 years for females and 21 years for males.
• Violations under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act can lead to rigorous imprisonment of up to two years and a fine of up to 1 lakh rupees.
• The government also utilizes the Childline 1098 service as a critical tool for reporting and intervening in cases of potential child marriages.

The correct answer is Mohenjodaro.

Key Points

• The Dancing Girl is a world-renowned bronze statuette created approximately in 2500 BCE during the peak of the Harappan Civilization.
• It was unearthed in 1926 by British archaeologist Ernest Mackay in the residential quarters of the Mohenjodaro site, located in present-day Sindh, Pakistan.
• The figurine stands 10.5 centimeters tall and is a prime example of the lost-wax casting (cire-perdue) method, where molten bronze is poured into a clay mold, demonstrating advanced metallurgical skills.
• The sculpture depicts a young woman in a confident standing position, wearing a large number of bangles (approximately 24 on the left arm and 4 on the right), a necklace, and her hair tied in a neat bun.
• British archaeologist Mortimer Wheeler famously described her as a girl perfectly confident of herself and the world, highlighting the sophisticated social status and artistic expression of women in the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Currently, this masterpiece is preserved and displayed at the National Museum in New Delhi, India.

 Additional Information

• Lothal:
• Located in the Bhal region of Gujarat, it served as the vital maritime trade hub of the civilization.
• It is famous for possessing the world's first artificial brick dockyard, which was connected to the old course of the Sabarmati River.
• Chanhudaro:
• Situated south of Mohenjodaro, it was exclusively an industrial town focused on craft production and shell-working.
• It is the only Harappan city found without a citadel and yielded evidence of bead-making factories and use of kohl and lipsticks.
• Ropar:
• Located on the banks of the Sutlej River in Punjab, India, it was the first site excavated after Indian Independence.
• Excavated by Y.D. Sharma in 1953, it provided evidence of a unique burial practice where a dog was buried along with a human.

The correct answer is One-fourth of the total membership of either House.

Key Points

• The President of India can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for the 'violation of the Constitution' as per Article 61.
• The process can be initiated by either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) by framing specific charges.
• To initiate the impeachment proceedings, the charges must be contained in a resolution that has been signed by at least one-fourth of the total membership of the House in which the charge is originated.
• A 14 days' notice in writing, signed by the required number of members, must be given to the President before the resolution can be moved.
• After the resolution is moved, it must be passed by a special majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House.

 Additional Information

• Investigation by the Second House:
• Once the first House passes the resolution, the other House investigates the charges or causes them to be investigated.
• The President has the right to appear and to be represented at such an investigation to defend themselves.
• Final Resolution:
• If the investigating House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, the President stands removed from office.
• The removal is effective from the date on which the resolution is so passed by the second House.
• Participation Details:
• The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment, although they do not vote in the Presidential election.
• The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories do not participate in the impeachment process.
• Article 56: Provides that the President shall hold office for a term of five years but can be removed via the procedure laid down in Article 61.

The correct answer is Hypothalamus.

Key Points

• The Hypothalamus is a small but critical region of the forebrain located below the thalamus, functioning as the main control center for the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system.
• It produces the Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH), frequently referred to as the growth hormone-releasing factor, which is a peptide hormone consisting of 44 amino acids.
• The hypothalamus releases GHRH into the hypophyseal portal system, a network of blood vessels that connects the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary gland.
• Upon reaching the anterior pituitary, GHRH binds to specific receptors on somatotropic cells, triggering the synthesis and secretion of Growth Hormone (GH) or somatotropin into the bloodstream.
• The hypothalamus also produces Somatostatin, which acts as the Growth Hormone-Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH), providing a regulatory feedback loop to maintain hormonal balance.

 Additional Information

• Pituitary Gland:
• Often called the Master Gland, it is located in a bony cavity called the sella turcica.
• It is responsible for secreting the actual Growth Hormone (GH), not the releasing factor.
• Thyroid Gland:
• Located in the neck region, it secretes Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3).
• These hormones regulate the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) and physical and mental growth.
• Thymus Gland:
• A lobular structure located between the lungs behind the sternum.
• It secretes Thymosins, which play a major role in the differentiation and maturation of T-lymphocytes for cell-mediated immunity.

The correct answer is Gonds.

Key Points

• Laru Kaj is a significant traditional and religious festival celebrated primarily by the Gond tribe in the Mandla, Jabalpur, and Seoni districts of Madhya Pradesh.
• The festival is dedicated to Lord Narayan Deo, who is revered as the guardian deity of the household and the protector of the family.
• The central ritual of Laru Kaj involves the sacrifice of a pig, which is carried out with elaborate ceremonies to please the deity and seek blessings for health, prosperity, and happiness.
• This festival is not an annual event for every household; it is typically performed once every nine or twelve years by a family, or upon the fulfillment of a specific vow or during a marriage.
• During the celebration, traditional Gondi songs are sung, and community feasts are organized, reinforcing the social bonds and cultural heritage of the Gond community.

 Additional Information

• Bhils:
• Recognized as the largest tribal group in India, predominantly residing in Dhar, Jhabua, and West Nimar.
• They are famous for the Bhagoria Haat festival, a traditional celebration involving matchmaking and cultural dance.
• Baigas:
• Considered a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), they reside mainly in the Maikal range of eastern Madhya Pradesh.
• They are known for their deep knowledge of medicinal herbs and traditional Karma dance.
• Sahariyas:
• Another PVTG concentrated in the northwestern districts like Morena, Sheopur, and Gwalior.
• They are traditionally wood-cutters and gatherers of forest produce, with a unique culture influenced by the Rajasthan border.

The correct answer is Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla tiger reserve.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially notified the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh as the 56^th tiger reserve of India in November 2024.
• This new reserve was formed by integrating the Guru Ghasidas National Park and the Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary, spanning across the districts of Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur, Koriya, and Surajpur.
• It covers a massive area of approximately 2,829.38 square kilometers, making it the third largest tiger reserve in the country, trailing only the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
• The notification follows the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), aiming to strengthen the tiger habitat in the Chota Nagpur plateau and Baghelkhand regions.
• This reserve serves as a vital ecological corridor, connecting tiger populations between the Sanjay-Dubri Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh and the Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand.

 Additional Information

• Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, it is famous for having one of the highest densities of Royal Bengal Tigers in the world and houses the ancient Bandhavgarh Fort.
• Sundarbans Tiger Reserve:
• Situated in West Bengal, this UNESCO World Heritage Site is the largest mangrove forest globally and is the only mangrove habitat where tigers are found.
• Kanha Tiger Reserve:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, it is the largest national park in Central India and is well-known for successfully reintroducing the Barasingha (Swamp Deer).
• Tiger Conservation in India:
• Project Tiger was launched on April 1, 1973, to protect the national animal. India currently hosts about 75 percent of the global wild tiger population according to recent census data.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Ultrasound imaging, also referred to as sonography, is a diagnostic medical procedure that uses high-frequency sound waves to produce visual representations of the inside of the body, particularly soft tissues and organs. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• The Liver is one of the primary organs evaluated through abdominal ultrasound. It allows clinicians to check for hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), fatty liver disease, cirrhosis, and malignant tumors or cysts. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• The Gallbladder is routinely and effectively imaged using ultrasound to detect gallstones (cholelithiasis), inflammation known as cholecystitis, and blockages in the bile ducts. It is the gold standard for gallbladder evaluation due to its high sensitivity. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
• Since both the liver and the gallbladder are standard organs that are frequently and successfully imaged using ultrasound technology, neither of them fits the criteria of an organ that is NOT imaged. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Diagnostic Scope of Ultrasound:
• Abdominal Imaging: Beyond the liver and gallbladder, it is used for the pancreas, spleen, and kidneys.
• Obstetrics: Widely known for monitoring fetal development and uterine health during pregnancy.
• Echocardiography: A specialized ultrasound used to visualize heart valves, chambers, and blood flow patterns.
• Limitations: Ultrasound waves cannot easily penetrate bone or pass through air/gas. Consequently, organs like the lungs or the gastrointestinal tract (which contains gas) are difficult to image using this specific modality.
• Safety: Unlike X-rays or CT scans, ultrasound does not use ionizing radiation, making it safe for sensitive patients.

The correct answer is PDI = Personal Income - Personal tax payments - Non-tax payments.

Key Points

• Personal Disposable Income (PDI) is the actual amount of income available to the household sector for consumption and savings after all mandatory government deductions are made.
• Personal Income (PI) refers to the total income received by individuals, including wages, salaries, rent, interest, and transfer payments (unearned income like pensions), before any direct taxes are subtracted.
• To calculate PDI, one must subtract Personal Tax Payments, which primarily consist of direct taxes such as Income Tax, Wealth Tax, and Property Tax.
• The calculation also requires the deduction of Non-tax Payments, which include miscellaneous payments to the government such as fines, administrative fees, license fees, and penalties.
• The fundamental equation used in Macroeconomics is: PDI = Personal Income − Personal Tax Payments − Non-tax Payments.
• This metric is a more accurate representation of the purchasing power of the public than National Income or Personal Income alone.

 Additional Information

• Income Flow in the Indian Economy:
• National Income (NI) is the total value of goods and services produced. Personal Income is derived by subtracting Undistributed Profits, Net Interest Payments by households, and Corporate Taxes from NI, and adding Transfer Payments.
• Disposable Income is subsequently used to determine the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS).
• Significance for Policy:
• Changes in the Income Tax slabs in the Union Budget directly affect the PDI of the citizens.
• Higher Personal Disposable Income generally stimulates aggregate demand and encourages economic growth through increased consumer spending.

The correct answer is 1964.

Key Points

• The Indian Open, currently known as the Hero Indian Open due to sponsorship, was established in 1964 as the premier national open golf championship of India.
• The inaugural tournament was held at the prestigious Delhi Golf Club (DGC) in New Delhi, which has served as the most frequent venue in the history of the event.
• Legendary Australian golfer Peter Thomson, a five-time winner of The Open Championship, was the visionary behind the creation of this tournament to promote the sport in Asia.
• Peter Thomson cemented his legacy in Indian golf by winning the first-ever edition in 1964 with a total score of 292.
• The championship is a vital stop on the Asian Tour and has been co-sanctioned by the European Tour (now the DP World Tour) since 2015, attracting high-ranking international players.

 Additional Information

• Significant Indian Milestones:
• In 1965, Prem Gopal (P.G.) Sethi made history by becoming the first amateur and the first Indian to win the Indian Open title.
• In 1991, Ali Sher became the first Indian professional golfer to win the tournament, a feat that triggered a golf boom in the country.
• Other notable Indian winners include Jyoti Randhawa, Arjun Atwal, Jeev Milkha Singh, Anirban Lahiri, and S.S.P. Chawrasia, who has won the title multiple times.
• Venues and Governance:
• While the Delhi Golf Club is the spiritual home of the event, it has also been hosted at other elite courses like the Royal Calcutta Golf Club and the DLF Golf and Country Club in Gurugram.
• The tournament is organized under the aegis of the Indian Golf Union (IGU), the apex governing body for golf in India.

The correct answer is Thimphu.

Key Points

• The 6^th Joint Group of Customs (JGC) meeting between India and Bhutan was scheduled to be held in Thimphu, the capital city of Bhutan, from 24^th to 25^th April 2025.
• This high-level meeting serves as a critical institutional mechanism to discuss and resolve various issues related to bilateral trade, transit, and customs cooperation between the two neighboring nations.
• The primary objective of the JGC is to facilitate smoother movement of goods across the borders by streamlining Customs procedures and enhancing connectivity through Land Customs Stations (LCS).
• The delegations typically involve senior officials from the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) of India and the Department of Revenue and Customs of the Royal Government of Bhutan.
• Key agenda items often include the operationalization of Integrated Check Posts (ICPs), the implementation of the Electronic Cargo Tracking System (ECTS), and the notification of new trade routes to bolster economic ties.

 Additional Information

• India-Bhutan Trade Relations:
• The bilateral trade relationship is governed by the Agreement on Trade, Commerce, and Transit, which provides for a Free Trade regime between the two countries.
• India remains Bhutan's largest trading partner, accounting for a significant majority of its total external trade.
• India provides transit facilities for Bhutanese trade with third countries through designated entry and exit points on the Indian border.
• Strategic Cooperation:
• The Joint Group of Customs meetings are essential for addressing field-level bottlenecks that traders face at border crossings such as Jaigaon-Phuentsholing and Joghighopa.
• Recent initiatives include the integration of digital customs systems to reduce the turnaround time for cargo and minimize physical documentation requirements.
• Collaborative efforts also focus on preventing the smuggling of controlled substances and wildlife products across the porous Himalayan borders.

The correct answer is Devdutt Pattanaik.

Key Points

• Devdutt Pattanaik is a prominent Indian mythologist, illustrator, and author widely recognized for his work on sacred lore, folklore, and Hindu mythology.
• He has authored the book 'Indian Wisdom', which distills complex philosophical ideas, rituals, and symbols from ancient Indian texts into simple, practical insights for contemporary life.
• His writing style uniquely integrates his own hand-drawn illustrations to explain deep-rooted cultural concepts from the Vedas, Upanishads, and epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana.

 Additional Information

• Sadhguru (Jaggi Vasudev):
• He is the founder of the Isha Foundation, a non-profit spiritual organization.
• His notable literary contributions include bestselling books like 'Inner Engineering: A Yogi's Guide to Joy' and 'Karma: A Yogi's Guide to Crafting Your Destiny'.
• Deepak Chopra:
• An Indian-American author and alternative medicine advocate who has written extensively on mindfulness, spirituality, and holistic health.
• His famous works include 'The Seven Spiritual Laws of Success' and 'Ageless Body, Timeless Mind'.
• Radhakrishnan Pillai:
• An academic and corporate trainer best known for researching and applying Chanakya's ancient teachings to modern management practices.
• His popular publications include 'Corporate Chanakya', 'Chanakya in Daily Life', and 'Chanakya's 7 Secrets of Leadership'.

The correct answer is 2024.

Key Points

• The RESET Programme, which stands for Retired Sportsperson Empowerment Training, was officially launched by the Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, on August 29, 2024.
• The launch was strategically timed to coincide with National Sports Day, a day celebrated across India to honor the birth anniversary of the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• The primary aim of this initiative is to support athletes who have retired from active competition by providing them with the necessary skills and training to transition into new professional roles.
• The programme identifies that many athletes struggle after retirement; hence, it seeks to make them employable within the broader sports ecosystem or other corporate sectors by bridging the gap between their athletic achievements and career requirements.

 Additional Information

• Eligibility and Scope:
• The programme is designed for retired sportspersons in the age bracket of 20 to 50 years.
• Candidates must have represented India at the international level or secured medals in recognized national competitions like the National Games or Khelo India Games.
• Strategic Alignment:
• The initiative is aligned with the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes vocational training and lifelong learning opportunities.
• By empowering these individuals, the government aims to utilize their expertise as mentors, coaches, or sports administrators, thereby strengthening India's grassroots sports structure.
• Career Support:
• Participants receive training in modern sports technologies, management, and leadership, ensuring they remain relevant in the evolving job market.
• It helps address the socio-economic security of athletes who have dedicated their youth to representing the nation.

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

• Sweden has secured the top position in the Energy Transition Index (ETI), maintaining its leadership in the global shift toward sustainable energy systems.
• The index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF) in collaboration with Accenture, assessing 120 countries on their current energy system performance and transition readiness.
• The evaluation is based on three critical dimensions: energy equity, energy security, and environmental sustainability.
• Sweden excels due to its high share of renewable energy (particularly hydro and wind), a stable political commitment to net-zero targets, and robust investment in green technologies.
• The ETI framework helps nations identify areas where energy policy and investment need to be prioritized to achieve a resilient and low-carbon future.

 Additional Information

• Top Rankings:
• Denmark (ranked 2^nd) and Finland (ranked 3^rd) closely follow Sweden, reinforcing the dominance of Nordic countries in energy transition.
• Norway and France round out the top five, with France being the highest-ranked G20 nation.
• India's Position:
• India was ranked 63^rd in the latest report, showing improvement driven by significant renewable energy capacity additions and effective policy interventions.
• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• An international organization founded in 1971 by Klaus Schwab, headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.
• It serves as a platform for global leaders to shape industrial, regional, and global agendas through various reports like the Global Gender Gap Report.
• Transition Readiness Factors:
• Key indicators include institutional framework, infrastructure, human capital, and business environment, which determine a country's ability to support a structural energy shift.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The North Eastern Region (NER) District SDG Index 2023-24 (Edition 2.0) is a comprehensive framework that evaluates the progress of 103 districts across the eight North Eastern states in achieving 15 Sustainable Development Goals.
• Statement I: Sikkim has displayed remarkable performance in social and environmental indicators, particularly in Clean Water and Sanitation (SDG 6) and Decent Work and Economic Growth (SDG 8). All districts in Sikkim, including East Sikkim, West Sikkim, South Sikkim, and North Sikkim, attained scores above 65, placing the entire state in the Front Runner category. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Statement II: Mizoram stands out for its high performance in Quality Education (SDG 4) and Gender Equality (SDG 5). In the 2023-24 index, every district in Mizoram, including top-performing districts like Serchhip and Aizawl, achieved the Front Runner status with scores ranging between 65 and 99. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• NER District SDG Index Performance Categories:
• Front Runner: Districts with a score of 65−99. This category represents significant progress toward the 2030 Agenda.
• Performer: Districts with a score of 50−64.
• Aspirant: Districts with a score of 0−49.
• Achiever: A perfect score of 100.
• Institutional Framework:
• The index is released by NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER).
• Technical support is provided by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• The 2023-24 edition follows the first edition launched in 2021-22, tracking 84 indicators to monitor local-level development.
• Other states like Tripura also saw all their districts classified as Front Runners, while states like Nagaland and Meghalaya had a mix of Front Runners and Performers.