General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

• Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India, the President of India is the constitutional authority empowered to appoint the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and every other Judge of the Supreme Court.
• The appointment follows the seniority principle, where the outgoing Chief Justice recommends the name of the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court to the Union Ministry of Law and Justice.
• While the Union Law Minister forwards the recommendation to the Prime Minister, who then advises the President, the President remains the ultimate appointing authority under their seal and warrant.
• The Supreme Court has established through the Second Judges Case (1993) and Third Judges Case (1998) that the President must act in accordance with the recommendations of the Collegium, which consists of the CJI and the four senior-most judges.

 Additional Information

• Supreme Court of India:
• Established under Part V, Chapter IV (Articles 124 to 147) of the Constitution, it serves as the apex judicial body.
• The Chief Justice of India holds office until the age of 65 years.
• The CJI administers the oath of office to the President, and conversely, the President administers the oath to the CJI.
• Removal Procedure:
• A Judge can only be removed by the President following an address by Parliament supported by a special majority in both houses.
• The grounds for removal are limited to proved misbehaviour or incapacity as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

The correct answer is Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India, the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
• The principle of Collective Responsibility implies that the entire Ministry is at the helm of affairs only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha.
• If a No-Confidence Motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the entire Council of Ministers, including those ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha, must resign immediately.
• This accountability ensures that the Executive remains subservient to the Legislature, which represents the direct will of the citizens in a Parliamentary Democracy.
• The Council of Ministers functions as a single unit; therefore, a vote of no confidence against a single minister is effectively a vote against the entire Cabinet.

 Additional Information

• President:
• While the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, individual ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President under Article 75(2). This is known as Individual Responsibility.
• Rajya Sabha:
• Although ministers can be chosen from the Rajya Sabha, the council is not responsible to this Upper House. The Rajya Sabha can discuss policies but cannot remove the government through a No-Confidence Motion.
• Supreme Court:
• The Judiciary performs Judicial Review to check the constitutionality of executive actions but does not hold the Council of Ministers politically accountable for day-to-day administration.

The correct answer is 0-50.

Key Points

• The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in India on 17 September 2014 as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to simplify air quality data into a single number and color for the public.
• An AQI value between 0 and 50 is classified as Good, representing the best possible air quality with minimal health impact.
• This category indicates that atmospheric pollutant concentrations are well within the safe limits defined by the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).
• The Good category is visually represented by the Green color code on all government monitoring dashboards and public displays.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) calculates the index based on the average concentration of pollutants over a 24-hour period (except for CO and O₃ which use 8-hour averages).
• The sub-index for the AQI is determined using eight major pollutants: PM₁₀, PM_2.5, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃, NH₃, and Pb.

 Additional Information

• The Indian AQI system features six distinct categories to communicate the severity of air pollution:
• Satisfactory (51−100): Color-coded Light Green; it may cause minor breathing discomfort to sensitive individuals.
• Moderately Polluted (101−200): Color-coded Yellow; can cause breathing discomfort to people with asthma or heart disease.
• Poor (201−300): Color-coded Orange; leads to breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure.
• Very Poor (301−400): Color-coded Red; can result in respiratory illness upon long-term exposure.
• Severe (401−500): Color-coded Dark Red; affects even healthy individuals and poses serious health risks to those with pre-existing conditions.

The correct answer is Mean years of schooling & Expected years of schooling.

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development, released annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) since 1990.
• The Education Index is a critical component of the HDI and is calculated using the arithmetic mean of two primary indicators: Mean years of schooling and Expected years of schooling.
• Mean years of schooling measures the average number of years of education received by people aged 25 years and older, reflecting the current educational attainment of the adult population based on UNESCO Institute for Statistics data.
• Expected years of schooling estimates the total number of years of schooling a child of school-entrance age can expect to receive if current age-specific enrollment rates remain constant throughout their life.
• This methodology was adopted in the 2010 Human Development Report, replacing the older indicators of Adult Literacy Rate and Gross Enrollment Ratio to provide a more accurate assessment of educational progress and potential.

 Additional Information

• Dimensions of HDI:
• Health Index: Measured by Life Expectancy at Birth, which indicates the capability to live a long and healthy life.
• Standard of Living Index: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita at Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in international dollars.
• Foundational Framework:
• The HDI was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.
• It focuses on the Capability Approach, emphasizing that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, rather than economic growth alone.
• Classification:
• Countries are grouped into four categories based on their HDI score: Very High, High, Medium, and Low human development.
• The final HDI score is derived by taking the geometric mean of the normalized indices of the three dimensions (Health, Education, and Standard of Living).

The correct answer is Bahlul Lodi.

Key Points

• The Lodi dynasty was the fifth and final ruling family of the Delhi Sultanate, governing from 1451 to 1526 AD.
• Bahlul Lodi (reigned 1451−1489) founded the dynasty after the abdication of the last Sayyid ruler, Alam Shah.
• He belonged to the Shahu Khel clan of the Pashtun (Afghan) Lodi tribe, making this the first Afghan dynasty to rule over Delhi.
• During his 38-year reign, he successfully suppressed various rebellions and annexed the Sharqi dynasty of Jaunpur in 1479, which significantly expanded his territory.
• He is historically noted for his tribal democratic approach, where he treated his Afghan nobles as peers rather than subordinates, often sitting on the floor with them to ensure their loyalty and cooperation.

 Additional Information

• Sikandar Lodi (1489−1517):
• He was the son of Bahlul Lodi and is regarded as the most powerful ruler of the dynasty.
• He founded the city of Agra in 1504 and shifted the capital from Delhi to Agra.
• He introduced the Gazz-i-Sikandari, a standardized unit for land measurement consisting of 32 digits.
• Ibrahim Lodi (1517−1526):
• He was the last Sultan of the Lodi dynasty and the Delhi Sultanate.
• His autocratic style and insistence on royal supremacy led to conflict with his Afghan nobles, prompting Daulat Khan Lodi to invite Babur to invade India.
• He was defeated and killed in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526, which ended the Sultanate era and established the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is It excluded Indian members..

Key Points

• The Simon Commission, officially known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was sent to India in 1928 (constituted in November 1927) to review the functioning of the Government of India Act 1919.
• The commission was headed by Sir John Simon and consisted of seven members drawn from the British Parliament.
• The fundamental reason for the nationwide boycott was that the commission was an all-white body, entirely excluding Indian members, which was seen as a denial of the right of Indians to participate in deciding their own constitutional future.
• Political groups across the spectrum, including the Indian National Congress (during the 1927 Madras Session) and the All India Muslim League, resolved to boycott the commission.
• Protests were characterized by the slogan Go Back Simon and black flag demonstrations upon the commission's arrival in cities like Bombay and Lahore.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Demands and Proposals:
• Provincial Autonomy: While the Simon Commission actually recommended the abolition of dyarchy and the implementation of Provincial Autonomy in its 1930 report, this was not the cause of the initial boycott.
• Dominion Status: The commission notably refrained from mentioning Dominion Status as a goal for India, which further aggravated Indian leaders who sought it as a minimum requirement.
• Separate Electorates: The commission recommended the continuation of Separate Electorates for communal representation, a system that remained a point of contention between different political factions.
• Impact on National Movement: The protests led to the tragic death of Lala Lajpat Rai following a lathi charge in Lahore, which radicalized the Indian youth and accelerated the demand for Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence).
• Nehru Report: In response to the challenge by Lord Birkenhead (Secretary of State) that Indians could not draft a constitution, the Nehru Report (1928) was prepared by an all-party committee.

The correct answer is Capitalism.

Key Points

• A Market Economy is an economic system where the production and pricing of goods and services are determined by the interactions of a country's individual citizens and businesses.
• The term Capitalism is used interchangeably with a market economy because it is based on the private ownership of the means of production and the creation of goods for profit.
• In this system, the allocation of resources is handled by the price mechanism, which is driven by the law of supply and demand rather than by a central planning authority.
• Fundamental features of this economy include capital accumulation, competitive markets, voluntary exchange, and a decentralized decision-making process.
• Economists like Adam Smith argued that the invisible hand of the market would lead to the most efficient economic outcomes without the need for government intervention.

 Additional Information

• Socialism:
• Refers to an economic system where the means of production are owned or regulated by the state or community.
• Focuses on social equity and the distribution of resources based on social need rather than individual profit.
• Communism:
• A radical form of socialism that advocates for a classless society where all property is publicly owned.
• It seeks to eliminate the private sector entirely, which is the cornerstone of a market economy.
• Feudalism:
• A historical social and economic system used in medieval Europe based on land ownership and military service.
• Unlike modern economies, it relied on a rigid hierarchy of lords and serfs rather than free-market exchange.

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide + water + energy.

Key Points

• Aerobic respiration is a high-efficiency metabolic process that utilizes Oxygen to break down organic molecules for cellular energy.
• The process initiates in the Cytoplasm through Glycolysis, where a single Glucose molecule is converted into two Pyruvate molecules.
• In the presence of oxygen, Pyruvate is transported into the Mitochondria, where it undergoes oxidative decarboxylation to become Acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs Cycle.
• Within the Mitochondrial Matrix and the Inner Mitochondrial Membrane, the carbon atoms in pyruvate are completely oxidized to form Carbon dioxide (CO₂).
• The Electron Transport Chain (ETC) facilitates the transfer of electrons to oxygen, the final electron acceptor, resulting in the formation of Water (H₂O).
• This mitochondrial breakdown is the primary source of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate), yielding approximately 30 to 32 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, which constitutes the Energy used for cellular functions.

 Additional Information

• Anaerobic Respiration Pathways:
• Lactic Acid Formation: This occurs in Muscle Cells during vigorous exercise when oxygen levels are depleted. Pyruvate is converted into Lactic Acid and energy, which can lead to muscle fatigue.
• Ethanol Fermentation: Typically observed in Yeast and certain bacteria, this anaerobic process converts pyruvate into Ethanol, Carbon dioxide, and energy. This is a fundamental process in the Brewing and Baking industries.
• Mitochondria:
• Known as the Powerhouse of the Cell, these organelles possess their own Mitochondrial DNA and a double-membrane structure.
• The inner membrane is folded into Cristae to increase the surface area for the enzymes involved in the ATP synthase process.

The correct answer is Swabhav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata.

Key Points

• The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) 2024 campaign was observed from September 17 (Sewa Diwas) to October 2, 2024 (Swachh Bharat Diwas).
• The theme for the 2024 edition was Swabhav Swachhata, Sanskaar Swachhata, which translates to 'Cleanliness of Nature, Cleanliness of Culture'.
• This year marks the 10^th anniversary of the launch of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) in 2014.
• The campaign is a joint initiative led by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• It focuses on massive advocacy and community mobilization to strengthen the commitment toward a cleaner India.

 Additional Information

• The 2024 campaign was structured around three primary pillars:
• Swachhata Ki Bhagidari: Encouraging public participation through large-scale awareness activities and community engagement.
• Sampoorna Swachhata: Focusing on the transformation of Cleanliness Target Units (CTUs), which involve clearing difficult and neglected waste spots across the country.
• Safai Mitra Suraksha Shivirs: Organizing camps to provide health check-ups, safety equipment, and social security benefits to sanitation workers.
• The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on October 2, 2014, with the vision of achieving an Open Defecation Free (ODF) nation.
• SBM-Urban 2.0 and SBM-Gramin Phase II are currently being implemented to ensure sustainable sanitation and 100 percent scientific processing of solid waste.
• Previous themes included 'Garbage Free India' for the year 2023, highlighting the evolution of the campaign's focus areas.

The correct answer is Madurai.

Key Points

• The Pandya Dynasty was one of the three major Tamil kingdoms of Southern India, collectively known as the Muventar, alongside the Cholas and the Cheras.
• Madurai, located on the banks of the Vaigai River, served as the primary and most enduring capital of the Pandyas from ancient times through the medieval period.
• The city was the epicenter of Tamil culture and the seat of the Sangam assemblies, where scholarly poets gathered under royal patronage to compile the Sangam literature.
• The Pandyas initially controlled the southern tip of the Indian peninsula, and their early capital and major port was Korkai, famous for its pearl fishery, before the administrative center shifted inland to Madurai.
• The dynasty adopted the Fish as its royal emblem, symbolizing their dominance over the coastal regions and the Indian Ocean trade routes.

 Additional Information

• Ujjain:
• Located in the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh, it was the ancient capital of the Avanti Mahajanapada.
• It served as a vital trade hub connecting North and West India and was a center for Hindu astronomy.
• Vaishali:
• Situated in modern-day Bihar, it was the capital of the Vrijji confederacy and the Licchavi clan.
• It is celebrated as the site of one of the world's first republican governments (Gana-Sangha).
• Amravati:
• Located in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, it served as the capital for the Satavahana Dynasty under the name Dhanyakataka.
• It is architecturally significant for the Great Stupa, a masterpiece of Buddhist art and the Amaravati school of sculpture.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Forests were originally part of the State List but were moved to the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule following the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. This allows both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures to enact laws concerning forest conservation and management. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Banking is a subject of national importance that requires a uniform policy throughout the country. It is explicitly listed under Entry 45 of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule. Therefore, only the Central Government has the exclusive power to make laws related to banking operations and the Reserve Bank of India. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Seventh Schedule: Under Article 246, the Constitution classifies legislative powers into three lists to maintain the federal structure of India.
• Union List (List I): Includes subjects like Defense, Foreign Affairs, Railways, and Atomic Energy. It currently contains 100 subjects.
• State List (List II): Includes subjects like Police, Public Health, Agriculture, and Local Government. It currently contains 61 subjects.
• Concurrent List (List III): Includes subjects like Education, Forests, Marriage and Divorce, and Trade Unions. It currently contains 52 subjects.
• 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976: This landmark amendment transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List, namely:
• Education
• Forests
• Weights and Measures
• Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
• Administration of Justice
• Residuary Powers: Subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists fall under Residuary Powers, which are vested in the Union Parliament as per Article 248.

The correct answer is Chapchar Kut.

Key Points

• Chapchar Kut is the most significant and oldest traditional festival celebrated by the people of Mizoram, often referred to as the Festival of Spring.
• It is observed as a thanksgiving ceremony following the arduous task of clearing forests (cutting and burning trees) for Jhum cultivation, which is the traditional slash-and-burn agricultural practice of the region.
• The festival is typically celebrated in the month of March, marking the interval between the burning of the forest debris and the arrival of the first rains for sowing seeds.
• A major highlight of the festivities is the performance of the Cheraw dance, also known as the Bamboo Dance, where performers display intricate footwork between rhythmically tapped bamboo poles.
• It represents a period of communal joy and peace, where the Mizo people dress in vibrant traditional attire, participate in grand feasts, and sing folk songs to celebrate their cultural heritage.

 Additional Information

• Dree:
• This is an agricultural festival celebrated by the Apatani tribe in Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is observed to seek the blessings of deities for a successful harvest and to protect crops from insects and famine.
• Losar:
• It marks the Tibetan New Year and is celebrated with great fervor in Arunachal Pradesh (by the Monpa tribe), Sikkim, and Ladakh.
• The festival involves cleaning homes, religious offerings, and masked dances in Buddhist monasteries.
• Beh-dien-khlam:
• This is a major socio-religious festival of the Pnar (Jaintia) people in Meghalaya.
• The literal meaning is Chasing away the Plague, performed to drive away evil spirits and ensure the well-being of the community.

The correct answer is Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Key Points

• The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) was constituted by the Government of India on November 3, 2006, as an expert body to provide technical inputs for the planning and management of rainfed farming.
• It functions as an attached office under the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare within the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• The mandate of the NRAA is to address the ecological, social, and economic problems of rainfed areas, which account for nearly 51 percent of the net sown area and support 40 percent of the human and 60 percent of the livestock population in India.
• The authority provides technical assistance for the convergence of various schemes like the Watershed Development Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY).
• It is headed by a Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and operates under the guidance of a Governing Board chaired by the Union Agriculture Minister.
• NRAA plays a crucial role in improving the agricultural productivity and sustainability of fragile ecosystems through holistic development strategies and climate-resilient farming practices.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Jal Shakti:
• Formed in May 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation with the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
• Responsible for the Jal Jeevan Mission, Namami Gange, and national river interlinking projects.
• Ministry of Cooperation:
• Established in July 2021 to realize the vision of Sahakar se Samriddhi (Prosperity through Cooperation).
• Focuses on strengthening the cooperative movement and streamlining the processes for Multi-State Cooperative Societies.
• Ministry of Earth Sciences:
• Formed in 2006, it deals with oceanography, meteorology, and seismology.
• Oversees institutes like the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF).

The correct answer is To amplify sound for clearer hearing.

Key Points

• The primary function of a hearing aid is amplification, which involves increasing the intensity or amplitude of sound waves to make them audible for individuals with hearing impairments.
• Scientifically, the device acts as an electroacoustic transducer. It uses a microphone to capture sound waves and convert them into electrical signals, which are then processed and strengthened.
• The amplifier within the device boosts the power of these signals. Modern digital hearing aids use complex Digital Signal Processing (DSP) to specifically amplify the frequency ranges where the user has the most significant hearing loss, typically between 250 Hz and 8000 Hz.
• The amplified electrical signal is converted back into acoustic energy by a receiver (miniature speaker) and delivered into the ear canal at a higher decibel (dB) level, facilitating clearer perception of speech and environmental sounds.
• Hearing aids are primarily designed to assist with Sensorineural Hearing Loss, which involves damage to the hair cells in the Cochlea, by providing a louder signal that the auditory nerve can still detect and transmit to the brain.

 Additional Information

• Core Components of a Hearing Aid:
• Microphone: Picks up acoustic signals from the environment.
• Amplifier/Processor: Increases signal strength and filters out unwanted frequencies.
• Receiver: Transmits the amplified sound into the ear.
• Power Source: Usually a Zinc-air battery or a rechargeable Lithium-ion cell.
• Historical Context:
• The first wearable electronic hearing aid, the Akouphone, was created in 1898.
• The invention of the Transistor at Bell Labs in 1947 was a major milestone, allowing devices to become small enough to wear behind the ear.
• Advanced Features:
• Noise Reduction: Distinguishes between speech and steady-state background noise to improve comfort.
• Directionality: Uses dual microphones to focus on sound coming from the front, enhancing the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) in crowded settings.

The correct answer is 5.5%.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, the total population of Rajasthan was recorded at approximately 6.85 crore (68,548,437), which constitutes about 5.66% of India’s total population of 121.05 crore.
• Among the given options, 5.5% is the nearest and most accepted figure in various state-level examinations representing Rajasthan's share of the national population.
• Rajasthan is the largest state in India by geographical area, covering 3,42,239 square kilometers, which is about 10.41% of the total land area of the country.
• Despite its vast landmass, the state’s population share is relatively lower due to the presence of the Thar Desert and arid climatic conditions, which restrict high-density settlements in western regions.
• In terms of population ranking during the 2011 Census, Rajasthan was the seventh most populous state in India.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan Demographic Indicators (Census 2011):
• Population Density: The state has a density of 200 persons per square kilometer, which is much lower than the national average of 382.
• Sex Ratio: The sex ratio in Rajasthan stands at 928 females per 1000 males.
• Literacy Rate: The overall literacy rate of the state is 66.11%, with male literacy at 79.19% and female literacy at 52.12%.
• Decadal Growth: The population growth rate between 2001 and 2011 was 21.31%.
• District Data: Jaipur is the most populated district, while Jaisalmer is the least populated district in the state.

The correct answer is Open market operation.

Key Points

• Open Market Operations (OMO) are the primary tools used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate the money supply and maintain liquidity within the Indian economy.
• This process involves the purchase and sale of Government Securities (G-Secs), such as Treasury Bills and dated securities, directly in the open market to or from commercial banks and financial institutions.
• When the RBI determines that there is excess liquidity (which may lead to high inflation), it sells government bonds. This action mops up cash from the banking system, thereby reducing the funds available for lending.
• Conversely, to boost liquidity and stimulate economic activity, the RBI purchases bonds from the market, injecting fresh capital into the banking system and lowering the cost of credit.
• OMOs serve as a quantitative instrument of monetary policy, helping the central bank influence short-term interest rates and align them with the Policy Repo Rate.

 Additional Information

• Moral Suasion:
• This is a qualitative or selective credit control method where the RBI uses psychological pressure and persuasion through meetings and circulars to convince banks to comply with its monetary guidelines.
• Margin Requirement:
• This refers to the difference between the market value of security (collateral) offered for a loan and the actual amount of credit granted. It is used to restrict the flow of credit to speculative or unproductive sectors.
• Evergreening of loans:
• It is a banking practice where a lender provides a new loan to a borrower to repay an existing debt. This is often done to prevent the original loan from being classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA).

The correct answer is 2008.

Key Points

• Michael Phelps achieved the historic feat of winning eight gold medals in a single Olympic Games during the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• This performance broke the long-standing record held by Mark Spitz, who won seven gold medals at the 1972 Munich Olympics.
• Phelps won gold in the 400m Individual Medley, 200m Freestyle, 100m Butterfly, 200m Butterfly, 200m Individual Medley, 4×100m Freestyle Relay, 4×200m Freestyle Relay, and 4×100m Medley Relay.
• In addition to winning gold in every event he entered, Phelps set seven world records and one Olympic record (in the 100m butterfly) during the competition.
• The Water Cube (Beijing National Aquatics Center) was the venue where Phelps completed this unprecedented achievement on August 17, 2008.

 Additional Information

• 2004 Athens Olympics:
• Phelps won six gold and two bronze medals at the age of 19.
• He became the second male swimmer to win more than six medals in one Olympic Games.
• 2012 London Olympics:
• He secured four gold and two silver medals.
• During these games, he surpassed Soviet gymnast Larisa Latynina to become the most decorated Olympian of all time.
• 2016 Rio Olympics:
• In his final Olympic appearance, Phelps won five gold and one silver medal.
• He retired with a total of 28 Olympic medals, including 23 gold, 3 silver, and 2 bronze, across five Olympic appearances (2000−2016).

The correct answer is Egypt.

Key Points

• The Philadelphi Corridor, which is also referred to as the Saladin Axis, is a narrow strip of land approximately 14 kilometers (8.7 miles) long and about 100 meters wide.
• It is geographically situated along the entire border between the Gaza Strip and the country of Egypt, stretching from the Mediterranean Sea to the Kerem Shalom border crossing.
• This buffer zone was established under the terms of the 1979 Egypt-Israel Peace Treaty to serve as a demilitarized area between the two nations.
• The primary strategic objective of the corridor is to act as a security barrier to prevent the smuggling of illicit materials, weapons, and personnel between the Sinai Peninsula and Gaza.
• The Rafah Crossing, which is the only land exit from the Gaza Strip not directly bordering Israel, is located along this critical corridor.

 Additional Information

• Philadelphi Accord (2005):
• Following Israel's unilateral disengagement from Gaza in 2005, Israel and Egypt signed this specific accord to regulate the security of the border.
• It authorized Egypt to deploy 750 border guards equipped with light weaponry to patrol the area and combat terrorism and cross-border smuggling.
• The accord ensured that the Egyptian deployment was for security purposes rather than military aggression, maintaining the spirit of the Camp David Accords.
• Recent Developments:
• The corridor has gained significant international attention during the 2023-2024 Israel-Hamas conflict, as control over this strip is viewed as vital for neutralizing underground smuggling tunnels.
• Geopolitically, the corridor remains one of the most sensitive zones in the Middle East, directly impacting the humanitarian and security situation in the region.

The correct answer is B.R. Ambedkar.

Key Points

• Annihilation of Caste is an undelivered speech written in 1936 by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution and a champion of Dalit rights.
• The text was originally prepared as the presidential address for the annual conference of the Jat-Pat-Todak Mandal, an anti-caste Hindu reformist group based in Lahore.
• The organizers cancelled the conference after reviewing the draft, as they found Ambedkar’s critique of Hindu religious texts, specifically the Vedas and Shastras, to be too radical and unacceptable.
• Following the cancellation, Ambedkar self-published the speech in book form, which eventually became a seminal work in Indian political and social philosophy.
• The book argues that the caste system is not merely a division of labor but a division of laborers based on graded inequality, and it calls for the total annihilation of the system rather than superficial reforms.
• It also features a famous exchange of arguments between Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi, who critiqued the work in his journal Harijan.

 Additional Information

• Dada Bhai Naurauji:
• Commonly referred to as the Grand Old Man of India.
• Authored the famous book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, which introduced the Drain of Wealth theory explaining how Britain was depleting India’s resources.
• Tarak Nath Das:
• An Indian revolutionary and scholar associated with the Ghadar Party.
• He founded the newspaper Free Hindustan in North America to advocate for India’s independence.
• Chittaranjan Das:
• Widely known by the title Deshbandhu (Friend of the Nation).
• He was a leading lawyer and the co-founder of the Swaraj Party in 1923 alongside Motilal Nehru.

The correct answer is Sania Mirza.

Key Points

• PV Sindhu is a decorated badminton player who secured a Silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a Bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Sania Mirza, a former World No. 1 in doubles, participated in four Olympic Games (2008, 2012, 2016, 2020) but never won a medal, finishing fourth in the Mixed Doubles at Rio 2016. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Saina Nehwal made history by winning the Bronze medal in Badminton at the 2012 London Olympics, becoming the first Indian shuttler to win an Olympic medal. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Mary Kom, an iconic boxer, clinched the Bronze medal in the flyweight category during the 2012 London Olympics. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Sania Mirza:
• She has won six Grand Slam titles, including three in Women's Doubles and three in Mixed Doubles.
• She was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2015 and the Padma Bhushan in 2016 for her contributions to sports.
• Olympic Milestones for India:
• Karnam Malleswari was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal (Bronze in Weightlifting, 2000).
• PV Sindhu is the only Indian woman to win two individual Olympic medals.
• Leander Paes remains the only Indian to win an Olympic medal in Tennis (Bronze, 1996).