General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 25 years.

Key Points

• The Lok Sabha, or the House of the People, is the Lower House of India’s bicameral Parliament.
• As per Article 84 (b) of the Constitution of India, a person must be a citizen of India and not less than 25 years of age to be eligible to contest elections for the Lok Sabha.
• This age requirement also applies to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) of various states across the country.
• The members of the Lok Sabha are elected through Direct Elections based on Universal Adult Suffrage for a normal term of five years.
• Apart from the age criteria, a candidate must be registered as an elector for any parliamentary constituency and must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Age Requirements for Other Offices:
• 30 years: This is the minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) as per Article 84 and Article 173 respectively.
• 35 years: This age limit is mandatory for the posts of the President of India (Article 58), the Vice-President of India (Article 66), and the Governor of a State (Article 157).
• 21 years: Following the 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendment Acts, the minimum age to contest elections for Panchayats and Municipalities is set at 21 years.
• 18 years: This is the minimum age for Voting in India. The 61^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326.

The correct answer is Puducherry.

Key Points

• Puducherry is a Union Territory that operates with a unique administrative structure including its own Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers.
• The creation of a legislature for Puducherry was made possible by the 14^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, which added Article 239A to the Constitution of India.
• The Puducherry Legislative Assembly comprises 33 members, out of which 30 are directly elected by the people and 3 are nominated by the Central Government.
• While the President of India governs the territory through a Lieutenant Governor, the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers handle the executive functions for subjects in the State List and Concurrent List, excluding certain reserved matters.
• This setup allows the territory to have a representative form of government, distinguishing it from most other Union Territories that are governed directly by the Union Government.

 Additional Information

• Union Territories with Legislatures:
• Delhi: Established as the National Capital Territory (NCT) with an assembly via the 69^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991 (Article 239AA).
• Jammu and Kashmir: Created as a UT with a legislative assembly under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
• Union Territories without Legislatures:
• Chandigarh: Serves as the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana; it is managed by an Administrator.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: An archipelago in the Bay of Bengal governed by a Lieutenant Governor without a local assembly.
• Lakshadweep: India's smallest UT, located in the Arabian Sea, administered through an Administrator appointed by the President.
• Ladakh: Separated from J&K in 2019, it functions as a UT without a legislative body.

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

• The Vice President of India holds a constitutional office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon their office.
• According to Article 67(a) of the Constitution of India, the Vice President may, by writing under their hand addressed to the President, resign their office.
• The resignation is a voluntary act and becomes effective as soon as it is accepted by the President of India.
• This provision ensures a formal constitutional protocol where the second-highest constitutional authority reports their departure to the highest authority of the Republic of India.

 Additional Information

• Vice President's Constitutional Role:
• The Vice President serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) as per Article 64.
• Under Article 65, the Vice President acts as the President during casual vacancies or the absence of the President.
• The election of the Vice President is conducted by an Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
• Other Resignation Hierarchies:
• The President submits their resignation letter to the Vice President, creating a reciprocal constitutional arrangement.
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• The Chief Justice of India and other Supreme Court Judges address their resignation to the President.
• The Prime Minister and other Union Ministers submit their resignations directly to the President.

The correct answer is Rasidi Ticket.

Key Points

• Amrita Pritam (1919−2005) was a legendary figure in Punjabi literature and was the first woman to be awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award.
• Her autobiography is titled Rasidi Ticket (translated as The Revenue Stamp), which was first published in 1976.
• The title of the book originated from a comment by the famous writer Khushwant Singh, who suggested that her life story was so brief it could be written on the back of a revenue stamp.
• The book is an intensely personal and honest account of her life, detailing her experiences during the Partition, her literary struggles, and her relationships with the poet Sahir Ludhianvi and the artist Imroz.

 Additional Information

• Pinjar (The Skeleton):
• This is a world-renowned novel written by Amrita Pritam in 1950.
• It deals with the traumatic events of the Partition of India and focuses on the plight of women, represented through the character Puro.
• Sunehade (Messages):
• This is a celebrated poetry collection published in 1955.
• It won her the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1956, making her the first female recipient of this prestigious Indian literary honor.
• Main Tenu Phir Milangi (I Will Meet You Again):
• This is one of her most famous and poignant poems, written as a tribute to her life partner, Imroz.
• It is widely regarded as a masterpiece of modern Punjabi poetry, expressing the theme of eternal love.
• Other Awards:
• In 1981, she received the Jnanpith Award, India's highest literary award, for her collection Kagaz Te Kanvas.
• She was also honored with the Padma Shri in 1969 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2004.

The correct answer is Central Pollution Control Board.

Key Points

• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization established in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• It was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, making it the apex body for monitoring environmental quality in India.
• The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2014 to disseminate real-time information about air quality in an easily understandable format for the general public.
• CPCB operates the Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring System (CAAQMS), which provides live data on pollutant concentrations across various cities.
• The AQI calculates a single value based on eight major pollutants: Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), and Lead (Pb).
• Air quality is classified into six categories: Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.

 Additional Information

• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog):
• Formed on January 1, 2015, it replaced the Planning Commission.
• It serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, promoting cooperative federalism.
• Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR):
• Established in 1942, it is one of the largest research and development (R&D) organizations in India.
• While it conducts research on environmental engineering through its lab NEERI, it is not the primary agency for regulatory real-time monitoring.
• Sameer App:
• An official mobile application developed by the CPCB that provides hourly updates of the National Air Quality Index and allows citizens to lodge complaints related to air pollution.

The correct answer is Alert citizens about upcoming high pollution days.

Key Points

• The Air Quality Early Warning System (AQEWS) is an integrated system designed to provide advance information about anticipated air quality deterioration, specifically in the Delhi-NCR region.
• Developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, the system uses complex mathematical models to predict pollution levels up to 72 hours to 10 days in advance.
• The primary objective is to facilitate proactive decision-making by authorities and allow citizens to take preventive health measures during periods of extreme pollution.
• It utilizes real-time data from satellite observations, including Aerosol Optical Depth (AOD) and active fire counts, to estimate the contribution of stubble burning to local air quality.

 Additional Information

• The system is a crucial component of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), which dictates specific emergency measures like banning construction or vehicle entry based on Air Quality Index (AQI) forecasts.
• Pollutants Tracked: The system focuses heavily on PM2.5, PM10, and Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), which are the primary drivers of respiratory ailments.
• Regulatory Framework: It works in coordination with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
• Technological Scope: Unlike industrial air filtration which uses Electrostatic Precipitators, this is an informatics tool for monitoring and prediction rather than a mechanical cleaning device.
• Alternative Monitoring: Concepts like soil contamination or water pollution fall under different regulatory systems, such as the National Water Quality Monitoring Programme, and are not the focus of AQEWS.

The correct answer is 2013.

Key Points

• The Indian Badminton League (IBL), which served as the precursor to the current Premier Badminton League (PBL), successfully held its inaugural edition in 2013.
• The tournament was organized by the Badminton Association of India (BAI) and took place from August 14 to August 31, 2013, featuring top-tier domestic and international talent.
• A total of six city-based franchises participated in the first edition, including Hyderabad Hotshots, Awadhe Warriors, Pune Pistons, Mumbai Masters, Banga Beats, and Krrish Delhi Smashers.
• The championship match of the 2013 season was played at the Sardar Patel Stadium in Mumbai, where the Hyderabad Hotshots defeated the Awadhe Warriors with a final score of 3-1.
• The league was led by prominent icon players, such as Saina Nehwal for the Hyderabad franchise and Lee Chong Wei for the Mumbai franchise, which significantly enhanced the commercial appeal of badminton in India.

 Additional Information

• Premier Badminton League (PBL):
• After a hiatus following the 2013 season, the league was rebranded as the Premier Badminton League for its second edition, which commenced in January 2016.
• The PBL has since become one of the most-watched badminton leagues globally, attracting elite players like P.V. Sindhu, Carolina Marin, and Viktor Axelsen.
• The league follows a unique points system and match format designed to make the sport more fast-paced and television-friendly for a global audience.
• Badminton Association of India (BAI):
• The BAI is the official governing body for the sport in India, responsible for hosting national championships and managing the Indian Badminton League ecosystem.
• Headquartered in New Delhi, the association plays a pivotal role in the development of grassroots talent and the selection of athletes for the Olympic Games and BWF World Tour.

The correct answer is Olfactory receptors.

Key Points

• Olfactory receptors are specialized sensory neurons located within the olfactory epithelium, a small patch of tissue at the top of the nasal cavity.
• These receptors are responsible for the sense of olfaction (smell) by detecting airborne odorant molecules that enter the nose during inhalation.
• When an odorant binds to a specific receptor, it initiates a biochemical cascade that generates an electrical signal or nerve impulse.
• This signal is transmitted through the Olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) directly to the olfactory bulb in the brain, which then processes the information to identify the scent.
• Humans possess approximately 10 million to 20 million olfactory receptor cells, enabling the detection of a vast array of distinct chemical compounds.

 Additional Information

• Gustatory receptors:
• These are the sensory receptors responsible for the sense of taste.
• They are primarily clustered in taste buds located on the papillae of the tongue, soft palate, and epiglottis.
• They detect five basic modalities: sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami.
• Auditory receptors:
• These receptors, known as hair cells, are responsible for the sense of hearing.
• They are located within the Organ of Corti inside the cochlea of the inner ear.
• They convert mechanical sound vibrations into electrical signals sent to the brain via the vestibulocochlear nerve.
• Visual receptors:
• These are photoreceptors located in the retina of the eye.
• Rods are sensitive to low light levels and provide peripheral and night vision.
• Cones are responsible for color vision and high-spatial acuity in bright light.

The correct answer is Statecraft and administration.

Key Points

• The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian Sanskrit treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy, traditionally attributed to Kautilya (also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta), who was the prime minister and mentor of Chandragupta Maurya.
• The text is a comprehensive manual for a ruler, focusing on how to manage a kingdom efficiently, maintain law and order, and expand the state's influence through both diplomatic and military means.
• It introduces the Saptanga Theory, which describes the state as an organic entity composed of seven elements: Swami (the King), Amatya (Ministers), Janapada (Territory and Population), Durga (Fort), Kosha (Treasury), Danda (Army), and Mitra (Ally).
• The treatise details the Mandala Theory of foreign policy, illustrating a complex system of inter-state relations based on the principle that a neighbor is a natural enemy and a neighbor's neighbor is a natural friend.
• It provides exhaustive guidance on taxation, agriculture, trade, espionage, and the legal system, emphasizing that the welfare of the people is the primary responsibility of the sovereign.

 Additional Information

• The Arthashastra is structured into 15 Adhikaranas (books), 150 chapters, and 180 topics, making it one of the most organized political texts of antiquity.
• Poetry and literature: While ancient India produced vast literary works like the Mahabharata and Ramayana, the Arthashastra is strictly a pragmatic and secular document.
• Religious rituals: These are primarily the domain of the Vedas, Brahmanas, and Upanishads; Kautilya focuses on Artha (material prosperity) rather than Dharma (religious duty) in a purely ritualistic sense.
• Astronomy: Scientific treatises like the Aryabhatiya or Surya Siddhanta deal with celestial movements, whereas the Arthashastra limits its scope to geopolitical and socio-economic governance.

The correct answer is Self-sufficiency in steel and heavy industry.

Key Points

• The establishment of the Bhilai, Rourkela, and Durgapur steel plants was a strategic move during the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961) to lay the foundation for industrialization in India.
• The primary objective was to achieve self-sufficiency in the production of iron and steel, which are the basic requirements for manufacturing machinery, building infrastructure, and expanding the railway network.
• This industrial strategy was guided by the Mahalanobis Model, which advocated for heavy investment in capital goods industries to ensure long-term economic independence and reduce the need for foreign imports.
• These plants were located in the resource-rich regions of eastern and central India to utilize local iron ore and coal deposits effectively, fostering regional economic growth.
• By focusing on heavy industry, the government aimed to create a multiplier effect that would generate demand and provide raw materials for various other sectors of the economy.

 Additional Information

• Specific Plant Collaborations:
• Bhilai Steel Plant: Set up in Chhattisgarh with the technical and financial assistance of the USSR (Soviet Union) in 1955.
• Rourkela Steel Plant: Established in Odisha in 1959 with the collaboration of German firms (Krupp and Demag). It was the first to use the LD process of steelmaking in India.
• Durgapur Steel Plant: Developed in West Bengal with the help of a British consortium of companies, becoming operational in the early 1960s.
• Industrial Policy Context:
• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 categorized industries into three schedules, giving the State exclusive responsibility for the growth of the steel sector.
• Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) was initially formed to manage these plants before they were brought under the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) in 1973.
• The Second Five-Year Plan is often called the Industrial and Transport Plan due to its massive shift away from the agricultural focus of the First Plan (1951–1956).

The correct answer is Both were designed for military service in exchange for revenue rights.

Key Points

• The Iqta system was a centralized administrative and land revenue system introduced by the Delhi Sultanate, reaching its systematic form under Sultan Iltutmish in the 13^th century.
• Under this mechanism, the Sultan assigned the right to collect land revenue from specific territories, known as Iqtas, to military officers and nobles called Iqtadars or Muqtis.
• The primary function of an Iqtadar was to maintain a standing army of a specified size, which was to be presented for the Sultan’s service during wars or emergencies.
• Similarly, Feudalism in Medieval Europe was a social and political hierarchy where the Crown granted land, known as fiefs, to vassals or lords.
• The vassals were obligated to provide military service and political counsel to their superior in exchange for the right to govern and extract economic benefits from the granted land.
• Therefore, the fundamental resemblance between the two systems is their reliance on decentralized land revenue to sustain a military force without the need for a massive central cash treasury.

 Additional Information

• Hereditary nature and differences:
• Initially, the Iqta system was strictly non-hereditary and Iqtadars were frequently transferred to prevent them from developing local roots or challenging the Sultan’s authority.
• In contrast, European Feudalism was inherently hereditary, with land and titles passing from father to son, leading to more permanent local power structures.
• However, during the reign of Firoz Shah Tughlaq, the Iqta system was made hereditary, which increased the resemblance to the European model but eventually weakened the central authority of the Sultanate.
• Administrative Roles:
• The Muqti or Iqtadar was responsible for law and order within their territory and was required to send the surplus revenue (fawazil) to the central treasury after meeting military and personal expenses.
• The Feudal system in Europe was more comprehensive, involving a complex web of manorialism where peasants (serfs) were legally tied to the land owned by the lord.

The correct answer is Indian Councils Act, 1909.

Key Points

• The Indian Councils Act, 1909, commonly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the elective principle for the first time, marking a significant step in the representation of Indians in the legislative process.
• It substantially increased the size of the Central Legislative Council (then the Imperial Legislative Council) from 16 to 60 members, allowing for a wider range of Indian voices.
• The act provided for the first time the association of Indians with the Executive Council of the Viceroy; Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join as a Law Member.
• It expanded the deliberative functions of the legislative councils, empowering members to move resolutions on the budget and ask supplementary questions for the first time.
• A controversial yet major feature was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims, establishing the system of communal representation where Muslim members were elected only by Muslim voters.

 Additional Information

• Indian Councils Act, 1861:
• It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process through the nomination of non-official members.
• In 1862, Lord Canning nominated the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao to the council.
• Indian Councils Act, 1892:
• It introduced the principle of representation through an indirect elective process called recommendations by local bodies.
• It increased the number of additional members and allowed them to discuss the budget, though they could not vote on it.
• Government of India Act, 1919:
• Also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, it introduced bicameralism at the center, creating the Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.
• It introduced direct elections in the country for the first time and established dyarchy (dual government) in the provinces.

The correct answer is August.

Key Points

• The Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA), or the Drug-Free India Campaign, was officially launched by the Government of India on August 15, 2020.
• The initiative is spearheaded by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and serves as a flagship program to combat substance abuse through mass community mobilization.
• Since the launch date is fixed to the Independence Day of 2020, every milestone anniversary is celebrated annually in the month of August.
• The year 2025 marks the completion of five full years of the campaign, making August 2025 the month of its 5^th anniversary celebration.
• The campaign was initially implemented in 272 most vulnerable districts identified by the Narcotics Control Bureau and the ministry based on the Comprehensive National Survey on Extent and Pattern of Substance Use in India.

 Additional Information

• Key Objectives and Achievements:
• The NMBA focuses on demand reduction and raising awareness among youth, educational institutions, and the general community.
• By 2024, the campaign had already reached over 11 crore people, including a massive involvement of 3.5 crore students and 8,000 master volunteers.
• It utilizes State-level and District-level Nasha Mukt Bharat Committees for localized implementation and monitoring.
• Strategic Pillars:
• Supply Reduction: Handled by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) to prevent the flow of illicit drugs.
• Demand Reduction: Focused on counseling, rehabilitation, and community awareness activities led by the Ministry of Social Justice.
• Harm Reduction: Providing specialized healthcare and treatment facilities to those suffering from addiction.
• Global Alignment:
• The mission aligns with United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 3.5, which aims to strengthen the prevention and treatment of substance abuse globally.

The correct answer is Lord Shiva.

Key Points

• The Kanwar Yatra is a major annual pilgrimage in Northern India, particularly across the state of Uttarakhand, dedicated to the worship of Lord Shiva.
• The participants of this pilgrimage are known as Kanwariyas, who travel to sacred river banks like Haridwar, Gaumukh, and Gangotri to fetch holy water from the River Ganga.
• The yatra predominantly takes place during the auspicious Hindu month of Shravan (July–August), which is traditionally dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• Devotees carry the holy water in pitchers called Kanwars, which are balanced on bamboo poles, and often walk hundreds of kilometers barefoot to reach their destinations.
• The pilgrimage concludes with the Jalabhishek (ritual offering of water) to Shivalingas at local temples or major shrines like Baidyanath Dham on the day of Maha Shivratri or Sawan Shivratri.

 Additional Information

• Deities and Traditions:
• Goddess Lakshmi: She is the deity of wealth, fortune, and prosperity. Her primary worship occurs during the festival of Diwali and Sharad Purnima.
• Lord Ganesha: Recognized as the remover of obstacles and the god of new beginnings. His most significant festival is Ganesh Chaturthi, widely celebrated in Maharashtra and surrounding regions.
• Goddess Durga: Representing Shakti or divine feminine energy, she is the protector of the universe. Her worship is central to the ten-day festival of Navratri and Durga Puja.
• Uttarakhand Culture: Often referred to as Devbhoomi (Land of the Gods), it is home to the Chota Char Dham circuit, which includes sites dedicated to Vishnu, Shiva, and the river goddesses Ganga and Yamuna.

Concept:

The discovery of new plant species is a critical aspect of biodiversity research in India. New species are identified through morphological and molecular analysis by organizations like the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) or academic researchers. The naming of a species often reflects its geographic origin, a notable person, or its national significance.

Given

• Name of the new species: Portulaca Bharat
• Genus: Portulaca (a group of succulent flowering plants)
• Month of Discovery: June 2025

Calculation

1. The genus Portulaca belongs to the family Portulacaceae, which are typically found in arid and semi-arid regions due to their succulent nature and ability to withstand high temperatures.
2. The Aravalli hills are one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world, stretching through the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and the Union Territory of Delhi.
3. This region provides a unique micro-habitat for xerophytic (dry-climate) plants. Researchers identifying the species Portulaca Bharat in this region highlight the ecological richness of the Aravalli Range, which acts as a natural barrier against the expansion of the Thar Desert.
4. While other species of this genus, like Portulaca laljii, have been found in the Eastern Ghats, the specific discovery of Portulaca Bharat is localized to the Aravalli hills according to the recent biological findings of 2025.

Final Answer: ✅ Aravalli hills

The correct answer is They get detached and drop out.

Key Points

• Ultrasonic cleaning utilizes high-frequency sound waves, typically ranging from 20 kHz to 400 kHz, to remove contaminants from various objects.
• When these waves are transmitted through a cleaning liquid, they create alternating high-pressure and low-pressure cycles, leading to a phenomenon called acoustic cavitation.
• During the low-pressure cycle, millions of microscopic bubbles or voids form in the liquid; these bubbles grow until they reach an unstable size.
• In the high-pressure cycle, these bubbles implode violently, releasing a significant amount of energy in the form of localized shock waves.
• This rapid implosion creates an intense scrubbing action that acts on the surface of the submerged object, reaching into deep crevices, holes, and cracks.
• The mechanical force generated by these shock waves effectively breaks the adhesion between the object and the contaminants, such as dust, grease, and dirt, causing them to be physically dislodged.
• Once the bond is broken, these particles are detached from the surface and eventually drop out or remain suspended in the cleaning solution.

 Additional Information

• Cavitation Intensity:
• Higher frequencies (e.g., 80 kHz to 120 kHz) produce smaller, gentler bubbles, ideal for delicate items like electronics or optical lenses.
• Lower frequencies (e.g., 25 kHz to 40 kHz) produce larger, more powerful bubbles suited for heavy-duty cleaning of engine parts or industrial machinery.
• Contaminant Behavior:
• Particles do not evaporate or burn because the process is mechanical and occurs at temperatures far below the boiling or combustion points of the dirt.
• While a chemical solvent in the solution may help some grease to dissolve, the defining feature of ultrasonic technology is the physical detachment of insoluble particles.
• Applications:
• It is the preferred method for cleaning surgical instruments, jewelry, and watch movements where manual cleaning might cause damage or fail to reach hidden areas.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, the Jain community is identified as the most urbanized religious group in India. Data reveals that approximately 79.7% of the total Jain population resides in urban areas, which is significantly higher than any other religious community. Their concentration is primarily driven by their historical and traditional involvement in trade, commerce, finance, and mercantile activities that are predominantly centered in cities such as Mumbai, Ahmedabad, and Delhi. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Christian population in India displays a more balanced distribution between rural and urban sectors but remains a majority rural group. According to the 2011 Census, about 40% of Christians live in urban areas, while roughly 60% reside in rural regions. This is especially true in states with high Christian populations like Kerala and the North-Eastern states (such as Nagaland and Meghalaya), where agrarian and tribal lifestyles are more common. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• The Census 2011 highlights distinct urbanization trends across major religious groups in India:
• Hindus: As the largest religious group, they have an urbanization rate of approximately 32.7%, with the vast majority remaining in rural villages.
• Muslims: They are the second most urbanized major group, with about 44% of their population living in urban centers, often engaged in small-scale manufacturing and artisanal trades.
• Sikhs: This community has one of the lowest urbanization rates at about 28.1%, largely due to their deep connection to agricultural land in Punjab and Haryana.
• Buddhists: Roughly 43% of the Buddhist population is urbanized, with a major concentration in urban clusters within Maharashtra.

The correct answer is devaluation.

Key Points

• Devaluation refers to the deliberate downward adjustment of the value of a country's currency relative to another currency, a group of currencies, or a standard like gold. This policy tool is exclusively used within a Fixed Exchange Rate System.
• In this context, increasing the exchange rate means that more units of the domestic currency are required to purchase one unit of a foreign currency (e.g., shifting from 70 to 80 units of domestic currency per USD). This action directly makes the domestic currency cheaper or less valuable in the international market.
• The primary objective of devaluation is often to correct a Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit. By making domestic goods cheaper for foreign buyers, it encourages Exports, while making foreign goods more expensive for domestic consumers, thereby discouraging Imports.
• A significant historical instance occurred in India in July 1991, when the Reserve Bank of India devalued the Rupee by approximately 18-19 percent in two steps to address a severe economic crisis and low foreign exchange reserves.

 Additional Information

• Revaluation:
• This is the opposite of devaluation within a fixed exchange rate system. It involves an official upward adjustment of the currency value by the government or Central Bank, making the domestic currency stronger and foreign goods cheaper.
• Depreciation and Appreciation:
• Depreciation refers to a decrease in a currency's value caused by market forces (demand and supply) rather than government mandate. This occurs in a Flexible (Floating) Exchange Rate System.
• Appreciation refers to an increase in the currency's value due to market demand in a floating system.
• Managed Floating System:
• This is a hybrid system where the exchange rate is primarily determined by the market, but the Central Bank intervenes occasionally to stabilize or influence the rate, often referred to as a dirty float.

The correct answer is International Solar Alliance.

Key Points

• The Towards 1000 strategy is a flagship initiative launched by the International Solar Alliance (ISA) during the COP26 climate summit held in Glasgow in 2021.
• This strategic framework aims to mobilize USD 1 trillion (1,000 billion) in solar energy investments by the year 2030 to accelerate the global transition to clean energy.
• The initiative is centered around four pillars: providing energy access to 1,000 million people, facilitating the installation of 1,000 GW of solar energy capacity, and achieving the mitigation of 1,000 million tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions annually.
• It focuses on scaling up solar technologies in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS) to ensure equitable energy distribution and climate resilience.
• The strategy also emphasizes the development of the One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) project to interconnect solar energy networks across different continents.

 Additional Information

• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• It was launched jointly by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on 30 November 2015 at the COP21 in Paris.
• The alliance is headquartered in Gurugram, India, making it the first international intergovernmental organization to have its headquarters in India.
• The ISA serves as an action-oriented platform for the increased deployment of solar energy technologies to enhance energy security and drive sustainable development.
• World Trade Organisation (WTO):
• Established in 1995, this body deals with the global rules of trade between nations and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• International Court of Justice (ICJ):
• Known as the World Court, it is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations and is located at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands.
• SAARC:
• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation was established in 1985 to promote economic and regional integration in South Asia, with its secretariat in Kathmandu, Nepal.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India secured the bronze medal in the men's hockey competition at the Paris Olympics 2024 by defeating Spain with a scoreline of 2-1.
• The high-stakes bronze medal match was contested at the Yves-du-Manoir Stadium on August 8, 2024.
• Indian captain Harmanpreet Singh was the star performer, scoring both goals for the team via penalty corners in the 30^th and 33^rd minutes of the game.
• This victory marked India's second consecutive Olympic bronze medal in hockey, following their success at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• This win represents India's 13^th overall Olympic medal in field hockey, maintaining its record as the most successful nation in the history of the sport at the Summer Games.
• The match also marked the final international appearance of legendary goalkeeper P.R. Sreejesh, often celebrated as the 'Great Wall of India', who retired after the tournament.

 Additional Information

• Netherlands:
• Claimed the gold medal in the men's event after defeating Germany in a penalty shootout.
• This victory ended their 24-year wait for an Olympic gold in men's hockey.
• Germany:
• Finished the tournament with the silver medal after a closely contested final match.
• Individual and Team Statistics:
• Harmanpreet Singh finished as the top goal-scorer of the Paris 2024 hockey tournament with a total of 10 goals.
• The Paris 2024 edition featured 12 teams in the men's category, divided into two pools of six teams each.
• This was the first time in 52 years (since the 1972 Munich Games) that India won medals in back-to-back Olympic Games.