General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Comptroller and Auditor General.

Key Points

• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an independent authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India.
• The CAG serves as the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and acts as the guardian of the public purse, ensuring financial accountability of the executive to the Parliament.
• According to Article 149, the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, the Consolidated Fund of each State, and the Consolidated Fund of each Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly.
• The CAG also audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India, as well as the contingency fund and public account of each state.
• Under Article 151, the audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament.

 Additional Information

• Finance Commission:
• Established under Article 280 of the Constitution, it is a quasi-judicial body that recommends the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid.
• NITI Aayog:
• Replacing the Planning Commission on January 1, 2015, it is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body serving as the premier policy Think Tank of the Government of India.
• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
• A constitutional body established under Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV, responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.

The correct answer is Financial Emergency.

Key Points

• The Emergency Provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, spanning from Article 352 to Article 360.
• Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
• Although India faced a severe economic crisis in 1991 related to the balance of payments, a Financial Emergency was not declared.
• To date, the Government of India has never invoked Article 360; therefore, a Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in the country.

 Additional Information

• National Emergency (Article 352):
• It is proclaimed on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• In India, it has been proclaimed three times: in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pak war), and 1975 (internal disturbance).
• The 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 replaced the term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.
• President's Rule (Article 356):
• Also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency, it is imposed when a State Government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
• This has been proclaimed numerous times (more than 100 instances) across various states since 1950.
• Punjab was the first state where President's Rule was imposed in 1951.
• Approval and Duration:
• A National Emergency must be approved by Parliament within one month, whereas President's Rule and Financial Emergency must be approved within two months.
• Once approved, Financial Emergency continues indefinitely until it is revoked by the President.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• According to Article 165 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of each state has the authority to appoint the Advocate General for the State.
• To be eligible for the appointment, the person must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court, which requires being a citizen of India and having held a judicial office for ten years or served as an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years.
• The Advocate General serves as the highest law officer of the state government, providing legal advice and representing the state in legal matters assigned by the Governor.
• The Constitution does not provide a fixed tenure for the Advocate General; the official holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and receives remuneration as determined by the Governor.
• Conventionally, the Advocate General resigns when the Council of Ministers (government) resigns or is replaced, as they are appointed on its advice.

 Additional Information

• President:
• The President of India is responsible for appointing the Attorney General of India under Article 76, who is the corresponding highest law officer at the central level.
• Chief Minister:
• The Governor exercises the power of appointment based on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Chief Minister.
• State Legislature:
• While the State Legislature does not appoint the Advocate General, the official has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council (under Article 177) without the right to vote.

The correct answer is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Key Points

• The human ear is sensitive to sound waves within a specific frequency range, typically spanning from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (or 20 kHz).
• Frequency is defined as the number of vibrations or cycles per second, and its SI unit is the Hertz (Hz).
• Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves that require a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel; they cannot propagate through a vacuum.
• The human ear is most sensitive to frequencies between 2,000 Hz and 5,000 Hz, which is the range where most human speech and communication occur.
• The anatomy of the ear, specifically the tympanic membrane (eardrum) and the cochlea, is biologically tuned to process vibrations within this specific audible spectrum.

 Additional Information

• Infrasonic Sound:
• Refers to sounds with frequencies below 20 Hz, which are too low for the human ear to perceive.
• These waves are produced by large-scale phenomena such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and ocean waves.
• Certain animals like elephants, hippos, and whales utilize infrasound for long-distance communication.
• Ultrasonic Sound:
• Refers to sounds with frequencies exceeding 20,000 Hz, which are beyond the upper limit of human hearing.
• Used extensively in medical ultrasonography (sonography) for imaging internal organs and in industrial applications like non-destructive testing.
• Animals such as bats, dolphins, and porpoises use ultrasound for echolocation to navigate and hunt in the dark or underwater.
• Hearing Variations:
• The upper limit of hearing typically decreases with age, a physiological phenomenon known as presbycusis.
• Children can often hear frequencies slightly above 20,000 Hz, whereas elderly adults may have a restricted range ending at 12,000 Hz or lower.

The correct answer is Hyperion.

Key Points

• Hyperion is an epic poem written by the second-generation Romantic poet John Keats, not William Wordsworth. Composed between 1818 and 1819 and published in 1820, the poem deals with the Titanomachia, specifically the despair of the Titans after their fall to the Olympians.
• The Excursion is a long philosophical poem by William Wordsworth, published in 1814. It was intended to be the second part of a massive, unfinished three-part work titled The Recluse.
• Ode: Intimations of Immortality from Recollections of Early Childhood is one of Wordsworth's most celebrated odes. Completed in 1804 and published in 1807 in Poems, in Two Volumes, it explores the theme of the divine nature of childhood and the subsequent loss of that vision in adulthood.
• Michael is a renowned pastoral narrative poem by William Wordsworth. Written in 1800 and included in the second edition of Lyrical Ballads, it tells the tragic story of an elderly shepherd and his son, Luke, set in the Lake District.

 Additional Information

• William Wordsworth (1770–1850):
• He served as the Poet Laureate of the United Kingdom from 1843 until his death.
• He is best known for co-authoring Lyrical Ballads (1798) with Samuel Taylor Coleridge, which helped launch the Romantic Age in English literature.
• His magnum opus is generally considered to be The Prelude, an autobiographical poem published posthumously in 1850.
• John Keats (1795–1821):
• A key figure in the Romantic movement along with Lord Byron and Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Hyperion remained unfinished and was later reworked into The Fall of Hyperion: A Dream.
• His work is characterized by sensuous imagery and the exploration of negative capability.

The correct answer is Vehicle exhaust.

Key Points

• PM2.5 refers to atmospheric particulate matter with a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers, which is small enough to enter the bloodstream and cause severe cardiovascular and respiratory diseases.
• In urban India, the transportation sector (vehicle exhaust) is consistently identified as the largest primary contributor to PM2.5 levels. Source apportionment studies by IIT Kanpur and the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) indicate that vehicles contribute between 28% and 47% of the total PM2.5 load in major cities like Delhi and Mumbai.
• Vehicle exhaust is particularly critical because it releases pollutants at the ground level, leading to higher human exposure compared to industrial stacks which disperse pollutants at greater heights.
• While Construction dust is a significant source of coarser particles (PM10), its relative contribution to the finer PM2.5 fraction is typically lower than that of combustion-related sources.
• Industrial emissions are major contributors in specific industrial zones, but on a city-wide average for residential and commercial urban areas, the sheer volume of diesel and petrol vehicles makes exhaust the dominant source.

 Additional Information

• Industrial emissions:
• These involve pollutants from power plants and manufacturing units, primarily contributing sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides, which can form secondary PM2.5 in the atmosphere.
• Construction dust:
• Comprises crustal materials like silica and cement particles; while it adds to the dust load, it is generally easier to mitigate through water sprinkling and green barriers compared to chemical exhausts.
• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• Launched in 2019, this initiative aims for a 20% to 30% reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations by 2024 across 131 non-attainment cities in India.
• Bharat Stage VI (BS-VI):
• India skipped BS-V and transitioned directly to BS-VI norms on April 1, 2020, to drastically reduce particulate matter and nitrogen oxide emissions from new vehicles.

The correct answer is Rain.

Key Points

• Rain or precipitation acts as a natural air purifier through a process known as wet deposition. It is the most effective meteorological mechanism for the temporary removal of pollutants from the atmosphere.
• As raindrops fall, they collide with and capture suspended particulate matter (including PM10 and PM2.5) through mechanical processes such as impaction, diffusion, and interception. This is technically referred to as below-cloud scavenging or washout.
• Rain also facilitates the removal of soluble gaseous pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) by dissolving them into water droplets, which then reach the ground.
• The physical removal of these contaminants leads to a rapid decrease in the concentration of pollutants in the immediate breathing zone, resulting in a significantly lower Air Quality Index (AQI) reading.

 Additional Information

• Temperature Inversion:
• This phenomenon occurs when a layer of warm air sits above a layer of cooler air near the surface, reversing the normal lapse rate.
• It acts as a lid or atmospheric cap, preventing vertical mixing and trapping pollutants close to the ground, which drastically increases AQI levels.
• Calm Wind:
• Wind is essential for the horizontal dispersion and dilution of air pollutants.
• Stagnant or calm wind conditions allow pollutants to accumulate in one area, leading to high concentrations of carbon monoxide (CO) and other vehicular emissions.
• High Humidity without Rain:
• Moisture can lead to hygroscopic growth, where particles absorb water and expand, reducing visibility and potentially forming secondary aerosols.
• Without actual precipitation to wash the particles away, high humidity often worsens the haze and maintains high PM levels.

The correct answer is 2018, Jakarta.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra scripted history by winning his first-ever Asian Games gold medal in the men's javelin throw event during the 2018 Asian Games, which were co-hosted by Jakarta and Palembang in Indonesia.
• The final event took place on August 27, 2018, at the Gelora Bung Karno Main Stadium, where he delivered a powerful performance.
• He achieved the gold medal with a throw of 88.06 meters, which set a new National Record for India at that time and was nearly six meters ahead of the silver medalist.
• This victory made him the first Indian javelin thrower to ever win a gold medal in the history of the Asian Games, cementing his status as a world-class athlete.
• His triumph in Jakarta followed a string of successes, including gold medals at the 2018 Commonwealth Games in Gold Coast and the 2017 Asian Athletics Championships.

 Additional Information

• Major Career Achievements:
• Tokyo 2020 Olympics: He became the first Indian track and field athlete to win an individual Olympic gold medal with a throw of 87.58 meters in 2021.
• 2022 Asian Games (Hangzhou): He successfully defended his title at the 19^th Asian Games in China (held in 2023) by winning gold with a season-best throw of 88.88 meters.
• World Athletics Championships: Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal at the 2023 Budapest World Championships and a silver medal at the 2022 Eugene World Championships.
• Diamond League: In 2022, he became the first Indian to win the Diamond League Trophy at the final held in Zurich.
• World Ranking: He achieved the World Number 1 ranking in the Men's Javelin Throw category as per World Athletics in May 2023.
• Awards: For his extraordinary contributions to sports, he was conferred with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2021 and the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2022.

The correct answer is Build muscle mass.

Key Points

• Anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS) are synthetic derivatives of the naturally occurring male hormone testosterone. The term anabolic specifically refers to the process of building up metabolic tissue, while androgenic refers to the development of male sexual characteristics.
• The primary mechanism through which these substances work is by binding to androgen receptors within muscle cells. This activation stimulates protein synthesis and promotes nitrogen retention in the muscles, which are critical components for hypertrophy (increased muscle size).
• Athletes and bodybuilders misuse these drugs to achieve a rate of muscle growth and physical strength that far exceeds what is naturally attainable through diet and exercise alone. This allows for a more significant lean body mass and enhanced physical appearance. Hence, the statement Build muscle mass is correct.
• Beyond simple growth, anabolic steroids help in the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and promote the expansion of satellite cells, which are essential for repairing and thickening muscle fibers after high-intensity training sessions.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Other Functional Effects:
• Increase endurance: While some steroids may slightly improve recovery, endurance is primarily enhanced through Erythropoietin (EPO) or blood doping, which increases red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity.
• Enhance flexibility: Steroids do not improve flexibility; in fact, excessive muscle bulk and the tightening of tendons can sometimes lead to a decreased range of motion.
• Reduce fatigue: Although steroids allow for faster recovery between workouts by reducing muscle damage and inflammation, they are not classified as stimulants or fatigue-reducing agents like caffeine or amphetamines.
• Health Risks of Misuse:
• Cardiovascular issues such as hypertension, increased LDL cholesterol, and risk of heart attacks.
• Hormonal imbalances leading to gynecomastia in men and virilization (masculinization) in women.
• Potential for liver damage (hepatotoxicity), especially with oral formulations, and psychological effects often referred to as roid rage.

The correct answer is Iodine.

Key Points

• The thyroid gland, a butterfly-shaped endocrine organ located in the neck, requires Iodine to synthesize its primary hormones, Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3).
• Iodine is a trace element that is sequestered from the bloodstream by the thyroid follicular cells; the number '4' in Thyroxine specifically refers to the four atoms of iodine attached to the molecular structure.
• The primary function of thyroxine is to regulate the body's basal metabolic rate (BMR), which controls how efficiently the body transforms nutrients into energy.
• In the absence of sufficient Iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough hormones, causing a feedback loop where the Pituitary Gland overstimulates the thyroid, often resulting in an enlargement known as a Goiter.
• Dietary sources of Iodine include iodized salt, seafood, dairy products, and certain vegetables grown in iodine-rich soil, making it essential for preventing hypothyroidism.

 Additional Information

• Calcium
• It is the most abundant mineral in the body, primarily stored in bones and teeth to provide structural support.
• It is vital for nerve transmission, muscle contraction, and the activation of blood clotting factors.
• Sodium
• It is the principal cation in the extracellular fluid, playing a dominant role in maintaining osmotic pressure and fluid balance.
• It is essential for the conduction of nerve impulses and the transport of nutrients like glucose across cell membranes.
• Potassium
• It acts as the main intracellular cation and is critical for maintaining resting membrane potential in neurons and muscle cells.
• Proper levels are necessary to regulate heartbeat and prevent cardiac arrhythmias.

The correct answer is Finance Minister of India.

Key Points

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, which was inserted by the 101^st Amendment Act, 2016.
• The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, who acts as the ex-officio head. Currently, this position is held by Nirmala Sitharaman.
• It serves as a joint forum between the Union and the States to make recommendations on complex issues related to GST, including tax rates, exemptions, threshold limits, and dispute resolution.
• The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance serves as a member, along with Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation nominated by each State Government.
• The GST Council ensures a harmonized structure of indirect taxation across the country, embodying the principle of Cooperative Federalism.

 Additional Information

• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister serves as the head of the Union Council of Ministers and chairs bodies like the NITI Aayog and the National Selection Committee.
• While the Prime Minister oversees the overall economic vision, they do not participate in the day-to-day administrative meetings or the chairing of the GST Council.
• RBI Governor:
• The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India chairs the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and is responsible for managing inflation and liquidity.
• The RBI is a regulatory body for the banking sector and does not have a voting or chairing role in fiscal policy bodies like the GST Council.
• NITI Aayog CEO:
• The Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog is a high-ranking civil servant who manages the administrative affairs of the National Institution for Transforming India.
• The CEO provides strategic inputs for long-term policy but does not hold a constitutional chair in the tax council.
• Voting Mechanism:
• Decisions in the GST Council are taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths (75%) of the weighted votes.
• The Central Government holds one-third (33.33%) of the total weightage, while the State Governments combined hold two-thirds (66.67%) of the total weightage of votes cast.

The correct answer is The Marathas.

Key Points

• Aurangzeb spent the last 26 years of his reign (from 1681 to 1707) in the Deccan, moving his capital from Delhi to Aurangabad to personally supervise military operations. The primary objective was to crush the rising Maratha power, which had become a significant threat to Mughal supremacy under the leadership of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and his successors.
• He sought to annex the Deccan Sultanates of Bijapur (conquered in 1686) and Golconda (conquered in 1687). Aurangzeb believed that these Shia kingdoms were providing sanctuary and military support to the Marathas, and their elimination was essential to isolate the Maratha resistance.
• Following the capture and execution of Chhatrapati Sambhaji in 1689, Aurangzeb believed the campaign would conclude quickly; however, it triggered the Maratha War of Independence. This decentralized resistance, led by leaders like Rajaram and Tarabai, utilized guerrilla warfare to exhaust the Mughal Army over two decades.

 Additional Information

• The Deccan Ulcer:
• The Deccan campaigns are often cited by historians as the 'Deccan Ulcer' that eventually ruined the Mughal Empire. The prolonged warfare drained the Imperial Treasury and caused a massive loss of soldiers and elite commanders.
• While the Rajputs had revolted earlier (specifically the Rathores and Sisodias), those conflicts were centered in North-West India and were not the focus of the southern campaigns.
• The Afghans posed a challenge on the North-West Frontier (present-day Pakistan/Afghanistan border) through tribes like the Yusufzais, but they were geographically distinct from the Deccan theater.
• The Portuguese maintained a presence on the western coast (Goa and Daman), but they were never the primary target of Aurangzeb's large-scale imperial land campaigns.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Dakshata Aur Kushalata Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment during 2020-21 to provide high-quality skill development training.
• The scheme focuses on the Scheduled Caste (SC) population as a primary target group, aiming to enhance their competency levels to make them employable in both self-employment and wage-employment sectors for socio-economic upliftment. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Other Backward Classes (OBCs) are also a designated target group under the scheme, specifically those individuals whose annual family income is less than 3 Lakh. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The implementation of the training programs is carried out through three Apex Corporations: National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC), National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC), and National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation (NSKFDC).

 Additional Information

• Target Group Diversity:
• Economically Backward Classes (EBCs): Individuals from families with an annual income below 1 Lakh are eligible for training.
• De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs): Members of these marginalized communities are included without any specific income ceiling.
• Safai Karamcharis: This includes waste pickers and their dependents, focusing on their rehabilitation through vocational training.
• Training Categories:
• Up-skilling/Reskilling: Aimed at traditional artisans and workers to improve their efficiency and income.
• Short Term Training: Programs lasting 200 to 600 hours aligned with National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) levels.
• Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP): Specific 10 to 15-day training for those interested in starting their own business ventures.
• Long Term Training: Comprehensive training for 6 months to 1 year in high-demand sectors like healthcare and information technology.

The correct answer is Narasimhavarman I.

Key Points

• Narasimhavarman I (reign 630–668 CE) was a prominent ruler of the Pallava Dynasty and the son of Mahendravarman I.
• He is famously known for avenging his father's earlier defeat at the hands of the Chalukya king, Pulakeshin II.
• In 642 CE, Narasimhavarman I led a successful military campaign into the Chalukya heartland, culminating in the Battle of Manimangalam and the Siege of Vatapi.
• During this conflict, Pulakeshin II was defeated and killed, leading to the Pallava occupation of the Chalukya capital for several years.
• To commemorate this massive victory, Narasimhavarman I assumed the title Vatapikonda (the conqueror of Vatapi).
• His reign also saw the visit of the Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang to Kanchipuram and the construction of the monolithic Pancha Rathas at Mahabalipuram.

 Additional Information

• Dhruva:
• He was a powerful Rashtrakuta emperor (reign 780–793 CE) who expanded the empire into North India.
• He defeated the Pratihara king Vatsaraja and the Pala king Dharmapala during the Tripartite Struggle for Kannauj.
• Parantaka I:
• A significant Chola monarch (reign 907–955 CE) who laid the foundation for Chola dominance in South India.
• He earned the title Maduraikonda after defeating the Pandyan king and capturing Madurai.
• Amoghavarsha I:
• The longest-reigning Rashtrakuta king (reign 814–878 CE), often called the Ashoka of the South.
• He was a patron of Jainism and wrote Kavirajamarga, the earliest available literary work in the Kannada language.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Kambala is a traditional buffalo race held annually in the coastal districts of Karnataka, specifically in Dakshina Kannada and Udupi.
• The festival is deeply rooted in the agrarian culture of the Tuluva community and is typically held between November and March.
• The race takes place in slushy paddy fields (called Kambala gadde) where pairs of buffaloes are driven by a whip-lashing farmer across the mud and water.
• Historically, the event was organized to propitiate Lord Kadri Manjunatha (an incarnation of Lord Shiva) to ensure a good harvest and protect livestock from diseases.
• To protect this cultural heritage against legal challenges regarding animal welfare, the Karnataka Government passed the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Karnataka Amendment) Bill, 2017.

 Additional Information

• Gujarat:
• Famous for the International Kite Festival (Uttarayan) held in Ahmedabad during January.
• The state is also the heart of Navratri celebrations, featuring the Garba dance dedicated to Goddess Durga.
• Assam:
• Renowned for Bihu, which consists of three distinct festivals: Rongali Bihu (Spring), Kongali Bihu (Autumn), and Bhogali Bihu (Harvest).
• Host to the Ambubachi Mela at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati.
• Tripura:
• Celebrates Kharchi Puja, a major festival where 14 deities are worshipped over seven days in Agartala.
• Also known for Garia Puja, a traditional festival celebrated by tribal communities to seek blessings for prosperity.

The correct answer is Prayagraj.

Key Points

• The three-day International Bird Festival 2025 was officially organized in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh, spanning from 16 to 18 February 2025.
• This event was a significant highlight of the Maha Kumbh 2025, aimed at integrating spiritual traditions with environmental conservation and biodiversity awareness.
• The primary objective of the festival was to provide a platform for ornithologists, nature enthusiasts, and devotees to observe more than 200 species of migratory and local birds.
• A unique feature of this edition was the selection of the Indian Skimmer as the official mascot, chosen to highlight its status as a critical indicator of river health and its breeding grounds along the Ganga and Yamuna.
• The festival site was primarily situated at Arail Ghat (Sector 25) within the Maha Kumbh area, facilitating easy access for the millions of visitors attending the pilgrimage.
• To encourage participation, the Uttar Pradesh Forest Department organized various competitions including photography, painting, and quizzes, with a total prize pool of 21 lakh rupees.

 Additional Information

• Significance of Migratory Species:
• The festival documented birds traveling from over 10 countries, including Siberia, Mongolia, and Afghanistan.
• Notable species observed during the event included the Siberian Crane, Flamingo, and the endangered Indian Skimmer.
• The Indian Skimmer (Rynchops albicollis) is particularly significant in Uttar Pradesh, which hosts a substantial portion of its global population near the Chambal and Ganga basins.
• Conservation Initiatives:
• Technical sessions were conducted by international experts to discuss the impact of climate change on avian migration patterns.
• The event followed the legacy of the UP Nature and Bird Festival, which has been organized since 2013 to promote eco-tourism in the state.
• The 2025 edition specifically aligned with the Kumbh ki Aastha evam Jalvayu Parivartan (Faith in Kumbh and Climate Change) conference inaugurated by the Chief Minister.

The correct answer is Sri Aurobindo Ghose.

Key Points

• On January 15, 1908, Sri Aurobindo Ghose delivered a historic speech in Bombay (now Mumbai) regarding the necessity and philosophy of National Education.
• In this address, he explicitly declared that the primary purpose of national education was to awaken the spirit of nationalism among students, urging them to dedicate their lives to the service of the motherland.
• The speech was delivered shortly after the Surat Split of the Indian National Congress (1907), a period when Aurobindo Ghose emerged as a prominent leader of the Extremist faction, advocating for Purna Swaraj (complete independence).
• He criticized the colonial education system for being a 'factory for producing clerks' and argued that true education should be rooted in the Indian soul, culture, and traditions to foster mental and spiritual strength.
• Aurobindo Ghose was deeply involved in the practical implementation of these ideals, serving as the first Principal of the Bengal National College, which was established in 1906 as part of the Swadeshi Movement.

 Additional Information

• Other Personalities and Education:
• Rabindranath Tagore: Founded Shantiniketan in 1901 and later Visva-Bharati University; he focused on naturalistic and aesthetic education, emphasizing harmony between man and nature.
• Mahatma Gandhi: Proposed the Wardha Scheme of Education or Nai Talim (Basic Education) in 1937, focusing on handicrafts and self-sufficiency; he was in South Africa in January 1908.
• Lala Lajpat Rai: A key leader from Punjab who was instrumental in the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) school movement, promoting education based on Vedic principles and modern science.

The correct answer is Muslim.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, the Muslim religious community recorded the highest decadal growth rate of 24.6% during the period 2001−2011.
• The Hindu population, which is the largest religious group, saw a growth rate of 16.8%, while the national average for the same period was 17.7%.
• Among other major religions, Christians grew by 15.5%, Sikhs by 8.4%, and Buddhists by 6.1%.
• The Jain community registered the lowest growth rate at 5.4% between the two census operations.
• While the Muslim growth rate remained the highest, it observed a significant decline from the 29.5% growth rate recorded in the 1991−2001 decade.

 Additional Information

• Decadal Growth Rate:
• It is the percentage change in the population of a specific area or group over a span of ten years.
• The Census 2011 data revealed that the total population of India reached 121.09 crore.
• Hindu Religious Group:
• Maintains the largest share of the Indian population at 79.8% (approximately 96.63 crore).
• The growth rate dropped from 19.92% in the previous decade to 16.76% in 2011.
• Sikh and Buddhist Groups:
• The Sikh population stood at 2.08 crore, making up 1.7% of the total population in 2011.
• The Buddhist population was recorded at 0.84 crore, accounting for 0.7% of the total population.
• Muslim Population Share:
• The proportion of Muslims in the total population increased from 13.4% in 2001 to 14.2% in 2011.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• A budgetary deficit occurs when the total expenditure of the government exceeds its total receipts (excluding borrowings) in a given fiscal year. It represents the total amount of money the government needs to find to meet its planned spending.
• Borrowings (Statement I) are the primary mechanism used to finance a deficit. When the government has a shortfall, it bridges the gap by issuing government securities (G-Secs) or Treasury Bills to the public, commercial banks, or international agencies like the World Bank. Since borrowing is a standard method to cover the fiscal gap, it does not satisfy the 'NOT' condition of the question. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• Taxation (Statement II) is a component of Revenue Receipts. It is the regular income the government collects through Direct Taxes (such as Income Tax) and Indirect Taxes (such as GST). The budgetary deficit is calculated only after accounting for all tax revenues; therefore, taxes are a source of revenue to reduce or avoid a deficit, but they are not a method to finance a deficit once it has occurred. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Methods of Deficit Financing:
• Internal Borrowing: Raising funds from the domestic market through the sale of government bonds to individuals and financial institutions.
• External Borrowing: Obtaining loans from foreign governments or international organizations like the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Deficit Financing (Monetization): In extreme cases, the government may borrow from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which involves the printing of new currency to meet the shortfall.
• Disinvestment: The process of selling government-owned equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to generate capital receipts.
• Key Budgetary Terms:
• Fiscal Deficit: The total gap calculated as (Total Expenditure) − (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts).
• Revenue Deficit: The excess of the government's revenue expenditure over its revenue receipts.
• Primary Deficit: Calculated as Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments on previous borrowings.

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

• Operation Gideon's Chariots (Hebrew: Mivtza Markavot Gid'on) is a military offensive launched by the Israel Defense Forces (IDF) in the Gaza Strip.
• The operation was approved by the Israeli security cabinet in May 2025 and officially commenced on May 16, 2025.
• Its stated primary objectives include the dismantling of Hamas's military and administrative infrastructure, neutralizing its underground tunnel networks, and securing the release of hostages.
• The comprehensive ground, air, and sea offensive involved major active military formations, including the 98^th, 36^th, 162^nd, 252^nd, and Gaza divisions.
• A follow-up phase of the campaign, named Operation Gideon's Chariots II (or Chariots of Gideon B), was approved by Defense Minister Israel Katz in August 2025 to sustain pressure on militant groups in Gaza City.

 Additional Information

• Other Historic Operations by Israel:
• Operation Swords of Iron: Initiated following the coordinated cross-border attacks on October 7, 2023.
• Operation Protective Edge (2014): Launched with the aim of destroying cross-border assault tunnels.
• Operation Cast Lead (2008−2009): A three-week armed conflict aimed at stopping rocket fire into Israeli territory.
• The Gaza Strip:
• It is a narrow coastal enclave located on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea.
• It shares land borders with Egypt to the southwest and Israel to the north and east.