Previous Year Paper

SSC GD Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 22nd November 2021 Shift 3)

Held in 2021

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

In a certain code language, KING is coded as 1012810131568. How will ROSE be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    17191614201864

  2. BOption (b)

    19171614192035

  3. COption (c)

    17181416192056

  4. DOption (d)

    17191416182046

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

17191416182046

Why this answer is correct

The table is alphabets place value:

The pattern followed here is:

KING is coded as 1012810131568

​Similarly, 

'ROSE' = ?

 

Hence, the correct answer is "17191416182046".

Question 2

At the end of a conference, all the 30 people present shake hands with each other once. How many handshakes will there be altogether?

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    450

  3. COption (c)

    435

  4. DOption (d)

    300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

435

Why this answer is correct

Number of people in the conference = 30

Each person shakes hands with others.

Concept used:

When n people shake hands with each other, the total number of handshakes  = nC2

Calculation:

Total number of handshakes = 30C2 = (30 × 29)/2 = 870/2 = 435 handshakes.

Hence, The total number of handshakes is 435.

Question 3

A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which number will be on the face opposite to the face having the number ‘7'?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Opposite surface of the open dice can be found by the below method:-

  • Alternate surfaces are opposite to each other.
  • No two opposite surface are touched by side or by corners

So, by using the above rule we can find the opposite surface of open dice.

Below are the opposite surfaces:-

NumbersOpposite
86
43
57

 

Hence, ‘7’ is the number on the opposite side of the number ‘5'

Question 4

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

101317
1211?
160185235
  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13

Why this answer is correct

Here the pattern followed in each column is:

{(3rd number) – (1st number × 10)} ÷ 5 = 2nd number 

Column 1: 10, 12, 160

{(3rd number) – (1st number × 10)} ÷ 5

= {(160) - (10 × 10)} ÷ 5

= (160 – 100) ÷ 5

= 60 ÷ 5

= 12 = 2nd number

Column 2: 13, 11, 185

{(3rd number) – (1st number × 10)} ÷ 5

= {(185) - (13 × 10)} ÷ 5

= (185 – 130) ÷ 5

= 55 ÷ 5

= 11 = 2nd number

Similarly,

Column 3: 17, ?, 235

{(3rd number) – (1st number × 10)} ÷ 5

= {(235) - (17 × 10)} ÷ 5

= (235 – 170) ÷ 5

= 65 ÷ 5

= 13 = 2nd number

Hence, “13” is correct answer.

Question 5

Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series.

18, 27, 35, 45, 54

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    45

  3. COption (c)

    54

  4. DOption (d)

    35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

35

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

​

As it is seen that addition is done in a particular sequence.

And ‘35’ is wrong, the correct sequence should be:

Hence, the correct answer is "35".

Question 6

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

BCB_BC_IB_BI

  1. AOption (a)

    BCI

  2. BOption (b)

    BCC

  3. COption (c)

    CBI

  4. DOption (d)

    IBC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

IBC

Why this answer is correct

Given: B C B _ B C _ I B _ B I

By checking options and substituting accordingly.

1)  BCI → B C B B / B C C I / B I B I → Doesn't follow a definite pattern.

2)  BCC → B C B B / B C C I / B C B I → Doesn't follow a definite pattern.

3)  CBI → B C B C / B C B I / B I B I → Doesn't follow a definite pattern.

4)  IBC → B C B I / B C B I / B C B I → Follows a definite pattern.

Here "B C B I" is repeated itself.

  • Option (4) gives a pattern of B C B I / B C B I / B C B I.

Hence, ‘IBC’ is the correct answer.

Question 7

Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F, have different heights. A is taller than only C and E. B is shorter than D but D is not the tallest among them. Who is the tallest among them all?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

F

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Six students - A, B, C, D, E and F

  1. A is taller than only C and E.

_ > _ > _ > A > C/E > C/E

  1. B is shorter than D but D is not the tallest among them.

Only F is left so F is tallest than D and B

F > D > B > A > C/E > C/E

Thus, “F” is the tallest among all the friends.

Hence, the correct answer is "F".

Question 8

In a certain code language, 'ORACLE' is written as 'HSVUXG' and 'DAVID' is written as 'BVJFB'. How will 'VIDEO' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    JFBGH

  2. BOption (b)

    GFBJH

  3. COption (c)

    JFGBH

  4. DOption (d)

    JBFGH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

JFBGH

Why this answer is correct

Table of alphabets place values:

The pattern follows here,

'ORACLE' is written as 'HSVUXG'

And,

'DAVID' is written as 'BVJFB'

Similarly,

'VIDEO' be written as

 

Hence, 'VIDEO' is coded as 'JFBGH'

Question 9

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side is:

Hence, "option (1)" is the correct answer.

Additional Information  

In Mirror image left side and right side changed vice-versa where top and bottom remain same.

Reflection of an object into the water is its water image. It appears by inverting an object vertically i.e. upside down.

The water image of the figure looks like the mirror image of the figure in case the mirror is horizontally at the bottom of the figure.

Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of the images changed where left and right side of the image remain same

Question 10

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

6 : 216 : : 8 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    64

  2. BOption (b)

    154

  3. COption (c)

    1024

  4. DOption (d)

    512

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

512

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

Let (1st number : 2nd number)

(1st number)3 = 2nd number

Now follow the steps:

6 : 216

=> 63 = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216 = 2nd number

Similarly,

8 : ?

=> 83 = 8 × 8 × 8 = 512 = 2nd number

Hence, "512" is correct answer.

Question 11

Which two numbers (NOT digits) need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

3 × 45 ÷ 5 + 7-12 = 70

  1. AOption (a)

    3 and 5

  2. BOption (b)

    5 and 12

  3. COption (c)

    5 and 7

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3 and 5

Why this answer is correct

According to the BODMAS rule:

Option 1 : 3 and 5

Given:

3 × 45 ÷ 5 + 7 - 12 = 70

After interchange the numbers;

5 × 45 ÷ 3 + 7 - 12 = 70

By BODMAS rule

5 × 15 + 7 - 12 = 70

75 + 7 - 12 = 70

82 – 12 = 70

70 = 70 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2 : 5 and 12

Given:

3 × 45 ÷ 5 + 7 - 12 = 70

After interchange the numbers;

3 × 45 ÷ 12 + 7 - 5 = 70

By BODMAS rule

3 × 3.75 + 7 - 5 = 70

11.25 + 7 - 5 = 70

18.25 – 5 = 70

13.25 ≠ 70 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3: 5 and 7

Given:

3 × 45 ÷ 5 + 7 - 12 = 70

After interchange the numbers;

3 × 45 ÷ 7 + 5 - 12 = 70

By BODMAS rule

3 × 6.42 + 5 - 12 = 70

19.28 + 5 – 12 = 70

24.28 – 12 = 70

12.28 ≠ 70 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4: 3 and 7

Given:

3 × 45 ÷ 5 + 7 - 12 = 70

After interchange the numbers;

7 × 45 ÷ 5 + 3 - 12 = 70

By BODMAS rule

7 × 9 + 3 - 12 = 70

63 + 3 – 12 = 70

66 – 12 = 70

54 ≠ 70 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, the correct answer is “3 and 5”.

Question 12

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary. 

  1. Power
  2. Piece
  3. Peace
  4. Poem
  5. Palm
  1. AOption (a)

    5, 4, 3, 2, 1

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3, 1, 5, 4

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  4. DOption (d)

    5, 3, 2, 4, 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5, 3, 2, 4, 1

Why this answer is correct

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

The correct order of the given words is:

  1. Palm
  2. Peace
  3. Piece
  4. Poem
  5. Power

Hence, the correct answer is "5, 3, 2, 4, 1".

Additional Information

  1. First of all, check the common letter in all.
  2. Arrange them according to the alphabet they come first. 
  3. When common letters are arranged, then go for the rest.

Question 13

Four friends named A, B, C, and D are sitting around a square table in a restaurant. If B is sitting in front of A and diagonally opposite to D, then who is sitting in front of C?

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    none

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

D

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • A, B, C, and D are sitting around a square table.
  • B is sitting in front of A.

ii) If B is sitting in front of A and diagonally opposite D

iii) Only "C" is available to sit in front of D.

Thus we can say D is sitting in front of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

Question 14

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

NKI, PMK, ROM, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    TRP

  2. BOption (b)

    TOM

  3. COption (c)

    SPN

  4. DOption (d)

    TQO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

TQO

Why this answer is correct

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “TQO” is the correct answer.

Question 15

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

TANGY : GZMTB : : PRIEST : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    LIRVJG

  2. BOption (b)

    KIRVHG

  3. COption (c)

    KJSVHG

  4. DOption (d)

    KIRUHF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

KIRVHG

Why this answer is correct

The table is alphabets place value:

The pattern followed here is:

TANGY : GZMTB

Similarly,

PRIEST : ?

​

Hence, 'PRIEST' is coded as "KIRVHG".

Additional InformationShortcut to remember the reverse positional letters.

Question 16

‘Honey’ is related to ‘Bees’ in the same way as ‘Sugar’ is related to ‘________’.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cake

  2. BOption (b)

    Sugarcane

  3. COption (c)

    Juicer

  4. DOption (d)

    Sweet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sugarcane

Why this answer is correct

Given:

‘Honey’ is related to ‘Bees’ → Honey is made by honey bees.

Similarly,

‘Sugar’ is related to ‘Sugarcane’ → Sugar is made from the sugarcane plant.

Hence, ‘Sugarcane’ is the correct answer. 

Additional Information⇒ Sugarcane contains Glucose + Fructose.

  • Fructose is a monosaccharide.
  • A monosaccharide is the simplest form of sugar and the smallest unit of carbohydrate which cannot be further divided.
  • When two monosaccharides join it forms a molecule called Disaccharide.
  • All the other options are disaccharides
Glucose + FructoseSucrose(Found in Sugarcane)
Glucose + GlucoseMaltose
Glucose + GalactoseLactose(Found in Milk)

 

  • Honey Bee is a colonial insect living in beehives consisting of one queen (a fertile female), a few drones (males), and thousands of workers (infertile females).
  • Around 5 to 25% of the workers are scouts whose job is to search for a new source of food while the foragers harvest food.
  • When the food is within 50 to 75 meters of the hive the Scouts perform a round dance.
  • Whereas if the food is farther than 75 meters from the hive the Scout's dance is called the waggle dance.

Question 17

In a certain code language, VOLLEY is written as WpMMfZ, and DON is written as EpO. How will DENSITY be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    EFotJUy

  2. BOption (b)

    EEoTjUz

  3. COption (c)

    FfOtJuZ

  4. DOption (d)

    EfOTjUZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

EfOTjUZ

Why this answer is correct

The table is alphabets place value:

The pattern followed here is:

  • Letters are increased by +1.

VOLLEY is written as WpMMfZ

And,

DON is written as EpO

Similarly,

'DENSITY' = ?

Hence, 'DENSITY' is coded as "EfOTjUZ".

Question 18

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

Hence, "option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 19

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster that is different.

  1. AOption (a)

    ZTG

  2. BOption (b)

    IDE

  3. COption (c)

    RDN

  4. DOption (d)

    USB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ZTG

Why this answer is correct

Table show alphabet serial number –

The logic is here,

1st alphabet place value - 2nd alphabet place value = 3rd alphabet place value

The pattern followed is,

All follow the same pattern, except 'ZTG’.

Hence, “ZTG” is the odd one.

Alternate Method Table show alphabet serial number –

The logic is here,

2nd alphabet place value + 3rd alphabet place value = 1st alphabet place value

The pattern followed is,

​

All follow the same pattern, except 'ZTG’.

Hence, “ZTG” is the odd one.

Question 20

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes.

Police, Males, Husbands

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The Venn diagrams best represent the relationship between - Police, Males, Husbands are shown below:

  • All husbands are males.
  • Some polices are males and some police are husbands

Hence, ‘option 3’ is the correct answer.

Question 21

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

6, 8, 20, 50, 106, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    212

  2. BOption (b)

    280

  3. COption (c)

    196

  4. DOption (d)

    218

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

196

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

<br>

Hence, '196' is the correct answer.

Question 22

If Samaira is the daughter of my father's mother's only son, how is Samaira related to me?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister

  3. COption (c)

    Niece

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sister

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given:

"Samaira is the daughter of my father's mother's only son,"

We can draw the following Family Tree from the information given above:

Hence, Samaira is my "Sister".

Question 23

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

All fruits are flowers.

Some fruits are kiwis.

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are kiwis.

II. All kiwis are fruits.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion I follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only conclusion I follows.

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

All fruits are flowers.

Some fruits are kiwis.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are kiwis → True (As all fruits are flowers and some fruits are kiwis so some flowers are also kiwis)

II. All kiwis are fruits → False (As in the statement given some fruits are kiwis so all kiwis are fruits is a possible statement but not definite)

Hence, “Only conclusion I follows" is the correct answer.

Question 24

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  1. The diamond element shift diagonally back and forth.

  2. Rectangle element shift to the opposite side and diagonally alternately.

  3. The cross element skip two places (one corner and one side) clockwise.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

Question 25

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

General Knowledge and General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

Who among the following was appointed as Goodwill Ambassador of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in September 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yemi Alade

  2. BOption (b)

    Michelle Obama

  3. COption (c)

    Padma Lakshmi

  4. DOption (d)

    M. Nethra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Yemi Alade

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Yemi Alade.

Key Points

  • United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)  was established in 1966.
  • It helps countries to develop policies, leadership skills, and partnering abilities to build resilience to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals.
  • Its mandate is to end poverty and build democratic governance, rule of law, and inclusive institutions.
  • Its headquarter is located in New York, USA.
  • As of August 2022, Achim Steiner is the UNDP Administrator.
  • As of August 2021, Padma Lakshmi has been appointed as the Goodwill Ambassador of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Additional Information

  • United Nations is an international organisation in 1945.
  • It has six important organs
  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Economic and Social Council
  4. Trusteeship Council
  5. International Court of Justice
  6. UN Secretariat

Question 27

How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

23

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 23.

Key Points

  • Chromosomes reside inside the nucleus of cells.
  • These are threadlike structures made of protein and a single molecule of DNA.
  • It serves the purpose to carry the genomic information from cell to cell.
  • A chromosome is a long DNA molecule with part or all of the genetic material of an organism.
  • Most eukaryotic chromosomes include packaging proteins called histones which are aided by chaperone proteins.
  • Together they bind and condense the DNA molecule to maintain its integrity.

Additional Information

  • In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46.
  • 22 of these pairs are known as autosomes having identical looks in both males and females.
  • 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females.
  • Females have two copies of the X chromosome while males have one X and one Y chromosome.

Question 28

With which of the following games/sports is the William Jones Cup associated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Billiards

  2. BOption (b)

    Basketball

  3. COption (c)

    Boxing

  4. DOption (d)

    Cricket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Basketball

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Basketball.

Key Points

  • William Jones Cup is named in honour of basketball promoter Renato William Jones.
  • He was the Founder of the International Basketball Federation (FIBA).
  • James Naismith is called the father of Basketball.
  • A traditional basketball team has 12 players, with five basketball players on the court at any given time.

 Additional Information

SportsCup associatedFounded year
Test cricket(Eng-Aus)The Ashes1882
GolfWalker Cup1922
Tennis(men)Davis Cup1900
Golf(men)Ryder Cup1927
Tennis menBilli Jean King Cup1934
Golf womenSolphin Cup1990
World table tennisCorbillion Cup1933
Football (Asian Cup)Merdeka Cup1957
Badminton CupSudirman Cup

Question 29

The process of development of an area through conservation and regeneration of degraded ecosystem and ecological stability is called ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    ecological development

  2. BOption (b)

    social development

  3. COption (c)

    social stability

  4. DOption (d)

    permanent development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ecological development

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ecological development.

Key Points

  • It is the process of environment conservation, modification, evolution and improvement by organisms.
  • It is the idea which helps in sustaining life on earth.
  • It tells how to use ecological resources without disturbing nature.

Additional Information

Social developmentIt is the welfare of every individual in society so they can achieve full development.
Social stabilityIt is the state or environment where people can live peacefully without any conflict and respectfully with each other.

Question 30

The Lebang Boomani Dance is part of the folk dance repertoire of which of these Indian states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tripura

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tripura

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

  • Lebang Boomani Dance is also known as 'Lebang Bumani.
  • Is an interesting harvest dance form.
  • The dance movements of Lebang Boomani dancers portray the procedure of catching these tiny insects with the aid of bamboo clappers.
  • Instruments include Khamb, Flute, Sarinda and 'Pungi'in Lebang Boomani dance.

Additional Information

  • Tripura ( as of Aug 2022)
  • Capital-Agartala.
  • chief Minister-Manik saha.
  • Governor-Satyadev Narayan Arya.
  • Tripura is surrounded by Bangladesh on its north, south and west.
  • Tripura is famous for its cultivations, tea plantations, beautiful gardens, toy trains and much more.
  • The main folk dances of Tripura are – the Hozagiri dance, **Garia, Jhum.**​
Statedance
OdishaDalkhi
MaharashtraLavani
KeralaKathakali

Question 31

As per Census 2011, which of the following states’ sex ratio is less than 900?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haryana

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Jharkhand

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Haryana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • The Census is the collecting, compiling, analyzing and disseminating of demographic, economic and social data on basis of population.
  • It is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Its significance is in providing administration, planning, demarcation of constituency and policy-making to the government.
  • 1st census was conducted in 1872 by Viceroy Lord Mayo.
  • The population of the country as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 is 1210.19 million of which 623.72 million (51.54%) are males and 586.46 million (48.46%) are females.
  • The provisional figures of Census 2011 were released in New Delhi today by Union Home Secretary Shri G.K.Pillai and RGI Shri C. Chandramouli.

Additional Information

  • The sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in a given population of the country.
  • Census 2011 provides data on the sex ratio of various states.
  • Kerala has the highest sex ratio (1084) above 900.
  • Haryana has the lowest sex ratio (879) below 900.

Important Points

StatesChief Minister (As of August 2022)Sex ratio as of Census 2011
AssamHimanta Biswa Sarma946
JharkhandHemant Soren948
Madhya PradeshDr. Mohan Yadav931
HaryanaNayab Singh Saini879

Question 32

Forty years after disbanding, music group ________ announced its return in September 2021.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rolling Stones

  2. BOption (b)

    Eagles

  3. COption (c)

    Led Zeppelin

  4. DOption (d)

    ABBA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ABBA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ABBA

Key Points

  • ABBA formerly named Bjorn & Benny is a Swedish supergroup formed in Stockholm in 1972 by Agnetha Faltskog, Bjorn Ulvaeus, Benny Andersson, and Anni-Frid Lyngstad.
  • The group's name is an acronym of the first letters of their first names arranged as a palindrome.
  • One of the most popular and successful musical groups of all time they became one of the best-selling music acts in the history of popular music.
  • Topping the charts worldwide from 1974 to 1983, and in 2021, they made comeback to the industry after forty years
  • Most popular and hit songs - "Mamma Mia, SOS, Dancing Queen"

Additional Information

  • Rolling Stones is an English rock band formed in London in1962. Its current members are Mike Jagger, Keith Richards, and Ronnie Wood.
  • Eagles are an American rock band that was formed in Los Angeles in 1971. It has won six grammy awards. 
  • Its present members include Don Henley, Joe Walsh, Timoty B Schmit, and Vince Gill.
  • Led Zeppelin was an English rock band formed in London in 1968.
  • The group consisted of vocalist Robert Plant, guitarist Jimmy Page, bassist/keyboardist John Paul Jones, and drummer John Bonham.
  • With a heavy, guitar-driven sound, they are cited as one of the progenitors of hard rock and heavy metal.
  • Although their style drew from a variety of influences, including blues and folk music.

Question 33

The ________ empire was the first pan-Indian empire that covered most of the Indian subcontinent.

  1. AOption (a)

    Chola

  2. BOption (b)

    Kushan

  3. COption (c)

    Mauryan

  4. DOption (d)

    Gupta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mauryan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mauryan.

Key Points

  • The Mauryan empire, in ancient India, was a state centered at Pataliputra (later Patna).
  • It lasted from about 321 to 185 BCE and was the first empire to encompass most of the Indian subcontinent.
  • The Mauryan empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya.
  • The Mauryan Empire was the first pan-Indian empire, It covered most of the Indian region.

Additional Information

  • Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and parts of the Northeast were the only parts that were not under Mauryan rule.
  • Kautilya was the Prime Minister of the Chandra Gupta, and Bindusara.
  • Ashoka the greatest ruler of the Mauryan Empire was the son of Bindusara.
  • Dhamma is introduced by Ashoka.
  • The Mauryan army was the largest military force of its time.
  • Maurya Empire reached its greatest territorial extent under Ashoka the Great.
  • One of the most important features of Mauryan art is the bright polish imparted to the stone surface which makes it shine and look impressive.
  • Important kings of the Mauryan empire**, Chandra Gupta Maurya, Bindusara, and Ashoka.**

Important Points

  • Chola Dynasty -The Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya(848–871).
  • Khusans Dynasty-Kujula Kadphises  [AD 30-AD 80) was a founder of the Khusans Dynasty.
  • Gupta Dynasty- The Gupta dynasty was established by Shrigupta.
  • The real founder of the Gupta empire was Chandragupta I (AD 319–334). ​

Question 34

The Open Era in tennis began in _________ when the Grand Slam tournaments agreed to allow professional players to compete with amateurs.

  1. AOption (a)

    1958

  2. BOption (b)

    1948

  3. COption (c)

    1968

  4. DOption (d)

    1938

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1968

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1968.

Key Points

  • The Open Era in tennis began in 1968 and allowed all players, amateur or professional, to compete at the four Grand Slam events.
  • It is called as Open Era because the Grand Slam tournaments in 1968 agreed to allow professional players to compete alongside amateurs.
  • Hence the events were “Open” to all players.
  • 30th March 1968 is the key date in tennis history.
  • On this date, Members from the International Tennis Federation gathered at the Automobile Club de France headquarters, to sign the Open era’s birth certificate.

Question 35

In which of the following years was Sanchi declared as a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

  1. AOption (a)

    1989

  2. BOption (b)

    1999

  3. COption (c)

    1967

  4. DOption (d)

    2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1989

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1989.

Key Points

  • UNESCO World Heritage Site is allocated on the basis of special cultural or physical significance.
  • 1st Heritage sites in India included Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, Agra Fort, and Taj Mahal in the year 1983.
  • World Heritage Programme, administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee.
  • UNESCO has started this programme to protect and preservation of the cultural and natural heritage of outstanding value to humanity.

 Additional Information

  • As of now, India has 42 UNESCO Heritage sites in India.
  • Out of 42 Heritage sites, 34 are cultural, 7 are natural, and one, the Khangchendzonga National Park, is a mixed heritage site

Important Points Points about UNESCO

  • It was formed in the year 1945.
  • Its headquarter is located in Paris, France.
  • It is one of the specialised agencies of the United Nation.
  • It works for achieving peace and security by promoting international collaboration through educational, scientific, and cultural reforms.
  • India was one of the founding members.

Question 36

In relation to banking, CTS is an acronym for ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cheque Truncation System

  2. BOption (b)

    Corporate Trade Schedule

  3. COption (c)

    Credit Transfer Statement

  4. DOption (d)

    Cash Transaction Scrutiny

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cheque Truncation System

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cheque Truncation System.

Key Points

  • The Cheque Truncation System is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at some point by the presenting bank en route to the paying bank branch.
  • In this system, an electronic image of the cheque is sent to paying bank to give information about the MICR band, date of presentation, and presenting bank.
  • It reduces the cost of movement, and time for collection and gives an efficient way for cheque processing.

Additional Information

Banking termMeaning
Corporate Trade ScheduleThe day that is scheduled to be a Trading Day on the principal U.S. national or regional securities exchange or market on which the Common Stock is listed or admitted for trading.
Credit Transfer StatementIt is also called wire transfer in which the transfer of money takes place from one account to another.
Cash Transaction ScrutinyIt is where the detailed analysis of transactions of cash takes place.

Question 37

The science that deals with soil management and crop rotation, weed and pest control and the study of climate that plays an important role in crop growth and food production is called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cytology

  2. BOption (b)

    Agronomy

  3. COption (c)

    Anatomy

  4. DOption (d)

    Agrostology

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Agronomy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Agronomy.

Key Points

  • Agronomy is the branch that deals with principles and practices of Soil, Water, and Crop Management.​
  • ​It encompasses work in plant genetics, plant physiology, meteorology, and soil science.
  • Agronomy is applying a combination of sciences like biology, chemistry, economics, ecology, earth science, and genetics.
  • Agronomists today are involved with many issues including producing food, creating healthier food, managing the environmental impact of agriculture, and extracting energy from plants.
  • Agronomists often specialize in crop rotation, irrigation and drainage, plant breeding, plant physiology, soil classification, soil fertility, weed control, and insect and pest control.​

 Important Points

  • Cytology diagnoses illness or disease by examining a particular cluster of cells. It is mainly used to diagnose cancer or other infectious disease.
  • Anatomy is used to study the structure of a body.
  • It is a branch of biology that deals with the structural organization of living things.
  • Agrostology is the scientific study of grasses.
  • It is a branch of botany concerned with the study of grasses and more importantly their classification.

Question 38

The 9th edition of the International Sand Art Festival was organised in December 2020 in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Odisha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • The ninth edition of the International Sand Art Festival has begun at the Chandrabhaga Beach of Konark in Odisha’s Puri district.
  • Sudarsan Pattnaik, world-renowned sand artist and Padmashree Awardee, has been appointed as Chief Curator of the festival.
  • Every year, the festival is celebrated with great fervour in the first week of December.
  • The sand art Festival displays Spectacular sand art by skilful artists from India and around the world.

Additional Information

  • World-recognised sand artists from Mexico, Spain, Singapore, France, Norway, Germany, Netherlands, etc.
  • The theme of the 2020 event is 'Environment and covid-19.
  • 70 artists from across India.
  • The International Sand Art Festival was started in 2015 on Chandrabhaga beach, a short distance from Konark.​
  • 12th International Sand Art Festival, 2022 scheduled to be held on 1st – 5th December 2022 at Chandrabhaga Beach near Konark, Dist. Puri, Odisha.

Important Points

  • About Odisha.
  • ​Capital-Bhubaneswar.
  • Chief-Minister-Naveen Patnaik
  • Governor-Ganeshi Lal
  • Odisha is famous for its heritage sites and enthralling view

Question 39

In which of the following years was the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act enacted?

  1. AOption (a)

    1856

  2. BOption (b)

    1890

  3. COption (c)

    1906

  4. DOption (d)

    1934

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1856

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1856.

Key Points

  • The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act 1856 was passed on 16 July 1856.
  • It legalized the remarriage of widows in all jurisdictions of India under East India Company rule.
  • It was prepared by Lord Dalhousie and passed by Lord Canning prior to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
  • It was the first major social reform legislation to improve the condition of widows in India.
  • It was enacted after the abolition of Sati pratha in 1829 by Lord William Bentinck.
  • This act provided all the rights and inheritances to all the widows that they had at the time of their first marriage.

Additional Information Other legislation safeguarding women's rights

  • The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 – The act provides women with the right and claim over parents property.
  • The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 – Provides a childless woman with the right to adopt a child.
  • It also provides for a divorced woman with the right to claim maintenance from her husband.
  • Special Marriage Act, 1954 – It provides women with the rights to inter-caste marriage, and love marriage and is only permitted for girls above 18 years of age.
  • Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 – It protects women from exploitation by declaring taking of dowry an unlawful activity.
  • The Hindu Marriage Act 1955 – The act provides women with equal rights to divorce and remarry. Also, the act prohibits polygamy, polyandry, and child marriage.

Question 40

Who is the author of the book ‘Exam Warriors’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vikram Seth

  2. BOption (b)

    Bibek Debroy

  3. COption (c)

    Abhishek Manu Singhvi

  4. DOption (d)

    Narendra Modi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Narendra Modi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

  • The author of the book ‘Exam Warriors’ is Narendra Modi.
  • The book was published in the year 2018 and talk about the young student deal with exam pressure.
  • Narendra Modi the Prime Minister of India (as of August 2022) has also written the following books-
  • Letters to Mother, Jyotipunj and A Journey: Poems.

Additional Information

  • Bibek Debroy has been appointed as the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to PM (EAC-PM), as of August 2022.
AuthorsBooks
Bibek DebroyThe Illustrated Ramayana: The timeless epic of duty, love, and redemption
Abhishek Manu SinghviFrom the Trenches
Vikram SethA suitable boy

Question 41

When is Women’s Entrepreneurship Day observed every year?

  1. AOption (a)

    10 October

  2. BOption (b)

    19 November

  3. COption (c)

    25 November

  4. DOption (d)

    14 September

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19 November

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 19 November.

Key Points

  • Women’s Entrepreneurship Day is celebrated on November 19 every year.
  • The day started in 2014 city of New york America.
  • Women's Entrepreneurship Day was founded and implemented by Pet Pioneer.
  • 144 nations overall recognized the first WED in 2014.
  • The theme of 2022- is Entrepreneurs of Bharat,

Additional Information

  • About WED(Women’s Entrepreneurship Day)
  • ​Founder-Wendy Diamond
  • Type Non-profit
  • Purpose-Observing women's entrepreneurship on every day

Important Points

  • Some important day of November.
DatesImportance day
10 NovemberWorld science day
13 NovemberWorld kindness day
14 NovemberChildren's day
21 NovemberWorld television day
26 NovemberConstitution day of India

Question 42

Who among the following persons led the 'No Tax Campaign' against the British after the floods in Khera (Khaira/Kaira) in 1918?

  1. AOption (a)

    Morarji Desai

  2. BOption (b)

    Tribhuvandas Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Mahadev Desai

  4. DOption (d)

    Vallabhbhai Patel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vallabhbhai Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

  • Khera satyagraha was the third satyagraha led by Mahatma Gandhi after Champaran and Ahemdabad.
  • It was due to the failure of crops in Khera, Gujarat.
  • The government refused to remit the revenue of farmers.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel advised all the farmers of Kheda not to pay taxes.
  • The movement ended with Government accepting farmers' demands by remitting their taxes.

 Additional Information

  • Gandhiji 1st started its satyagraha in the Champaran district of Bihar against the forced Indigo farming by Europeans.
  • His 2nd satyagraha was in Ahemdabad to increase the wages of workers by 35%.
  • Ahemdabad satyagraha was the 1st time Gandhiji adopted the fast unto death satyagraha.

Important Points

Important SatyagrahaAimYear
Non-Cooperation MovementBoycott of British Titles and Goods and Promotion of Swadeshi.1920 to 1922
Civil Disobedience MovementAbolition of the salt tax.1930 to 1932
Quite India movementTo end British rule in India1942

Question 43

Which of the following is awarded to the coaches for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhyan Chand Award

  2. BOption (b)

    Dronacharya Award

  3. COption (c)

    Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjuna Award

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dronacharya Award

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dronacharya Award

Key Points

  • The Dronacharya Award is given to coaches as recognition for their contribution.
  • To a particular sport or for their role in an athlete’s rise to the top.
  • It is handed out on National Sports Day – celebrated on August 29, the legendary Dhyan Chand’s birthday.
  • The Dronacharya award is named after the mythical character Drona.
  • Who taught the art of warfare to the Kauravas and Pandavas – the protagonists of the Hindu epic Mahabharata.

In News 

  • Dronacharya Award 2022:
  • The Dronacharya Award for outstanding coaches in the Sports and Games Regular category went to Jiwanjot Singh Teja in Archery and Mohammad Ali Qamar in Boxing.
  • The same award also went to Suma Siddharth Shirur (Para Shooting) and Sujeet Maan (Wrestling).
  • The Dronacharya Award in the lifetime category for his contributions: Dinesh Jawahar Lad (Cricket), Bimal Prafulla Ghosh (Football), and Raj Singh (Wrestling).

Important Points

  • Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award' is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports.
  • The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is officially known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
  • Arjuna Award is one of the famous sports awards given to individuals for their exemplary performance in various sports.

Question 44

The National Sports University, Imphal is a central university established under an Act passed in the year ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    2014

  2. BOption (b)

    2018

  3. COption (c)

    2015

  4. DOption (d)

    2019

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2018

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2018.

Key Points

  • India's first central sports university is situated in Imphal. imphal is the capital of Manipur.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid its foundation stone.
  • It was done on March 16, 2018.
  • It is the only Central University in India, which focuses on Sports Education.
  • Courses offered by this university are Bachelor of Physical Education & Sports, B.Sc., M.Sc., and M.A.
  • The University is presently functional from its temporary campus at the Khuman Lampak Sports Complex of  Imphal.
  • Other details of national Sports University- 
  • ​Type - Central University
  • Established - 2018
  • Vice-Chancellor - Shree R. C. Mishra
  • Affiliations- University Grant Commission
  • Objective- Promoting sports education in the area of Sports Sciences, Sports Technology, Sports Management, and Sports Coaching.​

Question 45

What is the percentage hike in defence expenditure in the Budget 2020-2021 as against the allocation in the previous financial year?

  1. AOption (a)

    6.1%

  2. BOption (b)

    4.3%

  3. COption (c)

    7.4%

  4. DOption (d)

    5.8%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5.8%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5.8%.

Key Points

 

  • The defence expenditure of is increased by 5.8% as compared with the previous year's budget.
  • In the union budget of India 2020, the largest allocation is given to the defence sector.
  • The Ministry of Defence received an allocation of Rs 4,71,738 crore which is 15% of the total budget expenditure of the Central Government.
  • It is 2.1% of India's estimated GDP for 2020-2021.

Additional Information

  • The union budget was introduced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on 1st February 2020.
  • It is also referred to as the annual financial statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India.
  • The budget has 3 themes: Aspirational India, Economic Development, and Caring Society.
  • The Defence Budget for the financial year 2022-23 is Rs 5,25,166 crore. This is an increase of Rs 46,970 crores over last year's Rs 4,78,196 crore.
  • It is an increase of 9.8 per cent compared to the previous year.
  • However, keeping the threat perceptions along the borders, the important capital outlay has been raised by more than 10 per cent for the second consecutive year.”

Question 46

The scientific study of the structure, nature and ecological distribution of animals is called _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    zoology

  2. BOption (b)

    botany

  3. COption (c)

    saurology

  4. DOption (d)

    ethnology

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

zoology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is zoology.

Key Points

  • Zoology is the scientific study of the structure, nature and ecological distribution of animals.
  • It includes the interaction of animals with the ecosystem.
  • It provides classification, evolution, behaviour and habitat of animals.
  • Aristotle coined the term zoology and was also called the father of zoology.

Additional Information

Biological TermDefinitionFounding Father
BotanyIt is the branch of biology that deals with scientific study of plant structure, ecology, distribution, classification, and evolution.Theophrastus
SaurologyIt is a scientific study of lizard behaviour, evolution and classification.James McCartney
EthnologyIt is the study of the human race, social behaviour, and comparison between people.Jaap Kunst

Question 47

Which state has the second-highest number of Lok Sabha seats, after Uttar Pradesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of seats in Lok Sabha followed by Maharashtra.
  • Maharashtra has 48 representatives in Lok sabha, as of August 2022.
  • The seats in Lok Sabha are distributed in accordance with the proportion of the population of states.
  • States are divided into small constituency from which each candidate get elected directly by the people to the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Lok Sabha is also called the House of People or Lower house or 1st Chamber.
  • The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is 550 and the current strength is 543 out of which 530 are representative of states and 13 from UT.
  • Representatives of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
  • It is not continuing house and is subject to dissolution.
  • The Council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is responsible for Lok Sabha only.

Important Points

AboutLok SabhaRajya Sabha
CompositionThe maximum strength is 550.The maximum strength is 250.
FunctionTo represents the people of India's views and make laws according to their demands.To represents the interest of states and UTs.
PowerIt controls the Council of Ministers and has the power to introduce Money Bill.Any matter that affects the States must be referred to it for its consent and approval.
QualificationShe or He should be not less than 25 years of age to get elected.She or He should be a citizen of India and at least 30 years of age to get elected.

Question 48

The minerals lying closest to the top of the earth's surface can be excavated by the _______ process.

  1. AOption (a)

    Drilling

  2. BOption (b)

    Quarrying

  3. COption (c)

    Shaft Mining

  4. DOption (d)

    Open Cast Mining

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quarrying

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Quarrying.

Key Points

  • Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as Quarrying.
  • A quarry is a type of open pit mine in which dimension stone, rock, construction aggregate, sand, gravel, or slate is excavated from the underground.
  • Quarrying is the process of removing rocks, sand, or minerals from the ground in order to use them for construction or other uses.

Important Points

  • Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out, this is called Drilling.
  • Deep bores, called shafts, have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This is called Shaft Mining.
  • Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer; this is known as Open-Cast Mining.

Question 49

People in ancient India believed that when the ‘_______’ ritual was performed with the help of Brahmanas, it led to the rebirth of the sacrificer as a Kshatriya, even if he was not one by birth.

  1. AOption (a)

    Samavaj-tana

  2. BOption (b)

    Upanayana

  3. COption (c)

    Medhajanana

  4. DOption (d)

    Hiranya-garbha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hiranya-garbha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is **Hiranya-garbha.**​

Key Points

  • Hiranyagarbha ritual was performed with the help of Brahmin to declare the king as Kshatriya, even if he is not one by birth.
  • When this ritual was performed, it was thought to lead to the "rebirth" of the sacrifice as a Kshatriya, even if he is not one by birth.
  • This ritual was prominent among the kings in mid-7th and 8th centuries.
  • Samavaj-Tana
  • ​It is also known as the “Snana” ritual. Samavartana generally means graduation.
  • It is a ceremony performed by the students at the end of their studentship.
  • It marks the end of the education course.
  • It is similar to present-day convocation or felicitation ceremony.
  • Upanayana
  • It is a Hindu ritual, particularly for boys of the Brahmin community.
  • In this ceremony, Brahmin boys wear sacred thread for the first time.
  • Medhajanana
  • Medhajanana ritual is performed to evoke divine help in the sharpening of the intelligence, memory, and tenacious power of the student.
  • A student would become a scholar and a responsible man if he acts up to the symbolism and suggestions of this ritual.
  • Medhajanana is the production of intelligence in a baby. This rite is performed the very next day after the birth of a baby.​​

Question 50

In February 2020, the Board of the Reserve Bank of India recommended that its accounting year be changed from _______ to April - March.

  1. AOption (a)

    September - August

  2. BOption (b)

    January - December

  3. COption (c)

    October - September

  4. DOption (d)

    July - June

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

July - June

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is July-June.

Key Points

  • After 8 decades the accounting year was changed by the Reserve Bank of India.
  • The RBI would be able to provide better estimates of the projected surplus transfers to the government for the financial year for budgeting purposes
  • RBI Have more time after this accounting year changed.
  • An accounting year is an annual financial reporting period in which RBI organizes its financial data.
  • Bimal Jalan's panel recommended these changes.

Additional Information

  • About RBI
  • The central bank issues and regulates currency notes.
  • Founded -1 April 1935(Kolkata)
  • Founder -British Raj
  • Headquarters-Mumbai
  • Ownership-Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • Current-Governor-ShaktiKanta Das(25th)
  • Sir Osborne Smith was the first Governor of RBI.
  • C.D Deshmukh was the first Indian Governor of RBI.

Elementary Mathematics (25 questions)

Question 51

A sum amounts to Rs. 9,261 in 3 years at 5% per annum, interest compounded annually. What is the simple interest (in Rs.) on the same sum for 334\frac{3}{4} years at the same rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1,350

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1,500

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1,620

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1,560

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 1,500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal = Rs. 9261

At CI, 3 years and 5% annum.

Formula:

SI = P×R×T100P\times R \times T\over100

A = P × (1 + R100R\over 100)T

CI = A - P

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time, A = Amount

Calculation:

Let the amount lent be 100.

Amount after 3 years at 5% compounding

⇒ 100 × (1 + 51005\over 100)3 = 115.7625

Actual Sum =  100 × 9261115.76259261\over 115.7625 = Rs 8000

Interest on the actual sum for 334\frac{3}{4} years at 5% SI 

⇒ 8000×5×1541008000\times 5 \times {15\over4}\over100 = Rs 1500

∴ The simple interest on the sum is Rs 1500.

Question 52

In a college election, Seema and Geeta got the votes in the ratio of 4 : 5 of the total valid votes. If 19% are invalid votes out of 15000 votes, then the difference of the votes polled in favour of Seema and Geeta is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1500

  2. BOption (b)

    1150

  3. COption (c)

    1800

  4. DOption (d)

    1350

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1350

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Invalid vote percentage = 19%

Total votes= 15,000

The ratio of votes between Seema and Geeta = 4 : 5

Calculation:

Invalid votes = 19 %

⇒ Total valid votes = 100 - 19% = 81%

Let the common ratio be "a".

⇒ Votes of Seema and Geeta are 4a and 5a respectively.

Difference of the votes = 5a - 4a = a

∴ Actual difference of the votes = a9aa\over9a  × 8110081\over100 × 15,000 = 1350

∴ The total difference of the votes is 1350.

Question 53

If HCF of 328, 451 and 697 is x, then the value of x lies between:

  1. AOption (a)

    44 and 48

  2. BOption (b)

    40 and 44

  3. COption (c)

    36 and 40

  4. DOption (d)

    48 and 52

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

40 and 44

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

If x is the HCF of a given pair of numbers, then it should be a factor of all the numbers present in the set.

Calculation:

HCF of 328, 451, and 697 = 41

According to the given options, 41 lies between 40 and 44.

Thus, it becomes apparent that the value of "x" lies between 40 and 44.

∴ The value of x lies between 40 and 44.

Question 54

A train travels from place A to place B at a speed of 90 km/h and returns at a speed of 75 km/h. If it takes a total time of 1423\frac{2}{3} hours, the distance between the places A and B is:

  1. AOption (a)

    600 km

  2. BOption (b)

    560 km

  3. COption (c)

    620 km

  4. DOption (d)

    580 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

600 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Speed during A to B, S1 = 90 km/h

Speed during B to A, S2 = 75 km/h

Total time for up & down = 14 23\frac{2}{3} hours

Formula:

D = S × T

Where D = Distance, S = Speed, T = Time

Savg = S1S2S1+S2S_1S_2\over S_1+S_2

Where, S1 and S2 are the speeds during the journey from A to B and B to A respectively.

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ Savg = 90×7590+7590 × 75\over 90+75 = 45011450\over11 km/hr

Now, Distance between A to B

⇒ D = 45011450\over11 × 1423\frac{2}{3} = 45011450\over11 × 443\frac{44}{3} = 600 km

∴ The total distance between A and B is 600 km.

Question 55

Ravi gains 12.5% by selling an article for Rs. 157.50. If he sells it for Rs. 147, then what is his loss/gain percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Loss 5%

  2. BOption (b)

    Gain 5%

  3. COption (c)

    Gain 10.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    Loss 10.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gain 5%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

At SP1 = Rs.157.50, gain = 12.5%

SP2 = Rs. 147

Formula:

SP1(100+G1)SP_1\over(100+G_1) = SP2(100+G2)SP_2\over (100+G_2)

Where, SP1 and SP2 are the selling prices;

G1 and G2 = Gain Percentage

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ 157.5(100+12.5)157.5\over(100+12.5) = 147(100+G)147\over (100+G)

⇒ 757\over5 = 147(100+G)147\over (100+G)

⇒ 700 + 7G = 735

⇒ 7G = 35

⇒ G = 5

∴ The gain percentage is 5%.

Additional Information

We have arbitrarily assumed that the gain would be incurred on the transaction. Alternatively, we could assume that the transaction results in a loss and we would get the same result.

Question 56

A reduction of 1212\frac{1}{2}% in the price of wheat enables a person to buy 212\frac{1}{2} kg more for Rs. 280. Initially, how much wheat (in kg) was the person able to buy?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    12.5

  3. COption (c)

    17.5

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17.5

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let the cost per kg of wheat initially be "a".

∴ New cost per kg of wheat = (1 - 0.125) × a = 0.875a

Total wheat bought initially = 280a280\over a

Total wheat bought under reduced price = 2800.875a280\over 0.875a

According to the question,

⇒ 2800.875a280\over 0.875a - 280a280\over a = 52\frac{5}{2}

⇒ 280a280\over a × (10.8751\over 0.875 - 1) = 52\frac{5}{2}

⇒ a = 280 × 25\frac{2}{5} × 17\frac{1}{7} =  Rs 16

So, Initial wheat =  28016280\over 16 = 17.5 kg

17.5 kg of wheat was bought initially. 

Shortcut Trick 

According to the question,

Let, 5/2 kg more for (= 280 × 25/200) = Rs. 35

So, New SP per kg rate

⇒ 35 ÷ 5/2 = Rs. 14

New CP                         CP

     1                                4

 = 4 × 100/112.5             4

 = 3.5

So, new SP =14 + 3.5 = 17.5

∴  17.5 kg of wheat was bought at the reduced price.

Question 57

Vimala took a loan of Rs. 7,200 on simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 5,832 as interest at the end of the loan period, then the rate of interest is:

  1. AOption (a)

    8.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    9%

  3. COption (c)

    12%

  4. DOption (d)

    8%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9%

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

SI = (P x R x T) / 100

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time

Calculation :

Let the time and rate of interest be t.

According to the question,

⇒ 5,832 = (7,200 x t x t) / 100 

⇒ t2 = 5,832 / 72

⇒ t = 9 

∴ The rate of interest is 9%.

Question 58

Reema sold a suit at a profit of 10.5%. If she had sold it for Rs. 70 more, then the profit would have been 14%. The initial selling price (in Rs.) of the suit is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2,350

  2. BOption (b)

    2,140

  3. COption (c)

    2,210

  4. DOption (d)

    2,280

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2,210

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial profit = 10.5%

If SP = SP + 70, Profit = 14%

Calculations:

Let the cost price be 100 %

Difference in profit = 14 - 10.5 = 3.5 %

Now,

⇒ 3.5 % = Rs. 70

⇒ 1 % = 70/3.5 = Rs. 20

⇒ 100 % = 20 × 100 = Rs. 2000

Now, Initial SP = 2000 × 110.5/100 = Rs. 2210

∴ The initial price of the suit is Rs 2210.

Question 59

The value of 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [28 ÷ 6 of 4 - 20 ÷ 7 × (23 - 37) - 41] × 112\frac{1}{2} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    58\frac{5}{8}

  3. COption (c)

    32\frac{3}{2}

  4. DOption (d)

    54\frac{5}{4}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

54\frac{5}{4}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Calculation:

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [28 ÷ 6 of 4 - 20 ÷ 7 × (23 - 37) - 41] × 112\frac{1}{2} 

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [28 ÷ 6 of 4 - 20 ÷ 7 × (-14) - 41] × 112\frac{1}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [28 ÷ 24 - 20 ÷ 7 × (-14) - 41] × 112\frac{1}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [282428\over24 - 20720\over7 × (-14) - 41] × 112\frac{1}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [767\over6 - 20 × (-2) - 41] × 32\frac{3}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [767\over6 + 40 - 41] × 32\frac{3}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - [767\over6 - 1] × 32\frac{3}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 16 of 3 - 161\over6 × 32\frac{3}{2}

⇒ 72 ÷ 48 - 161\over6 × 32\frac{3}{2}

⇒ 724872 \over 48 - 161\over6 × 32\frac{3}{2}

⇒ 323 \over 2 - 141\over4 

⇒ 545\over4

∴ The answer to the equation is 545\over4.

Question 60

7 men can pack 14 boxes in 6 days by working for 7 hours a day. How many days will be required by 14 men to pack 18 boxes, if they work for 9 hours a day?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

7 men can pack 14 boxes by working 7 hrs/day in 6 days

14 men can pack 18 boxes in 9 hrs/day

Formula:

M1×D1W1M_1 × D_1\over W_1 = M2×D2W2M_2 × D_2 \over W_2

Where,

M1 and M2 = Number of men working for time D1 and D2.

D1 and D2 = Total time for which M1 and M2 worked respectively.

W1 and W2 = Work done.

Calculation:

Total time for which 7 men worked = 6 × 7 = 42 hours

Let the days required for 14 men have to work be "b".

⇒ Total time for which 14 men would have to work

⇒ b × 9 = 9b

According to the concept,

⇒ 7×42147 × 42\over {14} = 14×9b1814 × 9b \over 18

⇒ 7b = 21

⇒ b = 3 

∴ 14 men would have to work for 3 days.

Question 61

The average of 37 numbers is 49. The average of the first 21 numbers is 43.8 and that of the last 17 numbers is 55.6. If the 21st number is excluded, then what is the average of the remaining numbers (correct to one decimal place)?

  1. AOption (a)

    53.5

  2. BOption (b)

    48.9

  3. COption (c)

    49.7

  4. DOption (d)

    47.6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

48.9

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

Sum = Average × Total entities

Calculation:

Sum of 37 numbers = 49 × 37 = 1,813

Sum of first 21 numbers = 21 × 43.8 = 919.8

Sum of last 17 numbers = 17 × 55.6 = 945.2

Total sum of 38 numbers

⇒ 919.8 + 945.2 = 1,865

Difference i.e., 21th number = 1,865 - 1,813 = 52

Sum of the numbers excluding 21st number = 1813 - 52 = 1,761

Average = 1,761 / 36 = 48.9 

∴ The average of the remaining numbers is 48.9.

Question 62

Out of six numbers A, B, C, D, E and F, the average of first five numbers A, B, C, D and E is greater than the average of last five numbers B, C, D, E and F by 26. The difference between A and F is:

  1. AOption (a)

    130

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    140

  4. DOption (d)

    120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

130

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

Average = Sum of the numbers ÷ Total numbers

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ A+B+C+D+E5A+B+C+D+E\over5 - B+C+D+E+F5B+C+D+E+F\over5 = 26

⇒ A+B+C+D+E−B−C−D−E−F5A+B+C+D+E-B-C-D-E-F\over5 = 26

⇒ A−F5A-F\over5 = 26

⇒ A - F = 26 × 5 = 130

∴ The difference between A and F is 130.

Question 63

If a sum of Rs. 644 is divided into three parts proportional to 12\frac{1}{2}∶ 23\frac{2}{3} ∶ 34\frac{3}{4} then the first part will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 322

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 168

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 280

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 186

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 168

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

LCM of 2, 3, and 4 = 12

Multiplying the ratio by 12,

⇒ 12\frac{1}{2} × 12 : 23\frac{2}{3} × 12 : 34\frac{3}{4} × 12

⇒ 6 : 8 : 9

Now, First part = 6(6+8+9)6\over (6+8+9) × Rs 644 = Rs 168

∴ The first part is Rs 168.

Question 64

​The ratio of two numbers x and y is 4 ∶ 7. If 6 is added to x and 7 is subtracted from y, then their ratio becomes 3 ∶ 4. What is the difference between y and x?

  1. AOption (a)

    36

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

27

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let the common ratio be a unit.

⇒ The numbers x and y are 4a and 7a respectively.

According to the question,

⇒ 4a+67a−74a+6\over7a-7  = 343\over4

⇒ 4 × (4a + 6) = 3 × (7a - 7)

⇒ 16a + 24 = 21a - 21

⇒ 24 + 21 = 21a - 16a

⇒ 45 = 5a

⇒ a = 9

Difference between y and x = 7a - 4a = 3a

⇒ Difference = 3 × 9 = 27 

∴ The difference is 27.

Question 65

The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 176 cm2. What is the area (in cm2) of the base of the cylinder? (Take π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. AOption (a)

    447\frac{44}{7}

  2. BOption (b)

    1767\frac{176}{7}

  3. COption (c)

    667\frac{66}{7}

  4. DOption (d)

    887\frac{88}{7}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

887\frac{88}{7}

Why this answer is correct

Formula: 

Curved Surface Area, CSA = 2πrh unit

Area of the base = πr2 units

Wherea, R is radius of the base, r = radius of cylinder,

h = height of cylinder

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ 2 × 227\frac{22}{7} × r × 14 = 176

⇒ r = (176 × 7) ÷  (2 × 22 × 14) = 2 cm.

Now, Area of the base =  227\frac{22}{7} × 2 × 2 = 887\frac{88}{7} cm2. 

∴ The Area of the base of the cylinder is 887\frac{88}{7} cm2

Question 66

Radha saves 28% of her income. If her expenditure increases by 25% and savings increase by 30%, then by what percentage will her income increase?

  1. AOption (a)

    27.6%

  2. BOption (b)

    26.4%

  3. COption (c)

    27%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

26.4%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Savings = 28% of expenditure

Increase in savings = 30%

Increase in expenditure = 25%

Formula:

Income = Savings + Expenditure

Calculation:

Let income be 100 units.

Savings = Rs 28

∴ Expenditure = 100 - 28 = Rs 72.

According to the question,

New expenditure = 1.25 × 72 = Rs 90.

New savings = 1.30 × 28 = Rs 36.4

New Income = 90 + 36.4 = Rs 126.4

⇒ Increase in income = 126.4 - 100 = Rs 26.4

% increase = 26.410026.4\over100 × 100 = 26.4%

∴ There is a 26.4% increase in income.

Question 67

A sum of Rs. 10500 amounts to Rs. 12705 in 2 years at x % p.a., when the interest is compounded annually. The same sum will amount (in Rs.) to what at 2 x % p.a. in 112\frac{1}{2} years, when interest compounded half yearly?

  1. AOption (a)

    11297

  2. BOption (b)

    17395.75

  3. COption (c)

    13975.50

  4. DOption (d)

    19753.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

13975.50

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

A = P × (1 + R100R\over 100)T

CI = A - P

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time, A = Amount

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ 12,705 = 10,500 × (1 + x100x\over 100)2

⇒ 12,70510,50012,705\over10,500 =  (1 + x100x\over 100)2

⇒ (1110)2({11\over10})^2  = (1 + x100x\over 100)2

Taking square root on both sides,

⇒ 1 + x100x\over 100 = 111011\over 10

⇒ x100x\over 100 = 1101\over 10

⇒ x = 10%

New interest rate = 2x22x\over2 = 10 % semiannually.

Time (semiannual basis) = 32\frac{3}{2} × 2 = 3 semiannual times

So, New amount

⇒ 10,500 × (1 + 1010010\over 100)3 = Rs 13,975.5

∴ The amount is Rs 13,975.50

Question 68

A shopkeeper decides to sell a certain item at a certain price. He tags the price on the item by increasing the decided price by 45%. While selling the item, he offers 40% discount. Find how much more or less he gets on the decided price.

  1. AOption (a)

    87% less

  2. BOption (b)

    13% less

  3. COption (c)

    87% more

  4. DOption (d)

    13% more

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13% less

Why this answer is correct

Formula :

SP = MP × (1 - D%)

Where, MP = Marked Price, D% = Discount Percentage

Calculation:

Let the cost price be 100 units

⇒ MP = (1 + 4510045\over100) × 100 = 145 units

According to the question, 

SP = 145 × (1 - 4010040\over100) = 87 units

∴ Net decrease in the price = 87 - 100 = -13 units

So, In percentage = (13units /100 units) × 100 = 13%

∴ The shopkeeper gets 13% less on the decided price.

Additional Information

The negative sign in the answer is for representational purposes. The presence of the negative sign shows that the shopkeeper sold the product at a cost lesser than the original cost i.e., incurred a loss.

Question 69

Pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 10, 15 and 18 hours, respectively. A and C are opened for 5 hours, then only pipe A is closed and B is opened at the same time (with C). The total time taken to fill the tank completely is:

  1. AOption (a)

    323\frac{2}{3} hours

  2. BOption (b)

    6911\frac{9}{11} hours

  3. COption (c)

    5811\frac{8}{11} hours

  4. DOption (d)

    213\frac{1}{3} hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6911\frac{9}{11} hours

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

Efficiency = Total work done/ total time taken

Calculation:

Let the volume of the tank

⇒ LCM of 5, 10, 15, and 18 = 90 units

Efficiency of A = 90/10 = 9 units/hr

Efficiency of B = 90/15 = 6 units/hr

Efficiency of C = 90/18 = 5 units/hr

Total volume filled by A and C in 5 hours

⇒ (9 + 5) × 5 = 70 units

Remaining volume = 90 - 70 = 20 units 

Total volume filled by B and C in 1 hour

⇒ 6 + 5 = 11 units/hr

Time taken to fill the remaining volume by B and C

⇒ 201120\over11 = 19119\over11 hours

∴ Time taken to fill the complete tank = 5 + 19119\over11  = 69119\over11 hours

∴ The total time taken to fill the tank  is 69119\over11 hours.

Question 70

The LCM of two positive numbers is 6 times their HCF. The sum of HCF and LCM is 189. If one number is 54, then the other number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    73

  2. BOption (b)

    81

  3. COption (c)

    68

  4. DOption (d)

    63

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

81

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The ratio of HCF to LCM is 1 : 6, so total parts = 1 + 6 = 7.

7 parts = 189 ⇒ 1 part (HCF) = 27 and 6 parts (LCM) = 162.

Using the rule: Number1 × Number2 = LCM × HCF

54 × Number2 = 162 × 27

Number2 = (162 × 27) ÷ 54 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM = 6 × HCF

LCM + HCF = 189

First Number = 54

Formula Used:

LCM × HCF = Product of the two numbers

Calculations:

⇒ Let the HCF be x.

⇒ LCM = 6x

⇒ LCM + HCF = 189

⇒ 6x + x = 189

⇒ 7x = 189

⇒ x = 189 ÷ 7 = 27

⇒ So, HCF = 27 and LCM = 6 × 27 = 162

⇒ Now, First Number × Second Number = LCM × HCF

⇒ 54 × Second Number = 162 × 27

⇒ Second Number = (162 × 27) ÷ 54

⇒ Second Number = 162 × (27 ÷ 54)

⇒ Second Number = 162 ÷ 2 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Additional Information

Product Rule of HCF and LCM

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM. Formula: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Co-prime Property

If two numbers are expressed as H × x and H × y (where H is their HCF), then x and y must be co-prime to each other. Their LCM is mathematically given by H × x × y.

Fractions HCF and LCM

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators). LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

Question 71

A person travels equal distances at speeds of 3 km/h, 4 km/h, 5 km/h and 6 km/h, and takes a total time of 3 hours 48 minutes. The total distance (in km) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

D = S × T

Where, D = Distance traveled, S = Speed, T = Time taken

Calculation:

Time in hours = 3486048\over60 = 345{4\over5} = 195{19\over5} hours

Let the distance be "d".

Time taken for walking at 3 km/h = d3d\over 3

Time taken for walking at 4 km/h = d4d\over 4

Time taken for walking at 5 km/h = d5d\over 5

Time taken for walking at 6 km/h = d6d\over 6

Total time taken = d3d\over 3 +  d4d\over 4 + d5d\over 5 + d6d\over 6 = 57d6057d\over 60

According to the question,

⇒ 57d6057d\over 60 = 195{19\over5}

⇒ d = 60×1957×560× 19\over 57× 5 = 4 km

So, Total distance traveled = 4d = 4 × 4 = 16 km.

∴ The total distance is 16 km.

Question 72

​Madhu bought 35 kg of sugar for Rs. 1,470. She sold it at a loss equal to the selling price of 5 kg of it. What is the selling price (in Rs.) of 8 kg of sugar?

  1. AOption (a)

    296

  2. BOption (b)

    288

  3. COption (c)

    300

  4. DOption (d)

    294

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

294

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Selling Price (SP) of 1 kg sugar be 1 unit.

Total SP of 35 kg = 35 units | Loss = SP of 5 kg = 5 units.

Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss = 35 + 5 = 40 units.

Given 40 units = Rs. 1,470 ⇒ 1 unit (SP of 1 kg) = 1,470 ÷ 40 = Rs. 36.75.

SP of 8 kg = 8 × 36.75 = Rs. 294.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 294.

Alternate Method

Given: Total CP of 35 kg = Rs. 1,470 | Loss = SP of 5 kg.

Formulas: Loss = CP − SP | SP = CP − Loss

⇒ Loss = CP of 35 kg − SP of 35 kg

⇒ SP of 5 kg = CP of 35 kg − SP of 35 kg

⇒ SP of 40 kg = CP of 35 kg = Rs. 1,470

��� SP of 1 kg = 1,470 ÷ 40 = Rs. 36.75

⇒ SP of 8 kg = 36.75 × 8 = Rs. 294

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 294.

Additional Information

Loss in terms of SP

When loss is given as SP of 'n' articles, CP is equivalent to the SP of (Total + n) articles.

Profit in terms of SP

When profit is given as SP of 'n' articles, CP is equivalent to the SP of (Total − n) articles.

Question 73

A sum of Rs. 980 is divided among A, B and C such that A gets 37\frac{3}{7} of B's share and C gets 75% of A's share. The share of C

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 160

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 250

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 180

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 280

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 180

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total sum = Rs. 980

A's share = 3/7 × B' share

C's share = 75% × A's share

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ A = 3B/7

⇒ C = 75/100 × 3B/7 = 9B/28

∴ Share of C

⇒ (9B/28)/(3b/7 + B + 9B/28) × 980 

⇒ 9B28\frac{9B}{28} × 2849B\frac{28}{49B} × 980 = Rs 180

∴ The share of C is Rs 180.

Question 74

The surface areas of three coterminous faces of a cuboid are 5 cm2, 16 cm2 and 20 cm2 respectively. Find the volume of the cuboid.

  1. AOption (a)

    45 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    50 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    30 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    40 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

V = lbh

Where, V = volume of the cuboid

l, b, and h are the sides of the cuboid respectively.

Concept:

In the figure above, three coterminous sides (highlighted in bold color) are faces ADEF, ABCD, and ABEG

From the figure,

⇒ Area of ADEF = b × h = bh

⇒ Area of ABCD = l × b = lb

⇒ Area of ABEG = l × h = lh

∴ Product of the area of coterminous faces = bh × lb × lh = l2b2h2 = (lbh)2

Taking the square root of the product = lbh = volume of the cuboid

Calculation:

Product of the area of coterminous faces

⇒ 5 cm2 × 16 cm2 × 20 cm2 = 1600 cm6

Volume of the cuboid = √(1600 cm6) = 40 cm3

∴ The volume of the cuboid is 40 cm3.

Question 75

Find the value of 94159\frac{4}{15} ÷ 78\frac{7}{8} of (615+325)−(221+1126) (6\frac{1}{5} + 3\frac{2}{5}) - (\frac{2}{21} + \frac{1}{126}).

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Calculation:

 94159\frac{4}{15} ÷ 78\frac{7}{8} of (615+325)−(221+1126)(6\frac{1}{5} + 3\frac{2}{5}) - (\frac{2}{21} + \frac{1}{126})

⇒ 13915\frac{139}{15} ÷ 78\frac{7}{8} of (485)−(13126)(\frac{48}{5}) - (\frac{13}{126})

⇒ 13915\frac{139}{15} ÷ 425\frac{42}{5} −13126 - \frac{13}{126}

⇒ 13915\frac{139}{15} × 542\frac{5}{42} −13126 - \frac{13}{126}

⇒ 139126\frac{139}{126} −13126 - \frac{13}{126}

⇒ 126126\frac{126}{126} = 1

∴ The answer to the equation is 1.

English (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To give up the ghost

  1. AOption (a)

    To pretend to be a ghost

  2. BOption (b)

    To scare away a ghost

  3. COption (c)

    To stop working

  4. DOption (d)

    To speak lies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To stop working

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "to stop working".

Key Points

  • To give up the ghost means to stop trying to do something because you know that you will not succeed.
  • ​Example: In a meaningful relationship you will never give up the ghost.
  • ​From the given meaning of the given idiom and the example sentence, we are sure that the correct answer is option 3.

Question 77

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Drainage

  2. BOption (b)

    Opening

  3. COption (c)

    Spoonful

  4. DOption (d)

    Vegeteble

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vegeteble

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous spelling is 'Vegeteble'.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling and the meaning of the marked option :
  • Vegetable:a plant or part of a plant that we eat. 
  • Example: Potatoes, beans, and onions are vegetables.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • All the given options are correctly spelled. Let's see their meanings :
  • Drainage: a system used for making water, etc. flow away from a place.
  • Opening : a space or hole that somebody/something can go through.
  • Spoonful: the amount that one spoon can hold.

Question 78

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sumptuous

  2. BOption (b)

    Prosperous

  3. COption (c)

    Pretious

  4. DOption (d)

    Pompous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pretious

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous spelling is 'Pretious'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct spelling and meaning of the marked option:
  • Precious: of great value (usually because it is rare or difficult to find).
  • Example: Love is the most precious feeling.
  • All other words are correctly spelled; let's discuss them:
  • Sumptuous: very expensive and impressive; lavish.
  • Prosperous:  rich and successful.
  • Pompous: exaggeratedly or ostentatiously dignified or self-important.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 79

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Radha was extremely ________ about the welfare of her parents.

  1. AOption (a)

    impatient

  2. BOption (b)

    eager

  3. COption (c)

    intense

  4. DOption (d)

    anxious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

anxious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "anxious".

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the four given options for choosing the most appropriate word :
  • Impatient: having or showing a tendency to be quickly irritated or provoked.
  • Eager: strongly wanting to do or have something.
  • Intense : existing or occurring to a high or extreme degree.
  • Anxious: worried and nervous.
  • From the given options and after understanding the context of the given sentence, Radha was extremely worried about the welfare of her parents.
  • The most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is Anxious which is similar in meaning to worried as stated above.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 80

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

All the mangoes is sweet; you should try one.

  1. AOption (a)

    All the mangoes are sweet

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution required

  3. COption (c)

    All mangoes sweet

  4. DOption (d)

    All the mangoes sweet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All the mangoes are sweet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "All the mangoes are sweet".

Key Points

  • Let us see about the 'Subject-Verb Agreement'.
  • Subjects and verbs must agree with one another in number .
  • Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular.
  • If a subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.
  • In this question, 'is' has been used after 'mangoes' which is wrong.
  • As 'mangoes' is a 'plural noun', therefore 'plural verb' should be used with it.
  • Therefore, an error is present in the 'underlined part ' of the sentence.
  • Hence, 'is' present in this part of the sentence should be replaced by 'are'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 81

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Defend

  1. AOption (a)

    Abandon

  2. BOption (b)

    Tarnish

  3. COption (c)

    Adjourn

  4. DOption (d)

    Derange

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Abandon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Abandon".

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of Defend.
  • Defend: to prevent something from failing, stopping, or being taken away, uphold, to say things to support someone or something that is being criticized. (रक्षा करना, समर्थन करना)
  • Let's understand the meaning of the marked option :
  • Abandon:  to give up completely, or to stop looking after someone. (छोड़ना, परित्याग करना, बहिष्कार करना)
  • ​Example:  The air bombings forced the natives to abandon their homes.
  • ​From the given meaning and the example of the given word, we are sure that the marked option is the opposite in meaning of the given word 'Defend'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given other options :
  • Tarnish: to become or to make something less bright and shiny. (कलंकित करना)
  • Adjourn: to put off or suspend until a future time. (स्थगित करना)
  • Derange: to disturb the order or arrangement of; throw into disorder. (अव्यवस्थित करना, उलट पलट करना)
  • )

Question 82

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

These children / are attended / yoga classes / regularly.

  1. AOption (a)

    yoga classes

  2. BOption (b)

    regularly

  3. COption (c)

    These children

  4. DOption (d)

    are attended

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

are attended

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: are attended.

Key Points

  • The given context is in the present indefinite tense.
  • The use of 'regularly' in the sentence hints at the fact that the sentence is in the present indefinite tense.
  • The helping verb 'are' can never be followed by a V3 form of verb. It must always be followed by the 'ing' form of verb (in the active voice).
  • For example: They are going to the station.
  • Hence, in this context, the use of 'are attended' is incorrect.
  • It must be replaced by 'attend'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: These children attend yoga classes regularly.

Question 83

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who travels on foot

  1. AOption (a)

    Visitor

  2. BOption (b)

    Traveller

  3. COption (c)

    Tourist

  4. DOption (d)

    Pedestrian

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pedestrian

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Pedestrian'.

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of the marked option:
  • Pedestrian:  a person who goes or travels on foot.
  • Example: Pedestrian accidents are still relevant in the news today.
  • ​​With the given meaning and example*,* the correct one-word substitution for the given sentence is 'Pedestrian'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 84

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Not breathe a word

  1. AOption (a)

    To be quiet not knowing what to say

  2. BOption (b)

    To be quiet because you are angry

  3. COption (c)

    To decide not to talk to someone

  4. DOption (d)

    To remain silent about some secret

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To remain silent about some secret

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Not breathe a word'.

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom :
  • Not breathe a word: Not reveal a secret, keep concealed, to not tell anyone about something.
  • Example: I promised her that I wouldn't breathe a word of this to anyone.
  • From the example sentence and the meaning of the given idiom, we are sure that it means to remain silent about some secret.
  • The correct answer is option 4.

Question 85

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Social distancing should be practiced in ________ with other everyday preventive actions.

  1. AOption (a)

    comprehension

  2. BOption (b)

    understanding

  3. COption (c)

    arrangement

  4. DOption (d)

    combination

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

combination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Combination".

Key Points

  • Let us explore the given options :
  • Comprehension:  is the ability to understand.
  • Understanding: the knowledge that somebody has of a particular subject or situation.
  • Arrangement: plans or preparations for something that will happen in the future.
  • Combination: something created by joining or mixing two or more people or things together.
  • In the given sentence, there is a mixing of social distancing with other preventive actions. So, the most appropriate word from the given options is 'Combination'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Petty

  1. AOption (a)

    Quick

  2. BOption (b)

    Dull

  3. COption (c)

    Big

  4. DOption (d)

    Light

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Big

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Big".

Key Points

  • Petty :not important and not worth giving attention to.
  • Example: He seems to take delight in petty cruelty.
  • Petty also means small and unimportant.
  • ​Example:  The officer did not arrest the teen for the petty crime
  • From the given meaning and the above example sentence, it is clear that 'big' from the given options is the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
  • Thus,the correct answer is option 3.

Question 87

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

Please walk carefully unless you should hurt yourself.

  1. AOption (a)

    or you might

  2. BOption (b)

    No improvement required

  3. COption (c)

    unless you will

  4. DOption (d)

    so you should

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

or you might

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Or you might".

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, or you might' should be used instead of 'unless you should'.
  • Here, the person is told to walk carefully or he might hurt himself.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

**Correct sentence :**Please walk carefully or you might hurt yourself.

Question 88

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Plants that grow / in deserts / do not requires / much water.

  1. AOption (a)

    do not requires

  2. BOption (b)

    much water

  3. COption (c)

    in deserts

  4. DOption (d)

    Plants that grow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

do not requires

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous segment is "do not requires".

Key Points

  • The given sentence is incorrect.
  • The error lies in 'do not requires' segment.
  • It should be 'do not require' instead of 'do not requires'.
  • 'Require' goes with plural subjects. Requires goes with singular subjects.
  • As per the subject-verb agreement, Require is correct as it is used with a plural subject .
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

The Maldives is one of the few places in the world where ancient pleasure can be derived from doing nothing.

  1. AOption (a)

    curt

  2. BOption (b)

    bustling

  3. COption (c)

    tremendous

  4. DOption (d)

    prosperous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

tremendous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Tremendous'.

Key Points

  • In this given sentence, we need to substitute the 'ancient' word with the most appropriate word from the given options :
  • Let's understand the meaning of the given words :
  • Curt: short and not polite.(संक्षिप्‍त और रूखा)
  • **Bustling :**to be full of people, noise or activity.(व्‍यक्तियों, शोर या गतिविधियों से भरा होना; हलचल होना)
  • Prosperous: rich and successful.(समृद्घ (धनी और सफल)
  • Tremendous(adjective): very great in amount, scale, or intensity(बहुत अच्‍छा, असाधारण).
  • Example:  Preparing from Testbook.com is giving us tremendous pleasure in our preparation.
  • ​From, the given meanings of all the four options and the example sentence given above, the correct substitution for the given word is 'Tremendous '.
  • The correct answer is option 3.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.

Choke

  1. AOption (a)

    Hack

  2. BOption (b)

    Block

  3. COption (c)

    Slash

  4. DOption (d)

    Chop

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Block

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Block".

Key Points

  • The word 'Choke' means  to cut off oxygen, to be unable to breath, to block something.
  • Example :  I will choke it with my strong arms and will not allow it to move.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the given options:
  • Hack: is to cut or chop something with short strong blows
  • Block: to prevent movement through or past something
  • Slash: to cut someone or something with a sharp blade in quick.
  • Chop: to cut something into pieces with a knife.
  • It is clear that Choke and 'Block' are similar in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

If you do not return my money, I will ______ you to court.

  1. AOption (a)

    push

  2. BOption (b)

    lift

  3. COption (c)

    carry

  4. DOption (d)

    drag

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

drag

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "drag".

Key Points

  • The given sentence 'If you do not return my money, I will ______ you to court." needs an appropriate word from the given options to be filled in the blank.
  • The person is saying to another person that if he does not return his money back then he will take him to the court.
  • The marked option  Drag: means to make somebody come or go somewhere.
  • Example: You can come with me quietly, or I can drag you out of here.
  • From the given example and the meaning of the marked option, we are clear that 'drag' is the appropriate word to be filled in the blank.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 92

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error.

Select the part that contains the error from the given options.

Neither the guests / nor the host / were dressed appropriately / for the party.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither the guests

  2. BOption (b)

    were dressed appropriately

  3. COption (c)

    nor the host

  4. DOption (d)

    for the party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

were dressed appropriately

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous segment is "were dressed correctly".

Key Points

  • Neither-nor is a co-relative conjunction that connects two parts of a sentence to each other.
  • It takes the verb according to the nearest subject of the sentence.
  • Example: Neither Ravi nor shubham is available.
  • But in the given sentence, 'the host' is singular and it is the nearest subject.
  • So, as per the above rule, 'was' should be used instead of 'were'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: Neither the guests nor the host was dressed appropriately for the party.

Question 93

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A cage for keeping rabbits

  1. AOption (a)

    Hutch

  2. BOption (b)

    Lair

  3. COption (c)

    Apiary

  4. DOption (d)

    Kennel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hutch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Hutch'.

Key Points 

  • We need to substitute 'a cage for keeping rabbits' from the given options:
  • Let's understand the meaning of the given marked option :
  • Hutch: a type of cage used typically for housing domestic rabbits.
  • From the above meaning of the marked option, it is clear that the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words is 'Hutch'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

  • Lair: a place where a wild animal lives, often underground and hidden.
  • Apiary: a place where bees are kept.
  • Kennel:a small house for a dog.

Question 94

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A spider’s home

  1. AOption (a)

    Hole

  2. BOption (b)

    Den

  3. COption (c)

    Cobweb

  4. DOption (d)

    Hive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cobweb

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cobweb'.

Key Points

  • We need to substitute 'a spider's home' from the given options:
  • Hole:  an opening; a space in something solid.
  • Den: the lair or shelter of a wild animal.
  • Cobweb:  a structure of thin, sticky threads made by a spider to entrap its prey.
  • Hive: a structure where bees live.
  • So, from the given meanings of all the options, we are sure that 'Cobweb' is an entity linked with 'spiders' where they live and entrap its prey.
  • Thus,the correct answer is option 3.

Question 95

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Marvellous

  1. AOption (a)

    Dangerous

  2. BOption (b)

    Childish

  3. COption (c)

    Wonderful

  4. DOption (d)

    Innocent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wonderful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Wonderful".

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given word :
  • Marvellous: very good; wonderful.
  • Example: The teacher training program at testbook is a marvellous opportunity for an individual who wants to become a subject matter expert.
  • ​By the meaning and example, we can say that 'wonderful' is a similar word for 'Marvellous.'
  • Hence option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Dangerous: threatening and likely to cause injury.
  • Childish: behaving in a silly and annoying way.
  • Innocent: not having done wrong.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Consumption of junk and fast food is the main (1)______ of obesity in teenagers. Large intake of high-calorie and low-nutrient food leads to (2)______ weight gain. A number of health issues arise out of it. Obesity can also result in (3)______ problems like low self-esteem and low confidence. It can also lead to laziness and in activeness among teens. Junk food and soft drinks should be (4)______ with lots of fruits, vegetables and whole grains in the diet. The best way to control obesity is to do (5)______ physical exercise.

Question 96

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    result

  2. BOption (b)

    effect

  3. COption (c)

    cause

  4. DOption (d)

    event

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cause

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Cause".

Key Points

  • 'Consumption of junk and fast food is the main  (1)______of obesity in teenagers' The given sentence needs an appropriate word from the given options to be filled in the blank.
  • The marked option 'Cause' means ' reason for feeling something or behaving in a particular way'.
  • The given sentence talks about that the reason for obesity in teenagers is the consumption of junk and fast food.
  • Thus, the marked option is the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: Consumption of junk and fast food is the main cause of obesity in teenagers.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    insignificant

  2. BOption (b)

    unnecessary

  3. COption (c)

    irrelevant

  4. DOption (d)

    necessary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

unnecessary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Unnecessary".

Key Points

  • The given sentence 'Large intake of high-calorie and low-nutrient food leads to (2)______ weight gain' conveys that the large intake of high-calorie and low-nutrient food leads to superfluous weight gain.
  • So, we need to choose the appropriate option that is similar in meaning to the word 'superfluous'.
  • Insignificant: of little value or importance.
  • Unnecessary: more than is needed or acceptable.
  • Irrelevant: not connected with something or important to it.
  • Necessary: that is needed for a purpose or a reason.
  • The word 'unnecessary' is similar in meaning to the word 'Superfluous'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence : 'Large intake of high-calorie and low-nutrient food leads to unnecessary weight gain'

Question 98

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    physiological

  2. BOption (b)

    psychological

  3. COption (c)

    political

  4. DOption (d)

    mental

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

psychological

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Psychological'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence 'Obesity can also result in (3)______ problems like low self-esteem and low confidence'  discusses the type of mental issues that are linked with Obesity.
  • The marked option 'psychological' means mental or emotional rather than physical.
  • It is clear that 'psychological' deals with mental issues such as low self-esteem and low confidence and it is conveyed too in the given sentence.
  • Therefore,the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence : Obesity can also result in psychological problems like low self-esteem and low confidence.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    altered

  2. BOption (b)

    exchanged

  3. COption (c)

    placed

  4. DOption (d)

    substituted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

substituted

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Substituted'.

  • The given sentence 'Junk food and soft drinks should be (4)______ with lots of fruits' says that Junk food and soft drinks should be replaced with lots of fruits.
  • From the given options, 'Substituted' is the only word which is similar in meaning to the word 'replaced'.
  • Thus, the most appropriate word is 'Substituted'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

**Correct Sentence :**Junk food and soft drinks should be substituted with lots of fruits.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    unsystematic

  2. BOption (b)

    formal

  3. COption (c)

    regular

  4. DOption (d)

    irregular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

regular

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'regular'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence 'The best way to control obesity is to do (5)______ physical exercise.' talks about the best way to control obesity is to do consistent physical exercise.
  • From the given options, we need to choose the appropriate one to be filled in the blank.
  • Regular: steady in practice or occurrence.
  • Example:  We're going to play tennis there on a regular basis.
  • From the given meaning of the marked word and the example sentence given above, It suits well in the given context.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

100 questions in the full paper