SSC GD Constable (2024) Official Paper (Held On: 24 Feb, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in the Option Figure 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

JRVP : IQUO

So checking each option one by one:

Option 1) QJBV : PIAU

Option 2) NOPX : ZWXV 

Option 3) NDUR : ABOC

Option 4) WWYR : URUO

Thus, out of all the options "QJBV : PIAU" follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given : 26 + 2 × 8 - 4 ÷ 1 = 14

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

Option 1) - and ×

26 + 2 × 8 - 4 ÷ 1 = 14 ⇒ 26 + 2 - 8 × 4 ÷ 1 = 14

⇒ 26 + 2 - 8 × 4 ÷ 1 = 14

⇒ 26 + 2 - 8 × 4 = 14

⇒ 26 + 2 - 32 = 14

⇒ 28 - 32 = 14

⇒ -4 ≠ 14 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) = and -

26 + 2 × 8 - 4 ÷ 1 = 14 ⇒ 26 + 2 × 8 = 4 ÷ 1 - 14

⇒ 26 + 2 × 8 = 4 ÷ 1 - 14

⇒ 26 + 16 = 4 - 14

⇒ 42 ≠ -10 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) = and ×

26 + 2 × 8 - 4 ÷ 1 = 14 ⇒ 26 + 2 = 8 - 4 ÷ 1 × 14

⇒ 26 + 2 = 8 - 4 ÷ 1 × 14

⇒ 28 = 8 - 4 × 14

⇒ 28 = 8 - 56

⇒ 28 ≠ -48 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) + and -

26 + 2 × 8 - 4 ÷ 1 = 14 ⇒ 26 - 2 × 8 + 4 ÷ 1 = 14

⇒ 26 - 2 × 8 + 4 ÷ 1 = 14

⇒ 26 - 2 × 8 + 4 = 14

⇒ 26 + 4 - 16 = 14

⇒ 30 - 16 = 14

⇒ 14 = 14 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'FIELD' is coded as '41'

And,

'WONDER' is coded as '84'

Similarly,

'SKILL' is coded as

​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Animal and its young one.

Here,

Penguin : Chick → Chick is the young one of a Penguin.

Similarly,

Duck : Duckling → Duckling is the young one of a Duck.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1. The number of shaded squares in the rhombus element are increasing subsequently.

2) The number of shaded squares at the bottom are increasing subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. The element in rotating in the clockwise direction subsequently.

2) The rotation degrees are increasing by 45º.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Six people Alice, Bob, Carol, David, Emily, and Frank are sitting on a circular table facing towards the centre. 

1) Carol sits to the immediate right of Bob.

2) Carol is an immediate neighbour of Frank.

3) David sits between Alice and Emily.

4) Frank and Alice are not neighbors.

Thus, according to the final arrangement David sits to the immediate right of Emily.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some chairs are tables → Does not follow (As some chairs are not tables. As some part of the chairs cannot be tables, so the left part can be tables but cannot be proved, therefore it is false.)

II. Some chairs being curtains is possible → Follow (As all curtains are beds and some beds are chairs. As whole curtains comes in beds which has some part common with chairs, therefore some chairs can be curtains is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given: Five friends Pooja, Bhawna, Charu, Geeta and Hema are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre.

1) Bhawna is second to the left of Hema.

2. Geeta is the immediate neighbour of Bhawna and Hema. 

3) Charu is not the immediate neighbour of Bhawna.

After positioning Charu only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. Pooja.

Thus, according to the final arrangement Hema is sitting to the immediate left of Charu.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​BOTTLE is coded as CNUUMD

And,

GLASS is coded as HMZTT

Similarly,

MIRROR will be coded as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Consider A and C as '+'

Consider B as '×'

So,

13 A 14 B 15 C 20 = 243 ⇒ 13 + 14 × 15 + 20 = 243

⇒ 13 + 14 × 15 + 20 = 243

⇒ 13 + 210 + 20 = 243

⇒ 243 = 243 (LHS = RHS)

And,

15 A 10 B 8 C 9 = 104 ⇒ 15 + 10 × 8 + 9 = 104

 ⇒ 15 + 10 × 8 + 9 = 104

⇒ 15 + 80 + 9 = 104

⇒ 104 = 104 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

45 A 10 B 18 C 50 = ? ⇒ 45 + 10 × 18 + 50 = ?

⇒ 45 + 10 × 18 + 50 = ?

⇒ 45 + 180 + 50 = ?

⇒ 275 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given statement: Pointing towards a picture of a man, Rakhi said, "He is the brother of my son's mother". 

​

Thus, the man is Rakhi's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct Dictionary order is:

4. Life
5. Lift
6. Light
7. Lignite
8. Like

So, the correct order are: '4, 3, 1, 5, 2'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Chhau.

Key Points

• Chhau is a traditional Indian dance form with origins in the eastern states of India, particularly West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Odisha.
• It is known for its vigorous movements and martial arts-inspired choreography, often depicting stories from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Chhau dance is performed during local festivals and is a blend of folk and classical elements, using elaborate masks and costumes.
• In 2010, UNESCO inscribed Chhau dance in the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Additional Information

• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists.
• It is conferred by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy for Music, Dance and Drama.
• The award is given to artists who have made a significant contribution to their respective fields and has categories for music, dance, theatre, and other traditional arts.
• Recipients of the award receive a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize.
• Other Dance Forms Mentioned
• Sattriya: A classical dance-drama performance art of Assam, Sattriya was introduced in the 15^th century by the Vaishnava saint Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardev.
• Odissi: Originating from the state of Odisha, Odissi is one of the oldest surviving dance forms in India, known for its graceful movements and sculpturesque poses.
• Kuchipudi: This classical dance form hails from Andhra Pradesh and combines dance, music, and acting, often telling stories from Hindu epics.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, which regulates the banking and financial sectors in the country.
• RBI has the authority to regulate and supervise microfinance institutions (MFIs) to ensure their compliance with the regulatory framework.
• The regulations set by the RBI help in maintaining the financial stability and transparency of MFIs.
• RBI's regulations are aimed at protecting the interests of borrowers and maintaining the integrity of the microfinance sector.

Additional Information

• Microfinance Institutions (MFIs)
• MFIs are financial institutions that provide small loans and other financial services to low-income individuals or groups who lack access to traditional banking services.
• These institutions play a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion by providing credit to economically weaker sections of society.
• MFIs typically offer loans for income-generating activities, thereby helping borrowers to improve their livelihoods and escape poverty.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• The RBI, established in 1935, is the central bank of India and is responsible for regulating the monetary and financial system of the country.
• It regulates the issuance and supply of the Indian rupee and manages the country's main payment systems.
• The RBI is also responsible for overseeing the country's foreign exchange and gold reserves.
• Regulatory Framework for MFIs
• The RBI sets guidelines and regulations for MFIs to ensure they operate in a transparent and accountable manner.
• These regulations include guidelines on interest rates, loan disbursement processes, and borrower protection measures.
• The objective is to protect borrowers from excessive interest rates and ensure fair lending practices.
• Financial Inclusion
• Financial inclusion is the process of ensuring access to financial services and timely and adequate credit where needed by vulnerable groups such as weaker sections and low-income groups at an affordable cost.
• It aims to eliminate barriers that exclude people from participating in the financial sector and enable them to access financial products and services.
• Financial inclusion is seen as a key driver for socio-economic development and poverty alleviation.

The correct answer is Fourth five year plan.

Key Points

• The Fourth Five Year Plan of India was implemented from 1969 to 1974.
• One of the major targets during this plan was the implementation of family planning programs to control the population growth.
• The plan aimed to improve the agricultural sector and achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
• It also focused on industrial development and the promotion of social welfare schemes.

Additional Information

• Family Planning Programmes
• The family planning programmes aimed at controlling the population growth by promoting the use of contraceptives and educating the population about the benefits of smaller family sizes.
• These programmes were essential to ensure sustainable development and reduce the strain on resources.
• The government also introduced incentives for families who adopted family planning measures.
• Self-Sufficiency in Food Grains
• The Fourth Five Year Plan emphasized achieving self-sufficiency in food grains to reduce dependence on imports.
• Efforts were made to increase agricultural productivity through the adoption of modern farming techniques and the use of high-yielding variety seeds.
• Support was also provided to farmers in terms of subsidies and access to credit.
• Industrial Development
• The plan focused on promoting industrial growth to create employment opportunities and boost the economy.
• It encouraged the establishment of small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs) and provided support for the modernization of existing industries.
• Social Welfare Schemes
• Various social welfare schemes were introduced to improve the living standards of the population.
• These included initiatives for education, healthcare, and housing.
• The plan also aimed at reducing poverty and promoting social equity.

The correct answer is Article 51A(f).

Key Points

• Article 51A(f) of the Indian Constitution states that it is the duty of every citizen of India to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• This article is part of the Fundamental Duties which were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• Fundamental Duties are moral obligations on the citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
• There are a total of 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties
• Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• They are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR (now Russia).
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties.
• There were originally ten duties, but the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002 added an eleventh duty.
• The duties apply only to citizens and not to foreigners.
• 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976
• Also known as the Mini-Constitution, it was enacted during the Emergency by the Indira Gandhi government.
• This amendment brought about comprehensive changes to the Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties.
• It also introduced changes in the Preamble and gave more powers to the central government vis-à-vis state governments.
• Swaran Singh Committee
• This committee was set up in 1976 to make recommendations about fundamental duties.
• It was chaired by Sardar Swaran Singh, who was then the Minister of External Affairs.
• The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.

The correct answer is Abolition of titles.

Key Points

• The Right to Equality is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
• Article 18 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Abolition of titles and is a part of the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18).
• Article 18 prohibits the state from conferring any title on any citizen or non-citizen, except military and academic distinctions.
• This article aims to prevent the creation of a hierarchical society and ensure that all citizens are treated equally.

Additional Information

• Article 14
• Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• This article is the cornerstone of the Right to Equality and ensures that no person is discriminated against on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 15
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It allows the state to make special provisions for women and children, and for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• Article 16
• Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• This article ensures that no citizen shall be discriminated against on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them in respect of any employment or office under the State.
• Article 17
• Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
• The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offense punishable in accordance with law.

The correct answer is Dissolved Oxygen.

Key Points

• Most aquatic animals, including fish, require dissolved oxygen in water to breathe.
• Dissolved oxygen is oxygen that is mixed into water and is essential for the survival of aquatic organisms.
• Aquatic animals extract dissolved oxygen from water through their gills or other respiratory surfaces.
• Low levels of dissolved oxygen in water can lead to hypoxia, which can be detrimental to aquatic life.

Additional Information

• Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
• It refers to the amount of oxygen that is present in water. The level of dissolved oxygen is an important indicator of water quality.
• DO is essential for the respiration of aquatic life, especially fish, invertebrates, and aerobic bacteria.
• Factors that affect DO levels include water temperature, salinity, and the presence of organic matter.
• DO levels can be measured using various methods such as chemical titration, electrochemical analysis, and optical sensors.
• Hypoxia
• It is a condition in which there is a deficiency of oxygen in the water, leading to an environment where aquatic life struggles to survive.
• Hypoxia can be caused by various factors, including pollution, excessive nutrient runoff, and algal blooms.
• Prolonged hypoxic conditions can result in "dead zones" where most marine life cannot survive.
• Gills
• Gills are the respiratory organs of fish and some other aquatic animals.
• They allow these animals to extract dissolved oxygen from water and expel carbon dioxide.
• Gills are highly efficient at oxygen exchange, and their large surface area facilitates the diffusion of gases.
• Oxygen Solubility
• The solubility of oxygen in water decreases as the temperature increases.
• Cold water can hold more dissolved oxygen compared to warm water.
• Salinity also affects oxygen solubility; freshwater can hold more dissolved oxygen than saltwater.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• Geographical Location: Pakistan is located to the west of India and shares a significant border with it.
• Historical Context: The India-Pakistan border was established following the partition of British India in 1947, which led to the creation of Pakistan.
• Geopolitical Significance: The relationship between India and Pakistan is of major geopolitical importance due to historical conflicts and ongoing territorial disputes, particularly over the region of Kashmir.
• Border Length: The India-Pakistan border is approximately 3,323 kilometers long and is one of the most heavily militarized borders in the world.

Additional Information

• Partition of British India:
• The partition of British India in 1947 resulted in the creation of two independent dominions: India and Pakistan.
• The partition led to one of the largest mass migrations in human history and significant communal violence.
• The Radcliffe Line, named after its architect Sir Cyril Radcliffe, was the boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan.
• Indo-Pakistani Wars:
• India and Pakistan have fought three major wars since their independence: in 1947, 1965, and 1971.
• The 1971 war led to the creation of Bangladesh, formerly East Pakistan.
• There have also been numerous skirmishes and border conflicts, particularly in the Kashmir region.
• Kashmir Conflict:
• The Kashmir conflict is a territorial dispute between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir region.
• Both countries claim the region in full but control only parts of it.
• The conflict has resulted in several wars and ongoing military standoffs.
• Line of Control (LoC):
• The Line of Control (LoC) is the de facto border between India and Pakistan in the region of Jammu and Kashmir.
• It was established following the Simla Agreement in 1972 after the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971.
• The LoC is highly militarized and often a site of conflict and skirmishes between the two countries.

The correct answer is Pongal.

Key Points

• Pongal is a major harvest festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu, a state in southern India.
• Jalli Kattu is a traditional event involving bulls, which is held as part of the Pongal festivities.
• This festival typically takes place in mid-January and lasts for four days, each day having its own significance.
• Pongal is named after the traditional dish prepared during the festival, which is made of newly harvested rice, milk, and jaggery.

Additional Information

• Jalli Kattu
• Jalli Kattu, also known as "Eru Thazhuvuthal" and "Mancuvirattu," is a traditional bull-taming sport played in Tamil Nadu as part of the Pongal celebrations.
• The sport is usually held on the third day of Pongal, known as "Mattu Pongal," which is dedicated to cattle.
• Participants attempt to grab the hump of the bulls and hold on to them for a certain distance or time.
• Jalli Kattu has been a subject of controversy due to concerns about animal welfare, but it remains an integral part of Tamil culture and tradition.
• Pongal Festival Days
• Bhogi Pongal: The first day of Pongal is dedicated to Lord Indra, the god of rain, to seek his blessings for the agricultural prosperity of the land.
• Surya Pongal: The second day is dedicated to the Sun God, Surya, and is the main day of the Pongal festival. The traditional dish "Pongal" is prepared and offered to the Sun God.
• Mattu Pongal: The third day is dedicated to cattle, which play a crucial role in agriculture. Cows and bulls are decorated, and events like Jalli Kattu are held.
• Kaanum Pongal: The fourth day is a time for socializing and family reunions, where people visit friends and relatives and exchange gifts.
• Traditional Pongal Dish
• The Pongal dish is a sweet rice pudding made from freshly harvested rice, milk, and jaggery (a type of unrefined sugar).
• It is cooked in clay pots, which are decorated with patterns and flowers.
• The dish symbolizes abundance and prosperity and is offered to the Sun God as a thanksgiving for the harvest.
• The word "Pongal" in Tamil means "to boil over," signifying the overflowing of rice and milk during preparation, which is considered auspicious.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bihar has the largest resources of gold ore (primary) in India as per the Ministry of Mines data.
• The state is known for its diverse mineral resources, including gold.
• Bihar's rich mineral wealth includes significant deposits of gold ore, which are crucial for the mining industry.
• The presence of these resources can potentially contribute to the state's economic development.

Additional Information

• Gold Ore
• Gold ore is a type of rock that contains significant amounts of gold, which can be extracted through mining.
• Gold ores are categorized based on their mineralogy and geology, with primary gold ores being those found in hard rock formations.
• The extraction of gold from ore typically involves processes like crushing, milling, and chemical treatment to release the gold particles.
• Gold is highly valued for its rarity and diverse applications, including in jewelry, electronics, and as a financial asset.
• Ministry of Mines
• The Ministry of Mines is an Indian government ministry responsible for the survey and exploration of all minerals (excluding natural gas and petroleum).
• The ministry oversees the management of mineral resources and the regulation of the mining sector in India.
• It also coordinates with state governments to ensure the sustainable development and utilization of mineral resources.
• The ministry's initiatives aim to enhance the contribution of the mining sector to the Indian economy.
• Economic Impact of Mining
• Mining plays a crucial role in the economic development of a region by providing employment opportunities and contributing to infrastructure development.
• The extraction and processing of minerals can lead to the establishment of related industries and services, boosting local economies.
• Revenue generated from mining activities can be used for public welfare and development projects.
• However, mining activities must be managed sustainably to minimize environmental impact and ensure long-term benefits.
• Bihar's Mineral Resources
• Bihar is endowed with a variety of mineral resources, including gold, limestone, mica, and bauxite.
• The state's mineral wealth presents opportunities for mining and industrial development.
• Efforts are being made to explore and exploit these resources in an environmentally responsible manner.
• Development of the mining sector can significantly contribute to Bihar's economic growth and employment generation.

The correct answer is Pushyamitra.

Key Points

• Pushyamitra Shunga was the founder and first ruler of the Shunga Dynasty in India.
• He established the Shunga Dynasty around 185 BCE after assassinating the last Mauryan king, Brihadratha.
• Pushyamitra was originally a general in the Mauryan army before he declared himself king.
• His reign is marked by the revival of Brahmanism and the decline of Buddhism in some regions of India.

Additional Information

• Shunga Dynasty:
• The Shunga Dynasty was an ancient Indian dynasty that followed the Maurya Dynasty.
• It was established by Pushyamitra Shunga after the fall of the Maurya Empire.
• The Shunga Dynasty is known for its patronage of Brahmanism and Hinduism.
• The dynasty ruled parts of central and eastern India for approximately 112 years.
• Pushyamitra Shunga:
• Pushyamitra was a Brahmin by birth and served as the commander-in-chief under the Maurya ruler Brihadratha.
• He is known for his military campaigns and efforts to expand his kingdom.
• Pushyamitra is often credited with reviving the Vedic religion and promoting the Brahmanical culture.
• His reign saw the construction of many Hindu temples and the promotion of Sanskrit literature.
• Maurya Dynasty:
• The Maurya Dynasty was a powerful ancient Indian dynasty founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 322 BCE.
• It is known for its significant contributions to art, culture, and politics in ancient India.
• The most notable ruler of the Maurya Dynasty was Ashoka, who played a crucial role in spreading Buddhism.
• The decline of the Maurya Empire began after Ashoka's death, eventually leading to its fall and the rise of the Shunga Dynasty.
• Brahmanism:
• Brahmanism refers to the religious and social practices of the ancient Brahmins, the priestly class in Hindu society.
• It emphasizes the importance of rituals, sacrifices, and the authority of the Vedas.
• Brahmanism played a significant role in shaping the cultural and religious landscape of ancient India.
• The revival of Brahmanism during the Shunga Dynasty marked a shift from the Buddhist influence that was prominent during the Maurya period.

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

• A standard ice hockey team during a game, when there is no overtime or penalties, consists of six players.
• These six players include one goaltender and five skaters.
• The five skaters are further divided into three forwards and two defensemen.
• Ice hockey is played on an ice rink, which is divided into three zones: the defensive zone, the neutral zone, and the offensive zone.

Additional Information

• Goaltender
• The goaltender, also known as the goalie or netminder, is the player responsible for preventing the opposing team from scoring by blocking shots at the goal.
• The goaltender wears specialized equipment, including pads, a mask, and a blocker, to protect against high-speed shots.
• Forwards
• Forwards are the players primarily responsible for scoring goals and creating offensive plays.
• There are three types of forwards: center, left wing, and right wing.
• The center usually takes face-offs and plays both offensive and defensive roles, while the wingers focus on attacking and forechecking.
• Defensemen
• Defensemen are primarily responsible for preventing the opposing team from scoring and protecting their own goal.
• There are usually two defensemen on the ice: a left defenseman and a right defenseman.
• Their duties include blocking shots, disrupting opposing plays, and clearing the puck from the defensive zone.
• Zones in Ice Hockey
• The ice rink is divided into three main zones: the defensive zone, the neutral zone, and the offensive zone.
• The defensive zone is the area in which a team protects its own goal, the neutral zone is the central area between the two blue lines, and the offensive zone is where the team tries to score against the opposing goaltender.

The correct answer is Swimming.

Key Points

• The breaststroke is one of the four main swimming strokes used in competitive swimming.
• It is characterized by the frog-like movements of the arms and legs, where both arms move in a half-circle simultaneously while the legs perform a frog kick.
• The breaststroke is considered the slowest of the competitive swimming strokes, but it is also the most energy-efficient.
• It is often the first stroke taught to beginners because of its simplicity and the fact that swimmers can keep their head above water for most of the time.

Additional Information

• Freestyle
• Freestyle is the fastest of the four competitive swimming strokes.
• It involves an alternating arm stroke and a flutter kick, where the arms move in a windmill motion while the legs kick up and down rapidly.
• The swimmer's face is in the water, and they turn their head to the side to breathe.
• Backstroke
• Backstroke is swum on the back, with an alternating arm stroke and a flutter kick.
• It is the only competitive stroke where swimmers start in the water.
• Like freestyle, it also involves the flutter kick, but the swimmer faces upward, which can make navigation difficult.
• Butterfly
• Butterfly is known for its unique and demanding technique, where both arms move simultaneously in a windmill motion over the water.
• It is accompanied by a dolphin kick, where the legs move together in a wave-like motion.
• This stroke is the second fastest and is considered highly technical and physically demanding.

The correct answer is 10000.

Key Points

• The "PM - eBus Sewa" scheme has been approved to augment city bus operations with 10000 electric buses.
• This initiative aims to improve urban mobility and reduce pollution in cities by promoting the use of electric vehicles.
• The scheme will be implemented on a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, encouraging private sector participation in public transport.
• The introduction of 10000 e-buses is expected to significantly reduce carbon emissions and enhance the overall public transportation infrastructure in urban areas.

Additional Information

• Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Model
• A PPP model involves collaboration between a government agency and a private-sector company to finance, build, and operate projects such as public transportation systems, infrastructure, etc.
• In the context of the "PM - eBus Sewa" scheme, the PPP model will allow for shared responsibilities and risks between the government and private entities.
• This model is beneficial as it can leverage private sector efficiency and investment to deliver public services.
• It also ensures better management and maintenance of services, thus providing higher quality and reliability.
• Electric Buses
• Electric buses are powered by electricity rather than conventional fossil fuels like diesel or petrol.
• They are considered environmentally friendly as they produce zero emissions, helping to reduce air pollution and carbon footprint.
• Electric buses also tend to have lower operating and maintenance costs compared to their diesel counterparts.
• The adoption of electric buses is a significant step towards sustainable urban mobility and combating climate change.
• Benefits of Electric Buses
• Reduction in greenhouse gas emissions and air pollutants, leading to improved air quality.
• Lower noise pollution, contributing to a quieter and more pleasant urban environment.
• Potential cost savings over the long term due to lower fuel and maintenance costs.
• Increased energy efficiency and the potential to use renewable energy sources for charging.

The correct answer is BVR Subrahmanyam.

Key Points

• BVR Subrahmanyam has been appointed as the new CEO of NITI Aayog, the policy think tank of the Government of India.
• He is a 1987 batch IAS officer of the Chhattisgarh cadre.
• Prior to this appointment, he served as the Chief Secretary of Jammu and Kashmir.
• He has extensive experience in public administration, having held various key positions in the government.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
• NITI Aayog was established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission, which was set up in 1950.
• It aims to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the states on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong states make a strong nation.
• The primary objective of NITI Aayog is to evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors, and strategies with the active involvement of states.
• NITI Aayog serves as a "think tank" of the government, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• Chief Secretary
• The Chief Secretary is the senior-most cadre post within the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) in a state or union territory.
• The Chief Secretary is the principal advisor to the Chief Minister and the Cabinet and plays a crucial role in policy formulation and implementation at the state level.
• The position is pivotal in maintaining the smooth functioning of the state administration and ensuring coordination among various government departments.
• IAS (Indian Administrative Service)
• The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) is one of the three All India Services of the Government of India.
• IAS officers hold key positions in the Union government, state governments, and public-sector undertakings.
• Their responsibilities include framing and implementing policies, overseeing administration, and ensuring the enforcement of laws and regulations.

The correct answer is State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.

Key Points

• The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is a quasi-judicial body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
• It deals with complaints where the value of goods/services and compensation claimed is between Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore.
• The primary objective of this commission is to provide an effective and efficient platform for consumers to resolve their disputes.
• This body has the authority to adjudicate consumer complaints and disputes, thus ensuring consumer rights are protected.

Additional Information

• Supreme Court
• The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial forum and final court of appeal under the Constitution of India.
• It is not a quasi-judicial body but a constitutional court with the power of judicial review.
• Inter-State Council
• The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
• It aims to facilitate coordination between states and the central government.
• Zonal Council
• Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
• They are advisory bodies aimed at promoting cooperation and coordination between states and the center.
• Quasi-Judicial Bodies
• Quasi-Judicial Bodies are institutions that have powers akin to those of the law courts but are not courts in a strict sense.
• They are established to adjudicate disputes, enforce regulations, and ensure compliance with laws within their specific domain.
• Examples include consumer forums, income tax appellate tribunals, and the Central Information Commission.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Khoria dance is a traditional folk dance that belongs to the state of Haryana in India.
• The dance is usually performed by women during the harvest season and other festive occasions.
• Khoria dance is characterized by its graceful movements and rhythmic steps, often performed in a circle.
• The dancers typically wear traditional Haryanvi attire, which includes ghagra-choli and odhni (a type of headscarf).

Additional Information

• Haryana:
• Haryana is a state in northern India, known for its rich cultural heritage and vibrant folk traditions.
• The state is famous for its agricultural productivity, being one of the leading producers of wheat and rice in the country.
• Haryana has a diverse range of folk dances and music, which play an integral role in the state's cultural landscape.
• In addition to Khoria, other popular folk dances of Haryana include Ghoomar, Loor, and Phag dance.
• Folk Dance:
• Folk dances are traditional dances that originate among the common people of a region.
• These dances are typically passed down through generations and are often performed during local festivals, celebrations, and social gatherings.
• Folk dances reflect the cultural and social life of the people, often telling stories of their daily lives, seasons, and historical events.
• Costumes, music, and instruments used in folk dances are usually unique to the region and are an important aspect of the performance.
• Harvest Season:
• The harvest season is a crucial period in the agricultural calendar when crops are gathered from the fields.
• This season is often marked by various celebrations and festivities as it signifies abundance and prosperity for the farming community.
• In India, different regions celebrate the harvest season with unique festivals such as Pongal, Baisakhi, Makar Sankranti, and Onam.
• Folk dances and songs are an integral part of these celebrations, expressing joy and gratitude for a bountiful harvest.
• Traditional Attire:
• Traditional attire refers to the clothing that is typical of a particular region, culture, or community.
• In Haryana, traditional attire for women includes the ghagra-choli (a long skirt and blouse) and the odhni (a headscarf or veil).
• Men typically wear the dhoti-kurta or kurta-pajama along with a turban.
• These traditional garments are often adorned with intricate embroidery, mirror work, and vibrant colors, reflecting the cultural richness of the region.

The correct answer is Sikh.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census of India, the Sikh population has shown a decline of 0.2 percentage points in its proportion to the total population of the country.
• The Sikh community forms a significant part of the population in the state of Punjab, where they are the majority.
• Despite the decline in percentage, the absolute number of Sikhs has increased due to the overall population growth of India.
• Sikhism is a monotheistic religion that originated in the Punjab region of India during the 15^th century.

Additional Information

• Census of India:
• The Census of India is conducted every ten years and is one of the most comprehensive demographic surveys in the world.
• It collects data on various parameters including population size, composition, literacy, and housing.
• The 2011 Census was the 15^th National Census of the country.
• This data is crucial for planning and policy-making at both national and state levels.
• Population Proportion:
• Population proportion refers to the percentage of a specific group within the total population.
• This metric helps in understanding the demographic composition and changes over time.
• A decline in proportion can occur even if the absolute number of individuals in that group increases, due to faster growth rates in other groups.
• Sikh Community:
• Sikhs are followers of Sikhism, a religion founded by Guru Nanak in the 15^th century.
• The community is known for its distinct cultural and religious practices, including the wearing of turbans and the Five Ks (Kesh, Kara, Kanga, Kachera, and Kirpan).
• They have a significant presence in India, especially in the state of Punjab.

The correct answer is 1928.

Key Points

• The Bardoli Satyagraha took place in the year 1928 under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• It was a major peasant movement in the Bardoli taluka of Gujarat.
• The movement was initiated as a response to the increase in land revenue assessment by the British government.
• Due to the success of the movement, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel earned the title of "Sardar" or leader.

Additional Information

• Bardoli Satyagraha:
• The Bardoli Satyagraha was a pivotal event in the Indian independence movement, particularly focusing on agrarian issues.
• The British government increased the land revenue by 22% in the Bardoli taluka, which was met with strong opposition from the peasants.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led the movement with the help of local leaders and the peasants decided to refuse payment of the increased taxes.
• The satyagraha involved non-cooperation and civil disobedience as tools to oppose the unjust tax hike.
• The movement gained widespread support and eventually, the British government had to roll back the increased tax assessment, marking it as a significant victory for the peasants.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Vallabhbhai Patel was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement.
• He played a crucial role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union post-independence, earning him the title "Iron Man of India".
• Patel's leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha showcased his organizational skills and commitment to nonviolent resistance.
• Impact of Bardoli Satyagraha:
• The success of the Bardoli Satyagraha boosted the morale of the Indian independence movement and demonstrated the effectiveness of nonviolent resistance.
• It highlighted the plight of Indian peasants under colonial rule and brought agrarian issues to the forefront of the national struggle for independence.
• The movement also solidified Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's position as a key leader in the Indian National Congress and the independence movement.

The correct answer is Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi unveiled the Logo, Theme, and Website of India's G20 Presidency in a virtual mode in November 2022.
• The G20 is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union (EU).
• India's G20 Presidency marks a significant moment in its diplomatic calendar and showcases India's leadership on the global stage.
• Under India's Presidency, various key issues such as economic growth, financial stability, climate change, and sustainable development will be discussed.

Additional Information

• G20 (Group of Twenty)
• The G20 is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union (EU).
• Founded in 1999, the G20 aims to discuss policy pertaining to the promotion of international financial stability.
• The G20 has expanded its agenda since 2008 to include issues such as climate change mitigation, global health, and sustainable development.
• The members of the G20 represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of global trade, and about two-thirds of the world's population.
• India's G20 Presidency
• India assumed the G20 Presidency in December 2022, marking a significant milestone in its diplomatic engagements.
• During its presidency, India is expected to host various events and meetings culminating in the G20 Leaders' Summit.
• The theme for India's G20 Presidency is "One Earth, One Family, One Future," highlighting the interconnectedness of the world in addressing global challenges.
• Key priorities for India include inclusive growth, green development, digital transformation, and reform of multilateral institutions.
• Virtual Mode Events
• Virtual mode events have become increasingly common due to the COVID-19 pandemic, allowing for international diplomacy to continue despite travel restrictions.
• Virtual events use digital platforms to facilitate real-time communication and collaboration among participants across the globe.
• They offer flexibility, reduced costs, and the ability to engage a broader audience.
• India has effectively utilized virtual platforms for various international engagements, including the unveiling of the G20 Logo, Theme, and Website.

The correct answer is Squash.

Key Points

• Siddharth Suchde is a professional squash player from India who has represented the country at various international events.
• He has achieved a career-high world ranking of 39 in squash.
• Suchde has been a significant figure in promoting and popularizing the sport of squash in India.
• He has won several national and international titles, contributing to his recognition as one of India's top squash players.

Additional Information

• Squash
• Squash is a racket sport played by two (singles) or four players (doubles) in a four-walled court with a small, hollow rubber ball.
• The players take turns hitting the ball against the front wall, trying to make it difficult for the opponent to play a valid return.
• Squash is known for its high speed, agility, and strategic play, requiring a combination of physical fitness, precision, and tactical thinking.
• Major squash tournaments include the British Open, the U.S. Open, and the World Squash Championships.
• Other Sports Mentioned
• Football: A team sport where two teams of eleven players each try to score by getting a ball into the opposing team's goal using any part of their body except their hands and arms.
• Badminton: A racket sport played using rackets to hit a shuttlecock across a net. It can be played in singles or doubles format.
• Tennis: A racket sport that can be played individually against a single opponent (singles) or between two teams of two players each (doubles). Players use a stringed racket to hit a ball over a net into the opponent's court.

Given:

A is four times as good a workman as B.

Together they finish a piece of work in $\frac{84}{15}$ days.

Formula Used:

Work rate of A = 4 × Work rate of B

Combined work rate = Work rate of A + Work rate of B

Work rate = Work / Time

Calculation:

Let B's work rate be x. Then, A's work rate is 4x.

Combined work rate = x + 4x = 5x

Total work = Combined work rate × Time

Total work = 5x × $\frac{84}{15}$

Total work = 5x × $\frac{28}{5}$

Total work = 28x

Time taken by A alone to finish the work = Total work / Work rate of A

Time taken by A alone = $\frac{28x}{4x}$

Time taken by A alone = $\frac{28}{4}$

Time taken by A alone = 7 days

A alone can finish the work in 7 days.

Given:

Base of the right-angled triangle = 22 cm

Height corresponding to the base = 15 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a right-angled triangle = (1/2) × base × height

Calculation:

Area = (1/2) × 22 cm × 15 cm

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 330 cm²

⇒ Area = 165 cm²

The area of the right-angled triangle is 165 cm².

Given:

Expression: 3[4 + 2 {42 - 4 (9 - 1)}]

Formula Used:

Order of operations (BODMAS/BIDMAS): Brackets, Orders (i.e., powers and square roots, etc.), Division and Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction.

Calculation:

First, solve the innermost bracket:

⇒ 9 - 1 = 8

Next, solve the next bracket with the result:

⇒ 4 × 8 = 32

Now, solve the next bracket with the result:

⇒ 42 - 32 = 10

Then, solve the next bracket with the result:

⇒ 2 × 10 = 20

Finally, solve the outermost bracket with the result:

⇒ 4 + 20 = 24

Multiply the result by 3:

⇒ 3 × 24 = 72

The value of the expression is 72.

Given:

Ratio of black balls to white balls = 7 ∶ 4

Number of white balls = 44

Formula Used:

Total number of balls = Number of black balls + Number of white balls

Calculation:

Let the number of black balls be 7x and the number of white balls be 4x.

Given, 4x = 44

⇒ x = 44 / 4

⇒ x = 11

Number of black balls = 7x = 7 × 11 = 77

Total number of balls = 77 (black balls) + 44 (white balls)

⇒ Total number of balls = 121

The total number of balls in the bag is 121.

Given:

Cost price (CP) = 100 (Assumed)

Marked price (MP) = CP + 80% of CP

Discount on MP = 25%

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = (Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price × 100

Calculation:

Marked price (MP) = 100 + 80% of 100

⇒ MP = 100 + 80

⇒ MP = 180

Discount on MP = 25% of 180

⇒ Discount = 0.25 × 180

⇒ Discount = 45

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount

⇒ SP = 180 - 45

⇒ SP = 135

Profit = SP - CP

⇒ Profit = 135 - 100

⇒ Profit = 35

Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (35 / 100) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 35%

The profit percentage is 35%.

Given:

The average of 17 numbers = 47.

Formula Used:

New average when each number is multiplied by a constant = Original average × Constant

Calculation:

Original average = 47

Each number is multiplied by 6

New average = 47 × 6

⇒ New average = 282

The new average is 282.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit to Loss is 5 : 1.

Difference in Selling Prices = 4550 − 3290 = 1260.

Divide difference by sum of ratio parts (5 + 1 = 6): 1 unit = 1260 ÷ 6 = 210.

Cost Price (CP) = Loss SP + 1 unit = 3290 + 210 = 3500.

New Selling Price (SP) for 20% profit = 3500 × 120 ÷ 100 = 4200.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4200.

Alternate Method

Given: SP₁ = Rs. 4550, SP₂ = Rs. 3290, Profit = 5 × Loss, Target Profit = 20%.

Formulas: Profit = SP − CP | Loss = CP − SP | New SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100

⇒ Let the loss be x. Then Profit = 5x.

⇒ (4550 − CP) = 5 × (CP − 3290)

⇒ 4550 − CP = 5CP − 16450

⇒ 6CP = 21000 ⇒ CP = 3500

⇒ New SP = 3500 × (120 ÷ 100) = 4200.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4200.

Additional Information

Cost Price Calculation

When Profit and Loss are related for the same article at different prices, the CP acts as the central reference point. CP = (n × SP_loss + SP_profit) ÷ (n + 1) where Profit = n × Loss.

Profit Percentage

Profit % is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise. Formula: Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Given:

Number of workers (initial) = 25

Number of days (initial) = 10

Number of workers (new) = 20

Formula Used:

Work done is constant, so:

Workers₁ × Days₁ = Workers₂ × Days₂

Calculation:

25 × 10 = 20 × Days₂

⇒ Days₂ = (25 × 10) / 20

⇒ Days₂ = 250 / 20

⇒ Days₂ = 25/2

It will take 20 workers 25/2 days to build a similar wall.

Given:

1100 ÷ 5 + 420 ÷ 2 + 550 ÷ 5

Formula Used:

Perform each division operation separately and then sum the results.

Calculation:

1100 ÷ 5 = 220

420 ÷ 2 = 210

550 ÷ 5 = 110

⇒ 220 + 210 + 110

⇒ 540

The value of 1100 ÷ 5 + 420 ÷ 2 + 550 ÷ 5 is 540.

Given:

A percent of A is 9604.

Formula Used:

A percent of A = A × (A/100)

Calculation:

Given, A percent of A is 9604.

⇒ A × (A/100) = 9604

⇒ A² / 100 = 9604

⇒ A² = 9604 × 100

⇒ A² = 960400

⇒ A = √(960400)

⇒ A = 980

The value of A is 980.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 9000

Rate of Interest (R) = 32% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest (CI) = P × (1 + (R)/(100))^T - P

Calculation:

CI = 9000 × (1 + (32)/(100))² - 9000

⇒ CI = 9000 × (1 + 0.32)² - 9000

⇒ CI = 9000 × (1.32)² - 9000

⇒ CI = 9000 × 1.7424 - 9000

⇒ CI = 15681.6 - 9000

⇒ CI = 6681.6

The compound interest is Rs. 6681.6.

Given:

Numbers to check: 6245, 6490, 6457, 6440

Formula Used:

A number is divisible by multiple numbers if it is divisible by their least common multiple (LCM).

LCM of 4, 7, and 23

Calculation:

Prime factors:

4 = 2²

7 = 7

23 = 23

LCM(4, 7, 23) = 2² × 7 × 23

⇒ LCM = 4 × 7 × 23

⇒ LCM = 644

Now, check which of the given numbers is divisible by 644:

6245 ÷ 644 ≈ 9.70 (Not divisible)

6490 ÷ 644 ≈ 10.08 (Not divisible)

6457 ÷ 644 ≈ 10.03 (Not divisible)

6440 ÷ 644 = 10 (Divisible)

The number 6440 is divisible by 4, 7, and 23.

Given:

Speed of the thief = 70 km/h

Speed of the owner = 105 km/h

Thief starts at 2:00 p.m.

Owner starts at 3:00 p.m.

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Thief's head start time = 3:00 p.m. - 2:00 p.m. = 1 hour

Distance covered by the thief in 1 hour = 70 km/h × 1 h = 70 km

Relative speed of the owner compared to the thief = 105 km/h - 70 km/h = 35 km/h

Time taken by the owner to cover the distance of 70 km at a relative speed of 35 km/h:

Time = Distance / Relative Speed

⇒ Time = 70 km / 35 km/h

⇒ Time = 2 hours

Owner starts at 3:00 p.m., so the time when the owner overtakes the thief = 3:00 p.m. + 2 hours = 5:00 p.m.

The owner will overtake the thief at 5:00 p.m.

Given:

Cost price of a cooler = Rs. 6400

Profit percentage = 24%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit

Profit = (Profit Percentage / 100) × Cost Price

Calculation:

Profit = (24 / 100) × 6400

⇒ Profit = 0.24 × 6400

⇒ Profit = 1536

Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit

⇒ Selling Price = 6400 + 1536

⇒ Selling Price = 7936

The selling price of the cooler is Rs. 7936.

Given:

Initial ratio of milk and water = 7 ∶ 9

New ratio of milk and water after adding some milk = 11 ∶ 9

Formula Used:

Initial quantity of milk = 7k

Initial quantity of water = 9k

New quantity of milk = 11k

Percentage of milk added = (Milk added / Initial mixture) × 100

Calculation:

Let the initial quantities of milk and water be 7k and 9k respectively.

Let the new quantity of milk be 11k.

Milk added = New quantity of milk - Initial quantity of milk

Milk added = 11k - 7k

Milk added = 4k

Initial mixture = Initial quantity of milk + Initial quantity of water

Initial mixture = 7k + 9k

Initial mixture = 16k

Percentage of milk added = (Milk added / Initial mixture) × 100

Percentage of milk added = (4k / 16k) × 100

Percentage of milk added = 0.25 × 100

Percentage of milk added = 25%

The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Original number of hens = 120

Additional hens = 140

Increase in expenses = Rs. 4050

Decrease in average expenditure per hen = Rs. 3

Formula Used:

Let the original expenditure be Rs. x.

Average expenditure per hen originally = x / 120

New number of hens = 120 + 140 = 260

New expenditure = x + 4050

Average expenditure per hen now = (x + 4050) / 260

Original average expenditure per hen - New average expenditure per hen = Rs. 3

Calculation:

⇒ (x)/(120) - (x + 4050)/(260) = 3

⇒ (x × 260 - (x + 4050) × 120)/(120 × 260) = 3

⇒ (140x - 486000)/(31200) = 3

⇒ 140x - 486000 = 3 × 31200

⇒ 140x - 486000 = 93600

⇒ 140x = 93600 + 486000

⇒ 140x = 579600

⇒ x = 579600 / 140

⇒ x = 4140

The original expenditure of the poultry is Rs. 4140.

Given:

When a number is successively decreased by 10 percent, 15 percent, and 56 percent, it becomes 20196.

Formula Used:

Let the original number be N .

After decreasing by 10%: N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90N×(1−0.10)=N×0.90

After decreasing by 15%: N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85N×0.90×(1−0.15)=N×0.90×0.85

After decreasing by 56%: N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44N×0.90×0.85×(1−0.56)=N×0.90×0.85×0.44

Calculation:

The resulting number is 20196.

So,

N × 0.90 × 0.85 × 0.44 = 20196

⇒ N × 0.3366 = 20196

⇒ N = 201960.3366

⇒ N = 60000

The original number is 60000.

Given:

520 ÷ 10 + 25 × 7 - 62 × 3

Formula Used:

Order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (left to right), Addition and Subtraction (left to right).

Calculation:

First, perform the division and multiplication:

⇒ 520 ÷ 10 = 52

⇒ 25 × 7 = 175

⇒ 62 × 3 = 186

Next, perform the addition and subtraction:

⇒ 52 + 175 - 186

⇒ 227 - 186

⇒ 41

The value of 520 ÷ 10 + 25 × 7 - 62 × 3 is 41.

Given:

Ratio of marked price (MP) to selling price (SP) = 13 ∶ 9

Formula Used:

Discount Percentage = $\left( \frac{MP - SP}{MP} \right) \times 100$

Calculation:

Let the marked price (MP) be 13x and the selling price (SP) be 9x.

Discount = MP - SP

Discount = 13x - 9x

Discount = 4x

Discount Percentage = $\left( \frac{4x}{13x} \right) \times 100$

Discount Percentage = $\left( \frac{4}{13} \right) \times 100$

Discount Percentage = 30.77%

The correct answer is option 1: 30.77 percent

Given:

Annual rate of simple interest = 10%

Difference in interest for 7 years and 8 years = Rs. 57

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Principal (P) × Rate (R) × Time (T) / 100

Calculation:

Let the principal amount be P.

SI for 7 years = P × 10 × 7 / 100

SI for 8 years = P × 10 × 8 / 100

Difference in SI = SI for 8 years - SI for 7 years

⇒ P × 10 × 8 / 100 - P × 10 × 7 / 100 = 57

⇒ P × 10 × (8 - 7) / 100 = 57

⇒ P × 10 × 1 / 100 = 57

⇒ P × 10 / 100 = 57

⇒ P / 10 = 57

⇒ P = 57 × 10

⇒ P = 570

The sum is Rs. 570.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The verb tense must be consistent and appropriate for the context of the sentence.
• The explosion happened in the past, so the past tense verb "left" is required.
• "Leave" is the base form and is incorrect in this context.
• "Will leaves" is future tense and incorrect.
• "Have left" is present perfect tense and does not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "The explosion left a huge crater."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "left" – Correct past tense form used for the action that occurred in the past.
• Option 2: "leave" – Incorrect base form, does not fit the past context.
• Option 3: "will leaves" – Incorrect future tense form.
• Option 4: "have left" – Incorrect present perfect tense form for this context.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "asimilated" is misspelled and should be "assimilated".
• English Meaning: To take in and understand fully (information or ideas). (समाहित करना)
• Example: He assimilated the information presented in the lecture very quickly.
• The correct word is "assimilated".
• Hindi Meaning: (समाहित करना)
• Example: She assimilated all the new concepts taught in the class.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fault (त्रुटि): An unattractive or unsatisfactory feature, especially in a piece of work or in a person’s character.
• Example: She found a fault in every sentence of the exercise sheet.
• Prior (पूर्व): Existing or coming before in time, order, or importance.
• Example: He had no prior experience in this field.
• Exercise (व्यायाम): Activity requiring physical effort, carried out to sustain or improve health and fitness.
• Example: The exercise sheet was filled with challenging problems.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "entourage" means a group of people attending or surrounding an important person. (नौकर-चाकर का दल)
• Example: The celebrity arrived at the event with a large entourage.
• The word "journey" refers to the act of traveling from one place to another, usually taking a long time. (यात्रा)
• Example: The journey to the remote village took several hours.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Entourage (नौकर-चाकर का दल): A group of people attending or surrounding an important person.
• Example: The politician's entourage included advisors and security personnel.
• Tourism (पर्यटन): The commercial organization and operation of vacations and visits to places of interest.
• Example: Tourism is a major source of income for the island.
• Itinerary (यात्रा की रूपरेखा): A planned route or journey.
• Example: The travel agent provided us with a detailed itinerary for our trip.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "orthodox" means conforming to what is generally or traditionally accepted as right or true; established and approved. (परंपरागत)
• Example: He follows an orthodox approach to the practice of medicine.
• "numerous" means great in number; many. (असंख्य)
• Example: There are numerous ways to solve this problem.
• Hence, we can infer that the sentence with no spelling errors is Option 4.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "numeruos" is incorrect. The correct spelling is "numerous" (असंख्य).
• Example: There are numerous opportunities available in the city.
• Option 2: "urthodox" is incorrect. The correct spelling is "orthodox" (परंपरागत).
• Example: He has very orthodox views on religion.
• Option 3: "methuds" is incorrect. The correct spelling is "methods" (तरीके).
• Example: Different methods can be used to reach the same goal.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "famous" means something that is well-known by many people, often for a particular reason. (प्रसिद्ध)
• Example: The Eiffel Tower is famous for its unique design and historical significance.
• "Most famous" is the superlative form of the word "famous," indicating the highest degree of fame among all others. (सबसे प्रसिद्ध)
• Example: Out of all the actors in Hollywood, he is the most famous.

Hence, we can infer that the correct word to use in the sentence is "most famous".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• More famous (ज़्यादा प्रसिद्ध): Comparative form of "famous," used to compare two entities.
• Example: This actor is more famous than his co-stars.
• Famousest (Incorrect form): "Famousest" is not a correct English word.
• Example: This word does not exist in standard English.
• Famous (प्रसिद्ध): Well-known by many people.
• Example: The Taj Mahal is a famous monument in India.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "procure" means to obtain something, especially with effort or care. (प्राप्त करना)
• Example: She managed to procure a rare book from the antique shop.
• "Hinder" refers to creating difficulties for someone or something, resulting in delay or obstruction. (बाधा डालना)
• Example: The heavy traffic could hinder our arrival at the airport on time.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'procure' is 'hinder'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Multiply (गुणा करना): To increase greatly in number or quantity.
• Example: Bacteria can multiply rapidly under favorable conditions.
• Consume (उपभोग करना): To use up a resource or eat/drink something.
• Example: Humans consume a large amount of natural resources every day.
• Abstain (परहेज करना): To choose not to do or have something.
• Example: He decided to abstain from eating sweets during his diet.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the word "beside" instead of "besides."
• "Beside" means next to, while "besides" means in addition to.
• The correct phrase should be "besides Sham and Rohan," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Correct Sentence: "There was no one in the cinema hall besides Sham and Rohan."

Additional Information

• 1: "in the cinema hall" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• 2: "There was no one" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• 3: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 4.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "through" means moving in one side and out of the other side of (an opening, channel, or location). (के माध्यम से)
• Example: We walked through the forest to get to the lake.
• "Dew" refers to tiny drops of water that form on cool surfaces at night, when atmospheric vapor condenses. (ओस)
• Example: In the morning, the grass was covered with dew.
• Hence, we can infer that the original sentence is grammatically correct and does not need any improvement.

Therefore, the correct answer is: No improvement.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• From the dew (ओस से): This phrase suggests a source, but it doesn't fit well in the context of the sentence.
• Example: He collected water from the dew on the leaves.
• Through the dewy (ओस भरी): This is incorrect because "dewy" is an adjective and should describe a noun.
• Example: The dewy grass sparkled in the morning light.
• Across the dewy (ओस भरे पर): This is incorrect because "dewy" is an adjective and should describe a noun.
• Example: She walked across the dewy meadow.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the superlative adjective "tallest".
• The superlative form should be preceded by "the" instead of "a".
• The correct phrase should be "into the arms of the tallest, ungainly man," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Suddenly he plumped himself right into the arms of the tallest, ungainly man, who had crossed from the other side."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Suddenly he plumed himself," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 4.
• Option 3: "who had crossed from the other side." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "articulation" means the clear and precise pronunciation of words or the expression of thoughts and ideas in a clear and effective manner. (स्पष्ट उच्चारण या अभिव्यक्ति)
• Example: Her articulation of the complex topic was impressive and easy to understand.
• "Enunciation" refers to the act of pronouncing words clearly and distinctly, similar to articulation. (उच्चारण)
• Example: Good enunciation is essential for effective communication.

Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'articulation' is 'enunciation'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Park (पार्क): An area of public land in a town or city where people go to walk, play, and relax.
• Example: The children are playing in the park.
• Mispronounce (गलत उच्चारण करना): To pronounce a word incorrectly.
• Example: He tends to mispronounce foreign words.
• Damp (गीला): Slightly wet.
• Example: The clothes were still damp after being in the dryer.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "Characteristic" means a feature or quality belonging typically to a person, place, or thing and serving to identify them. (विशेषता)
• Example: One characteristic of successful people is their ability to persevere through challenges.
• "Usual" refers to something that is common or typical, something that happens or is done most of the time. (सामान्य)
• Example: It is usual for him to have a cup of coffee in the morning.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Characteristic' is 'Usual'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Distinctive (विशिष्ट): Characteristic of one person or thing, and so serving to distinguish it from others.
• Example: The distinctive sound of her voice makes her easy to recognize on the phone.
• Inbred (वंशानुगत): Existing from birth or by inherent nature.
• Example: His inbred talent for music was evident from a young age.
• Affordable (किफायती): Inexpensive; reasonably priced.
• Example: The store offers a wide range of affordable products.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The idiom "to huff and puff" means:
• To breathe heavily and with difficulty, typically because of exertion. (थकान या मेहनत के कारण भारी और कठिनाई से सांस लेना)
• Example: After running up the hill, he was huffing and puffing.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To be perplexed (उलझन में होना): To be confused or puzzled.
• Example: She was perplexed by the complex instructions given to her.
• Option 2: To get into trouble (परेशानी में पड़ना): To encounter difficulties or problems.
• Example: If you break the rules, you will get into trouble.
• Option 4: To speak ill of (बुरा बोलना): To talk negatively about someone or something.
• Example: It is not good to speak ill of others behind their backs.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "prospect" means the possibility or likelihood of some future event occurring. (संभावना)
• Example: The prospect of a promotion excited her.
• "Impossibility" refers to something that cannot happen or be done. (असंभावना)
• Example: The impossibility of traveling faster than the speed of light is well-established in physics.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'prospect' is 'impossibility'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Calculations (गणना): The process of using mathematics to find an answer.
• Example: His calculations for the project were very accurate.
• Forecast (पूर्वानुमान): A prediction or estimate of future events, especially coming weather or a financial trend.
• Example: The weather forecast predicts rain for tomorrow.
• Contemplation (चिंतन): Deep reflective thought.
• Example: She sat in quiet contemplation, thinking about her future.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The phrase "Burn the midnight oil" means to stay up late working on a project or studying. (रात देर तक काम करना)
• Example: She had to burn the midnight oil to finish the report on time.
• "He studied till late at night before his exam and it has paid off" refers to putting in a lot of effort, often by staying up late, to achieve success. (रात देर तक पढ़ाई करना)
• Example: He burned the midnight oil to prepare for his final exams and aced them.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• See eye to eye (आम सहमति होना): To agree fully with someone.
• Example: They see eye to eye on most political issues.
• Run out of steam (हिम्मत हार जाना): To lose energy or motivation to continue.
• Example: After working non-stop for hours, I ran out of steam and had to take a break.
• Lose your marbles (पागल हो जाना): To go insane or act irrationally.
• Example: If you keep working like this, you are going to lose your marbles.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the word "had" before "signifies."
• The correct form should be "signifies" without the auxiliary verb "had".
• The correct phrase should be "health emergency and signifies widespread," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Pandemic is the highest level of global health emergency and signifies widespread outbreaks affecting multiple regions of the world."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 4.
• Option 2: "outbreaks affecting multiple regions of the world." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "Pandemic is the highest level of global" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: "health emergency and had signifies widespread," – This part of the sentence contains the error as explained above.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "take" means to occupy oneself with the act of having or experiencing something. (लेना)
• In the context of the sentence, "take a moment to yourself" is a common and appropriate expression.
• The other options: "sleep," "carry," and "make" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: While you are at Chilika, take a moment to yourself and admire the beauty of this fabled lake.

Additional Information

• Sleep (सोना): means to be in a state of rest during which the eyes are closed and consciousness is completely or partially lost.
• Carry (ले जाना): means to support and move someone or something from one place to another.
• Make (बनाना): means to create, prepare, or put together.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "spots" means specific locations or points. (जगहें)
• In the context of the sentence, "spots" refers to different interesting locations or points within the lake regions.
• The other options: "sections," "marks," and "periods" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Indulge in a leisurely boat ride to visit the many spots that the vast expanse of the lake encompasses - the beacon island, bird island to name a few and of course watch the migratory birds and the critically endangered Irrawaddy Dolphins frolic in the prey laden brackish waters.

Additional Information

• Sections (खंड): means distinct parts into which something is divided or may be divided.
• Marks (चिन्ह): means small areas on a surface having a different color from its surroundings.
• Periods (अवधियां): means lengths or portions of time.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The phrase "name a few" means to mention a small number of examples. (कुछ का नाम लेना)
• In the context of the sentence, "name a few" is the appropriate phrase that fits grammatically and contextually.
• The other options: "call," "word," and "announce" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: Indulge in a leisurely boat ride to visit the many spots that the vast expanse of the lake encompasses - the beacon island, bird island to name a few and of course watch the migratory birds and the critically endangered Irrawaddy Dolphins frolic in the prey laden brackish waters.

Additional Information

• Call (बुलाना): means to communicate or try to communicate with by telephone.
• Word (शब्द): means a single distinct meaningful element of speech or writing.
• Announce (घोषणा करना): means to make a public and typically formal declaration about a fact, occurrence, or intention.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "endangered" means at serious risk of extinction. (लुप्तप्राय)
• In the context of the sentence, "critically endangered" correctly describes the status of Irrawaddy Dolphins.
• The other options: "screened," "sheltered," and "ventured" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: Indulge in a leisurely boat ride to visit the many spots that the vast expanse of the lake encompasses - the beacon island, bird island to name a few and of course watch the migratory birds and the critically endangered Irrawaddy Dolphins frolic in the prey laden brackish waters.

Additional Information

• Screened (जाँचना): means to examine methodically.
• Sheltered (आश्रय देना): means to protect or shield from harm or danger.
• Ventured (साहस करना): means to undertake a risky or daring journey or course of action.

The correct answer is 'ceases'.

Key Points

• The word "ceases" means to bring or come to an end. (समाप्त होना)
• In the context of the sentence, "ceases to amaze" means to continually amaze or never stop amazing.
• The other options: "layoffs," "actuates," and "extenuates" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: Go heritage hunting in the nearby quaint townships- Chilika never ceases to amaze.

Additional Information

• Layoffs (हटाना): means to dismiss employees from a workforce, typically due to financial reasons.
• Actuates (सक्रिय करना): means to put into action or motion.
• Extenuates (हल्का करना): means to make (guilt or an offense) seem less serious or more forgivable.

वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्दों के लिए सही शब्दों वाले विकल्प हैं - जितना गुड़ डालोगे, उतना मीठा होगा।

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - जितना गुड़ डालोगे, वैसा मीठा होगा।
• दिए गये वाक्य में सर्वनाम प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'वैसा मीठा' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'उतना मीठा' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - जितना गुड़ डालोगे, उतना मीठा होगा।

Important Pointsसंबंधवाचक सर्वनाम- 

• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम शब्दों से संबंध दिखाने वाले सर्वनाम ‘संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम’ कहलाते हैं।
• जैसे - जो, सो, जिसने, उसने, जहाँ, वहाँ आदि भी संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम शब्द हैं।
• जो सोएगा, सो खोएगा।
• जो करेगा, सो भरेगा।

Additional Informationसर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

वाक्य में गलत वर्तनी है - सौंर्दय 

Key Points

• त्रुटिपूर्ण वाक्य- प्रकृति का सौंर्दय देखते ही बनता है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में 'वर्तनी प्रयोग' की त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'सौंर्दय' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'सौंदर्य' होना चाहिए।
• त्रुटिरहित वाक्य- प्रकृति का सौंदर्य देखते ही बनता है।
• वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द को को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information  

सही उत्तर है - सर्वसाधारण

Key Points 

• वाक्य - जब समाचार - पत्रों में सर्वसाधारण के लिए कोई सूचना प्रकाशित की जाती है, तो उसको विज्ञापन कहते हैं। 
• 'सर्वसाधारण' का अर्थ - आम लोग, जनता।
• अन्य सभी विकल्प के प्रयोग से वाक्य का सार्थक अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा है।

Additional Informationविज्ञापन के बारे में कुछ और बातें-

• विज्ञापन शब्द, 'वि' और 'ज्ञापन' से मिलकर बना है,
• 'वि' का मतलब है 'विशिष्ट' और 'ज्ञापन' का मतलब है 'सूचना' यानी, विज्ञापन का मतलब है -'विशिष्ट सूचना'
• विज्ञापन, व्यापार को बढ़ाने का एक ज़रिया है,
• विज्ञापन, लोगों को गैर-लाभकारी संस्थाओं, सरकारी और गैर-सरकारी एजेंसियों, राजनीतिक दलों,
• धार्मिक संबद्धताओं आदि के मिशनों का समर्थन करने के लिए भी प्रेरित कर सकते हैं,
• विज्ञापन, एक तरह का वन-वे कम्यूनिकेशन टूल है, ऑनलाइन विज्ञापन, मार्केटिंग का एक अहम तरीका है,
• इसके लिए, सोशल मीडिया, सर्च इंजन, वीडियो स्ट्रीमिंग चैनल और ईमेल जैसे प्लेटफ़ॉर्म का इस्तेमाल किया जाता है

'कलेजे पर पत्थर रखना' मुहावरे के अर्थ को सर्वश्रेष्ठ रूप से व्यक्त करता है - धैर्य धारण करना

Key Points

• 'कलेजे पर पत्थर रखना' का अर्थ - धैर्य धारण करना, वाक्य प्रयोग - बेटी की विदाई पर पिता ने "कलेजे पर पत्थर रख लिया"।
• मुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ को प्रकट करते है, उसे मुहावरा कहते है।
• जैसे : 'खेत रहना' का अर्थ - शहीद होना।, वाक्य प्रयोग - पाकिस्तान से मुठभेड़ में कई भारतीय सैनिक "खेत रह गए"।

Important Points 

Additional Information 

वाक्य में रेखांकित भाग के लिए उचित सार्थक शब्द होगा - सवेरा

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य- रावेस होते ही सब उठ गए।
• दिए गये वाक्य में 'वर्तनी प्रयोग' की त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'रावेस' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'सवेरा' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य- सवेरा होते ही सब उठ गए।
• 'सवेरा' का अर्थ - प्रातःकाल, सुबह।

Additional Informationबेसब्र-

• अर्थ - आतुर, अधीर, जल्दबाज़, उतावला। 
• जैसे - राजेश अब खुद बेसब्र हो चुका था।

बसेरा-

• अर्थ - मार्ग में ठहरने की जगह।
• जैसे - उसने रैन बसेरा में रात गुजारी।

रेसब-

• अर्थ - धातुके रासायनिक विधिएँ जोड़ब/ मूनब।​