Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2022: Official Paper (Held On: 17 March, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the figure from the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic here followed is

The diagram is rotating 90° anticlockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 2

Select the option in which the numbers shares the same relationship in set as that shared by the numbers in the given set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(4, 12, 2)

(7, 42, 14)

  1. AOption (a)

    (19, 62, 11)

  2. BOption (b)

    (25, 29, 5)

  3. COption (c)

    (9, 26, 4)

  4. DOption (d)

    (15, 44, 9)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(9, 26, 4)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second word = (First word + Third word) × 2

(4, 12, 2):

→ 12 = (4 + 2) × 2

→ 12 = 6 × 2

(7, 42, 14):

→ 42 = (7 + 14) × 2

→ 42 = 21 × 2

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1) (19, 62, 11):

→ 62 = (19 + 11) × 2

→ 62 ≠ 30 × 2

2) (25, 29, 5):

→ 29 = (25 + 5) × 2

→ 29 ≠ 30 × 2

3) (9, 26, 4):

→ 26 = (9 + 4) × 2

→ 26 = 13 × 2 ⇒ Follow the logic.

4) (15, 44, 9):

→ 44 = (15 + 9) × 2

→ 44 ≠ (23) × 2 

Here, we can see that only Option 3 follow the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "(9, 26, 4)".

Question 3

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

  1. Irreparable
  2. Irreplaceable
  3. Irrigated
  4. Irritable
  5. Irradiation
  1. AOption (a)

    5, 1, 2, 3, 4

  2. BOption (b)

    5, 1, 2, 4, 3

  3. COption (c)

    5, 2, 1, 4, 3

  4. DOption (d)

    5, 2, 1, 3, 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5, 1, 2, 3, 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct order as per the dictionary is as follows:

5) Irradiation

1) Irreparable

2) Irreplaceable

3) Irrigated

4) Irritable

Hence, the correct answer is "5, 1, 2, 3, 4".

Question 4

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. All T are P.

II. All P are L.

Conclusions:

I. All T are L.

II. All L are P.

III. Some P are T.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusions II and III follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    All conclusion follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both conclusions I and III follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. All T are L. → Follows (As, All T are P and All P are L, this conclusion is definitely true)

II. All L are P. → Does not follow (As, All P are L → Some P are L, So, this conclusion is possible but not definitely true)

III. Some P are T. → Follows (As, All T are P,  this conclusion is definitely true )

Hence, "Both conclusions I and III follows" is the correct answer.

Question 5

A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which number will be on the face opposite to the face showing '8'?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4

Why this answer is correct

Faces opposite to each other is shown below:

6 → 2

3 → 1

4 → 8

Clearly, '4' will be on the face opposite to the face showing '8'.

Hence, '4' is the correct answer.

Question 6

By interchanging which two signs the given equation will be correct?

39 – 3 ÷ 13 + 16 × 8 = 17

  1. AOption (a)

    × and –

  2. BOption (b)
    • and –
  3. COption (c)

    ÷ and –

  4. DOption (d)

    × and ÷

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

× and –

Why this answer is correct

Let's check each option,

1) × and –

→ 39 × 3 ÷ 13 + 16 – 8 = 17

→ 39 × 3/13 + 16 – 8 = 17

→ 9 + 16 – 8 = 17

→ 25 – 8 = 17

→ 17 = 17 → LHS = RHS.

2) + and –

→ 39 + 3 ÷ 13 – 16 × 8 = 17

→ 39 + 3/13 – 16 × 8 = 17

→ 39 + 3/13 – 128 = 17

→ 510/13 – 128 ≠ 17 → LHS ≠ RHS.

3) ÷ and –

→ 39 ÷ 3 – 13 + 16 × 8 = 17

→ 13 – 13 + 16 × 8 = 17

→ 13 – 13 + 128 = 17

→ 128 ≠ 17 → LHS ≠ RHS.

4) × and ÷

→ 39 – 3 × 13 + 16 ÷ 8 = 17

→ 39 – 3 × 13 + 2 = 17

→ 39 – 39 + 2 = 17 

→ 2 ≠ 17 → LHS ≠ RHS.

Here, we can see that only Option 1 gives the correct equation.

Hence, the correct answer is "× and –".

Question 7

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

XQ ∶ UJ ∶∶ IH ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    EL

  2. BOption (b)

    ET

  3. COption (c)

    GB

  4. DOption (d)

    FS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

FS

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The positional value of first letter is subtracted by 3 to get the corresponding first letter.

→ The opposite letter of the second letter as per the positional value table is the corresponding second letter.

XQ ∶ UJ

Similarly,

IH ∶ ?

Hence, the correct answer is "FS".

Question 8

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the first number is related to the second number and fifth number is related to sixth number.

46 ∶ 93 ∶∶ 38 ∶ ? ∶∶ 58 ∶ 117

  1. AOption (a)

    83

  2. BOption (b)

    77

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    79

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

77

Why this answer is correct

In the given pattern, the second number is obtained by doubling the first number and adding 1.

So,

46 * 2 = 92, 92 + 1 = 93 58 * 2 = 116, 116 + 1 = 117

Following the same pattern,

38 * 2 = 76, 76 + 1 = 77

Therefore, 77 is the correct answer.

Question 9

In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    OQJL

  2. BOption (b)

    YAZB

  3. COption (c)

    UWDG

  4. DOption (d)

    EGTV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

UWDG

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

1. OQJL → O + 2 = Q and J + 2 = L 2. YAZB → Y + 2 = A and Z + 2 = B 3. UWDG → U + 2 = W and D + 3 = G 4. EGTV → E + 2 = G and T + 2 = V

Hence, 'UWDG' is the correct answer.

Question 10

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

_ fghi _ _ _ ghije _ ghi _ _ f _ hij

  1. AOption (a)

    ejfffjeg

  2. BOption (b)

    ejeffjgg

  3. COption (c)

    ejeffjjg

  4. DOption (d)

    ejeffjeg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ejeffjeg

Why this answer is correct

Given: _ fghi _ _ _ ghije _ ghi _ _ f _ hij

Let's check each options:

1) ejfffjeg → e f g h i j / f f g h i j / e f g h i j / e f g h i j

2) ejeffjgg → e f g h i j / e  f g h i j / e f g h i i / g f g h i j

3) ejeffjjg → e f g h i j / e f g h i j / e f g h i j / j f g h i j

4) ejeffjeg → e f g h i j / e f g h i j / e f g h i j / e f g h i j

Here, we can see that Option 4 forms repeating sequence of " e f g h i j ".

Hence, the correct answer is "ejeffjeg".

Question 11

In a certain code language, ‘LGMTPK’ is coded as ‘JPSMFL’. What is the code for ‘CARROT’ in that code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    SOQRAC

  2. BOption (b)

    SOQRCZ

  3. COption (c)

    SQORZC

  4. DOption (d)

    SOQRZC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SOQRZC

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'SOQRZC' is the correct answer.

Question 12

In a certain code language, ‘FRIENDS * FANS’ is coded as ‘28’, ‘INDIANS * PICKS’ is coded as ‘35’. What is the code for ‘INCREASES * PRICES’ in that code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    54

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    45

  4. DOption (d)

    58

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

54

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  • ‘FRIENDS * FANS’ is coded as ‘28’
  • Number of letters in FRIENDS is 7 and in FANS is 4
  • 7 × 4 = 28
  • ‘INDIANS * PICKS’ is coded as ‘35’
  • Number of letters in INDIANS is 7 and in PICKS is 5
  • 7 × 5 = 35

Similarly,

  • ‘INCREASES * PRICES’
  • Number of letters on INCREASES is 9 and in PRICES is 6
  • 9 × 6 = 54

Hence, '54' is the correct answer.

Question 13

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line AB as shown.

  1. AOption (a)

    MOUИТАIИ

  2. BOption (b)

    MOUNTAIN

  3. COption (c)

    ИIАТИUОМ

  4. DOption (d)

    NIАТИUOM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ИIАТИUОМ

Why this answer is correct

The mirror image of the given figure is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "ИIАТИUОМ".

Question 14

How many black are only white?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6

Why this answer is correct

The number of Black who are only white is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

Question 15

Words given on the left side of (∶∶) are related with each other by some Logic/Rule /Relation. Select the missing word/word pair on the right side of (∶∶) from the given alternatives based on the same Logic/Rule/Relation.

Dog ∶ Bitch ∶∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cock ∶ Hen

  2. BOption (b)

    Stallion ∶ Horse

  3. COption (c)

    Witch ∶ Wizard

  4. DOption (d)

    Cow ∶ Bull

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cock ∶ Hen

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The left side word represent male and right side word represent female of the same species.

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1) Cock ∶ Hen

→ These are the male and female terms for chickens, so this fits the logic.

2) Stallion ∶ Horse

→ Stallion is a term for a male horse, but 'Horse' is a general term and not specifically female, so this doesn't match.

3) Witch ∶ Wizard

→ These terms are gender-specific, but they don't refer to the same species or occupation in the same way as the others, so this doesn't match as well.

4) Cow ∶ Bull

→ The order of the male and female is incorrect as per the logic.

Here, we can see that only Option 1 follow the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Cock ∶ Hen".

Question 16

In the following question, four number pairs are given. In each pair the number on left side of (–) is related to the number of the right side of (–)with some Logic/Rule /Relation. Three pairs are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

    168 – 336

  2. BOption (b)

    512 – 1024

  3. COption (c)

    358 – 726

  4. DOption (d)

    624 – 1248

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

358 – 726

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

1. 168 – 336 → 168 × 2 = 336 2. 512 – 1024 → 512 × 2 = 1024 3. 358 – 726 → 358 × 2 = 716 ≠ 726 4. 624 – 1248 → 624 × 2 = 1248

Hence, '358 – 726' is the correct answer.

Question 17

If ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘–’ means ‘+’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’ and ‘+’ means ‘–’, then 84 × 7 ÷ 4 – 16 × 8 ÷ 2 + 14 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    36

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    44

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

38

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 84 × 7 ÷ 4 – 16 × 8 ÷ 2 + 14 =?

Sign×–÷+
Means÷+×–

After changing the signs, the final equation we get:

→ 84 ÷ 7 × 4 + 16 ÷ 8 × 2 – 14 =?

→ 12 × 4 + 2 × 2 – 14 =?

→ 48 + 4 – 14 =?

→ 52 – 14 =?

→ 38 =?

Hence, the correct answer is "38".

Question 18

Select the option that is related to the fifth word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word and the fourth word is related to the third word.

Dentist ∶ Teeth ∶∶ Orthopedician ∶ Bones ∶∶ Cardiologist ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ears

  2. BOption (b)

    Heart

  3. COption (c)

    Brain

  4. DOption (d)

    Eyes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Heart

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first word is a specialist who treats the part of the body mentioned in the second word.

Dentist ∶ Teeth

→ Dentist treats teeth.

Orthopedician ∶ Bones

→ Orthopedician treats Bones.

Similarly,

Cardiologist ∶?

→ Cardiologist treats Heart.

Hence, the correct answer is "Heart".

Question 19

Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship in set as that shared by the numbers in the given set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(432, 348, 264)

(288, 337, 386)

  1. AOption (a)

    (412, 390, 328)

  2. BOption (b)

    (304, 368, 412)

  3. COption (c)

    (348, 317, 286)

  4. DOption (d)

    (264, 199, 114)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(348, 317, 286)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  • (432, 348, 264) → (432 + 264) ÷ 2 = 696 ÷ 2 = 348
  • (288, 337, 386) → (288 + 386) ÷ 2 = 674÷ 2 =  337

Similarly,

  • (348, 317, 286) → (348 + 286) ÷ 2 = 634 ÷ 2 = 317

Hence, '(348, 317, 286)' is the correct answer.

Question 20

By folding the given paper, which of the following box cannot be made?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Faces opposite to each other is shown below:

1. 

 → Cannot be made (As, 1 and 4 are faces opposite to each other, so they cannot appear on the dice at the same time)

2. 

 → Can be made

3. 

 → Can be made

4. 

 → Can be made

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

Question 21

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    21

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

22

Why this answer is correct

The number of triangles in the figure is shown below:

Hence, ‘22’ is the correct answer.

Question 22

By folding the given paper, which of the following box can be made?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Faces opposite to each other is shown below:

1. 

 → Cannot be made (As, @ and + are faces opposite to each other, so they cannot appear on the dice at the same time)

2. 

 → Cannot be made (As, # and 6 are faces opposite to each other, so they cannot appear on the dice at the same time)

3. 

 → Cannot be made (As, 4 and % are faces opposite to each other, so they cannot appear on the dice at the same time)

4. 

 → Can be made

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

Question 23

Three of the four group of words are alike in some manner. Select the odd group of words.

  1. AOption (a)

    (Truck, Scooter, Car)

  2. BOption (b)

    (Lizard, Crocodile, Jungle)

  3. COption (c)

    (Lion, Leopard, Fox)

  4. DOption (d)

    (Pen, Pencil, Eraser)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(Lizard, Crocodile, Jungle)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each of the groups generally consist of words that fall within the same category.

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1) (Truck, Scooter, Car):

→ These are all types of vehicles.

2) (Lizard, Crocodile, Jungle):

→ Lizard and Crocodile are both reptiles, Jungle is not a type of reptile but a type of habitat.

3) (Lion, Leopard, Fox):

→ These are all types of mammals.

4) (Pen, Pencil, Eraser):

→ These are all stationery items.

Here, we can see that Option 2 doesn't follow the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "(Lizard, Crocodile, Jungle)".

Question 24

Bhanu is the sister of Chirag. Aryan is the father of Bhanu. Chirag is the brother of Dewan. Dewan is the husband of Esha. How is Esha related to Aryan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister

  3. COption (c)

    Niece

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter in law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Daughter in law

Why this answer is correct

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, Esha is daughter-in-law of Aryan.

Hence, ‘Daughter in law’ is the correct answer.

Question 25

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

31, 93, 279, 837, ?, 7533

  1. AOption (a)

    2511

  2. BOption (b)

    2831

  3. COption (c)

    2633

  4. DOption (d)

    2711

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2511

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '2511' is the correct answer.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

In ruminants like cattle, bacteria present in ________ helps in digestion of cellulose.

  1. AOption (a)

    rumen

  2. BOption (b)

    oesophagus

  3. COption (c)

    small intestine

  4. DOption (d)

    large intestine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

rumen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is rumen.

Key Points

  • In ruminants like cattle, bacteria present in the rumen (the largest compartment of the stomach) play a crucial role in the digestion of cellulose.
  • The rumen is a fermentation chamber where complex carbohydrates, such as cellulose from plant material, are broken down by microbial fermentation.
  • Bacteria in the rumen possess cellulolytic enzymes that break down cellulose into simpler forms that can be further digested and utilized by the ruminant host.
  • This symbiotic relationship between ruminants and rumen bacteria allows them to efficiently extract nutrients from plant-based diets.

Additional Information

BacteriaUse/Function
Escherichia coli (E. coli)Used in molecular biology and biotechnology research
Can produce recombinant proteins and enzymes
LactobacillusUsed in the production of yogurt, cheese, and other dairy products
Helps in the fermentation of vegetables and pickles
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)Used as a biological pesticide against insect pests
Produces insecticidal toxins targeting specific pests
Streptococcus pneumoniaeCan cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections
Important in vaccine development against pneumonia
RhizobiumForms symbiotic relationships with leguminous plants
Fixes atmospheric nitrogen, enhancing plant growth
Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast)Used in baking, brewing, and fermentation processes
Produces carbon dioxide and alcohol during fermentation
Clostridium botulinumProduces botulinum toxin, used medically and in cosmetic procedures
Causes botulism, a severe form of food poisoning
Mycobacterium tuberculosisCauses tuberculosis (a bacterial infection) in humans
Studied for developing diagnostic tests and treatments
Pseudomonas aeruginosaCan cause infections in humans, particularly in immunocompromised individuals
Used in bioremediation to degrade environmental pollutants
StreptomycesSource of many antibiotics, such as streptomycin
Used in the production of antibiotics and antifungal drugs
Lactobacillus acidophilusConsidered a probiotic bacterium, promotes gut health
Aids in digestion and maintains a healthy intestinal flora
NitrosomonasConverts ammonia to nitrite in the nitrogen cycle
Plays a role in the nitrification process in soil
Helicobacter pyloriCauses stomach ulcers and gastric infections
Studied for understanding the pathogenesis of ulcers

Question 27

Which institution launched a list of 50 iconic Indian heritage textiles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of textile

  2. BOption (b)

    NITI Aayog

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of culture

  4. DOption (d)

    UNESCO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

UNESCO

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is UNESCO.

Key Points

  • UNESCO launched a list of 50 iconic Indian heritage textiles
  • The list was titled "Handmade for the 21st Century: Safeguarding Traditional Indian Textiles​​.
  • The list includes 50 exclusive and iconic heritage textile crafts of India. Some of these include Toda embroidery and Sungadi from Tamil Nadu, Himroo weaves from Hyderabad, and Bandha tie and dye weaving from Sambalpur in Odisha.
  • The list documents various aspects of the textiles, including the histories and legends behind them, the complicated and secret processes behind their creation, the causes for their dwindling popularity, and strategies for their preservation​.
  • The publication aims to address one of the major challenges to the safeguarding of Intangible Cultural Heritage in South Asia, which is the lack of proper inventory and documentation. It brings together years of research on the selected textiles​.
  • Some of the iconic handcrafted textiles documented from north India include Khes from Panipat, Chamba rumors from Himachal Pradesh, Thigma or wool tie and dye from Ladakh, and Awadh Jamdani from Varanasi​.
  • From the south, textiles like Ilkal and Lambadi or Banjara embroidery from Karnataka, and Sikalnayakanpet Kalamkari from Thanjavur are included​.
  • Textiles from other regions like Kunbi weaves from Goa, Mashru weaves and Patola from Gujarat, Himroo from Maharashtra, and Garad-Koirial from West Bengal also find a place in the list​.
  • The UNESCO publication also functions as a sample of endangered textile crafts and includes recommendations for the protection and revitalization of these textile crafts, covering issues ranging from policy to grass-root-based micro-interventions.

Additional Information

UNESCO Sites

SiteLocationYear of inscriptionDescription
Agra FortAgra, Uttar Pradesh1983A massive red sandstone fort complex was built by the Mughal emperor Akbar in the 16th century.
Ajanta CavesAurangabad, Maharashtra1983A series of 30 rock-cut Buddhist caves dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 7th century CE.
Elephanta CavesMumbai, Maharashtra1987A group of 7 Hindu and Buddhist caves was carved out of a basalt cliff on an island in the Arabian Sea.
Ellora CavesAurangabad, Maharashtra1983A series of 34 rock-cut caves, including Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain shrines, dating from the 6th to the 10th centuries CE.
HampiKarnataka1986The ruins of a 16th-century Hindu kingdom, including temples, palaces, and forts.
KhajurahoMadhya Pradesh1986A group of 22 Hindu and Jain temples, famous for their erotic sculptures.
Mahabodhi TempleBodh Gaya, Bihar2002The temple that marks the location where the Buddha attained enlightenment.
Manas National ParkAssam1985A wildlife sanctuary home to the one-horned rhinoceros.
Nanda Devi National ParkUttarakhand1988A mountain park home to the Nanda Devi, the highest peak in India.
Old GoaGoa1986The ruins of a Portuguese colonial city, including churches, convents, and palaces.
Taj MahalAgra, Uttar Pradesh1983A white marble mausoleum built by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.

Question 28

Which of the following shortcut key is used to open a new file in MS-Word 365?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alt + O

  2. BOption (b)

    Alt + N

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + O

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ctrl + N

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + N.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + N -- Open a new/blank document.

​ 

Additional Information

Word shortcut keys

  • Ctrl + A -- Select all contents of the page.
  • Ctrl + B -- Bold highlighted selection.
  • Ctrl + C -- Copy selected text.
  • Ctrl + X -- Cut selected text.
  • Ctrl + N -- Open new/blank document.
  • Ctrl + O -- Open options.
  • Ctrl + P -- Open the print window.

​

  • Ctrl + F -- Open find box.
  • Ctrl + I -- Italicise highlighted selection.
  • Ctrl + K -- Insert link.
  • Ctrl + U -- Underline highlighted selection.
  • Ctrl + V -- Paste.
  • Ctrl + Y -- Redo the last action performed.
  • Ctrl + Z -- Undo last action.

​

  • Ctrl + G -- Find and replace options.
  • Ctrl + H -- Find and replace options.
  • Ctrl + J -- Justify paragraph alignment.
  • Ctrl + L -- Align selected text or line to the left.
  • Ctrl + Q -- Removes all formatting from a highlighted paragraph
  • Ctrl + E -- Align selected text or line to the centre.
  • Ctrl + R -- Align selected text or line to the right.
  • Ctrl + M -- Indent the paragraph.

​

  • Ctrl + T -- Hanging indent.
  • Ctrl + D -- Font options.
  • Ctrl + Shift + F -- Change the font.
  • Ctrl + Shift + > -- Increase selected font +1.
  • Ctrl + ] -- Increase selected font +1.
  • Ctrl + [ -- Decrease selected font -1.

​

  • Ctrl + Shift + * -- View or hide nonprinting characters.
  • Ctrl + (Left arrow) -- Move one word to the left.
  • Ctrl + (Right arrow) -- Move one word to the right.
  • Ctrl + (Up arrow) -- Move to the beginning of the line or paragraph.
  • Ctrl + (Down arrow) -- Move to the end of the paragraph.
  • Ctrl + Del -- Delete the word to the right of the cursor.

​

  • Ctrl + Backspace -- Delete the word to the left of the cursor.
  • Ctrl + End -- Move the cursor to the end of the document.
  • Ctrl + Home -- Move the cursor to the beginning of the document.
  • Ctrl + Space -- Reset highlighted text to the default font.
  • Ctrl + 1 -- Single-space lines.
  • Ctrl + 2 -- Double-space lines.
  • Ctrl + 5 -- 1.5-line spacing.

​

  • Ctrl + Alt + 1 Change text to heading 1.
  • Ctrl + Alt + 2 Change text to heading 2.
  • Ctrl + Alt + 3 Change text to heading 3.
  • F1 -- Open help.
  • Shift + F3 -- Change the case of the selected text.
  • Shift + Insert -- Paste.

​

  • F4 -- Repeat the last action performed (Word 2000+).
  • F7 -- Spell check selected text and/or document.
  • Shift + F7 -- Activate the thesaurus.
  • F12 -- Save as.
  • Ctrl + S -- Save.
  • Shift + F12 -- Save.
  • Alt + Shift + D -- Insert the current date.
  • Alt + Shift + T -- Insert the current time.
  • Ctrl + W -- Close document.

Question 29

Law of Demand states that, there is a negative relationship between ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    demand for a commodity and its supply

  2. BOption (b)

    demand for a commodity and its price

  3. COption (c)

    tax on a commodity and its price

  4. DOption (d)

    supply of a commodity and its price

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

demand for a commodity and its price

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is demand for a commodity and its price.

Key Points 

  • According to the law of demand
  • ​​​​when the price of a commodity increase, the quantity demanded decreases
  • when the price of a commodity decreases, it’s the quantity demanded increases
  • keeping other factors remains the same.
  • The consumer’s demand for good must be inversely related to the price of the good.
  • There is an inverse relationship between price and demand and due to this the demand curve always has a downward slope.
  • The demand Curve is the relation between the quantity of the good chosen by a consumer and the price of the good.​

Additional Information

  • ​Assumptions for the Law of Demand
  • ​​No change in the income of consumers
  • No change is the taste and preference of the consumers
  • No change in price related to other goods.

Question 30

“Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) MK III” has been manufacturer by which organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    ISRO

  2. BOption (b)

    HAL

  3. COption (c)

    DRDO

  4. DOption (d)

    BHEL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

HAL

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HAL.

Key Points

  • The ALH Mk-III helicopters, indigenously manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL),
  • It features state-of-the-art equipment including advanced RADAR as well as Electro optical sensors, Shakti engines, a full glass cockpit, a high-intensity searchlight, advanced communication systems, an automatic identification system as well as search-and-rescue homer.
  • This feature enables the helicopter to undertake maritime reconnaissance as well as carry out search and rescue at extended ranges while operating from ships, both by day and night.
  • A total of 16 ALH Mk-III aircraft have been inducted into the Indian Coast Guard in a phased manner and four of these aircraft are positioned in Chennai.

Additional Information Hindustan Aeronautics Limited:

  • Founded in: 1940
  • Headquarters: Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • Chairman: Mihir Kanti Mishra (as of May 2023)

Question 31

Sonal Mansingh is associated with which dance form?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kuchipudi and Sattriya

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatnatyam and Odissi

  3. COption (c)

    Manipuri and kathak

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipuri and Kuchipudi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bharatnatyam and Odissi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam and Odissi.

Key Points

  • Sonal Mansingh is a prominent Indian classical dancer who specializes in Bharatanatyam and Odissi.
  • For her contributions to promoting ‘Classical dances’, she has received accolades from many national and international organizations.
  • She was the youngest recipient of Padma Bhushan in 1992.
  • In 2003, Sonal became the first Indian woman dancer to be awarded Padma Vibhushan.

Additional Information

Folk DanceRegionNotable Exponents
BhangraPunjabGurbaksh Singh Albela, Giddha Group, Harbhajan Mann
GarbaGujaratFalguni Pathak, Kirtidan Gadhvi, Atul Purohit
KathakaliKeralaKalamandalam Gopi, Sadanam Krishnankutty, Kottakkal Sivaraman
OdissiOdishaKelucharan Mohapatra, Sonal Mansingh, Sanjukta Panigrahi
BharatanatyamTamil NaduYamini Krishnamurthy, Mallika Sarabhai, Alarmel Valli
GhoomarRajasthanQueen Harish, Seema Mishra, Manisha Sharma
BihuAssamPranami Phukan, Tarulata Kutum, Sunita Kaushik
KathakNorth IndiaBirju Maharaj, Shovana Narayan, Uma Sharma
Dandiya RaasGujaratFalguni Pathak, Hemant Chauhan, Rupal Doshi
SattriyaAssamJatin Goswami, Anita Sharma, Prateesha Suresh
LavaniMaharashtraSulochana Chavan, Yamunabai Waikar, Shakuntala Nagarkar
ChhauJharkhandGuru Anant Charan Mahato, Guru Shashadhar Acharya, Niranjan Gorai
KalbeliaRajasthanGulabo Sapera, Shakuntala Sapera, Gulab Khan
ManipuriManipurGuru Bipin Singh, Darshana Jhaveri, Elam Endira Devi
SambalpuriOdishaSurendra Nath Jena, Sikander Alam, Jagabandhu Pattnaik
GiddhaPunjabJyoti Dhillon, Harbhajan Mann, Rani Randeep
Langa ManganiarRajasthanMame Khan, Kutle Khan, Anwar Khan Manganiar
YakshaganaKarnatakaK. Shivarama Karanth, Srinivas Udupa, Chittani Ramachandra Hegde
JhoomarPunjabSurinder Kaur, Mohammad Sadiq, Satinder Satti
Dollu KunithaKarnatakaGuru Nataraj, Prabhakar Reddy, Puttaraju
RouffJammu and KashmirBashir Ahmad, Tajamul Hussain, Abdul Rashid Hafiz

Question 32

Consider the given consumption function of country X and answer the following question.

C = 100 + 0.8Y

What is the value of autonomous consumption (A) and marginal propensity to consume (MPC) in the given equation?

  1. AOption (a)

    A = 0.8, MPC = 100

  2. BOption (b)

    A = 100, MPC = 80

  3. COption (c)

    A = 80, MPC = 0.10

  4. DOption (d)

    A = 100, MPC = 0.8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A = 100, MPC = 0.8

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer A = 100, MPC = 0.8

Key Points:

The consumption function you provided is in the form of a simple linear equation:

  • C = A + MPC*Y

where:

  • C represents consumption,
  • A represents autonomous consumption,
  • MPC represents the marginal propensity to consume, and
  • Y represents income.

Comparing this with your given function C = 100 + 0.8Y, we can identify the values of A and MPC.

  • A (Autonomous consumption) is part of consumption that occurs when income is zero.
  • It's the intercept of the consumption function on the consumption axis.
  • This is represented by the constant term in the equation, which in this case is 100.
  • MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume) is the change in consumption resulting from a one-unit change in income.
  • It's the slope of the consumption function.
  • In your given function, this is represented by 0.8.

So, in the given consumption function C = 100 + 0.8Y, autonomous consumption (A) is 100 and the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.8.

Question 33

Which of the following sports was NOT played at Commonwealth Games 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Squash

  2. BOption (b)

    Boxing

  3. COption (c)

    Hockey

  4. DOption (d)

    Archery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Archery

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Archery

Key PointsList of games played in commonwealth games 2022:

List 1List 2
3X3 BASKETBALL
3X3 WHEELCHAIR BASKETBALL
AQUATICS - DIVING
AQUATICS - SWIMMING AND PARA-SWIMMING
ATHLETICS AND PARA ATHLETICS
BADMINTON
BEACH VOLLEYBALL
BOXING
CRICKET T20
CYCLING - MOUNTAIN BIKE
CYCLING - ROAD
CYCLING - TRACK AND PARA TRACK
GYMNASTICS - ARTISTIC
GYMNASTICS - RHYTHMIC
HOCKEY
JUDO
LAWN BOWLS AND PARA LAWN BOWLS
NETBALL
PARA POWERLIFTING
RUGBY SEVENS
SQUASH
TABLE TENNIS AND PARA TABLE TENNIS
TRIATHLON AND PARA TRIATHLON
WEIGHTLIFTING
WRESTLING

Additional Information:

  • The 2022 Commonwealth Games (officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games) will be held in Birmingham, England.
  • The 2022 Commonwealth Games is the third Commonwealth Games to be hosted in England following London 1934 and Manchester 2002.
  • The motto of the 2022 Commonwealth Games is "Games for Everyone".
  • Birmingham was announced as the host by the Commonwealth Games Federation in 2017.
  • 72 Commonwealth nations are expected to participate in the 2022 Commonwealth Games.
  • Australia hosted the Commonwealth Games the most (5) times.
  • 2018 Commonwealth Games were held at Gold Coast, Australia.
  • India won 26 Gold medals and a total of 66 medals and finished 3rd for the tournament.
  • Delhi in India hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2010.
  • Edinburg in Scotand hosted the Commonwealth Games twice in 1970 and 1986.
  • Perth in Australia hosted the Commonwealth Games in 1962.

Question 34

Who among the following wrote a history of Akbar’s reign titled Akbar Nama?

  1. AOption (a)

    Miya Tansen

  2. BOption (b)

    Todar Mal

  3. COption (c)

    Raja Birbal

  4. DOption (d)

    Abul Fazl

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Abul Fazl

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abul Fazl

Key Points:

  • The Akbarnama, which translates to Book of Akbar (1556-1605), the 3rd Mughal Emperor, was written by his court historian and biographer, Abul Fazl.
  • It was written in Persian originally, which was the court language of the Mughals.
  • The book includes vivid and detailed descriptions of his life and times during the reign of Akbar.
  • It is believed it took seven years for the book to be completed.
  • Abul Fazl was one of the Nine Jewels of the Akbar Court.
  • The first volume of the book deals with the birth of Akbar, the history of Timur's family and the reigns of Babur and Humayun, and the Suri sultans of Delhi.
  • The second volume describes the detailed history of the reign of Akbar till the year 1602 and records the events during Akbar's reign.
  • It also throws light on how Bairam Khan and Akbar won the second Battle of Panipat (1556) against Hemu.
  • The third volume of the Akbarnama describes the administrative system of the Empire. It also deals with Akbar's household, army, revenues, and geography of the Mughal Empire.
  • It also provides us the information about the traditions and culture of the people living in India at that time.

Additional Information: About Abul Fazl :​

  • Abul Fazl was the grand courtier of the Mughal emperor Akbar.
  • He was the author of the Akbarnama, the official history of Akbar's reign.
  • Apart from Akbarnama, Abul Fazl also wrote the Persian translation of the Bible.
  • He was also one of the Nine Jewels of the Akbar's royal court and the brother of Faizi, the poet laureate of  Akbar.

Nine Jewels of Akbar: 

  • The following were the Nine Jewels or Navratnas of the Akbar's Royal Court-
  • Raja Birbal- He was a noble who won Akbar’s appreciation for his wits.
  • Tansen-He was the musician in Akbar’s court.
  • Abul Fazal- He was the chief advisor in the court of Akbar.
  • Faizi- Faizi was a poet who was famous for his work Nal U Daman.
  • Raja Man Singh- He was the General in the court of Akbar.
  • Raja Todar Mal- He was the Finance minister in the court of Akbar.
  • Mullah Do Piazza- Home Minister of Akbar.
  • Fakir Aziao-Din- Religious Minister of Akbar.
  • Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana- Defence Minister of Akbar and a renowned poet.

Question 35

Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is defined under which article of the Indian constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    130

  2. BOption (b)

    134

  3. COption (c)

    131

  4. DOption (d)

    132

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

131

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 131

Key Points:

  • Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.
  • In which no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.
  • Under Article 131, the Supreme Court Supreme has original jurisdiction to deal with any dispute between
  • the Centre and one or more states;
  • the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other;
  • between two or more states.
  • With regard to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court,
  • the dispute must involve a question on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
  • any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a state cannot be entertained under this.
  • In 1961, the first suit, under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, was brought by West Bengal against the Centre.

Additional Information:

  • The Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court be classified into
  • Original Jurisdiction
  • Writ Jurisdiction
  • Appellate Jurisdiction
  • Advisory Jurisdiction
  • A Court of Record
  • Power of Judicial Review
  • Article131, Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  • Article 132, Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in appeals from high courts in certain cases
  • Article 133, Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in appeals from high courts in regard to civil matters
  • Article 134, Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters

Question 36

Who won the women’s singles title at the French Open 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iga Swiatek

  2. BOption (b)

    Ons Jabeur

  3. COption (c)

    Ashleigh Barty

  4. DOption (d)

    Coco Gauff

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Iga Swiatek

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iga Swiatek.

Key Points:

  • World No. 1 Iga Swiatek steamrolled her opponents to win her 2nd French Open title.
  • The Polish superstar defeated 18-year-old American 18th seed Coco Gauff 6-1, 6-3 in a one-sided women's singles final at the Philippe Chatrier in Paris on Saturday, June 4.
  • Spaniard Rafael Nadal on 5 June 2022 won the 14th singles title of the French Open beating Casper Ruud of Norway 6-3, 6-3, 6-0 in the final.
  • With this victory, 36-year-old Nadal has become the oldest champion of the French Open.
  • It is his 22nd Grand Slam title.
  • In women's singles, World Number One Iga Swiatek of Poland won the 2022 title by beating Coco Gauf in Paris on 4 June 2022.
  • | Grand Slam Title 2022 | Male Winner | Female Winner | | --- | --- | --- | | U.S. Open | Carlos Alcaraz | Iga Swiatek | | Wimbledon | Novak Djokovic | Elena Rybakina | | French Open | Rafael Nadal | Iga Swiatek | | Australian Open | Rafael Nadal | Ashleigh Barty
    |

Additional Information:

  • The French Open, also known as Roland-Garros, is a major tennis tournament.
  • It is held over two weeks at the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France, beginning in late May each year.
  • The tournament and venue are named after the French aviator Roland Garros.
  • ​The French Open:
  • Founded: 1891
  • Location: Paris, France
  • Surface: Clay – outdoors (1908–present); Sand – outdoors (1891–1907)
  • Japan's Ena Shibahara and Wesley Koolhof of the Netherlands won the French Open mixed doubles title on 2 June 2022.

Question 37

Who was/is a successful Indian business tycoon and was the founder of Reliance Industries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhirubhai Ambani

  2. BOption (b)

    Anant Ambani

  3. COption (c)

    Mukesh Ambani

  4. DOption (d)

    Akash Ambani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dhirubhai Ambani

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer Dhirubhai Ambani

Key Points

  • Dhirubhai Ambani was a successful Indian business tycoon.
  • He was the founder of Reliance Industries.
  • He started Reliance Industries in 1966 as a small textile manufacturer.
  • Over the years, he expanded the company into a diverse range of businesses.
  • These businesses include telecommunications, petrochemicals, and retail.
  • His entrepreneurial efforts have had a significant impact on the Indian business landscape.

Question 38

Which of the following pair regarding peninsular plateau of India is correct?

I. Central Highlands – south of Narmada river

II. Deccan Plateau – north of Narmada river

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither I nor II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • Central Highlands: The Central Highlands are located north of the Narmada River.
  • They cover parts of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Maharashtra.
  • This region consists of a series of plateaus, hills, and valleys.
  • It is characterized by its average elevation of about 600-900 meters above sea level, making it relatively higher in comparison to the surrounding plains.
  • The Central Highlands are known for their rugged terrain, with prominent hill ranges such as the Vindhya Range and the Satpura Range. These ranges act as a natural boundary between northern and southern India.
  • Deccan Plateau: The Deccan Plateau is situated south of the Narmada River and covers a significant portion of peninsular India.
  • It spans across several states, including Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
  • The Deccan Plateau is a vast elevated region with an average height of about 600-900 meters above sea level, although there are certain areas where it reaches higher elevations.
  • It is characterized by its gently rolling terrain, with extensive lava flows and volcanic activity in the past.
  • The plateau is composed of layers of basaltic lava flows, giving rise to black soil, which is highly fertile and suitable for agriculture.

Additional Information

  • The Peninsular Plateau, also known as the Deccan Plateau, is a large plateau region in India.
  • It is located in the southern part of the Indian subcontinent and covers a major portion of the country.

Question 39

The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about ________ percent of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • When sunlight falls on the leaves of green plants, a process called photosynthesis occurs.
  • Photosynthesis is the biological process by which plants convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose (a form of sugar) and oxygen. This process takes place in specialized structures within plant cells called chloroplasts, which contain a pigment called chlorophyll that gives plants their green color.
  • During photosynthesis, chlorophyll absorbs the energy from sunlight.
  • This energy is used to power a series of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.
  • The glucose produced is then used by the plant as a source of energy for various metabolic processes, such as growth, reproduction, and maintenance of cellular functions.
  • However, not all the energy from sunlight can be captured and converted by plants. Sunlight consists of a broad spectrum of electromagnetic radiation, including visible light.
  • other factors such as the angle and intensity of sunlight, the availability of water and nutrients, and the efficiency of the plant's photosynthetic apparatus can influence the amount of energy that plants capture and convert into food energy.
  • On average, it is estimated that green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem are able to capture and convert approximately 1 percent of the total energy from sunlight into food energy through photosynthesis.

Question 40

Theme of International Earth Day 2022 is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Invest in our planet

  2. BOption (b)

    Saves future collectively

  3. COption (c)

    Protect our species

  4. DOption (d)

    Restore our earth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Invest in our planet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • World Earth Day, also known as International Mother Earth Day, is celebrated every year on April 22.
  • The theme of Earth Day 2022 is to ‘Invest in our planet’.
  • The Day will be celebrated all over the world to spread awareness for Earth’s wellbeing and to encourage people to support environmental protection.
  • The day focuses on the global climate crisis that is worsening with each passing day.
  • World Earth Day 2022 will mark the 52nd Anniversary of the day since it started being observed in 1970.
  • Earth Day was renamed officially by the UN in 2009 as International Mother Earth Day.
  • The day was observed when the peace activist John Mc Connell proposed to honour Mother Earth and the concept of peace during a UNESCO conference in San Francisco.

Question 41

Nashik is also known as ________ capital of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Wine

  2. BOption (b)

    Gold

  3. COption (c)

    Orange

  4. DOption (d)

    Cotton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Wine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wine.

Key Points

  • Nashik is known for its wine production and is referred to as the "Wine capital of India."
  • Nashik's pursuit of becoming the wine capital of India received a significant boost when the Indian government bestowed it with the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag. To further promote wine production, the city has been branded as "Nashik Valley Wine."
  • The city's favorable climate, fertile soil, and proximity to the Sahyadri mountain ranges make it ideal for grape cultivation.

Additional Information

  • Gold:
  • Mumbai and Kolkata are renowned for their gold trading and jewelry manufacturing industries in India.
  • These cities have a long-standing history and reputation for gold-related businesses, including gold bullion trading, jewelry design, and craftsmanship.
  • Orange:
  • Nagpur, known as the "Orange City," is famous for its high-quality oranges in India.
  • The region's unique climate and fertile soil contribute to the cultivation of delicious and flavorful oranges.
  • Nagpur is recognized as a prominent orange-growing region in India and produces a significant portion of the country's oranges.
  • Cotton:
  • Ahmedabad, located in Gujarat, is widely recognized as the major cotton hub in India.
  • The city has a thriving cotton textile industry and significant cotton production.
  • Ahmedabad is home to the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) and serves as a prominent center for cotton trade and manufacturing.

Question 42

Who was conferred with the Ashok Chakra for his gallantry in 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attacks?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mohan Chand Sharma

  2. BOption (b)

    Hemant Karkare

  3. COption (c)

    R P Diengdoh

  4. DOption (d)

    Mohit Sharma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hemant Karkare

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hemant Karkare.

Key Points

  • Hemant Karkare led the ATS team in response to the coordinated terrorist attacks that took place in Mumbai in November 2008.
  • He played a crucial role in neutralizing the terrorists at various locations, including the iconic Taj Mahal Palace Hotel.
  • Tragically, Hemant Karkare lost his life in the line of duty during the attacks while fighting against the terrorists.
  • In recognition of his exceptional bravery and supreme sacrifice, he was posthumously honoured with the Ashok Chakra, India's highest peacetime gallantry award.

Additional Information

  • Mohan Chand Sharma:
  • He was an Indian Police Service (IPS) officer serving with the Delhi Police's Special Cell.
  • He led the operation against terrorists in the Batla House encounter, which took place in Delhi in 2008.
  • Sharma displayed exemplary courage and professionalism during the operation, where he lost his life in the line of duty.
  • In recognition of his bravery and sacrifice in the Batla House encounter, Mohan Chand Sharma was posthumously awarded the Ashok Chakra, India's highest peacetime gallantry award.
  • Mohit Sharma:
  • Major Mohit Sharma, an Indian Army Officer from the elite 1st Para SF, was posthumously awarded the Ashoka Chakra, India's highest peace-time military decoration.
  • He engaged in an encounter with terrorists in Jammu and Kashmir, killing four terrorists and rescuing two teammates before succumbing to multiple gunshot wounds.
  • Major Sharma had previously received two gallantry decorations and was honoured by having a Delhi Metro station named after him in 2019.
  • R P Diengdoh:
  • R P Diengdoh, an Indian Army soldier, was awarded the Ashok Chakra for his bravery and sacrifice during an operation against militants in Jammu and Kashmir in 2018.

Question 43

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the 2011 population census?

  1. AOption (a)

    The literacy rate in the country as per the Census of 2011 is 78 per cent.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sex ratio is defined as the number of males per 1000 females in the population.

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala has a sex ratio of 1046.

  4. DOption (d)

    A person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

  • In the 2011 population census, a person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.
  • The 2011 population census was conducted in India, aiming to gather demographic data and other relevant information about the population.
  • The census covered various aspects, including population size, growth rate, literacy rate, sex ratio, and other socio-economic indicators.
  • It provided valuable insights into the population distribution across different states, districts, and cities within the country.
  • The census data helped in understanding trends, patterns, and disparities in terms of population, literacy, education, employment, and other important factors.
  • It served as a crucial tool for policy-making, planning development initiatives, and resource allocation at national, state, and local levels.
  • The census was conducted through a door-to-door survey method, collecting data from households and individuals to ensure comprehensive coverage of the population.

Question 44

Which of the following temple is situated in Tamil Nadu?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shore temple

  2. BOption (b)

    Kailasa temple

  3. COption (c)

    Virupaksha temple

  4. DOption (d)

    Jagannatha temple

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shore temple

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shore temple.

Key Points

  • The Shore Temple is situated in Tamil Nadu.
  • It is a complex of temples and shrines that overlooks the shore of the Bay of Bengal.
  • It is located in Mahabalipuram, about 60 kilometres (37 mi) south of Chennai in Tamil Nadu, India.

Important Points

  • The Shore Temple is one of the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the year 1984.
  • It was built during the Pallava dynasty, which ruled over Tamil Nadu from the 6th to the 9th centuries.
  • It is a Dravidian temple, which is a style of architecture that is found in South India.
  • It is dedicated to Shiva and Vishnu, who are two of the most important Hindu gods.
  • It is a popular tourist destination, and it is one of the most visited temples in Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information 

TempleStateImportant information
Kailasa templeEllora, MaharashtraCarved out of a single rock
Virupaksha templeHampi, KarnatakaDedicated to Virupaksha, a form of Shiva
Jagannatha templePuri, OdishaDedicated to Jagannatha, a form of Vishnu

Question 45

The Eighty-ninth Amendment Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution established which of the following Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Competition Commission of India

  2. BOption (b)

    National Commission for Backward Classes

  3. COption (c)

    National Commission for Woman

  4. DOption (d)

    National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

Key Points

  • The Eighty-ninth Amendment Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution established the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
  • The Commission was established to protect the interests of the Scheduled Tribes and to ensure their development.
  • The Commission has the following powers and functions:
  • To investigate and monitor the implementation of safeguards provided for the Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution and other laws.
  • To inquire into specific complaints of deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Tribes.
  • To advise the Central Government and State Governments on all matters relating to the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes.
  • To make recommendations for the protection, development and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.
  • To publish reports on its activities and findings.
  • The Commission is headed by a Chairperson who is appointed by the President of India.
  • The Chairperson is assisted by a Vice-Chairperson and a few members.
  • The Commission has its headquarters in New Delhi and has regional offices in different parts of the country.

Important Points

AmendmentEstablished
73rd AmendmentPanchayati Raj
74th AmendmentMunicipal council
81st AmendmentIncreased number of seats in Lok Sabha
82nd AmendmentIncreased number of seats in Rajya Sabha
86th AmendmentRight to Education
87th AmendmentDelimitation (Amendment) Act, of 2003.
88th AmendmentProvision of Service Tax was made under Article 268-A
89th AmendmentNational Commission for Scheduled Tribes
90th AmendmentReservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Question 46

Mahatma Gandhi abruptly called off the Non-Cooperation Movement when in ________ a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura.

  1. AOption (a)

    June 1922

  2. BOption (b)

    February 1922

  3. COption (c)

    December 1922

  4. DOption (d)

    April 1922

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

February 1922

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is February 1922.

Key Points

  • The Non-Cooperation Movement was a major political protest in India that began in 1920 and lasted for two years.
  • The movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi and was aimed at achieving independence from British rule.
  • The movement was successful in mobilizing a large number of people and in bringing about a number of changes, such as the repeal of the Rowlatt Act.
  • However, the movement was also marked by violence, and in February 1922, a crowd of peasants set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura, killing 22 policemen.
  • This incident led to Gandhi calling off the movement, as he believed that it had become violent and that it was no longer in the best interests of India.
  • The Chauri Chaura incident was a major setback for the Indian independence movement, but it also served as a reminder of the importance of non-violence.
  • Gandhi's decision to call off the movement was a difficult one, but it was a decision that he believed was in the best interests of India.

Additional Information

  • About Mahatma Gandhi:
  • Mahatma Gandhi (Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi) was born on October 2, 1869.
  • He died January 30, 1948, in Delhi, and the day is celebrated as Shaheed Diwas or Martyrs' Day.
  • His autobiography is titled My Experiments with Truth.
  • Other Important movements led by Mahatma Gandhi:
  • ​Champaran Movement (1917)
  • Kheda Movement (1918)
  • Khilafat Movement (1919)
  • Civil Disobedience Movement: Dandi March (1930)
  • Quit India Movement (1942)

Question 47

From the north most to south most point of India, what is the extent of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    4109 km

  2. BOption (b)

    2914 km

  3. COption (c)

    3214 km

  4. DOption (d)

    3785 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3214 km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3214 km.

Key Points

  • Indira Point is the southernmost point of India's Union.
  • Indira point is also known as Pygmalion point.
  • It got its name in 1985.
  • It was renamed in honour of former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi.
  • Indira Point is located near Great Nicobar.
  • It is located at 6°8′ N latitude.

Important Points 

  • The north-south extent from Indira Col in Kashmir to Kanyakumari is 3,214 km.
  • The east-west width from the Rann of Kutch to Arunachal Pradesh is 2,933 km.
  • With an area of 32,87,263 sq km, India is the seventh-largest country in the world.
  • India accounts for about 2.4 per cent of the total surface area of the world.

Additional Information

  • Extreme points of India:
EasternmostKibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
WesternmostGhuar Mota in the Kutch region of Gujarat.
NorthernmostIndira Col
Southernmost (Mainland)Kanyakumari is also known as Cape Comorin.

Question 48

________ was the first web browser developed by the National Centre for Supercomputing Application (NCSA).

  1. AOption (a)

    Opera

  2. BOption (b)

    Safari

  3. COption (c)

    Mosaic

  4. DOption (d)

    Chrome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mosaic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mosaic.

Key Points

  • The first web browser developed by the National Center for Supercomputing Applications (NCSA) was Mosaic.
  • Mosaic was released in 1993 and was one of the first graphical web browsers.
  • It was developed by Marc Andreessen and Eric Bina at the National Center for Supercomputing Applications (NCSA) at the University of Illinois at Urbana–Champaign.
  • Mosaic was a significant improvement over previous web browsers, as it allowed users to view images and other multimedia content on web pages.
  • Mosaic was also the first web browser to support multiple protocols, such as HTTP, FTP, and Gopher.
  • Mosaic was a popular web browser for several years, but it was eventually replaced by other browsers, such as Netscape Navigator and Internet Explorer.
  • However, Mosaic is still considered to be an important milestone in the history of the web, as it helped to popularize the use of graphical web browsers.

Important Points

BrowserReleasedNotable features
Mosaic1993First graphical web browser, supported multiple protocols
Cello1994First web browser for the Macintosh
Lynx1994First text-only web browser
NCSA Mosaic for X1995First web browser for Unix

Question 49

Which of the following statements regarding the lenses is/are correct?

I. Power of a convex lens is represented as a positive number.

II. Power of a concave lens is represented as a negative number.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only I

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

  • The power of a lens is a measure of its ability to bend light.
  • The power of a lens is measured in diopters, and the diopter is defined as the reciprocal of the focal length in meters.
  • A convex lens has a positive focal length, and a concave lens has a negative focal length.
  • Therefore, the power of a convex lens is positive, and the power of a concave lens is negative.
  • Here is a more detailed explanation of each statement:
  • Statement I: The power of a convex lens is represented as a positive number.
  • A convex lens is a lens that is thicker in the middle than at the edges.
  • When light passes through a convex lens, it is bent inward or converged.
  • This convergence of light rays causes objects to appear larger and closer than they actually are.
  • The power of a convex lens is positive because it converges light rays.
  • Statement II: The power of a concave lens is represented as a negative number.
  • A concave lens is a lens that is thinner in the middle than at the edges.
  • When light passes through a concave lens, it is bent outward, or diverged.
  • This divergence of light rays causes objects to appear smaller and farther away than they actually are.
  • The power of a concave lens is negative because it diverges light rays.

Important Points

  • Do not confuse between Concave/Convex Lens and Mirror
  • Convex lens
  • The convex lens is also called a converging lens.
  • Concave lens
  • The concave lens is also called a diverging lens.

Question 50

_________ won the gold medal in the Women's event in the 44th Chess Olympiad 2022 held in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Georgia

  2. BOption (b)

    Armenia

  3. COption (c)

    Ukraine

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ukraine

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is Ukraine.

Key Points

  • India hosted the Chess Olympiad for the first time.
  • It consisted of open and women’s tournaments.
  • The opening and closing ceremonies were held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium.
  • The 44th Chess Olympiad was organised by the International Chess Federation or World Chess Federation (FIDE) in Chennai, India from July 28 to August 09, 2022.
  • Ukraine won the gold medal in the women's section of the 44th Chess Olympiad.
  • Team Armenia won silver while the India-2 team settled for bronze in Open Section.

Additional Information

  • The Chess Olympiad is an international chess competition between national teams.
  • The first Chess Olympiad was held in Paris in 1927.
  • The Chess Olympiad is held every two years.
  • The current world champion, Magnus Carlsen, has won the Chess Olympiad three times.
  • The most successful country in the **Chess Olympiad is the Soviet Union, which has won 25 titles.**​

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The average age of Ram and Shyam is 28 years. If Rahim replaces Ram, then the average age will become 26 years. If Rahim replaces Shyam, then the average age will become 30 years. What are the respective ages of Ram, Shyam and Rahim?

  1. AOption (a)

    32 years, 24 years and 28 years

  2. BOption (b)

    34 years, 40 years and 30 years

  3. COption (c)

    48 years, 40 years and 26 years

  4. DOption (d)

    38 years, 44 years and 36 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32 years, 24 years and 28 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of ages of Ram, Shyam, and Rahim = Sum of all given averages = 28 + 26 + 30 = 84 years.

Ram's age = 84 − (26 × 2) = 84 − 52 = 32 years.

Shyam's age = 84 − (30 × 2) = 84 − 60 = 24 years.

Rahim's age = 84 − (28 × 2) = 84 − 56 = 28 years.

∴ The correct answer is 32 years, 24 years and 28 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average age of Ram (R) and Shyam (S) = 28 years

Average age of Rahim (Rh) and Shyam (S) = 26 years

Average age of Ram (R) and Rahim (Rh) = 30 years

Formula Used:

Sum of observations = Average × Total number of observations

⇒ R + S = 28 × 2 = 56 --- (i)

⇒ Rh + S = 26 × 2 = 52 --- (ii)

⇒ R + Rh = 30 × 2 = 60 --- (iii)

Adding equations (i), (ii), and (iii):

⇒ 2(R + S + Rh) = 56 + 52 + 60 = 168

⇒ R + S + Rh = 168 ÷ 2 = 84 --- (iv)

Subtracting (ii) from (iv):

⇒ Ram's age (R) = 84 − 52 = 32 years

Subtracting (iii) from (iv):

⇒ Shyam's age (S) = 84 − 60 = 24 years

Subtracting (i) from (iv):

⇒ Rahim's age (Rh) = 84 − 56 = 28 years

∴ The correct answer is 32 years, 24 years and 28 years.

Additional Information

Definition of Average

Average is the ratio of the sum of values to the number of values. Formula: Average = Sum ÷ n.

Sum of Pairs Property

In a group of three (A, B, C), if sums of pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A) are known, the total sum (A+B+C) is exactly half of the sum of the three pair sums.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A1 and A2 and sizes n1 and n2 are combined, the new average is (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 52

The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 94 years. 8 years ago their respective ages were in the ratio of 2 ∶ 1. After 10 years what will be the ratio of ages of father and son?

  1. AOption (a)

    35 ∶ 22

  2. BOption (b)

    14 ∶ 13

  3. COption (c)

    25 ∶ 18

  4. DOption (d)

    16 ∶ 15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

35 ∶ 22

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of present ages = 94 years.

Sum of ages 8 years ago = 94 − (2 × 8) = 78 years.

Divide 78 in the ratio 2 : 1 ⇒ Father = 52, Son = 26.

Age 10 years from now (Total gap of 18 years from past) ⇒ Father = 52 + 18 = 70, Son = 26 + 18 = 44.

Required ratio = 70 : 44 = 35 : 22.

∴ The correct answer is 35 : 22.

Alternate Method

Given:

Present sum = 94 years.

Ratio 8 years ago = 2 : 1.

Formula Used:

Total Age = Sum of individual ages.

Let the ages of Father and Son 8 years ago be 2x and x.

⇒ Present age of Father = 2x + 8

⇒ Present age of Son = x + 8

⇒ (2x + 8) + (x + 8) = 94

⇒ 3x + 16 = 94

⇒ 3x = 78

⇒ x = 26

⇒ Father's age 10 years from now = (2x + 8) + 10 = 2(26) + 18 = 52 + 18 = 70 years.

⇒ Son's age 10 years from now = (x + 8) + 10 = 26 + 18 = 44 years.

⇒ Ratio = 70 : 44 = 35 : 22.

∴ The correct answer is 35 : 22.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two people remains constant throughout their lives, regardless of the time elapsed.

Age Sum Adjustment

To find the sum of ages 'n' years ago for 'k' people, subtract (n × k) from the present sum.

Ratio and Proportion in Ages

If ages are in ratio a : b, they can be represented as ax and bx to set up linear equations based on the given sum or difference.

Question 53

Two circles having equal radius intersect each other such that each passes through the center of the other. Sum of diameter of these two circles is 84 cm. What is the length of the common chord?

  1. AOption (a)

    21√3 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    14√3 cm

  3. COption (c)

    28√3 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    24√3 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21√3 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum of diameter of these two circles is 84 cm

Calculation:

Diameter of one circle = 84/2 = 42 cm

Radius of the circle = 42/2 = 21 cm

According to the diagram,

AD = DB

O1O2 = 21

Again O1A = O2A = 21 [Radius of the circle]

∠ADO1 = 90°

O1D = O2D = 21/2

AD = √(441 - 441/4)

⇒ 21√3/2 

AB = 2 × 21√3/2  = 21√3

∴ The length of the common chord is 21√3 cm

Question 54

What is the value of 982 − 972 + 962 − 952 + 942 − 932 + ...... 122 − 112?

  1. AOption (a)

    4725

  2. BOption (b)

    4796

  3. COption (c)

    4851

  4. DOption (d)

    4926

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4796

Why this answer is correct

Given:

982 − 972 + 962 − 952 + 942 − 932 + ...... 122 − 112

Expand using identity a2 - b2 = (a + b)(a - b)

(98 + 97)(98 - 97) + (96 + 95)(96 - 95) + (94 + 93)(94 - 93) + .......................... + (12 + 11)(12 - 11)

(98 + 97) + (96 + 95) + (94 + 93) + .......................... + (12 + 11)

It is an AP with a = 98, d = -1, and l = 11

Tn = a + (n - 1)d

11 = 98 + (n - 1)(-1)

Solving this

n = 88

Sum = n/2 × (a + l)

88/2 × (98 + 11)

Sum = 4796

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 55

The line chart given below shows the production of bike and truck by five companies.

Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

I. The total production of trucks by all the 5 companies is 201.50 percent of the total production of bike by all the 5 companies.

II. The average production of bike and truck by company R is 800.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Bike: 900 + 650 + 700 + 450 + 500 = 3200 units

Truck: 700 + 500 + 400 + 800 + 850 = 3250 units

I. The total production of trucks by all 5 companies is 201.50 percent of the total production of bikes by all 5 companies.

3250/3200 × 100 = 101.56%

So, a statement I is NOT correct.

II. The average production of bikes and trucks by company R is 800.

(900 units for bikes + 700 units for trucks)/2 = 800 units

This is equal to 800 units, so statement II is correct.

Only statements I is NOT correct based on the given data.

Question 56

Two people A and B are at a distance of 220 km from each other at 10 ∶ 30 AM. After 30 minutes, A starts moving towards B at a speed of 40 km/hr while at 12 PM, B starts moving away from A at a speed of 30 km/hr. At what time will they meet on the next day?

  1. AOption (a)

    7:00 AM

  2. BOption (b)

    4:00 AM

  3. COption (c)

    5:30 AM

  4. DOption (d)

    6:00 AM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6:00 AM

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Distance between A and B = 220 km

A starts moving towards B at 11 AM with speed of 40 km/hr

B starts moving Away from A at 12 PM with speed of 30 km/hr

At 12 PM A travelled 40 km

Now distance reduced to 180 km

Now both starts moving and difference between their speed is 10 km/hr

Since A’s speed is 10 km more than B so they will meet after 180 km / 10 km/hr = 18 hr = at 6 AM on next day

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 57

If 1(x−2)\rm{1\over{(x−2)}} + x = 8, then what is the value of 1(x−2)2\rm{1\over{(x−2)}^{2}} + (x − 2)2?

  1. AOption (a)

    38

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

34

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Subtract 2 from both sides of the given equation: (x − 2) + 1/(x − 2) = 6.

Apply the algebraic shortcut: If k + 1/k = n, then k2 + 1/k2 = n2 − 2.

Substitute n = 6 into the formula: 62 − 2 = 36 − 2 = 34.

∴ The correct answer is 34.

Alternate Method

Given: 1/(x − 2) + x = 8

Formula Used: (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

⇒ 1/(x − 2) + x = 8

⇒ x − 2 + 1/(x − 2) = 8 − 2

⇒ (x − 2) + 1/(x − 2) = 6

⇒ Squaring both sides: [(x − 2) + 1/(x − 2)]2 = 62

⇒ (x − 2)2 + [1/(x − 2)]2 + 2 × (x − 2) × [1/(x − 2)] = 36

⇒ (x − 2)2 + 1/(x − 2)2 + 2 = 36

⇒ (x − 2)2 + 1/(x − 2)2 = 36 − 2 = 34

∴ The correct answer is 34.

Additional Information

Algebraic Expansion

The square of a binomial is given by (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab and (a − b)2 = a2 + b2 − 2ab.

Reciprocal Property

If the sum of a number and its reciprocal is k (i.e., x + 1/x = k), then the sum of their squares is always k2 − 2.

Higher Power Relation

If x + 1/x = k, then the sum of their cubes is given by x3 + 1/x3 = k3 − 3k.

Question 58

In ΔXYZ, P is a point on side YZ and XY = XZ. If ∠XPY = 90 degree and YP = 9 cm, then what is the length of YZ?

  1. AOption (a)

    17 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    18 cm

  3. COption (c)

    12 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    15 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P is a point on side YZ.

XY = XZ

∠XPY = 90° 

YP = 9 cm

Calculation:

The given triangle is isosceles triangle.

In ΔXPY and ΔXPZ

XY = XZ        [given]

XP = XP        [common]

∠ XYZ = ∠ XZY          [Isosceles triangle]

ΔXPY ~ ΔXPZ

∴ YP = PZ = 9 cm

YZ = YP + PZ = 9 + 9

YZ = 18 cm

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 59

What is the value of (tan 10° tan 80° + tan 20° tan 70° + tan 30° tan 60° + tan 40° tan 50°)?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

tan θ = cot(90 - θ)

cot θ = 1/tan θ 

Calculation:

⇒ (tan 10° tan 80° + tan 20° tan 70° + tan 30° tan 60° + tan 40° tan 50°)

⇒ (tan 10° cot 10° + tan 20° cot 20° + tan 30° cot 30° + tan 40° cot 40°)

⇒ 1 + 1 + 1 + 1

⇒ 4

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 60

The table given below shows the production of refrigerator by 6 companies.

CompaniesProduction
P200
Q140
R120
S80
T40
U100

What is the average production of refrigerator by all six companies?

  1. AOption (a)

    132.44

  2. BOption (b)

    113.33

  3. COption (c)

    93.33

  4. DOption (d)

    156.44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

113.33

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

The average production of refrigerator by all six companies = (200 + 140 + 120 + 80 + 40 + 100)/6

⇒ 680/6 = 113.33

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 61

A man earns a profit of 20 percent by selling a calculator for a certain price. If he sells that calculator at double the price, then what will be the profit percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    140 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    160 percent

  3. COption (c)

    60 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    120 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

140 percent

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100 units.

Selling Price (SP) with 20% profit = 120 units.

New Selling Price = Double the initial SP = 120 × 2 = 240 units.

New Profit = New SP − CP = 240 − 100 = 140 units.

Profit % = (140 ÷ 100) × 100 = 140%.

∴ The correct answer is 140%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage initially = 20%

Condition: The new selling price is double the initial selling price.

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price (SP) − Cost Price (CP)

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

CP = 100

SP = 120

New SP = 240

+20%

× 2

Overall Profit = +140%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the calculator be 100 units.

⇒ Since the profit is 20%, Initial Selling Price (SP1) = 100 + (20% of 100) = 120 units.

⇒ The new selling price is double the initial selling price.

⇒ New Selling Price (SP2) = 2 × 120 = 240 units.

⇒ New Profit = SP2 − CP = 240 − 100 = 140 units.

⇒ New Profit % = (New Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (140 ÷ 100) × 100 = 140%.

∴ The correct answer is 140%.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on Marked Price (MP). Selling Price = MP − Discount.

Successive Percentage Change

When two successive changes of x% and y% occur, net change = x + y + (x × y)/100.

Dishonest Dealer

If a dealer sells goods at CP but uses a false weight, Profit % = (True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight × 100.

Question 62

If 3 cosec A = 7, then what is the value of cos A tan A?

  1. AOption (a)

    2107{2\sqrt{10}\over 7}

  2. BOption (b)

    37{3\over 7}

  3. COption (c)

    47{4\over 7}

  4. DOption (d)

    107{\sqrt{10}\over 7}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

37{3\over 7}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

3 cosec A = 7

Calculation:

3 cosec A = 7

⇒ cosec A = 7/3

⇒ sin A = 1/cosec A = 3/7

cos A tan A = cos A × sin A/cos A

⇒ sin A = 3/7

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 63

The bar graph given below shows the income and expenditure of a company in five years.

What is the ratio of total income in year M and N to the total expenditure in year J, K and L?

  1. AOption (a)

    19 ∶ 24

  2. BOption (b)

    19 ∶ 25

  3. COption (c)

    24 ∶ 19

  4. DOption (d)

    21 ∶ 17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24 ∶ 19

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total income of M and N = 850 + 350 = 1200

The total expenditure in year J, K and L = 350 + 250 + 350 = 950

Ratio

1200 : 950

24 : 19

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 64

In an equilateral triangle ABC, P is the centroid of this triangle. Side of ΔABC is 16√3 cm. What is the distance of point P from side BC?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    12 cm

  3. COption (c)

    9 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    10 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In an equilateral triangle, the centroid is the same as the incenter.

The distance from the centroid to any side is the inradius (r) of the triangle.

Shortcut formula: Inradius (r) = side ÷ (2√3)

⇒ Distance = (16√3) ÷ (2√3)

⇒ Distance = 16 ÷ 2 = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle ABC (a) = 16√3 cm.

Point P is the centroid.

Formula Used:

Height (h) of equilateral triangle = (√3 ÷ 2) × side

Centroid divides the median in the ratio 2 : 1 from the vertex.

Calculations:

⇒ Height (AD) = (√3 ÷ 2) × 16√3

⇒ AD = (16 × 3) ÷ 2

⇒ AD = 24 cm

⇒ The centroid (P) divides median AD in ratio AP : PD = 2 : 1.

⇒ Distance of P from side BC = PD

⇒ PD = (1 ÷ (2 + 1)) × AD

⇒ PD = (1 ÷ 3) × 24

⇒ PD = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Additional Information

Equilateral Triangle Centroid

In an equilateral triangle, the centroid, orthocenter, circumcenter, and incenter all lie at the same point.

Inradius and Circumradius

For an equilateral triangle with side a, Inradius (r) = a / (2√3) and Circumradius (R) = a / √3. Note that R = 2r.

Median Property

The centroid divides each median into two segments with lengths in the ratio 2 : 1 from the vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side.

Question 65

The marked price of an article is 40 percent more than its cost price. If 20 percent discount is given on the marked price, then what will be the profit percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    15 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    12 percent

  3. COption (c)

    10 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    8 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The marked price of an article is 40 percent more than its cost price.

Calculation:

Let the cost price be 100

⇒ Marked price = 140

Selling Price = 140 – 0.20 × 140 = 112

Profit% = [(112 – 100)/100] × 100 = 12%

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 66

Rama alone can do a work in 5 days working 4 hours a day. Seema alone can do the same work in 3 days working 10 hours a day. How many hours do they need to work together in a day to complete the same work in 6 days?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 hour

  2. BOption (b)

    3 hours

  3. COption (c)

    5 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    2 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 hours

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Rama can finish the work in 5 days working 4 hours a day, that's 5 × 4 = 20 hours.

Seema can finish the work in 3 days working 10 hours a day, that's 3 × 10 = 30 hours.

So, we can say that Rama's work rate is 1/20 of the work per hour, and Seema's work rate is 1/30 of the work per hour.

So, their combined rate is 1/20 + 1/30 = (3 + 2)/60 = 5/60 = 1/12 of the work per hour.

If they want to finish the work in 6 days, and they work together at the combined rate of 1/12 of the work per hour, then they need to work:

6 days × x hours/day = 1 work

x = 1 work / (6 days × 1/12 work/hour)

x = 1 / (6/12) = 2 hours/day

So, Rama and Seema need to work together for 2 hours each day to finish the work in 6 days.

Question 67

What is the value of (x + 1) (x2 − x + 1)?

  1. AOption (a)

    x3 − 1

  2. BOption (b)

    x3 + x

  3. COption (c)

    x3 + 1

  4. DOption (d)

    x3 − x

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

x3 + 1

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the Algebraic Identity for the sum of two cubes.

Standard Formula: (a + b)(a2 − ab + b2) = a3 + b3

Here, let a = x and b = 1.

Substitute these values: (x + 1)(x2 − (x)(1) + 12) = x3 + 13 = x3 + 1.

∴ The correct answer is x3 + 1.

Alternate Method

Given: (x + 1)(x2 − x + 1)

Method: Expand the brackets using the distributive property of multiplication.

⇒ x(x2 − x + 1) + 1(x2 − x + 1)

⇒ (x × x2) − (x × x) + (x × 1) + (1 × x2) − (1 × x) + (1 × 1)

⇒ x3 − x2 + x + x2 − x + 1

⇒ x3 + (−x2 + x2) + (x − x) + 1

⇒ x3 + 0 + 0 + 1

⇒ x3 + 1

∴ The correct answer is x3 + 1.

Additional Information

Difference of Two Cubes

The identity for the subtraction of cubes is a3 − b3 = (a − b)(a2 + ab + b2).

Perfect Cube Binomial

The expansion of (a + b)3 is a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3, which is different from a3 + b3.

Difference of Squares

Another essential identity is a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b).

Question 68

In an equilateral triangle inradius is 4 cm. What is the circumradius?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    8 cm

  3. COption (c)

    12 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    2 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

An equilateral triangle inradius is 4 cm.

Concept used:

In equilateral triangle, 

Circumradius  = a/√ 3

Inradius of equilateral triangle = a/2√ 3

Calculation:

Inradius of equilateral triangle = 4

⇒ a/2√ 3 = 4

⇒ a = 8√3

Circumradius  = a/√ 3 = 8√3/√3

⇒ 8

Question 69

What is the value of 1440 − 200 ÷ 50 × 2 + 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    1420

  2. BOption (b)

    1440

  3. COption (c)

    1435

  4. DOption (d)

    1444

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1435

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1440 − 200 ÷ 50 × 2 + 3

Concept used:

Calculation:

1440 − 200 ÷ 50 × 2 + 3

⇒ 1440 − 4 × 2 + 3

⇒ 1440 − 8 + 3

⇒ 1440 − 5

⇒ 1435

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 70

In an examination, 45 percent of students passed in history and 60 percent of students passed in Hindi. If 8 percent of students failed in both subjects, then what percentage of students passed in both subjects?

  1. AOption (a)

    15 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    10 percent

  3. COption (c)

    13 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    12 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

13 percent

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let's denote the total number of students as 100% 

The students who passed in history are 45% and those who passed in Hindi are 60%.

So, the total percentage who passed either in history or Hindi (or both) is 45% + 60% = 105%.

But this sum also includes the students who passed in both subjects twice (once for history and once for Hindi).

Also, we know that 8% of students failed in both subjects. That means the total percentage of students who passed in at least one subject is 100% - 8% = 92%.

Percentage of students who passed in both subjects = Total pass percentage in history or Hindi - the percentage of students who passed in at least one subject

= 105% - 92% = 13%

So, 13% of students passed in both subjects.

Question 71

If the heights of two cylinders are in the ratio of 2 ∶ 3 and their-radius are in the ratio of 6 ∶ 5, then what is the ratio of the volumes of the cylinders?

  1. AOption (a)

    24 ∶ 29

  2. BOption (b)

    21 ∶ 31

  3. COption (c)

    24 ∶ 25

  4. DOption (d)

    28 ∶ 31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24 ∶ 25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Volumes = (Ratio of Radii)2 × (Ratio of Heights)

Ratio of Volumes = (6 / 5)2 × (2 / 3)

Ratio of Volumes = (36 / 25) × (2 / 3)

Ratio of Volumes = 12/25 × 2 = 24 / 25

∴ The correct answer is 24 : 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of heights (h1 : h2) = 2 : 3

Ratio of radii (r1 : r2) = 6 : 5

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder (V) = πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ V1 = π × (6x)2 × (2y) = π × 36x2 × 2y = 72πx2y

⇒ V2 = π × (5x)2 × (3y) = π × 25x2 × 3y = 75πx2y

⇒ V1 : V2 = 72πx2y : 75πx2y

⇒ V1 : V2 = 72 : 75

⇒ V1 : V2 = 24 : 25 (Dividing both sides by 3)

∴ The correct answer is 24 : 25.

Additional Information

Volume of Cylinder

The amount of space occupied by a three-dimensional object is its volume. For a cylinder, V = πr2h.

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The area of the curved surface of a cylinder excluding its base and top is given by CSA = 2πrh.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The sum of the curved surface area and the areas of the two circular bases is TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Ratio Property of Volume

If heights are equal, the volume ratio is the ratio of the squares of the radii: V1/V2 = (r1/r2)2.

Question 72

If 2Cos2 θ − 9 cos θ + 7 = 0, then what is the value of cos2 θ + sec2 θ?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

2Cos2 θ − 9 cos θ + 7 = 0

Concept Used:

cos θ = 1/sec θ 

Calculation:

2Cos2 θ − 9 cos θ + 7 = 0

Solving for secθ, we have a quadratic equation in secθ:

2Cos2 θ − 9 cos θ + 7 = 0

This can be factored as follows:

(2 cos θ - 7)(cos θ - 1) = 0.

Setting each factor equal to zero gives the solutions cos θ = 3.5 or cos θ = 1.

As cos θ = 3.5 is not possible so we take cos θ = 1.

cos2 θ + sec2 θ

1/sec2 θ + sec2 θ

1 + 1 = 2

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 73

The table given below shows the production of bike and truck by five companies.

CompaniesProduction
BikeTruck
A300200
B175100
C20050
D75250
E100275

J1 = The average production of bike by all the 5 companies.

J2 = The average production of truck by all the 5 companies.

What is the value of (J1 ∶ J2)?

  1. AOption (a)

    35 ∶ 34

  2. BOption (b)

    37 ∶ 33

  3. COption (c)

    34 ∶ 35

  4. DOption (d)

    31 ∶ 37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

34 ∶ 35

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

J1, we need to find the sum of the bike production and divide it by the number of  companies (5 in this case):

J1 = (300 + 175 + 200 + 75 + 100)/5

J1 = 850/5

J1 = 170

To calculate J2, we need to find the sum of the truck production and divide it by the number of companies:

J2 = (200 + 100 + 50 + 250 + 275)/5

J2 = 875/5

J2 = 175

(J1 ∶ J2) is 170 ∶ 175.

34 : 35

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 74

A sum amounts to Rs. 6580 in 2 years and amounts to Rs. 7896 in 3 years on compound interest (compounding annually) at the same rate of interest. What is the annual rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    30 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    40 percent

  3. COption (c)

    15 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    20 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20 percent

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

If the sum amounts to Rs. 6580 in 2 years and Rs. 7896 in 3 years, the difference (Rs. 7896 - Rs. 6580 = Rs. 1316) would be the interest earned in the third year.

So, the interest for the third year, Rs. 1316, was obtained from the amount that was there at the end of two years, which is Rs. 6580.

Interest for third year = Sum after 2 years × annual interest rate

1316 = 6580 × r

Solving this equation for r gives us:

r = 1316/6580 × 100 = 20%

So, the annual rate of interest is 20%.

Question 75

What is the value of 512 of 625−56×1233+511÷253316÷12+16×12−12 of 16\frac{\frac{5}{12} \text { of } \frac{6}{25}−\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{12}{33}+\frac{5}{11} \div \frac{25}{33}}{\frac{1}{6} \div \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{2}−\frac{1}{2} \text { of } \frac{1}{6}}?

  1. AOption (a)

    131/110

  2. BOption (b)

    125/117

  3. COption (c)

    121/112

  4. DOption (d)

    133/115

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

131/110

Why this answer is correct

Given:

512 of 625−56×1233+511÷253316÷12+16×12−12 of 16\frac{\frac{5}{12} \text { of } \frac{6}{25}−\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{12}{33}+\frac{5}{11} \div \frac{25}{33}}{\frac{1}{6} \div \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{2}−\frac{1}{2} \text { of } \frac{1}{6}}

Concept used:

Calculation:

512 of 625−56×1233+511÷253316÷12+16×12−12 of 16\frac{\frac{5}{12} \text { of } \frac{6}{25}−\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{12}{33}+\frac{5}{11} \div \frac{25}{33}}{\frac{1}{6} \div \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{2}−\frac{1}{2} \text { of } \frac{1}{6}}

512×625−56×1233+511×332516×2+16×12−12×16\frac{\frac{5}{12} \times \frac{6}{25}−\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{12}{33}+\frac{5}{11} \times \frac{33}{25}}{\frac{1}{6} \times 2+\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{2}−\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{6}}

110−1033+3513+112−112\frac{\frac{1}{10} −\frac{10}{33}+\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{12}−\frac{1}{12}}

33−100+19833013\frac{\frac{33-100+198}{330}}{\frac{1}{3}}

131110\frac{131}{110}

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

INDISPENSABLE

  1. AOption (a)

    FUNDAMENTAL

  2. BOption (b)

    CRUCIAL

  3. COption (c)

    INESSENTIAL

  4. DOption (d)

    BASIC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

INESSENTIAL

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Inessential'.

Key Points

  • The word "indispensable" means absolutely necessary, essential, or requisite.(अपरिहार्य).
  • The most appropriate antonym of "indispensable" is: Inessential
  • "Inessential" means not absolutely necessary. In other words, something that is inessential could be done without. (अवश्यकता से परे).

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Inessential'.

Additional Information

  • Here's an explanation for the other options:
  • "Fundamental" - This word refers to the basic, underlying, or essential foundations or principles of something.(मौलिक).
  • "Crucial" - This word means of great importance, or necessary for the success of something. (महत्वपूर्ण).
  • "Basic" - This word refers to the essential facts or principles of a subject or skill.(मूल).

Question 77

Choose the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Prepaer

  2. BOption (b)

    Mushy

  3. COption (c)

    Busiest

  4. DOption (d)

    Matter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Prepaer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Prepaer'.

Key Points

  • The incorrectly spelled word here is: 'Prepaer'
  • The correct spelling is "Prepare".
  • It means to make something or someone ready for some activity, purpose, use, etc. (तैयार करना).

Therefore, the correct spelling is: 'Prepare'.

Additional Information

  • Here's the explanation for the other options:
  • "Mushy" - This word is spelled correctly. It means like mush in consistency or firmness.(नरम और गीला)
  • "Busiest" - This word is also spelled correctly. It's the superlative form of "busy," meaning the most occupied or engaged(सबसे व्यस्त).
  • "Matter" - This word is spelled correctly. "Matter" has various meanings, it can refer to a subject or topic of concern or it can refer to physical substance in general, as distinct from mind and spirit.(मुद्दा)

Question 78

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Howard tried to speak but all that came out was an _______, squeaky gargle.

  1. AOption (a)

    implausible

  2. BOption (b)

    sincere

  3. COption (c)

    easy

  4. DOption (d)

    inarticulate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

inarticulate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Inarticulate'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is: inarticulate
  • "Inarticulate" means unable to speak distinctly or express oneself clearly.
  • It fits the context of the sentence as Howard is trying to speak but is unable to do so in a clear and understandable manner.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Howard tried to speak but all that came out was an inarticulate, squeaky gargle. 

Additional Information

  • Here's why the other options are not appropriate:
  • "Implausible" means not seeming reasonable or probable; failing to convince. It doesn't fit the context here because it doesn't describe the quality of speech or sound.
  • "Sincere" refers to a person, feeling, or expression that is free from pretense or deceit; proceeding from genuine feelings. It doesn't describe the physical sound of someone's voice.
  • "Easy" could refer to something requiring no great labor or effort, but it doesn't fit in this context because it doesn't describe a characteristic of someone's voice or speech.

Question 79

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Ignominy

  1. AOption (a)

    Esteem

  2. BOption (b)

    Disrepute

  3. COption (c)

    Stigma

  4. DOption (d)

    Infamy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Esteem

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Esteem'.

Key Points

  • The word that is opposite in meaning to the given word "Ignominy" is: 'Esteem'
  • "Ignominy" refers to public shame or disgrace(अपमान).
  • "Esteem" is the opposite of "Ignominy". It refers to respect and admiration.(सम्मान).

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Esteem'.

Additional Information

  • Here's the explanation for the other options:
  • "Disrepute" - It means the state of being held in low regard by the public.(बदनामी).
  • "Stigma" - It refers to a mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality, or person.(कलंक).
  • "Infamy" - It refers to the state of being well known for some bad quality or deed.(कुख्याति).

Question 80

Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully. Select the option 'no correction required' if the sentence is correct as given.

Titanic (was sink) after midnight.

  1. AOption (a)

    was drown

  2. BOption (b)

    sunked

  3. COption (c)

    No correction required

  4. DOption (d)

    drowned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

drowned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Drowned'.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is 'drowned'.
  • The reason it is correct is that the verb 'sink' needs to be replaced with the past tense form 'sank' in passive voice, which is 'was sunk'.
  • However, in the given options, the option 'was sunk' is not provided.
  • Out of the available options, 'drowned' is the most fitting, although it slightly changes the meaning of the sentence.
  • 'Drowned' typically refers to a person or animal dying due to submersion in water, but it can be metaphorically used to refer to a ship being submerged in water.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Titanic drowned after midnight.

Question 81

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

To make a mountain of a mole hill

  1. AOption (a)

    To violate the rules

  2. BOption (b)

    To make unnecessary comments

  3. COption (c)

    To give great importance to trifles

  4. DOption (d)

    To achieve big success

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To give great importance to trifles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'To give great importance to trifles'.

Key Points

  • The idiom "to make a mountain out of a molehill" means to exaggerate or put too much focus on a minor issue and turn it into a major one.
  • A molehill is a small mound of earth created by moles, and it's small compared to a mountain.
  • So this idiom is used to point out that someone is making a big deal out of something that isn't a big problem.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To give great importance to trifles.

Additional Information

  • Here's why the other options are incorrect:
  • "To violate the rules" - This means to break the rules or not follow the established guidelines.
  • "To make unnecessary comments" - While this can sometimes be a part of making a mountain out of a molehill, it's not a direct interpretation of the idiom.
  • "To achieve big success" - This suggests a positive outcome or reaching a high level of achievement.

Question 82

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Pritam said, "The prisoner had slept throughout the journey."

  1. AOption (a)

    Pritam said that the prisoner had been sleeping throughout the journey.

  2. BOption (b)

    Pritam said that the prisoner had sleep throughout the journey.

  3. COption (c)

    Pritam said that the prisoner had slept throughout the journey.

  4. DOption (d)

    Pritam said that the prisoner has slept throughout the journey.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pritam said that the prisoner had slept throughout the journey.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

  • When converting direct speech into reported speech, the tense of the verb usually moves one step back in time. This is known as backshifting.
  • However, if the direct speech is in the past perfect (as is the case with "The prisoner had slept throughout the journey"), it does not change when turned into reported speech because the past perfect tense is already the most 'remote' tense possible in English.
  • So "had slept" remains "had slept" in reported speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Pritam said that the prisoner had slept throughout the journey.'

Question 83

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

A bite at the cherry

  1. AOption (a)

    A wrong move

  2. BOption (b)

    An attempt or opportunity to do something

  3. COption (c)

    To have a leverage over someone

  4. DOption (d)

    A dog bite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

An attempt or opportunity to do something

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

  • The idiom "A bite at the cherry" is used to refer to an opportunity to achieve something or a chance to do something.
  • It often refers to a second chance or another opportunity after missing out on a previous attempt.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'An attempt or opportunity to do something.'

Additional Information

  • Here's why the other options are incorrect:
  • "A wrong move" - This phrase means to make an incorrect decision or action, which does not relate to the concept of an opportunity presented in "a bite at the cherry."
  • "To have a leverage over someone" - This phrase means to have a form of power or advantage over another person, which does not correspond with the idea of an opportunity or attempt expressed in the idiom.
  • "A dog bite" - This is a literal translation and does not convey the metaphorical meaning of the idiom "a bite at the cherry," which is about opportunities or attempts, not about physical biting.

Question 84

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose ‘No improvement’ as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct.

Remember to close the windows before you leave.

  1. AOption (a)

    your leave

  2. BOption (b)

    No improvement

  3. COption (c)

    you leaves

  4. DOption (d)

    you have leaving

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

  • The original sentence, "Remember to close the windows before you leave," is grammatically correct as it stands.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Remember to close the windows before you leave.

Question 85

Fill in the blank with an appropriate option.

The oil in the diya symbolises the dirt in the human mind such as greed, ________, hate, etc.

  1. AOption (a)

    envy

  2. BOption (b)

    slavery

  3. COption (c)

    joy

  4. DOption (d)

    merry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

envy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Envy'.

Key Points

  • The correct option is: envy
  • In this context, the oil in the diya (lamp) is being compared to negative traits in the human mind.
  • The word "envy" fits best because it is a negative trait, just like greed and hate.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: The oil in the diya symbolises the dirt in the human mind such as greed,envy, hate, etc.

Additional Information

  • Here's why the other options are incorrect:
  • "Slavery" - This word does not represent a negative trait or emotion within the human mind. It is a social state or condition, not an individual mental characteristic.
  • "Joy" - This is a positive emotion, not a negative trait. It does not fit with the other negative traits mentioned in the sentence (greed and hate).
  • "Merry" - This is also a positive emotion or state of being, not a negative trait. It does not fit with the other negative traits mentioned in the sentence (greed and hate).

Question 86

Choose the sentence with no spelling error.

  1. AOption (a)

    We can never solvve our problems.

  2. BOption (b)

    We can never solve our problems.

  3. COption (c)

    We can never solve our problams.

  4. DOption (d)

    We can nver solve our problems.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

We can never solve our problems.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

  • The correct sentence is: We can never solve our problems.
  • This sentence is spelled correctly, with each word following standard English spelling rules.
  • Explanation for the incorrect options:
  • "solvve" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "solve."
  • "problams" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "problems."
  • "nver" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "never."

Question 87

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

Bushfire have created havoc and exacerbated the conditions of animals in the forest.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bushfire have created havoc

  2. BOption (b)

    and exacerbated the conditions

  3. COption (c)

    No error

  4. DOption (d)

    of animals in the forest.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bushfire have created havoc

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

  • The error is in the part: "Bushfire have created havoc"
  • The correct form should be "Bushfires have created havoc".
  • In English, subject-verb agreement is a grammatical rule which states that the subject and verb must agree in number.
  • That means, if the subject is plural, the verb must be plural.
  • Conversely, if the subject is singular, the verb must be singular.
  • In this case, "Bushfire" is a singular noun, but "have" is a plural verb, so they don't agree in number.
  • The sentence should be corrected by changing "Bushfire" to the plural form "Bushfires" to match the plural verb "have".

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Bushfires have created havoc and exacerbated the conditions of animals in the forest.'

Question 88

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Vivacity

  1. AOption (a)

    Sap

  2. BOption (b)

    Vim

  3. COption (c)

    Lush

  4. DOption (d)

    Apathy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Apathy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Apathy'.

Key Points

  • The word "Vivacity" refers to the quality of being attractively lively and animated.
  • It is derived from the Latin word 'vivax', meaning 'long-lived, vigorous, high-spirited'.(जीवंतता)
  • "Apathy" which refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern.(उदासीनता)
  • In essence, it's the opposite of being lively or animated.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Apathy'.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the other options:
  • "Sap" generally refers to the fluid that circulates in the plant vascular system, but in slang usage, it can mean a fool or a naive person.(बेवकूफ़)
  • "Vim" is energy and enthusiasm. (ऊर्जा)
  • "Lush" primarily means something rich, abundant, or luxurious. It can also refer to plants that are growing luxuriantly. (समृद्ध)

Question 89

Choose the word that can substitute the given group of words.

Travelling from place to place

  1. AOption (a)

    Recluse

  2. BOption (b)

    Arcane

  3. COption (c)

    Reverent

  4. DOption (d)

    Itinerant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Itinerant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Itinerant'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "Travelling from place to place" refers to someone who moves around a lot, rather than staying in one place.
  • The most suitable word that can substitute this phrase is: "Itinerant".
  • It describes someone who travels from place to place, especially for work. (भ्रमण करने वाला)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Itinerant'.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the other options:
  • "Recluse" is a person who lives a solitary life and tends to avoid other people.(वैरागी)
  • "Arcane" means understood by few; mysterious or secret.(गुप्त)
  • "Reverent" means feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.(आदरपूर्ण)

Question 90

Choose the word that means the same as the given word.

Obligation

  1. AOption (a)

    Imperative

  2. BOption (b)

    Loophole

  3. COption (c)

    Discharge

  4. DOption (d)

    Quietus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Imperative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Imperative'.

Key Points

  • The word "Obligation" refers to a course of action to which a person is morally or legally bound; a duty or commitment.
  • It comes from the Latin word 'obligationem' meaning 'a binding or pledging'.
  • The most suitable word that means the same as "Obligation" is: "Imperative"
  • It refers to a necessary duty or responsibility. It implies something that is not optional but is a must-do. It's used to describe something that's very important — even critical.(अनिवार्य)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Imperative'.

Additional Information

  • Now, let's look at the other options:
  • "Loophole" means an ambiguity or inadequacy in the law or a set of rules. (कमजोरी)
  • "Discharge" refers to the action of discharging someone from a hospital or from the armed forces.(मुक्ति)
  • "Quietus" is a finishing stroke; anything that effectually ends or settles. In another context, it can mean death or something that causes death, regarded as a release from life. (मौत)

Question 91

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Picasso painted Guernica in 1937.

  1. AOption (a)

    Guernica was painting by Picasso in 1937.

  2. BOption (b)

    Guernica was been painted by Picasso in 1937.

  3. COption (c)

    Guernica was paint by Picasso in 1937.

  4. DOption (d)

    Guernica was painted by Picasso in 1937.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Guernica was painted by Picasso in 1937.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

  • In the active sentence "Picasso painted Guernica in 1937", the subject is "Picasso", the verb is "painted" (simple past tense) and the object is "Guernica".
  • When transforming an active sentence to passive, the object of the active sentence (Guernica) becomes the subject of the passive sentence, the verb form changes to the passive form (was painted), and the subject of the active sentence (Picasso) follows "by".

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Guernica was painted by Picasso in 1937.'

Additional Information

  • Here are the explanations for the other options:
  • "Guernica was painting by Picasso in 1937." This is incorrect because "painting" is not the past participle form of the verb "paint". The correct past participle is "painted".
  • "Guernica was been painted by Picasso in 1937." This is incorrect because the verb form "was been painted" does not exist in English grammar. The correct form is "was painted".
  • "Guernica was paint by Picasso in 1937." This is incorrect because "paint" is not the past participle form of the verb "paint". The correct past participle is "painted".

Question 92

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

P. on the US naval base, close to the prison compounds

Q. housing the remaining 39 detainees held in the “war on terror”

R. inviting tenders for private contractors to run the Migrant Operations Center

S. the Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) bureau is

  1. AOption (a)

    RPQS

  2. BOption (b)

    QSRP

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    SRPQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SRPQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

  • The correct order of the sentence parts is SRPQ.
  • S. the Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) bureau is
  • This part introduces the subject and is the natural starting point of the sentence, as it describes who is doing the action.
  • R. inviting tenders for private contractors to run the Migrant Operations Center
  • This part provides the main action of the sentence, explaining what the Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) bureau is doing.
  • P. on the US naval base, close to the prison compounds
  • This part provides further detail on the location where the Migrant Operations Center is to be run.
  • Q. housing the remaining 39 detainees held in the “war on terror”
  • Finally, this part of the sentence provides additional information related to the location mentioned in part P and helps to complete the narrative.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: "The Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) bureau is inviting tenders for private contractors to run the Migrant Operations Center on the US naval base, close to the prison compounds housing the remaining 39 detainees held in the “war on terror.”

Question 93

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose ‘No improvement’ as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct.

None of the witnessed could identify the suspect.

  1. AOption (a)

    No improvement

  2. BOption (b)

    witness had identify

  3. COption (c)

    witnessed could identified

  4. DOption (d)

    witnesses could identify

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

witnesses could identify

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, "None of the witnessed could identify the suspect," the underlined part "witnessed could identify" is incorrect because "witnessed" is being used incorrectly.
  • The correct noun form is "witnesses".
  • "Could identify" is in the correct tense and mood, suggesting a possibility or ability in the past. It does not need to be changed.

Therefore, the corrected sentence is: "None of the witnesses could identify the suspect."

Additional Information

  • Option 2) "witness had identify" is incorrect because it does not properly conjugate the verb "identify" in the past perfect tense, which would be "had identified". Furthermore, "witness" needs to be in the plural form "witnesses" to agree with "none".
  • Option 3) "witnessed could identified" is incorrect because it misuses "witnessed" as a noun and incorrectly conjugates "could identify" as "could identified".

Question 94

Fill in the blank with an appropriate option.

We can usefully distinguish four types of claims that have been traditionally made using the ________ “human nature”.

  1. AOption (a)

    collateral

  2. BOption (b)

    application

  3. COption (c)

    nuance

  4. DOption (d)

    expression

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

expression

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'expression'.

Key Points

  • In this sentence, we are looking for a term that refers to a phrase or term used in a specific context.
  • "Expression" refers to a word or phrase, especially an idiomatic one, used to convey an idea, and fits best in this context.
  • It's a common way to refer to terms or phrases used in discussion or debate, as seems to be the case in this sentence about different claims made regarding "human nature"

Therefore, the correct sentence is: *'*We can usefully distinguish four types of claims that have been traditionally made using the expression “human nature”.'

Question 95

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

You will never regret this wonderful experience with your life.

  1. AOption (a)

    regret this wonderful

  2. BOption (b)

    experience with your life.

  3. COption (c)

    You will never

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

experience with your life.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'

Key Points

  • In the context of the sentence, the preposition "with" is incorrect because it suggests that you are having an experience in conjunction with your life, rather than as part of your life.
  • The correct preposition to use here would be "in", as in "experience in your life".

Therefore, the corrected sentence is: "You will never regret this wonderful experience in your life."

In the following passage some of the words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Improving your well-being is considered to be the fundamental (1) ________ of travelling. Travelling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety (2) ________ developing our brain health. There have been studies proving that travel can have a positive impact on our heart (3) ________. The health benefit of travelling is that when you travel to new surroundings you (4) ________ a restart button to your body and mind. This brings in fresh energy when you get back to your normal (5) ________ activities.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    rancidity

  2. BOption (b)

    sanctity

  3. COption (c)

    sanity

  4. DOption (d)

    benefit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

benefit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Benefit'.

Key Points

  • In the context of this sentence, the word "benefit" best fits the blank as it refers to something that promotes or enhances well-being.
  • "Benefit" here signifies the positive aspect or advantage of traveling, which is said to improve well-being.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Improving your well-being is considered to be the fundamental benefit of travelling. Travelling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety (2) ________ developing our brain health. There have been studies proving that travel can have a positive impact on our heart (3) ________. The health benefit of travelling is that when you travel to new surroundings you (4) ________ a restart button to your body and mind. This brings in fresh energy when you get back to your normal (5) ________ activities.

Additional Information

  • Let's consider the other options:
  • "Rancidity" refers to the state of being rancid; rankness or disagreeable odor or taste, which doesn't make sense in this context.
  • "Sanctity" refers to the state or quality of being holy, sacred, or saintly, which also doesn't fit into the context of the sentence.
  • "Sanity" refers to the ability to think and behave in a normal and rational manner; sound mental health, which is not the best fit in the context of this sentence.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    as

  2. BOption (b)

    because

  3. COption (c)

    so

  4. DOption (d)

    while

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

while

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'While'.

Key Points

  • The correct word to fill in blank number 2 is "while".
  • The use of "while" in this context suggests that two things are happening simultaneously: traveling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety and also contributes to developing our brain health.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Improving your well-being is considered to be the fundamental benefit of travelling. Travelling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety while developing our brain health. There have been studies proving that travel can have a positive impact on our heart (3) ________. The health benefit of travelling is that when you travel to new surroundings you (4) ________ a restart button to your body and mind. This brings in fresh energy when you get back to your normal (5) ________ activities.

Additional Information

  • Let's consider the other options:
  • "As" generally indicates cause or reason, but in this context, it would mean that traveling reduces health risks because it develops brain health, which is not the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • "Because" would mean that traveling reduces health risks due to the fact that it develops brain health, which again is not the intended meaning.
  • "So" would indicate a result or effect, which is also not what the sentence is trying to express.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    health

  2. BOption (b)

    bloom

  3. COption (c)

    pace

  4. DOption (d)

    being

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

health

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Health'.

Key Points

  • In this context, "health" refers to the overall state of the heart, both physically and mentally.
  • The sentence talks about studies that prove the positive impact travel can have on our heart's health, which fits perfectly into the context.

Therefore, the correct sentence is:  Improving your well-being is considered to be the fundamental benefit of travelling. Travelling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety while developing our brain health. There have been studies proving that travel can have a positive impact on our heart health. The health benefit of travelling is that when you travel to new surroundings you (4) ________ a restart button to your body and mind. This brings in fresh energy when you get back to your normal (5) ________ activities.

Additional Information

  • Let's consider the other options:
  • "Bloom" refers to the process of a flower opening or a person or thing flourishing. It doesn't fit here because we are discussing the health of the heart, not its blooming or flourishing.
  • "Pace" refers to the speed or rate at which something happens or moves. In this context, it doesn't make sense to discuss the pace of the heart when we are discussing overall health benefits.
  • "Being" generally refers to existence or the nature of something. While the heart certainly exists and has a nature, it doesn't fit the context, which is about health.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    press

  2. BOption (b)

    heap

  3. COption (c)

    usurp

  4. DOption (d)

    snatch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

press

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Press'.

Key Points

  • In this context, "press" is the most suitable word because it refers to pushing a button.
  • Here, the phrase "press a restart button" is a metaphorical way of saying that traveling provides a fresh start or a rejuvenation for the body and mind.

Therefore, the correct sentence is:  Improving your well-being is considered to be the fundamental benefit of travelling. Travelling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety while developing our brain health. There have been studies proving that travel can have a positive impact on our heart health. The health benefit of travelling is that when you travel to new surroundings you press a restart button to your body and mind. This brings in fresh energy when you get back to your normal (5) ________ activities.

Additional Information

  • Let's consider the other options:
  • "Heap" typically means to pile or stack up something. It doesn't fit here as we can't heap a button.
  • "Usurp" means to take over or seize power unrightfully. It doesn't make sense in this context because it doesn't relate to the act of resetting or starting over.
  • "Snatch" means to quickly seize or grab something. While you could theoretically snatch a button, it doesn't convey the intended meaning of initiating a fresh start or reset.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    regular

  2. BOption (b)

    sedentary

  3. COption (c)

    arbitrate

  4. DOption (d)

    moderate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

regular

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Regular'.

Key Points

  • In this context, "regular" is used to describe the usual or ordinary activities someone engages in.
  • It contrasts with the new and different experiences associated with traveling, providing a standard or baseline that traveling helps to rejuvenate.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Improving your well-being is considered to be the fundamental benefit of travelling. Travelling helps to decrease the risks of heart disease and anxiety while developing our brain health. There have been studies proving that travel can have a positive impact on our heart health. The health benefit of travelling is that when you travel to new surroundings you press a restart button to your body and mind. This brings in fresh energy when you get back to your normal regular activities.

Additional Information

  • Here's why the other options aren't as suitable:
  • "Sedentary" refers to a lifestyle with little to no physical activity. Although it could theoretically fit, it connotes a negative or unhealthy lifestyle, which isn't necessarily implied in the passage.
  • "Arbitrate" means to reach an authoritative judgement or settlement, and it doesn't fit the context of daily activities at all.
  • "Moderate" could potentially work if it were describing the intensity of the activities, but without that context, "regular" is a more broadly applicable choice.

100 questions in the full paper