SSC CHSL Tier-1 2022: Official Paper (Held On: 17 March, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Statements:

 

Statement I: Some fish are frogs.

Statement II: Some frogs are whales.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

 

 

Conclusion:

 

I. Some fish are whales - False (No definite relation given between fish and frogs, so it can be possible only).

 

II. No fish is a whale - False (No definite relation given between fish and frogs, so it can be possible only).

 

Here, Conclusion I and II forms complementary pair for either-or.

 

So, Either conclusion I or II follow.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

 

Additional Information

 

Conditions of Either-or case:

 

1. The elements should be the same in both the statements.
2. Both the conclusions should be false individually.
3. One conclusion should be positive and one conclusion should be negative (Complementary pair) -

The two complementary pairs are:

1. All + Some not

2. No + Some

Note: Some + Some not is not  considered under Either -or case.

Given: Seven students Panchi, Qazi, Ricky, Sweta, Tiya, Urusha, and Vinay.

1. Panchi scored the second-highest marks in the class.

__ > Panchi > __ > __ > __ > __ > __

2. Marks scored by Vinay were higher than only one person.

__ > Panchi > __ > __ > __ > Vinay > __

3. Three persons got higher than Tiya and three got lesser than Tiya.

4. Sweta's score was more than Tiya but less than Panchi.

__ > Panchi > Sweta > Tiya > __ > Vinay > __

5. Neither Ricky nor Qazi received the lowest marks.

__ > Panchi > Sweta > Tiya > __ > Vinay > Urusha (since Ricky and Qazi neither has got lowest marks. So, Urusha must be the one with the lowest marks)

6. This gives us the order as:

__ > Panchi > Sweta > Tiya > __ > Vinay > Urusha

7. There are two positions left to fill, for Ricky and Qazi, who should be placed higher than Vinay and lower than Tiya. Without additional information, their positions relative to each other can't be determined. Therefore, the final order could be one of the following:

Ricky/Qazi > Panchi > Sweta > Tiya > Qazi/Ricky > Vinay > Urusha

So, Urusha scored the lowest marks.

Hence, the correct answer is "Urusha".

The logic followed here is:

For, PAG : NYE,

For, TUB : RSZ,

Similarly, for RICE : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation I. 5 × 12 - 15 + 20 ÷ 25

Now, if '× and +' are interchanged, then:

⇒ 5 + 12 - 15 × 20 ÷ 25

⇒ 5 + 12 - 15 × 0.8

⇒ 5 + 12 - 12

⇒ 17 - 12 = 5.

Given equation II: 36 + 3 × 2 - 15 ÷ 5

Now, if '× and +' are interchanged, then:

⇒ 36 × 3 + 2 - 15 ÷ 5

⇒ 36 × 3 + 2 - 3

⇒ 108 + 2 - 3

⇒ 110 - 3 = 107.

Here, the correct values are '5 and 107'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic:- Second Number = Square of First Number,

⇒ Third Number = Cube of First Number.

(11, 121, 1331)

→ 121 = 11²

→ 1331 = 11³

(13, 169, 2197)

→ 169 = 13²

→ 2197 = 13³

Let's check each option as per the logic:

1. (9, 729, 81):

→ 729 ≠ 9²

→ 81 ≠ 9³ ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic.

1. (6, 36, 324):

→ 36 = 6²

→ 324 ≠ 6³ ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic.

1. (5, 25, 625):

→ 25 = 5²

→ 625 ≠ 5³ ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic..

1. (7, 49, 343):

→ 49 = 7²

→ 343 = 7³ ⇒ Satisfies the logic.

Here, we can see that Option 4 satisfies the logic.

Hence, the correct answers are "(7, 49, 343)".

The logic followed here is:

'28373' is coded as '4166146'.

Similarly, for '19351'

'19351' is coded as '2186102'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

When the paper is unfolded, it appears as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Nymph is a young form of a Cockroach.

Similarly, Tadpole is a young form of a Frog.

Hence, the correct answer is "Frog".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: All three numbers in the set are perfect squares.

(169, 1681, 529):

→ 169 = (13)², 1681 = (41)², 529 = (23)²

(144, 576, 1024):

→ 144 = (12)², 576 = (24)², 1024 = (32)²

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1. (196, 289, 224):

→ Here, 224 is not a perfect square.

2) (144, 121, 999):

→ Here, 999 is not a perfect square.

3) (624, 785, 256):

→ Here, 624 and 785 is not a perfect square.

4) (625, 784, 256):

→ 625 = (25)², 784 = (28)², 256 = (16)²

Here, we can see that all three numbers are perfect square and thus follow the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "(625, 784, 256)".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) QSU

Option 2) UWY

Option 3) CEG

Option 4) HJI

Here, 'HJI' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

When the paper is unfolded, it appears as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

When the paper is unfolded, it appears as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first word is a type of the second word.

Ostrich: Bird

→ Ostrich is a type of Bird.

Similarly,

Chair:?

→ Chair is a type of Furniture.

Hence, the correct answer is "Furniture".

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The arrow are getting rotated at 90 degree and shifted one place in clockwise direction.

Step II: The Letter Box are getting closed and opened in alternatively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic:- All Numbers in each set are perfect squares of odd numbers.

(25, 49, 81):

→ 25 = 5²

→ 49 = 7²

→ 81 = 9²

(169, 225, 289):

→ 169 = 13²

→ 225 = 15²

→ 289 = 17²

Let's check each option as per the logic:

1. (441, 529, 676):

→ 441 = 21²

→ 529 = 23²

→ 676 = 26²

26 is not an odd number ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic.

1. (100, 144, 256):

→ 100 = 10²

→ 144 = 12²

→ 256 = 16²

These are not consecutive odd numbers ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic.

1. (289, 361, 441):

→ 289 = 17²

→ 361 = 19²

→ 441 = 21²

These are squares of consecutive odd numbers ⇒ Satisfies the logic.

1. (121, 169, 289):

→ 121 = 11²

→ 169 = 13²

→ 289 = 17²

These are not consecutive odd numbers ⇒ Doesn't satisfy the logic.

Here, we can see that only Option 3 satisfies the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The triangles are:

So, there are '28' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "28".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number - 2)².

Now,

For, 12 : 100

⇒ (12 - 2)²

⇒ 10² = 100.

For, 10 : 64

⇒ (10 - 2)2

⇒ 82 = 64.

Similarly, for 14 ∶ ?

⇒ (14 - 2)2

⇒ 122 = 144.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

All Fathers are Males,

And, some Fathers can be Teachers also.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given,

A cube is painted Orange on all surfaces and then the cube cuts into 27 small cubes of equal part.

So, it has been cut into: 3 × 3 × 3.

Here, n = 3.

Now, using formula: (n - 2)² × 6

⇒ (n - 2)2 × 6

⇒ (3 - 2)2 × 6

⇒ 12 × 6

⇒ 1 × 6 = 6.

So, total '6' cubes will have only one face painted.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

The logic followed here is:

→ The units of length are arranged in increasing order of their magnitude in the metric system.

The correct order as per the logic is,

2. Millimeter

3. Decimeter

4. Decameter

5. Hectometer

6. Kilometer

Hence, the correct answer is "2, 3, 4, 1, 5".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each group contain words related to dwellings or places of habitation.

Let's check each option as per the logic,

1. (Igloo, Nun, Sty):

→ Nun is not a type of dwelling. ⇒ Doesn't follow the logic.

2. (Web, Cottage, Palace):

→ All are types of dwelling.

3. (Stable, Monastery, Hive):

→ All are types of dwelling.

4. (Den, Byre, Barn):

→ All are types of dwelling.

Here, we can see that only Option 1 doesn't follow the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "(Igloo, Nun, Sty)".

The logic followed here is:

So, '240' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: ccd_cc_d_ppccccddd_ _p

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) ppdcp → c c d p c c p d d p p c c c c  d d d c p p

Option 2) pcdpp → c c d p c / c c d d p p c c / c c d d d p p p

Here, 'Option 2' followed a pattern.

Option 3) pcdpc → c c d p c c c d d p p c c c c  d d d p c p

Option 4) pccdp → c c d p c c c d c p p c c c c  d d d d p p

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Given: Pointing to a photograph of a man Riya said, "He is the father of the only son of my mother."

So, Riya is the 'Daughter' of that man.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

'HAMLET' is coded as 'MAHTEL'.

Similarly, for 'BURGER'

'BURGER' is coded as 'RUBREG'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Joanna Scanlan won the Best Actress in Leading Role award in the 75th BAFTA  Award ceremony.
• The 75th British Academy Film Awards, also known as the BAFTAs, were held on 13 March 2022 at the Royal Albert Hall in London, honouring the best national and foreign films of 2021.
• The ceremony was hosted by actress and comedian Rebel Wilson.
• The film that received maximum nominations was Dune, with 11 nominations.
• The film that received the maximum number of awards was Dune as well with 5 awards.

The correct answer is Both I and II. 

Key Points

• Rolling Plan – Introduced before Sixth Five-Year Plan: This statement is correct.
• It was initiated in 1978 by the Janata government. Instead of having a fixed five-year plan, the idea was to have a continuous (rolling) plan, updated every year based on the needs and priorities of the economy at that time.
• Mahalanobis Plan – Second Five-Year Plan: This statement is correct.
• The Second Five-Year Plan, also known as the Mahalanobis Plan, was launched in 1956.
• It was named after the well-known statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis who played a key role in its formulation.
• The plan followed the strategy of rapid industrialization, with particular emphasis on heavy industries.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• In a momentous triumph at the Dashrath Rangshala Stadium in Kathmandu, Nepal, Bangladesh achieved an unprecedented victory at the SAFF Women's Championship, clinching their inaugural title.
• The Bangladesh team exhibited exceptional football skills, captivating a packed stadium, as they secured a remarkable 3-1 win over the host nation, Nepal, in the final match.
• Sabina Khatun, the captain of Bangladesh, emerged as the tournament's leading goal scorer with an impressive tally of eight goals in five matches. In a heartfelt gesture, she dedicated the well-deserved trophy to the people of Bangladesh, symbolizing their collective achievement.

Additional Information

• The SAFF Women's Championship of 2022 marked the tournament's sixth edition, a prestigious international women's football championship that brings together national teams from the South Asian Football Federation.
• Held in Kathmandu, Nepal, the thrilling competition unfolded from September 6 to September 19, 2022.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• Location and Design: Hawa Mahal, also known as the "Palace of Winds," is located in Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan, India.
• It was designed in the form of the crown of Lord Krishna, with its unique five-story exterior resembling a honeycomb.
• Historical Significance: Built in 1799 by Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh, Hawa Mahal is an architectural marvel that is an integral part of Jaipur's history and royal heritage.
• It was constructed to enable ladies of the royal household to watch the life and processions of the city without being seen from the outside, given the strict "purdah" system followed at that time.
• Architecture: Hawa Mahal is a prime example of Rajput architecture and Indian artistry with its pink sandstone construction.
• The building does not have a foundation, and it is the tallest building in the world that does not have a solid base. It has over 950 windows, known as 'Jharokhas,' decorated with intricate latticework.
• Ventilation: The name "Hawa Mahal" translates to "Palace of Winds," which refers to the natural ventilation system in the building.
• The unique design of the windows allows cool air to circulate naturally through the building, making it an early example of sustainable architecture.
• Tourism: Today, Hawa Mahal is one of the most popular tourist attractions in Jaipur. Visitors can climb to the top floor for a panoramic view of the city, including the Jantar Mantar and the City Palace on one side and the Siredeori Bazaar on the other.
• It's a great place to learn about the culture and history of Rajasthan.
• Preservation Efforts: The Hawa Mahal is maintained by the Archaeological Department of the Government of Rajasthan.
• The monument is well-preserved, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of the region, despite being over two centuries old.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• Shri Arjun Munda is the Union Minister for Tribal Affairs as on October 2022.
• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs in India is a federal authority that is responsible for the overall welfare of tribal communities. The Union Minister for Tribal Affairs holds a significant role in shaping and implementing policies for these communities. Here are four key responsibilities:
• Policy Development and Implementation: The Union Minister is responsible for formulating and executing policies, plans, and programs for the socio-economic development of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in India. This includes legislative and administrative measures that aim to bridge the development gap between STs and the rest of the population.
• Promotion of Education: One of the crucial responsibilities is the promotion and enhancement of educational opportunities for tribal communities. The minister oversees programs and initiatives that encourage and support education among STs, such as the Eklavya Model Residential Schools and Post-Matric Scholarship for ST students.
• Preservation of Cultural Heritage: The minister has the duty to preserve and promote the rich heritage, culture, and languages of the tribal communities. This involves backing initiatives that foster cultural exchange and understanding, support traditional arts and crafts, and safeguard tribal cultures and traditions.
• Liaison with Other Ministries and Departments: The Union Minister often works closely with other ministries and departments at both the central and state levels to ensure that the welfare measures reach the tribal communities effectively. This involves coordinating with departments like Health, Education, Rural Development, and others to synchronize their efforts towards tribal development.

The correct answer is Banabhatta.

Key Points

• The "Harshacharita", a biography of Harshavardhana, was written by Banabhatta, who was a Sanskrit scholar and a poet in the court of Harshavardhana. Banabhatta lived around the 7th century CE.
• "Harshacharita" is a historical narrative detailing the life and times of King Harsha, who ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE.
• He is also known for his work "Kadambari."

Additional Information

• Harisena:
• He was a court poet of Samudragupta, a Gupta emperor.
• His most notable work is the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, which details the conquests and accomplishments of his patron.
• Ravikirti:
• He was the court poet of the Chalukya king Pulakeshin II.
• His work, the Aihole Prashasti (Aihole Inscription), written in Sanskrit, extols the victory of Pulakeshin II over the northern king Harshavardhana.
• Xuan Zang:
• He was a Chinese Buddhist monk, scholar, traveler, and translator who traveled to India in the 7th century.
• His works, "Great Tang Records on the Western Regions" and "Buddhist Records of the Western World," detail his journey and experiences in India and other parts of Central and South Asia.

The correct answer is Speaker.

Key Points

• A speaker is an output device that transforms digital signals processed by the computer's sound card into audible sound waves or audio.
• The sound card sends an electrical signal to the speaker, and then the speaker converts this electrical signal into physical vibrations (sound waves) that we can hear.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• Article 14
• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is about 'Equality Before Law' and it states:
• "The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India."
• This article is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution of India, which talks about Rights to Equality.
• The principle of 'Equality before law' is of British origin, while 'Equal protection of the laws' is borrowed from the Constitution of the United States.

 Additional Information

The correct answer is Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Key Points

• Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 are part of the umbrella scheme "Mission Shakti" launched by the Government of India.
• These initiatives were introduced in the Union Budget 2021-22 with an aim to strengthen nutritional content, delivery, outreach, and outcomes with a focus on developing practices that nurture health and wellness.
• Saksham Anganwadi:
• This initiative is designed to upgrade the Anganwadis of India and turn them into more effective institutions for delivering public services to women and children.
• Anganwadi centers are rural mother and child care centers in India, established under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program to combat child hunger and malnutrition. "Saksham Anganwadi" aims to provide a digital solution to improve delivery outcomes with the use of technology.
• The plan is to develop e-Anganwadi, a digital platform to monitor and track the performance and growth of each Anganwadi.
• Poshan 2.0:
• Poshan Abhiyaan, also known as the National Nutrition Mission, was launched in 2018 to improve the nutritional status of children up to 6 years, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
• The mission aimed to reduce the level of stunting, undernutrition, anemia, and low birth weight babies. "Poshan 2.0" is a reboot or continuation of this mission with stronger strategies and improved implementation mechanisms.

The correct answer is Cell wall.

Key Points

• The cell wall is present in plant cells but not in animal cells and it is made up of cellulose and chitin.
• The plant is covered by an outer cell wall.
• Cellulose is one of the major components of the cell wall.
• It is a polymer of glucose joined by glycosidic linkage.
• It helps in maintaining its shape and provides rigidity to the plant.

Additional Information 

Mitochondria:

• Mitochondria is a double-layered cell organelle, in which the outer layer is porous and the inner layer is folded upon itself is known to be cristae.
• The number of mitochondria in a single cell may be up to 50 to 5000.
• The inner lumen of mitochondria contains ribosome phosphate particles and DNA molecules.
• It has the potential to synthesize its own protein and the oxidation of carbohydrates and fats are taken place with the help of enzymes in mitochondria.
• This energy is stored in the form of ATP ( Adenosine Triphosphate ) so, these are known as the "Powerhouse of the cell".

Golgi apparatus:

• This cell organelle is primarily responsible for the storage, processing, and packaging of proteins.
• Golgi Apparatus is found within the cytoplasm of a cell and are present in both plant and animal cells.

Ribosomes:

• The eukaryotic cell comprises of true nucleus and organelles in its cytoplasm.
• Mitochondria, ribosomes, Endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi complex are organelles present in the cytoplasm.
• The sites for protein synthesis in the cells are ribosomes.
• Ribosomes are present as free ribosomes in the cytoplasm or, as membrane-bound on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
• Ribosomes consist of small and large subunits and are 80s-type.
• It is the site where mRNA translation occurs, and protein formation takes place.

The correct answer is ICL 2900.

Key Points

• The ICL 2900 is not an example of the 4th Generation of Computers.
• The ICL 2900 was released in 1966, making it a 3rd Generation Computer.
• Here are some of the characteristics of 4th Generation Computers:
• They use Very Large Scale Integration (VLSI) technology.
• They are more powerful and reliable than previous generations of computers.
• They are smaller and more affordable than previous generations of computers.
• They use high-level languages such as C and C++.

Additional Information

• Apple II - This is indeed an example of a fourth-generation computer. It was released by Apple Computer (now Apple Inc.) in 1977 and was one of the first highly successful mass-produced microcomputer products.
• TRS-80 - This is another example of a fourth-generation computer. It was a desktop microcomputer launched in 1977 and produced by Tandy Corporation through their Radio Shack stores.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points Tapi River

• Apart from the Narmada river, Tapi is the only river that flows in the westward direction and flows through a rift valley.
• Total length: around 724 km.
• Originates in Betul district, Madhya Pradesh in the Satpura range.
• It merges into the Arabian Sea.
• It basin extends through states of Maharashtra, Gujrat and Madhya Pradesh.
• The main tributaries of the Tapi river are Purna, The Girna, The Panjhra, The Vaghur, the Bori and the Aner.​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Key Points

• Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a credit-linked subsidy program.
• It was launched in 2008 for the generation of employment opportunities through the establishment of microenterprises in rural and urban areas.
• It is a central sector scheme being administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
• Implementing Agency at the National Level is Khadi and Village Industries Commission(KVIC).
• It is a statutory organization under the administrative control of the Ministry of MSME.
• Features of the scheme are as follow-
• It allows entrepreneurs to set up factories or units.
• Any individual above 18 years of age is eligible for this scheme.
• Only new projects/units are considered for sanction of loans.
• Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible for Manufacturing Sector is Rs. 50 lakh.
• Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible for  Service Sector is Rs. 20 lakh.
• The government has decided to provide Subsidy in Rural Areas - 25% for the general category and 35% for the special category, which includes SC/ST/ OBC/Minorities, Northeast Region, Hill, and Border Areas. and, In Urban Areas- 15% for general category and 25% for special categories.
• Under the scheme, loans are provided by Public Sector Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks, and Private Scheduled Commercial Banks approved by respective State Task Force Committee.​

Additional Information

• The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, a branch of the Government of India.
• It is the apex executive body for the formulation and administration of rules, regulations, and laws relating to micro, small and medium enterprises in India.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points 

The Himalayas have also been divided on the basis of regions from west to east.

These are Punjab Himalayas, Kumaon Himalaya, Nepal Himalayas, and Assam Himalaya.

The divisions of the Himalayas that have been demarcated by the river valleys are:

• Nepal Himalayas -The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Kali and Teesta is known as the Nepal Himalayas.
• Kumaon Himalayas -The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Satluj and Kali is known as the Kumaon Himalayas.Therefore 1st statement is correct.
• Assam Himalayas -The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Teesta and Dihang is known as the Assam Himalayas. Therefore 2nd statement is incorrect.
• Punjab Himalayas -The part of the Himalayas lying between the rivers Indus and Satluj is known as the Punjab Himalayas.

 

Additional Information 

• The main Himalayan river systems are those of the Indus and the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna system.
• The Indus, which is one of the great rivers of the world, rises near Mansarovar in Tibet and flows through India, and thereafter through Pakistan, and finally falls in the Arabian Sea near Karachi.
• The Brahmaputra marks the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India.
• To the south of the main Himalayas lies the Pir Panjal Range at an average height of 5,000 meters (16,000 ft).
• From Gulmarg, in the northwest, it follows the southern rim of the Kashmir valley to the Banihal Pass.
• Here the Pir Panjal meets the ridgeline that separates the Kashmir valley from the Warvan Valley.

Correct Answer Only I

Key PointsStatement I: When air is heated, it expands and occupies more space.

• This phenomenon is a result of the increase in the kinetic energy of the air molecules.
• As the air molecules gain energy, they move more vigorously and spread out, leading to an increase in volume and expansion of the air.
• This expansion is commonly observed in various situations, such as hot air rising or the expansion of air in a balloon when it is exposed to heat.

Statement II, which suggests that air becomes heavier on heating, is incorrect.

• Heating air does not cause it to become heavier.
• In fact, as the air expands and occupies more space when heated, its density decreases, making it lighter compared to an equal volume of cooler air.
• This is why hot air tends to rise above cooler air in the atmosphere.

The correct answer is 100.

Key Points:

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) provide 100 days of guaranteed wage employment.
• This was initiated with the objective of “enhancing livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year, especially to households whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work".
• This Act also aims to create durable assets (such as roads, canals, ponds, and wells).
• Within 5 km of an applicant’s residence, employment is provided.

**Additional Information:**Objectives of MGNREGA:

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
• Provide 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural unskilled labour
• Increase economic security.
• Decrease migration of labour from rural to urban areas.
• It was known to be the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
• MGNREGA Job Card is a document that renders a worker entitled to work under the MGNREGA scheme.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points:

• Union Minister of State Science and Technology Dr. Jitendra Singh inaugurated India’s first unique Rock Museum in Hyderabad.
• The Open Rock Museum has been set up with the aim to educate people about several lesser-known facts.
• It displays around 35 different types of rocks from different parts of India with ages ranging from 3.3 billion yrs to around 55 million years of the Earth’s history.

Additional Information:

• The Open Rock Museum is an educational institution dedicated to sharing knowledge and raising awareness about various lesser-known facts related to rocks.
• It showcases approximately 35 different types of rocks sourced from various regions in India.
• These rocks not only represent a wide range of geological diversity but also include specimens that originate from the deepest parts of the Earth, reaching depths of up to 175 kilometers below the Earth's surface.
• The museum exhibits rocks collected from different states in India, such as Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Jammu & Kashmir, among others.
• Each rock specimen is carefully selected to highlight its unique characteristics, geological significance, and the processes that contributed to its formation over millions of years.

The correct answer is 2

Key PointsIndia won 2 silver medals at the (2020) Olympic Games held in Tokyo in 2021. 

Tokyo Olympics 2021 India Bronze Medal List -

Other Medals:

**Additional Information:**Olympic Games 2021:

• The Olympics took place in Tokyo.
• The cauldron was held by Naomi Osaka.
• Its mascots were Miraitowa (the official mascot of the 2020 Summer Olympics) and Someity (the official mascot of the 2020 Summer Paralympics).
• The United States topped the medal tally of the Summer Olympics 2021 with 39 golds.
• The People's Republic of China stood in second place with a total of 38 gold medals.
• And Japan was third with a total of 27.
• India's rank in the summer Olympic 2021 was 48th.

Correct Answer 1st July 2022

Key PointsImplementation Timeline:

• The ban on single-use plastic items with low utility was implemented in a phased manner.
• The prohibition on identified single-use plastic items came into effect from 1st July 2022, as per the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021.

Thickness Restrictions for Plastic Carry Bags:

• The Plastic Waste Management Rules also include restrictions on the thickness of plastic carry bags.
• Plastic carry bags with a thickness of less than seventy-five microns were prohibited from 30th September 2021, and bags with a thickness less than one hundred and twenty microns were banned from 31st December 2022.

The correct answer is 1000 and 2000.

Key Points

• The wet temperate type of forests are typically found at higher elevations.
• The correct range for the height of wet temperate forests is between 1000 and 2000 meters.
• Wet temperate forests are characterized by high levels of precipitation and moderate temperatures.
• These forests are typically located in regions with cool, humid climates.
• They are known for their diverse plant and animal species and dense vegetation.

Additional Information

• Wet temperate forests:
• These are a type of forest ecosystem that exists in regions with temperate climates and high levels of rainfall.
• They are particularly common in mountainous areas, where the elevation provides the cool temperatures that these forests require.
• Wet temperate forests are known for their high biodiversity, including numerous species of trees, undergrowth plants, and animals.
• In addition to the general characteristics of wet and cool climate, these forests often have unique features depending on their specific location and local conditions.

The correct answer is 1916.

Key Points

• The Lucknow Pact was signed by the All India Muslim League and the Indian National Congress in 1916.
• The Lucknow Pact was a significant event in the Indian National Movement.
• It marked the reunion of the moderate and extremist factions of the Congress**, which had split in 1907.**
• This agreement brought the Muslim League and the Indian National Congress closer.
• They agreed to work together to put pressure on the British Government to grant more political power to Indians.
• The pact recognized separate electorates for Muslims in provinces where they were a minority, which was a significant demand of the Muslim League.
• The pact was also significant in that it proposed the idea of granting more autonomy to the provinces, which eventually laid the groundwork for India's federal structure post-independence.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Vishnu.

Key Points

• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from Kerala, India.
• The term "Mohiniyattam" translates to "dance of the enchantress."
• The dance form gets its name from the Hindu God Vishnu.
• In Hindu mythology, Mohini is a female avatar of Lord Vishnu.
• Mohiniyattam reflects the theme of love and devotion, where the dancer often plays the role of Mohini, who is the amorous and devoted heroine.
• Mohini, the divine enchantress, is often depicted as seductive, beautiful, and capable of mesmerizing those who she wishes to influence.
• The dance form is characterized by graceful and gentle movements, and it is traditionally performed solo by women.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Shelter belts.

Key Points

• Shelter belts are rows of trees and shrubs planted to protect soil from wind erosion, particularly in coastal and arid regions.
• These tree lines reduce wind speed across the ground and thereby decrease the wind's ability to lift and carry soil particles away, combating wind erosion effectively.
• Apart from reducing wind erosion, shelter belts also offer additional benefits like providing habitat for wildlife, sequestering carbon, and enhancing the landscape's aesthetics.
• This method is quite common in flat, dry regions where wind erosion is a major issue, such as parts of North America, Africa, and Asia.
• Shelter belts can take the form of single or multiple rows of trees or shrubs, depending on the severity of the wind erosion problem.

Additional Information

• Mulching:
• Mulching involves covering the soil surface with a layer of organic or inorganic material (like straw, leaves, compost, or plastic sheets).
• This technique retains soil moisture, suppresses weed growth, and can also prevent soil erosion by reducing the impact of raindrops on the soil surface.
• Rock Dam:
• Rock dams are barriers built across channels, gullies, or small waterways using rocks.
• They slow down the flow of water, reduce its erosive power and trap sediments.
• This technique is commonly used in mountainous regions or areas prone to flash floods and gully erosion.
• Contour Barriers:
• ​Contour barriers are physical barriers like stones, vegetation, or soil bunds constructed along the contours of a slope.
• They slow down water runoff, promote water infiltration, and reduce soil erosion by water.
• This method is typically used on sloping land in both farming and forestry.

The correct answer is Metabolism.

Key Points

• Metabolism is the set of life-sustaining chemical reactions in organisms.
• It involves various chemical reactions that occur in the cells to maintain the living state of the organism.
• These reactions are organized into metabolic pathways, in which one chemical is transformed through a series of steps into another chemical, by a sequence of enzymes.
• Metabolism is divided into two categories: catabolism, the breaking down of compounds to produce energy; and anabolism, the construction of compounds, which uses energy.
• Metabolism involves the transfer of energy from one form to another, and the conversion of substances into other substances in various metabolic pathways.
• The rate of metabolism affects the amount of food and the type of food that an organism will need; it also affects the physical characteristics of an organism, such as size and shape.

Additional Information

Concept Used:

The sum (S) of an arithmetic sequence can be calculated using the formula:

S = n/2 × (a + l)

where:

S is the sum of the sequence,

n is the number of terms,

a is the first term, and

l is the last term.

The number of terms (n) in an arithmetic sequence can be found using the formula:

n = (last term - first term)/difference + 1

Calculation:

Two-digit odd numbers range from 11 to 99. Since they are odd, they increase by a difference of 2 each time, forming an arithmetic sequence.

Number of terms (n):

n = (99 - 11)/2 + 1 = 44 + 1 = 45

Sum of an arithmetic sequence:

S = 45/2 ×  (11 + 99) = 22.5 ×  110 = 2475

Therefore, the sum of all two-digit odd numbers is 2475.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

The numerator is increased by 140% and denominator is decreased by 20%

The resultant fraction is 12/7.

Calculation:

Let the original fraction be ${x \over y}\%$

According to the question,

$\frac{{x; + ;140\% ;of;x;}}{{y;-;20\% ;of;y}}; = ;\frac{12}{7}$

$\frac{{12x}}{4y}; = ;\frac{12}{7}$

$\frac{x}{y}; = ;\frac{4}{{7}}$

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

Principal = Rs. 3000

Amount = Rs. 6000

Concept Used: 

Simple Interest = PRT/100

Simple Interest = Amount - Principal

Calculation:

Let the rate of interest be r% and as the time is equal to rate of interest.

So, time = r years

Simple Interest = Amount - Principal

Simple Interest = 6000 - 3000 = Rs. 3000

Simple Interest = PRT/100

3000 = 3000 × r × r/100

r² = 100

r = 10

Annual rate of interest = 10%

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick Profit 33.33% is equivalent to 1/3 in fraction, so SP is 4/3 of CP. 4 units → ₹960 ⇒ 1 unit → ₹240 ⇒ CP (3 units) → ₹720. For 20% profit, multiplier is 1.2 or 6/5. New SP → 720 × (6/5) → 144 × 6 → ₹864. ∴ The correct answer is ₹864.

Alternate Method Given: Initial Selling Price (SP1) = ₹960, Initial Profit% = 33.33%, Target Profit% = 20%. Formula Used: CP = [SP × 100] / [100 + Profit%] | New SP = CP × [(100 + New Profit%) / 100]

⇒ First, calculate CP using the initial Profit (33.33% = 1/3): ⇒ CP = 960 ÷ (1 + 1/3) = 960 × (3/4) ⇒ CP = 240 × 3 = ₹720 ⇒ Now, calculate New Selling Price for 20% Profit: ⇒ New SP = 720 × (100 + 20) / 100 ⇒ New SP = 720 × 1.2 = ₹864 ∴ The correct answer is ₹864.

Additional Information Fraction to Percentage Conversion Common fractions simplify calculations: 33.33% = 1/3, 25% = 1/4, 20% = 1/5, and 16.66% = 1/6. Profit and Loss Fundamentals Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100. If SP > CP, it is Profit; if SP < CP, it is Loss. Direct Proportion Method Since CP is constant, SP1 / (100 + P1) = SP2 / (100 + P2). This allows finding the second SP without calculating CP.

Shortcut Trick

Equivalent discount percentage = 20 + 10 − (20 × 10)/100 = 28%.

Given, 28% of Marked Price = ₹252.

1% of MP = 252 ÷ 28 = ₹9 ⇒ 100% (MP) = ₹900.

Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount = 900 − 252 = ₹648.

Profit = SP − CP = 648 − 600 = ₹48.

∴ The correct answer is ₹48.

Alternate Method

Given: Successive discounts = 20% and 10%; Total discount value = ₹252; Cost Price (CP) = ₹600.

Formula Used: Single equivalent discount = a + b − (a × b / 100); Profit = SP − CP.

⇒ Net discount percentage = 20 + 10 − (20 × 10 ÷ 100) = 28%

⇒ Let Marked Price be MP. 28% of MP = 252

⇒ MP = (252 × 100) ÷ 28 = ₹900

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount = 900 − 252 = ₹648

⇒ Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

⇒ Profit = 648 − 600 = ₹48

∴ The correct answer is ₹48.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When multiple discounts are applied one after another, the net discount is less than the sum of individual discounts. Formula: Net D% = a + b − ab/100.

Marked Price (MP)

It is the price printed on the item. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price unless stated otherwise.

Profit Percentage

Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100. It represents the gain earned over the initial investment (Cost Price).

Shortcut Trick

To find the sum of squares (a² + b² + c²), subtract twice the pair-wise product sum from the square of the total sum.

Total Sum squared → 7² = 49

Twice Product Pairs → 2 × 12 = 24

Required Value → 49 − 24 = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of variables (a + b + c) = 7

Sum of product pairs (ab + bc + ca) = 12

Formula Used:

The standard algebraic Trinomial Identity: (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca)

Calculations:

⇒ (7)² = (a² + b² + c²) + 2 × 12

⇒ 49 = (a² + b² + c²) + 24

⇒ a² + b² + c² = 49 − 24

⇒ a² + b² + c² = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Additional Information

Trinomial Square Expansion

The expansion of (a + b + c)² always results in the sum of individual squares plus twice the sum of all possible product pairs.

Sum of Cubes Identity

a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² − ab − bc − ca). This formula often utilizes the result of the trinomial square.

Alternative Square Relation

a² + b² + c² − ab − bc − ca = 1/2 [(a − b)² + (b − c)² + (c − a)²], which is useful for proving non-negativity.

Given:

The area of quadrilateral MBCN = 130 cm².

AN : NC = 4 : 5

Calculation:

Hence, AC = 4 + 5 = 9

In ΔABC, If MN∥BC, then

Area of ΔAMN/area of ΔABC = (AN/AC)²

Area of ΔAMN/area of ΔABC = (4/9)² = 16/81

Area of ΔAMN = 16 unit and area of ΔABC = 81 unit

Now, the Area of quadrilateral MBCN = area of ΔABC - area of ΔAMN

⇒ 81 - 16 unit = 130 cm2

⇒ 65 unit = 130 cm2

⇒ 1 unit = 130/65 = 2 cm2

∴ Area of ΔAMN = 16 × 2 = 32 cm²

Given:

a + b + c = 0 and ab + bc + ca = -11

Formula Used:

(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 (ab + bc + ca)

Calculation:

According to the formula used

⇒ (0)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 × (-11)

⇒ 0 = a2 + b2 + c2 - 22

⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 = 22

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

Altitude of a triangle is 8 cm.

Corresponding base is 12 cm.

Concept Used:

Area of triangle = 1/2 × base × corresponding height

Calculation:

Area of triangle = 1/2 × base × corresponding height

⇒ 1/2 × 12 × 8

⇒ 48 cm²

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

In ΔXYZ, I is the incentre.

∠YIZ = 115°

Concepts used: 

Angle formed at incentre opposite to given side = 90° +( ½ × angle opposite to given side)

Calculation:

<br>

In ΔXYZ, I is the incentre

∠YIZ = 90° + ( ½ × ∠YXZ)

⇒ 115 = 90° + ( ½ × ∠YXZ)

⇒ ( ½ × ∠YXZ) = 115 - 90

⇒ ( ½ × ∠YXZ) = 25

⇒ ∠YXZ = 25 × 2 = 50° 

∴ Measure of ∠YXZ is equal to 50°.

Calculation:

If we have an angle θ, then the tangent of its complementary angle (90° - θ) is equal to the cotangent of θ.

Mathematically, we can express this as:

tan(90° - θ) = cot(θ)

So, the tangent of the complementary angle is equal to the cotangent of the original angle.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

15 - 3 of 12 ÷ 2 + 3 of 2 ÷ 2

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

15 - 3 of 12 ÷ 2 + 3 of 2 ÷ 2

⇒ 15 - 36 ÷ 2 + 6 ÷ 2

⇒ 15 - 18 + 3

⇒ 0

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:-

45% of Number1 = 6/5 of Number2

Calculation:-

Let Number1 be A, and Number2 be B

⇒ (45/100) × A = (6/5) × B

⇒ A : B = (6 × 100) : (5 × 45)

⇒ A : B = 8 : 3

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

The production of truck by company L in year Y1 = 60

The production of company M in year Y1 = 25

Percentage of the production of truck by company L in year Y1 to the production of company M in year Y1 = 60/25 × 100 = 240%

Statement I is not correct.

The production of truck by company L in year Y4 = 15

The production of truck by company M in year Y4 = 50

Ratio = 15 : 50 = 3 : 10

Statement II is not correct

The average production of truck by company L in year Y2 and Y3 = (40 + 20)/2 = 30

Statement III is correct.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Area = (C₂² − C₁²) / 4π

Area Difference = (C₂ + C₁) × (C₂ − C₁) × 7 / 88

Area Difference = (308 + 264) × (308 − 264) × 7 / 88

Area Difference = 572 × 44 × 7 / 88 = 572 × 7 / 2 = 286 × 7 = 2002 m².

∴ The correct answer is 2002 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Circumference of small circle (C₁) = 264 m

Circumference of large circle (C₂) = 308 m

Formula Used:

Circumference = 2 × π × r

Area = π × r²

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × r₁ = 264

⇒ r₁ = (264 × 7) / 44 = 6 × 7 = 42 m

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × r₂ = 308

⇒ r₂ = (308 × 7) / 44 = 7 × 7 = 49 m

⇒ Difference in Area = π × (r₂² − r₁²)

⇒ Difference = (22/7) × (49² − 42²)

⇒ Difference = (22/7) × (49 + 42) × (49 − 42)

⇒ Difference = (22/7) × 91 × 7

⇒ Difference = 22 × 91 = 2002 m²

∴ The correct answer is 2002 m².

Additional Information

Area of Circle

The space occupied by a circle in a 2D plane is given by the formula Area = πr² or Area = πd²/4.

Circumference to Radius

The distance around the circle is Circumference = 2πr. Thus, the radius can always be found as r = C / 2π.

Area of a Ring (Annulus)

The area between two concentric circles with radii R and r is Area = π(R² − r²) = π(R + r)(R − r).

Shortcut Trick

Convert cot 70° to its complementary ratio: cot 70° = tan 20°.

The expression becomes (3/5) × (sec² 20° − tan² 20°).

Apply the standard identity: sec² θ − tan² θ = 1.

Calculation: (3/5) × 1 = 3/5.

∴ The correct answer is 3/5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = (3/5) (sec² 20° − cot² 70°)

Formulas Used:

1. Complementary Angle Rule: cot(90° − θ) = tan θ
2. Trigonometric Identity: sec² θ − tan² θ = 1

Calculations:

⇒ cot 70° = cot(90° − 20°)

⇒ cot 70° = tan 20°

⇒ cot² 70° = tan² 20°

⇒ Substitute in expression: (3/5) × (sec² 20° − tan² 20°)

⇒ From identity, sec² 20° − tan² 20° = 1

⇒ Value = (3/5) × 1 = 3/5

Therefore, the calculation leads to Option 4.

∴ The correct answer is 3/5.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Pythagorean Identities

Standard relations include sin² θ + cos² θ = 1 and cosec² θ − cot² θ = 1.

Complementary Angle Relations

For any angle θ, sin θ = cos(90°−θ), tan θ = cot(90°−θ), and sec θ = cosec(90°−θ).

Reciprocal Identities

sec θ = 1/cos θ, cosec θ = 1/sin θ, and cot θ = 1/tan θ.

Calculation:

Total population of B in year R, S and T = 200 + 250 + 100 = 550

Total population of A in year P, Q and R = 250 + 450 + 300 = 1000

Ratio = 550 : 1000

⇒ 11 : 20

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of speeds = 60 : 30 = 2 : 1

Since distance is constant, Time ratio = 1 : 2 (Inverse of speed ratio)

Difference in time ratio units = 2 − 1 = 1 unit

According to the question, 1 unit = 1 hour

Time taken for the first journey = 1 unit = 1 hour

Distance = Speed × Time = 60 km/hr × 1 hr = 60 km

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Outward Speed (S₁) = 60 km/hr

Return Speed (S₂) = 30 km/hr

Difference in time (Δt) = 1 hour

Formula Used:

Distance = [ (S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ − S₂) ] × Δt

Calculations:

⇒ Distance = [ (60 × 30) ÷ (60 − 30) ] × 1

⇒ Distance = [ 1800 ÷ 30 ] × 1

⇒ Distance = 60 × 1

⇒ Distance = 60 km

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Additional Information

Average Speed

When equal distances are covered at speeds x and y, Average Speed = (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Speed-Distance-Time Relationship

Speed is directly proportional to Distance when Time is constant, and inversely proportional to Time when Distance is constant (S ∝ 1/T).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the speed by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Let radius be r,

Given circumference = 2πr = 22

⇒ r = 22/2π = 7/2 cm

Area can be given as πr²

⇒ Area = π(3.5)² 

⇒ Area = 22/7 × 12.25 

⇒ Area = 38.5 cm2

∴ The area of circle is 38.5 cm²

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Production of rice in 2017 = 2000

Production of rice in 2018 = 3500

Production of rice in 2019 = 4000

Production of rice in 2020 = 2500

Production of rice in 2021 = 1500

Production of rice is maximum in 2019.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

The average marks scored by three students were 55.

When two more students (A and B) were added, the average marks decreased by 5 (i.e., the new average is 50).

Student B scored 15 marks more than student A.

Formulas Used:

Average = Sum of observations / Number of observations

Calculation:

A = marks scored by student A

B = marks scored by student B

Sum of the marks scored by the first three students is 55 ×  3 = 165 marks.

The total marks scored by the five students = 50 ×  5 = 250 marks.

We also know that B scored 15 marks more than A, so B = A + 15.

Now,

165 + A + B = 250

Substituting B = A + 15 into this equation, we get:

165 + A + A + 15 = 250

Solving for A:

2A = 250 - 165 - 15

2A = 70

A = 70 / 2

A = 35

So, student A scored 35 marks.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

A completes work in 40 days.

Concept Used:

Work = Rate ×  Time

Calculation:

A's rate is 1/40 of the work per day.

Time for 20% of work is: Time = 0.20 / (1/40) = 8 days.

So, A takes 8 days to complete 20% of the work.

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

The number of N98 masks produced in January 2021 and April 2021 together = 6.2 + 6.8 = 13

The number of N95 masks produced in January 2021, March 2021 and May 2021 together = 2.5 + 3.2 + 5.5 = 11.2

Ratio = 13 : 11.2

⇒ 65 : 56

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

p2 + $\frac{1}{p^2}$ = 14

Concept used:

If (a + $\rm \frac{1}{a}$) = k

Then,

a3 + $\rm \frac{1}{a^3}$ = k3 - 3k

Calculation:

p2 + $\frac{1}{p^2}$ = 14

By adding 2 in both sides

p2 + $\frac{1}{p^2}$ +2 = 14 + 2

⇒ (p2 + $\frac{1}{p^2}$ )² = 16

⇒ p + $\frac{1}{p}$ = 4

Now,

p3 + $\frac{1}{p^3}$ = 4³ - 3 × 4

⇒ 64 - 12

⇒ 52

∴ The required answer is 52.

Formula used:

1 - sin²θ = cos²θ 

cos θ/sin θ = cot θ

cosec θ = 1/sin θ 

1 + cot²θ = cosec²θ 

Calculation:

Given that

sin4x + sin2x = 1

⇒ sin⁴x = 1 - sin²x

⇒ sin4x = cos2x       

⇒ sin²x = cos²x/sin²x       

⇒ sin2x = cot²x 

⇒ sin⁴x = cot⁴x 

Now the required value

⇒ cot4x + cot2x = 1

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• The correct meaning for the idiom "Good grief" is An expression of surprise or frustration.(आश्चर्य की अभिव्यक्ति)
• "Good grief" is an idiom that is used to express feelings such as surprise, dismay, annoyance, or exasperation.
• It is often used in response to an unexpected or upsetting event.
• The term "good grief" is somewhat ironic, as the situations it is used to describe are usually not considered 'good'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'An expression of surprise or frustration'.

Additional Information 

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• To dig a hole - This phrase generally implies the literal act of digging a hole, or metaphorically, it can mean to create a difficult situation for oneself.(एक गड्ढा खोदना)
• To be very systematic - Being systematic means doing things in a methodical and organized way. (बहुत योजनाबद्ध होना)
• To try everything possible - This phrase implies making all potential efforts to achieve a goal.(हर संभव प्रयास करना)

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Diffidence'.

Key Points

• "Temerity" refers to excessive confidence or boldness; audacity. ( साहसिकता)
• "Diffidence" refers to modesty or shyness resulting from a lack of self-confidence. ( संकोच)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Diffidence'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Audacity - refer to a kind of boldness or daring, often in a context where such behavior is unexpected or unwelcome.( साहसिकता)
• Assurance - Assurance can refer to confidence or certainty in one's abilities (आत्मविश्वास)
• Poison - It typically refers to a substance that is capable of causing the illness or death of a living organism when introduced or absorbed.(ज़हर)

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• The correct sequence to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence is CABD.
• C. "The Ramayana is one of the largest ancient epics in world literature." This part sets up the topic of the sentence, which is the Ramayana.
• A. "It consists of nearly 24,000 verses divided into seven Khanda (parts)" This provides specific details about the structure of the Ramayana, following logically from the introduction of the Ramayana as the topic.
• B. "the first and the seventh being later additions." This provides additional detail about the structure of the Ramayana, specifically the first and seventh parts.
• D. "It belongs to the genre of Itihasa, narratives of past events, interspersed with teachings on the goals of human life." This is a general statement about the Ramayana's genre and thematic content, which serves as a suitable conclusion to the sentence.

Therefore, the correct and meaningful sentence is: "The Ramayana is one of the largest ancient epics in world literature. It consists of nearly 24,000 verses divided into seven Khanda (parts), the first and the seventh being later additions. It belongs to the genre of Itihasa, narratives of past events, interspersed with teachings on the goals of human life."

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• The correct sequence to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence is CBDA. 
• C. "Mr. Summers spoke frequently to the villagers about making a new box, but no one" - This part introduces the subject, Mr. Summers, and what he often talks about to the villagers, hinting at an ongoing issue about a box.
• B. "liked to upset even as much tradition as was represented by the black box." - This part provides the reason why the villagers don't want to make a new box, as the existing black box represents a certain tradition.
• D. "There was a story that the present box had been made with some pieces of the box that had preceded it" - This part introduces additional information about the tradition of the box.
• A. "the one that had been constructed when the first people settled down to make a village here" - This part further describes the origin of the box, giving a full-circle explanation of the tradition and why it's respected.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'CBDA'.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• The part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error is: "only son, has had developed"
• The error lies in the verb tense.
• The correct verb form should be "had developed" or "has developed", but not "has had developed".
• The phrase "has had developed" is incorrect because it improperly combines the present perfect "has developed" and the past perfect "had developed".

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Ashwatthama, Drona's only son, has/had developed a fondness for lavish living'.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Apiary'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate 'one word' for the place where bees are kept is: Apiary
• An apiary is a place where beehives are kept, specifically for the production of honey. It's like a farm for bees.(मधुमक्खी पालन स्थल)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Apiary'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Hive - This is the name for an individual structure that bees live in. While bees are kept in hives, the term does not encompass the larger location or establishment where multiple hives might be kept for the purpose of beekeeping.(मधुमक्खी का छत्ता)
• Net - A net is a type of meshed fabric or structure, often used for capturing or containing things. It is not specifically associated with keeping bees.(जाल)
• Aviary - An aviary is a large enclosure for birds, not for bees.(पक्षीघर)

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Constant'.

Key Points

• The term "Frequent" implies something that happens or appears often or at regular intervals.(अक्सर, बार-बार, नियमित)
• Constant - happening or existing all the time or again and again. (नियत)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Constant'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Broken - This word means having been fractured or damaged, or not continuous or interrupted. (टूटा हुआ)
• Ceasing - This means to bring or come to an end,(समाप्त हो रहा)
• Inconsistent - This refers to the quality of being inconsistent, or not staying the same throughout.(अस्थिर)

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Loading'.

Key Points

• The term "loading" refers to the action of placing items into a device or machine, such as a dishwasher.
• This makes it the appropriate word to use in this context.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: I dump the tray on the side and start loading up the dishwasher.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Tantalizing - This word means to tease or make someone feel excited about something desirable, which isn't applicable in the context of the sentence.
• Upbringing - This refers to the way in which a person has been treated and educated while growing up. It's not related to any actions involving a dishwasher.
• Alienating - This means to cause someone to feel isolated or estranged, which again isn't relevant in this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Had to shoot'.

Key Points

• The sentence "The actors is to shoot the scene three times." is incorrect due to the verb agreement error.
• The verb "is" should be replaced by "had" to agree with the plural subject and given options.
• "had to shoot" - The sentence would then read: "The actors had to shoot the scene three times."
• This suggests that the actors were required to shoot the scene three times in the past.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'The actors had to shoot the scene three times.'

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• "had to shooting" - This option is grammatically incorrect. The correct form after "had to" is the base form of the verb, so it should be "shoot," not "shooting".
• "has to shoot" - This form would be correct if the subject was singular (like "The actor"), but since the subject is plural ("The actors"), the correct verb form would be "have to shoot," not "has to shoot".

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Prompt'.

Key Points

• "Tardy" means late or delayed(धीमा, विलम्बी)
• "Prompt" means on time or without delay.(तत्पर, शीघ्र)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Prompt'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Belated - This word also means late or delayed,(विलंबित)
• Overdue - This term also refers to something that is late or not done or paid when expected,(अतिदेय)
• Delinquent - It's most commonly used to describe a person (often a young person) who behaves in a way that is illegal or not acceptable to most people.(अपराधी)

The correct answer is 'Option 4' .

Key Points

• In indirect speech, we often change the tense of the verb back one step in 'time'.
• This is known as 'backshifting'. Hence, the present tense "is" changes to the past tense "was".
• The noun "Vikram" remains the same as it is a proper noun, and the pronoun "it" remains the same because it's an object pronoun that doesn't need to change when the speech becomes indirect.
• Also, in this sentence, "With his euphoria fading" is a perfect translation of "his euphoria fading" that allows for smoother sentence flow and better readability.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'With his euphoria fading, Vikram asked who it was.'

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• Being "receptive" means being open and willing to consider new ideas, opinions, suggestions, or changes.
• To "accommodate to" something means to adapt or adjust oneself to a new or different situation, environment, or set of conditions.
• These terms are often used in tandem when discussing change, growth, and adaptability, both in personal development and in the workplace.
• Accommodate of" is not a correct phrase in English.
• However, we can use "accommodate" in sentences with "of," but it requires additional context or words.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: ***'*Democrats are often more receptive and accommodate to foreign people and cultures.'

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Pedestrian'.

Key Points

• The correct word that can substitute for "one who goes on foot" is**: Pedestrian**
• This term is commonly used to refer to a person who travels by foot.(पैदल यात्री)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Pedestrian'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Hypochondriac - A hypochondriac is a person who is excessively worried about having a serious illness, often without any or only minor symptoms.(अति-रोग-भयी)
• Vigilant - Being vigilant means being watchful or careful, especially for possible danger or difficulties.(सतर्क)
• Cynic - A cynic is a person who has negative opinions about other people and what they do, often because of a belief that people are generally selfish and dishonest.(निंदक)

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Systematic'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate antonym for the word "Sporadic" is: Systematic.
• "Sporadic" means occurring at irregular intervals or only in a few places; scattered or isolated.(छितपुट, यदा कदा)
• "Systematic" means done or acting according to a fixed plan or system; methodical.(व्यवस्थित)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Systematic'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Scattered - It refers to things that are spread over an area in an irregular way.(छितरा)
• Random - It refers to something made, done, or happening without method or conscious decision, which can be irregular and infrequent.(यादृच्छिक )
• Rare - It signifies something not occurring or found very often.(दुर्लभ)

The correct answer is "Option 4' i.e. 'Plausible'.

Key Points

• The correct one-word substitution for "An argument or statement seeming reasonable or probable" is: Plausible
• This term means seeming reasonable or probable.(संभाव्य)
• A plausible explanation or argument is one that seems likely to be true, reasonable, or valid.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Plausible'.

Additional Information

• Here's the explanation for the other options:
• Incorrigible - This word is used to describe someone (or their habits) who is not able or willing to change or be corrected.(असुधार्य)
• Corrigible - It refers to someone (or their behavior) that is capable of being corrected or reformed(सुधारने योग्य)
• Congruent - This word is used to describe things that are in agreement or harmony, or identical in form; it's often used in a mathematical context.(समरूप)