SSC CHSL Tier-1 2022: Official Paper (Held On: 15 March, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is

1. Scooter - Vehicle: This pair represents a general category and a specific item within that category. A scooter is a type of vehicle, so this pair is consistent and does not stand out as odd.
2. Triangle - Figure: This pair represents a specific geometric shape and a general term for any shape or form. A triangle is a type of figure, so this pair is also consistent and not odd.
3. Kidney - Organ: This pair represents a specific organ found in the human body. The word "kidney" and "organ" are related in terms of category and classification, so this pair is consistent and not odd.
4. Fruit - Apple: This pair is the odd one out. While an apple is indeed a type of fruit, it is also a specific example of a fruit. The word "fruit" is a general term that encompasses various types of fruits. The relationship between "fruit" and "apple" is different from the relationships in the other word pairs. The other pairs follow a pattern where one word is a specific example or type within the broader category represented by the other word. However, in the case of "fruit" and "apple," both words represent different levels of specificity within the same category, making it the odd pair.

Hence, the correct answer is 4) Fruit - Apple.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: **(**1st number + 3rd number) × 2 = 2nd number.

Now,

For (12, 172, 74)

→ (12 + 74) × 2

→ 86 × 2 = 172.

For (28, 168, 56)

→ (28 + 56) × 2

→ 84 × 2 = 168.

Similarly, for (28, 128, 36)

→ (28 + 36) × 2

→ 64 × 2 = 128.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is 3) Ore ∶ Metal.

In the given analogy, the relationship between the words "Leather" and "Shoes" is that leather is a raw material or primary component used to make shoes. Leather is processed and transformed into shoes, which are the final product.

Logic: Raw material: Final  Product

1. Linen ∶ Flax: Linen is a fabric made from flax fibers. Flax is the raw material used to produce linen. It follows the logic Final  Product: Raw material which is reverse of actual logic.
2. Cloth ∶ Fibre: Cloth is a finished product made from fibers. While the relationship is somewhat similar to leather and shoes, the analogy focuses on raw materials being transformed into products. "Fiber" is a more generic term, and it does not specifically represent a primary component used to make cloth.  It follows the logic Final  Product: Raw material which is reverse of actual logic.
3. Ore ∶ Metal: This pair represents the correct missing word. Ore is a raw material or primary source from which metals are extracted. Just like leather is processed to make shoes, ore is processed to obtain metals. Therefore, this pair follows the same logic as the given analogy.
4. Sack ∶ Jute: This pair does not follow the same logic as leather and shoes. Although jute is a material used to make sacks,  It follows the logic Final  Product: Raw material which is reverse of actual logic.

Based on the explanation above, the correct answer is 3) Ore ∶ Metal.

The logic is:

1) 19-364  → 19² + 3 = 361 + 3 = 364

2. 21-444 →  21² + 3 = 441 +3 = 444 

3. 17-292 → 17² + 3 = 289 + 3 = 292 

4) 13-174 → 13² + 3 = 169 + 3 = 172 ≠ 174

Hence, ‘ 13-174 ’ is the odd one out.

The quadrilaterals are:

So, there is '14' quadrilaterals in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "14".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number + Reverse of that number = 2nd number.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 729-1656 → 729 + 927 = 1656.

Option 2) 843-1181 → 843 + 348 = 1191 ≠ 1181.

Option 3) 681-867 → 681 + 186 = 867.

Option 4) 507-1212 → 507 + 705 = 1212.

So, '843-1181' odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'MHTC' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "MHTC".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Consider % as '×'.

Now,

For, 13% 27% 3 = 1053

⇒ 13 × 27 × 3 = 1053.

For, 4% 8% 13 = 416

⇒ 4 × 8 × 13 = 416.

Similarly, for 3% 16% 10 = ?

⇒ 3 × 16 × 10 = 480.

Hence, the correct answer is "480".

The logic here followed is

Hence, the correct answer is "

"

The logic followed here is:

'FLOORS' is coded as 'QPMNKE',

Similarly, for 'GATHER'

So, 'GATHER' is coded as 'PCFSZF'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

I. Some Rice are Salad.

II. All Salad are Table.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Rice are Table - True (Because, Those part of Rice that is Salad will be also Table).

II. No Salad is Rice - False (Because, Some Rice is Salad given in the statement).

III. Some Table are Salad - True (Because, All Table are Salad given, so Some Table are Salad will be also true)

So, Both conclusions I and III follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) QNJF

Option 2) EBXS

Option 3) KHDY

Option 4) URNI

Here, 'QNJF' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

⇒First number : (First Number)³

Let's check,

8 ∶ 512

→ 8³ = 512

11 ∶ 1331

→ 11³ = 1331

Similarly,

13 ∶?

→ 13³ = 2197

Hence, the correct answer is " 2197 ".

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The Symbol 'Square' has shifted one place in next images, and getting started again after reaching the last corner.

Step II: The Symbol 'Triangle' are getting rotated in 90 degree in clockwise direction, and shifted one place in next images.

Step III: The Symbol 'Diamond' has shifted one place in next images, and getting started again after reaching the last corner.

So, the complete series will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given equation: 16 + 6 ÷ 18 - 5 × 1 = 14.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) 5 and 16

Given: 16 + 6 ÷ 18 - 5 × 1 = 14

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 5 + 6 ÷ 18 - 16 × 1 = 14

⇒ 5 + 0.33 - 16 × 1 = 14

⇒ 5 + 0.33 - 16 = 14

⇒ 5.33 - 16 = 14

⇒ - 10.67 ≠ 14

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) 14 and 18

Given: 16 + 6 ÷ 18 - 5 × 1 = 14

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 16 + 6 ÷ 14 - 5 × 1 = 18

⇒ 16 + 0.43 - 5 × 1 = 18

⇒ 16 + 0.43 - 5 = 18

⇒ 16.43 - 5 = 18

⇒ 11.43 ≠ 18

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 5 and 14

Given: 16 + 6 ÷ 18 - 5 × 1 = 14

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 16 + 6 ÷ 18 - 14 × 1 = 5

⇒ 16 + 0.33 - 14 × 1 = 5

⇒ 16 + 0.33 - 14 = 5

⇒ 16.33 - 14 = 5

⇒ 2.33 ≠ 5

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 18 and 6

Given: 16 + 6 ÷ 18 - 5 × 1 = 14

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 16 + 18 ÷ 6 - 5 × 1 = 14

⇒ 16 + 3 - 5 × 1 = 14

⇒ 16 + 3 - 5 = 14

⇒ 19 - 5 = 14

⇒ 14 = 14

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct order according to the English dictionary is:

3. Moult
4. Mound
5. Mount
6. Mouse
7. Mouth
   

So the correct order is 3, 5, 2, 4, 1.

Hence the correct answer is option 1)

Given:

Here,

'A' is the code for '6'.

'T' is the code for '5'.

'P' is the code for '8'.

So, 'ATP' will be coded as '658'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area shows the "total number of hands are hairs".

So, the total number of 'hands are hairs' = 4 + 2 = 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "6".

Additional Information There is no such condition that you should count only hand and hair. There is nothing mention like you should negate legs part. 

So, we will also include part of legs with hands and hairs.

Family Chart:

Given: Pointing towards a photo of a lady, Bhim said, "She is the only sister of my mother's son".

So, the Lady is the Sister of Bhim.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is

Hence, the correct answer is  "Option 1".

In the given analogy, the relationship between the words "Tokyo" and "Japan" is that Tokyo is the capital city of Japan. 

Applying the same logic or rule to the missing word on the right side of (∶∶), we are looking for a word that represents a capital city and the corresponding country it belongs to.

1. Havana ∶ Cuba:  Havana is the capital city of Cuba. It follows the same logic as Tokyo and Japan, where the city is a specific example within the broader category of the country.
2. Thailand ∶ Bangkok: This pair does not follow the same logic as the given analogy. While Bangkok is the capital city of Thailand, Thailand itself is not the missing word. The analogy focuses on the relationship between a city and its corresponding country.
3. Egypt ∶ Cairo: This pair does not follow the same logic as the given analogy. While Cairo is the capital city of Egypt, Egypt itself is not the missing word. The analogy focuses on the relationship between a city and its corresponding country.
4. Italy ∶ Rome: This pair does not follow the same logic as the given analogy. While Rome is the capital city of Italy, Italy itself is not the missing word. The analogy focuses on the relationship between a city and its corresponding country.

Hence, the correct answer is 1) Havana ∶ Cuba.

The logic followed here is:

OB ∶ TG

O +  5 = T

B + 5 = G

Similarly, for PC ∶ ?

P + 5 = U

C + 5 = H

So, 'PC ∶ UH would be the related letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, '12' will be the missing number in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Doddabetta.

Key Points

• Doddabetta
• Nilgiri Hills are situated in Tamil Nadu.
• Doddabetta is the highest peak of the Nilgiri hills.
• Nilgiri hills are a part of the Western Ghats.
• The hills are located at the tri-junction of the states Karnataka, Kerela, and Tamil Nadu.
• These mountains are named after the Neelakurunji flowers (purplish-blue flowers) found in the Shola forests of Nilgiri hills.
• Nilgiri Hills are known as the Blue Mountains.

Additional Information

• Mahendragiri 
• Mahendragiri is a mountain in Odisha, India, located in the Rayagada subdivision of the Gajapati district.
• It is one of the highest peak in the eastern ghats.
• Now The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is Jindhagada Peak.
• It is located at an elevation of 1,501 metres in the Eastern Ghats. After Deomali in the Koraput district, this is Odisha's second highest mountain peak.
• Anamudi
• Anamudi is the highest peak of the Anaimalai hills.
• Anaimalai hills are situated in the north of Anamudi.
• Anamudi is located in Kerala.
• Anamudi is also known as the Everest of South India.
• The elevation of Anamudi hill is 2,695 meters.
• The name Anamudi means "elephant's head".
• General Douglas Hamilton made the first recorded ascent of Anamudi.
• Anamudi is the meeting point of Anamalai, Palanimalai, and ealaimalai.
• Nanda Devi Peak
• Nanda Devi is the second-highest mountain in India after Kangchenjunga and the highest located entirely within the country.
• It is the 23rd-highest peak in the world.
• It was considered the highest mountain in the world before computations in 1808 proved Dhaulagiri to be higher.

The correct answer is Penumbral.

Key Points

• An eclipse happens when the moon while orbiting the Earth, comes in between the sun and the Earth, due to which the moon blocks the sun’s light from reaching the Earth, causing an eclipse of the sun or a solar eclipse.
• There are three types of eclipses.
• A total solar eclipse happens when the sun, moon and Earth are in a direct line.
• The dark silhouette of the Moon completely covers the intensely bright light of the Sun. Only the much fainter solar corona is visible during a total eclipse which is known as a Totality.
• A partial solar eclipse happens when the shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun.
• Annular solar eclipse, which happens when the moon is farthest from the Earth, which is why it seems smaller.
• In this type of eclipse, the moon does not block the sun completely, but looks like a “dark disk on top of a larger sun-coloured disk” forming a “ring of fire”.

The correct answer is Shri Bismillah khan was a famous player of musical instrument.

Key Points

• Ustad Bismillah Khan used to play Shehnai.
• Ustad Bismillah Khan (1916 – 2006) (Real name is Qamaruddin Khan), was an Indian musician credited with popularizing the Shehnai.
• Shehnai is a musical instrument that is similar to the oboe (common in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.)
• He was felicitated with several awards including:
• Padma Shri in 1961
• Padma Bhushan in 1968
• Padma Vibhushan in 1980
• Bharat Ratna in 2001
• He also played the Shehnai at the 1st Republic Day celebration in 1950.
• On his 102nd birth anniversary, he was honoured by Google with a Google doodle.

The correct answer is Dinkar Gupta.

Key Points

• Dinkar Gupta, a 1987-batch IPS officer and former chief of Punjab Police, has been appointed Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA).
• The Appointments Committee has approved the appointment of Gupta as the NIA chief till March 31, 2024, the date of his retirement.

Additional Information

• The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a federal agency of the Government of India that was established in 2009.
• It is responsible for the investigation and prosecution of offenses that fall under specific laws, primarily related to terrorism, insurgency, and matters affecting the sovereignty, integrity, and security of India.
• The primary mandate of the NIA includes:
• Investigation and prosecution of offenses related to terrorism, terrorist financing, and activities aimed at disrupting the security and sovereignty of India.
• Coordination and sharing of intelligence with state police forces and other agencies involved in counterterrorism efforts.
• Assisting and providing support to states in conducting investigations related to terrorism and certain specified crimes across state borders.
• Conducting special courts for the trial of offenses under its jurisdiction.

The correct answer is Kenya.

Key Points

• South Africa, along with Namibia and Zimbabwe host the ICC Men's Cricket World Cup in October/November 2027.
• This will be the second time Zimbabwe will host the International Cricket Council (ICC) Cricket World Cup after successfully hosting the 2003 edition of the global tournament with South Africa, and Kenya.
• In October/November 2031, the Men’s Cricket World Cup will be played in India and Bangladesh.​

Additional Information

• About ICC Men's ODI Cricket World Cup:
• The Cricket World Cup (officially known as ICC Men's Cricket World Cup) is the international championship of One Day International (ODI) cricket.
• The event is organised by the sport's governing body, the International Cricket Council (ICC), every four years, with preliminary qualification rounds leading up to a finals tournament.
• The first World Cup was organised in England in June 1975, with the first ODI cricket match having been played only four years earlier.
• Facts about List of  ICC Men's ODI Cricket World Cup:
• First Edition: 1975.
• First Winner: West Indies.
• Current champion: England (1st title), 2019 World Cup edition, held in England and Wales.
• Most successful Team:  Australia (5 titles).
• India & West Indies are the only two countries which have won the world cup 2 times each.
• India won the World Cup in 1983 and 2011, while West Indies won in 1975 and 1979.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• Babur, the first Mughal emperor, succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 when he was 12 years old.
• Babur, whose full name was Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur, was the founder of the Mughal Empire in the Indian subcontinent.
• He was born on February 14, 1483, in Andijan, in present-day Uzbekistan.
• Babur belonged to the Timurid dynasty, which traced its ancestry back to the famous conqueror Timur (Tamerlane).At the age of 12, Babur succeeded to the throne of Ferghana, a small kingdom in Central Asia.
• However, he faced numerous challenges and was forced to leave Ferghana due to political instability.
• Over the years, he struggled to regain his kingdom and embarked on a series of military campaigns in Central Asia. In 1526, Babur set his sights on India and launched an invasion of the Delhi Sultanate.
• He faced Ibrahim Lodi, the Sultan of Delhi, in the First Battle of Panipat.
• Despite being outnumbered, Babur's forces achieved a decisive victory, allowing him to establish his rule over northern India.
• Babur's reign marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire, which would become one of the most powerful and culturally significant empires in Indian history.
• He implemented various administrative and military reforms, including the introduction of effective artillery and cavalry tactics.
• Babur also had a keen interest in literature, poetry, and gardening.
• Babur passed away on December 26, 1530, in Agra, India. He was succeeded by his eldest son, Humayun, who continued to expand and consolidate the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• The power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the legislature in India is mentioned in Article 213 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 213 empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances when the legislative assembly or either house of the legislature (in the case of a bicameral legislature) is not in session.
• These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of the state legislature but are temporary in nature and must be approved by the legislature within a certain period.

​

Additional Information

• Constitutions typically consist of multiple articles that outline the fundamental principles, structures, and functions of a country's government. While the specific articles and their content can vary from one constitution to another, I can provide you with a general overview of common articles found in many constitutions:
• Preamble: This sets out the purpose, values, and aspirations of the constitution.
• Fundamental Rights and Freedoms: These articles outline the individual rights and freedoms that citizens are entitled to, such as freedom of speech, religion, and assembly, as well as rights related to equality, privacy, and due process.
• Structure of Government: These articles describe the structure of the government, including the separation of powers between the legislative, executive, and judicial branches. They may also define the roles and responsibilities of each branch and the system of checks and balances.
• Head of State and Government: These articles outline the powers, duties, and limitations of the head of state and government, which may include a president, monarch, or prime minister.
• Legislature: These articles establish the composition, powers, and functions of the legislative body, such as the parliament or congress. They may detail the process of lawmaking, representation, and electoral systems.
• Executive: These articles define the powers, responsibilities, and selection process of the executive branch, which may include the president, prime minister, or a council of ministers. They often outline the executive's authority to implement laws and administer the government.
• Judiciary: These articles establish the structure and jurisdiction of the judicial system, including the courts and their powers. They may outline the appointment and tenure of judges, as well as the principles of judicial independence and the right to a fair trial.
• Constitutional Amendments: These articles specify the procedures and requirements for amending the constitution itself, ensuring that any changes are made through a formal and transparent process.
• Territorial Organization: These articles define the territorial boundaries, administrative divisions, and relations between the central government and local or regional authorities.
• Transitional Provisions: In some constitutions, there may be specific articles that address the transition from a previous constitutional order, such as after a regime change or a significant political event.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• The Dhuandhar Falls is formed by the Narmada River.
• The Narmada River is one of the major rivers in central India, and it flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
• The Dhuadhar Falls is located near Jabalpur in the state of Madhya Pradesh and is a popular tourist attraction known for its powerful cascades and misty appearance, hence the name "Dhuandhar," which means "smoke cascade" in Hindi.

Additional Information

• The Tapi River, also known as the Tapti River, is one of the major rivers in India.
• It is located in the western part of the country and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat. Here are some key details about the Tapi River:
• Origin: The Tapi River originates in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh, near Multai town, in the Satpura Range of hills.
• Course: The river flows westward through Madhya Pradesh and enters Maharashtra near Bhusawal. It then continues its westward journey through Maharashtra, passing through cities like Jalgaon, Burhanpur, and Surat. Finally, it enters the Gulf of Khambhat in the Arabian Sea in Gujarat.
• Godavari -
• Length and Course: The Godavari River is one of the longest rivers in India, stretching approximately 1,465 kilometers (910 miles).
• Sacred and Cultural Significance: The Godavari holds immense religious importance, especially among Hindus. It is often referred to as the "Dakshina Ganga" or the Ganges of the South.
• River Basin and Irrigation: The Godavari River has an extensive river basin covering around 312,812 square kilometers (120,777 square miles). This vast basin provides water for irrigation, supporting agriculture and livelihoods for millions of people in the surrounding regions.
• Biodiversity and Ecosystem: The Godavari River and its basin support rich biodiversity and a diverse ecosystem. The river sustains a variety of flora and fauna, including several endangered species.
• Historical and Cultural Heritage: The banks of the Godavari River are adorned with numerous historical and cultural sites. Ancient cities like Nashik, Rajahmundry, and Bhadrachalam are located along its course, showcasing magnificent temples, forts, and architectural marvels.
• Mahanadi -
• Mahanadi River: The Mahanadi is one of the major rivers in India, flowing through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha. It originates in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh and empties into the Bay of Bengal.
• Length and Drainage: The Mahanadi River stretches for approximately 858 kilometers, making it the sixth-longest river in India. It has a vast drainage basin covering an area of around 141,600 square kilometers.
• Importance for Agriculture: The Mahanadi River plays a crucial role in irrigation and agriculture in the region. Several dams and reservoirs have been constructed along its course to store water for irrigation purposes, ensuring the availability of water for crops and promoting agricultural development.
• Mahanadi Delta: The river forms a large delta known as the Mahanadi Delta, which is located in the coastal plains of Odisha. The deltaic region is rich in fertile alluvial soil, making it suitable for agriculture and supporting a diverse ecosystem.
• Biodiversity and Wildlife: The Mahanadi River and its surrounding areas are home to a wide variety of flora and fauna. The river supports rich biodiversity, including several species of fish, reptiles, and mammals. It also serves as a habitat for migratory birds, making it a significant area for birdwatching and conservation efforts.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• Leo Tolstoy is best known for his novels, particularly "War and Peace" and "Anna Karenina."
• These two works are considered literary masterpieces and are among the most celebrated novels in world literature.
• "War and Peace": Published in 1869, "War and Peace" is Tolstoy's epic novel that portrays Russian society during the Napoleonic era.
• It explores the lives of several interconnected characters from different social classes and examines themes such as love, war, power, and the individual's role in historical events.
• The novel is renowned for its rich character development, detailed historical backdrop, and philosophical reflections.
• "Anna Karenina": Published in 1877, "Anna Karenina" is another of Tolstoy's major works.
• It tells the story of Anna Karenina, a married woman who embarks on an affair with Count Vronsky, challenging the societal norms of 19th-century Russia.
• The novel delves into themes of love, morality, family, and the consequences of societal expectations.
• "Anna Karenina" is praised for its psychological insight, complex characters, and exploration of human relationships.
• Tolstoy's writing style is characterized by his attention to detail, vivid descriptions, and his ability to portray the complexities of human nature.
• His works often tackle profound philosophical questions and offer deep insights into the human condition. Tolstoy's contributions to literature have had a lasting impact and continue to be studied and appreciated by readers around the world.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• Sedimentary rocks are formed by the accumulation and consolidation of sediment over time.
• They often contain fossils of plants, animals, and other microorganisms that lived in the past.
• Fossils are commonly found in sedimentary rocks because these rocks preserve the remains or traces of ancient life forms.
• Extrusive igneous rocks form from lava cooling on the Earth's surface, and while they can sometimes contain fossils preserved from nearby sedimentary rocks, it is less common.
• Metamorphic rocks are formed through the alteration of existing rocks under high heat and pressure, and they typically do not contain fossils. Intrusive igneous rocks form from magma cooling beneath the Earth's surface and generally do not contain fossils either.

Additional Information

• Extrusive igneous rocks are formed from lava that cools and solidifies on the Earth's surface.
• This lava is typically erupted from volcanoes or fissures and then rapidly cools as it comes into contact with the cooler air or water.
• Examples of extrusive igneous rocks include basalt, andesite, and rhyolite.
• Unlike sedimentary rocks, extrusive igneous rocks are not known for preserving fossils of plants, animals, or microorganisms.
• Fossils are primarily found in sedimentary rocks because the processes of sedimentation and burial help to protect and preserve the remains or traces of ancient life forms.
• However, it's worth noting that in some cases, extrusive igneous rocks can preserve fossils that were captured or trapped within them during an eruption if they were near or in contact with sedimentary rocks containing fossils.
• This is relatively rare, and the vast majority of fossils are found in sedimentary rocks.
• Metamorphic rocks are formed through the process of metamorphism, which involves the transformation of pre-existing rocks under high temperature and pressure conditions.
• Metamorphism occurs deep within the Earth's crust and can be caused by tectonic forces, intense heat from magma intrusion, or burial under thick layers of sediment.
• Metamorphic rocks undergo changes in mineral composition, texture, and structure, but they do not typically contain fossils.
• The intense heat and pressure associated with metamorphism often destroy any organic remains or fossils that may have been present in the original rock.
• The recrystallization and reordering of minerals during metamorphism erase the original structures, including any fossil evidence.
• ​Intrusive igneous rocks, also known as plutonic rocks, are formed from the cooling and solidification of magma deep beneath the Earth's surface.
• Unlike extrusive igneous rocks, which form from lava that erupts onto the surface, intrusive rocks cool and solidify slowly within the crust.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• The common type of Bryophyta among the options provided is Marchantia.
• Marchantia is a genus of liverworts, which are a group of bryophytes.
• Bryophyta is a division of non-vascular plants that includes mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.
• Cladophora is a genus of green algae, Marsilea is a genus of ferns, and Monocot is a class of flowering plants that includes grasses, orchids, and lilies, among others.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• "Unfinished" is a memoir written by Indian actress Priyanka Chopra and published in 2021.
• The book is a compilation of personal essays, stories, and observations, offering readers a glimpse into significant moments in Chopra's life and her extensive twenty-year-long career.
• Throughout the memoir, she shares her experiences as an actress-producer and her role as a UNICEF Goodwill Ambassador.
• Additionally, Chopra delves into her marriage to American singer and actor Nick Jonas, providing insights into their relationship.
• "Unfinished" presents a candid and introspective narrative, offering readers an opportunity to gain a deeper understanding of Priyanka Chopra's life journey.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Honeywell 400 is considered a second generation system.
• The Honeywell 400 was a series of mainframe computers introduced by Honeywell in the 1960s, which falls within the second generation of computer systems.
• The other options listed are not second generation systems:
• IBM notebooks: Notebooks, as portable computers, did not exist during the second generation of computers.
• Sun workstations: Sun workstations were introduced in the 1980s, which is considered part of the third generation of computer systems.
• Apple II: The Apple II was released in 1977.

Therefore, the Honeywell 400 is the only option listed that is considered a second generation system.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• In the year 2014, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Kailash Satyarthi, an Indian citizen and children's rights activist.
• He shared the prize with Malala Yousafzai, a Pakistani human rights activist, for their struggle against the suppression of children and young people and for the right of all children to education.
• Kailash Satyarthi has been actively involved in fighting against child labor and advocating for children's rights for several decades.

Additional Information

• The Nobel Peace Prize is one of the prestigious awards established by the will of Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor, engineer, and philanthropist. It is awarded annually to individuals, organizations, or movements that have made significant contributions to promoting peace and resolving conflicts.
• Here are some key points about the Nobel Peace Prize:
• Categories: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in various categories, including diplomacy, disarmament, human rights, peace negotiations, and humanitarian work.
• Selection Process: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded by different committees and organizations depending on the category. The Nobel Committee of the Norwegian Nobel Institute is responsible for selecting the Nobel Peace Prize laureate.
• Criteria: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded to individuals or organizations that have made exceptional efforts to promote peace and alleviate conflicts. The prize aims to recognize achievements in various areas, such as negotiations, diplomacy, humanitarian work, disarmament, and human rights advocacy.
• Nobel Peace Prize Ceremony: The Nobel Peace Prize is traditionally presented on December 10th each year in Oslo, Norway, on the anniversary of Alfred Nobel's death. The ceremony includes the laureate's acceptance speech and the awarding of the Nobel diploma and medal.
• Significance: The Nobel Peace Prize holds great significance worldwide. It highlights the work of the laureates and raises awareness about peace-related issues, inspiring others to contribute to the pursuit of peace and conflict resolution.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Friction is a contact force, not a non-contact force.
• It is the force that opposes the motion or potential motion between two surfaces in contact with each other.
• Examples of contact forces include friction between objects, normal force, tension in a rope, and applied force.

Additional Information

• Gravitational force is a non-contact force.
• It is the force of attraction between two objects with mass.
• It acts at a distance without the need for physical contact between the objects.
• The force of gravity is responsible for the motion of celestial bodies, such as the planets orbiting the sun, and the gravitational attraction between objects on Earth.
• It follows Newton's law of universal gravitation, which states that the force of gravity is proportional to the product of the masses of the objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• Electrostatic force is also a non-contact force.
• It is the force of attraction or repulsion between electrically charged particles.
• Like gravitational force, electrostatic force acts at a distance without the need for physical contact between the charged objects.
• It is responsible for various phenomena, such as the interaction between charged particles, the attraction of hair to a charged comb, and the repulsion between like charges.
• Electrostatic force follows Coulomb's law, which states that the force between two charged objects is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• Magnetic force is another example of a non-contact force.
• It is the force of attraction or repulsion between magnetic objects or between a magnetic object and a moving charged particle.
• Magnetic force acts at a distance without the need for physical contact between the objects involved.
• This force is associated with magnetic fields and is responsible for various phenomena, such as the interaction between magnets, the behavior of compass needles, and the deflection of charged particles in magnetic fields.
• The strength and direction of the magnetic force depend on the magnetic properties and relative orientations of the objects or particles involved.

The correct answer is Nitin Gupta.

Key Points 

• IRS officer Nitin Gupta has been appointed as the new Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) chairman.
• Mr. Gupta is an Indian Revenue Service (IRS) officer of the 1986 batch of the Income Tax cadre and is currently serving as the Member (investigation) in CBDT.
• The post of the CBDT chief was being held in an additional capacity by Board member and 1986-batch IRS officer Sangeeta Singh.​

Additional Information

• ​Important Appointments:
• Retired IAS officer and former Drinking Water and Sanitation Secretary Parameswaran Iyer has been appointed as the new Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog.
• The New Development Bank (NDB) of the BRICS countries has appointed Dr. D J Pandian as the Director-General of its India Regional Office in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City).
• Senior Diplomat Ruchira Kamboj has been appointed as the next Ambassador and Permanent Representative of India to the United Nations.
• Somali president Hassan Sheikh Mohamud on 15 June 2022 appointed Hamza Abdi Barre as the country's Prime Minister.
• Justice Bhimanagouda Sanganagouda Patil has been appointed as the new Lokayukta of Karnataka.
• President Ram Nath Kovind has given Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty the additional charge of the Lokpal chairperson.​
• Dinkar Gupta, a 1987-batch IPS officer and former chief of the Punjab Police, has been appointed Director-General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA).

The correct answer is Nirbhaya Fund.

Key Points

• One-stop Centre is a centrally sponsored scheme is for women empowerment under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
• It is a scheme for addressing the issue of violence against women.
• It aims to provide assistance and support to the women affected by violence in public and private spheres.
• It is funded through Nirbhaya Fund.

Additional Information

The one-Stop Centre scheme provides the following assistance to women-

• Medical assistance
• Legal assistance
• Shelter
• Counselling
• Rescue services
• Psycho- socio support

The correct answer is Mirabai Chanu.

Key Points

• Saikhom Mirabai Chanu is a weightlifter who hails from Manipur, India.
• She competed in the women’s 49-kilogram division at the Olympic Games in Tokyo in 2020 and earned the silver medal.
• Because of her hard work and dedication to the sport, the government of India honored her with the Padma Shri award in 2018.
• In 2018, the Government of India honored her with Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna for her achievements in the athletic world.
• Mirabai Chanu won the first gold for India with a combined lift of 201kg in the Women's 49kg weightlifting final at the  Commonwealth Games 2022 in Birmingham on July 30, 2022.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Fifteen days.

Key Points

• As per provisions of the Scheme, Electoral Bonds may be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India.
• A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
• Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and which secured not less than one percent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
• State Bank of India (SBI), in the XXVI Phase of sale, has been authorized to issue and encash Electoral Bonds through its 29 Authorized Branches (as per list enclosed below).
• The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue and no payment shall be made to any payee Political Party if the Electoral Bond is deposited after the expiry of the validity period.

Additional Information

• An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of the State Bank of India.
• The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice.
• The bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 100,000 and Rs 1 crore (the range of a bond is between Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore).
• The Electoral Bonds shall be encashed by an eligible Political Party only through a Bank account with the Authorized Bank.

The correct answer is **M.**​

Key Point

Expenditure method of income measurement:

• The expenditure method is a system for calculating gross domestic product (GDP) that combines C + I + G + X - M where consumption (C), investment(I), government spending(G), and net exports(X-M) where M is import and X is export.
• It is the most common way to estimate GDP. It says everything that the private sector, including consumers and private firms, and government spending within the borders of a particular country, must add up to the total value of all finished goods and services produced over a certain period of time. This method produces nominal GDP, which must then be adjusted for inflation to result in the real GDP.

Additional Information 

1. Product Method:

• The product or value-added method is a way of computing the national income of a country.
• This system is also known as the output or inventory method. This method calculates national income by adding value to a product at every stage of its production.

2. Income Method:

• In the income method, the national income is measured by adding up the pretax income generated by the individuals and companies in the economy.
• It consists of income from wages, rent of buildings and land, interest on capital, profits, etc.

The correct answer is Tabla.​

Key Points

• Tabla musician, composer, percussionist, music producer and actor Ustad Zakir Hussain hails from India.
• He is Ustad Alla Rakha's oldest son, a tabla player.
• In 1988, he received the Padma Shri, and in 2002, he received the Padma Bhushan.
• In 1990, he also received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• He received the National Heritage Fellowship from the National Endowment for the Arts of the United States in 1999.
• The line "Zakir Hussain Tabela Ivaltana" in the Tamil song "Telephone Manipol" in the Indian film directed by S. Shankar is a tribute to him.

Additional Information

• Hindustani classical harmonium player R. K. Bijapure was from India.
• Indian classical musician and santoor player Pandit Shivkumar Sharma played both instruments.
• Sharma received the Padma Shri in 1991, the Padma Bhushan in 2001, and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1986.
• Indian classical flautist and music director Hariprasad Chaurasia plays the flute.
• In 1984, he was awarded the Sangeet Natak Academy, and in 1992, the Padma Bhushan.

The correct answer is Sher Shah Suri.

Key Points

• Akbar followed the administration model of Sher Shah Suri.

Additional Information

• Sher Shah Suri was the founder of the Suri Empire in India.
• He introduced the currency of the Rupee.
• Sher Shah of Sur took control of the Mughal Empire in 1540.
• His reorganization of the empire laid the foundations for the later Mughal emperors, notably Akbar, son of Humayun.
• Sher Shah Suri's administration:
• He organized an excellent administrative system.
• The king was aided by four important ministers.
• Diwan –i- Wizarat or Wazir – in charge of Revenue and Finance
• Diwan-i-Ariz – in charge of Army
• Diwan-i-Rasalat – Foreign Minister
• Diwan-i-Insha – Minister for Communications

Important Points

• Akbar (1556- 1605)
• He reigned from 1556 to 1605.
• He defeated Hemu at the second battle of Panipat in 1556.
• He constructed Fatehpur Sikri and made it his capital in 1569.
• He started a new religion Din-i Ilahi in 1582.
• Abul Fazl wrote his biography titled Akbarnama.
• Nine of his courtiers were known as Navratnas.
• They were Todar Mal, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Birbal, Tansen, Abdur Rahim Khana-i-Khana, Mullah-do-Pyaza, Raja Man Singh, and Fakir Aziao-Din.
• He married a Hindu princess Harka Bai who is commonly known as Jodha Bai.
• Akbar captured the historic fortress of Chitor in 1568.
• He abolished the pilgrimage tax by Hindus in 1563.
• He abolished the Jizyah tax in 1564.
• He also introduced the Mansabdari System or the rank-holder system to organize the nobility and army.

The correct answer is Sharath Kamal.

Key Points

• Sharath Kamal won the most medals (three gold medals and a silver medal) for India at the Commonwealth Games 2022.
• Achanta Sharath Kamal was born on July 12, 1982, in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, a city known for its table tennis prowess and multiple national champions.
• With four Commonwealth Games golds, two Asian Games medals, three Olympic Games appearances, and two ITTF Pro Tour titles under his belt, Sharath Kamal is arguably the best Indian table tennis player in history.

Additional Information Achievements​

• He won his first national title in 2003 and his first international medal at the 2004 Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships.
• He has conferred the Arjuna Award in 2004, won five national titles in a row.
• A historic singles gold medal at the 2006 Commonwealth Games in Melbourne.
• In 2010, Sharath Kamal became the first Indian table tennis player to win an ITTF Pro Tour title.
• In 2020, at the age of 37, Sharath Kamal finally won his second international title at the Oman Open, a decade after his first.

The correct answer is Umling La.

Key Points

• Umling La:
• In Ladakh, India, close to Demchok, on the ridgeline between Koyul Lungpa and the Indus River, lies a mountain pass known as Umling La.
• Umling Pass was awarded the Guinness World Record in 2021 for being the world's highest motorable road.​

Additional Information

The correct answer is .dcp.

Key Points

The file format ".dcp" is not a valid file format in MS Word 365**. The dotx, doc, docx  are valid file formats:**

• .dotx: It is a template file format that allows users to create reusable document templates with preset formatting and styles.
• .doc: However, it is the file format used in older versions of MS Word (prior to MS Word 2007) and is known as the "Word 97-2003 Document" format. Although MS Word 365 primarily uses the .docx format, it can still open and work with .doc files.
• .docx: This is the default file format in MS Word 365 for saving documents. It is an XML-based file format introduced with MS Word 2007 and has since become the standard format for MS Word documents. The .docx format supports advanced features, improved compatibility, and better file size optimization compared to the older .doc format.

Additional Information

Shortcut Trick

Apply the net percentage change formula: Net % = a + b + (ab / 100).

Here, a = +20 (increase) and b = −5 (decrease).

Net Change = 20 − 5 + [20 × (−5) / 100]

Net Change = 15 − (100 / 100) = 15 − 1 = 14%.

Since the result is positive, it is a 14% increase in expenditure.

∴ The correct answer is 14 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price increase = 20%

Consumption decrease = 5%

Formula Used:

Total Expenditure = Price × Consumption

Calculations:

⇒ Let original Price = 100 and original Consumption = 100

⇒ Original Expenditure = 100 × 100 = 10000

⇒ New Price = 100 + 20% of 100 = 120

⇒ New Consumption = 100 − 5% of 100 = 95

⇒ New Expenditure = 120 × 95 = 11400

⇒ Change in Expenditure = 11400 − 10000 = 1400

⇒ Percentage Change = (1400 / 10000) × 100

⇒ Percentage Change = 14%

∴ The correct answer is 14 percent.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Formula

When a value is changed by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is [a + b + (ab/100)]%.

Price-Consumption-Expenditure Relation

If expenditure is kept constant, price and consumption are inversely proportional (Price ∝ 1 / Consumption).

Ratio Method

Price ratio = 100:120 = 5:6. Consumption ratio = 100:95 = 20:19. Expenditure ratio = (5×20):(6×19) = 100:114.

Given

a + b = 3

ab = 2

Concept:

This is the formula to simplify cubic expressions: a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² - ab + b²)

Solution:

2a³ + 2b³ = 2(a³ + b³)

2(a + b)(a² - ab + b²) (Substituting from given)

2(3)(a² - 2 + b²) (as a + b = 3 and ab = 2)

2(3)(a² + b² - 2) (as a² + b² = (a + b)² - 2ab = 9 - 4 = 5)

2(3)(5 - 2) = 2(3)(3) = 18

fore, the value of 2a³ + 2b³ is 18.

Given

∠A = 110°

Concept:

In a cyclic quadrilateral, opposite angles are supplementary (i.e., they add up to 180°).

Solution:

∠C = 180° - ∠A

∠C = 180° - 110° = 70°

Therefore, the value of ∠C is 70°.

Given

P + 1/P = 5

Concept:

Cubic equation formula from quadratic equation: If P + 1/P = n, then P³ + 1/P³ = n³ - 3n

Solution:

P³ + 1/P³ = 5³ - 3×5

P³ + 1/P³ = 125 - 15 = 110

The value of P³ + 1/P³ is 110.

Concept:

Difference = Total Income - Total Expenditure

Solution:

Total Income = 800 + 600 + 500 + 900 + 400 = 3200

Total Expenditure = 400 + 300 + 400 + 300 + 250 = 1650

Difference = Total Income - Total Expenditure = 3200 - 1650 = 1550

Therefore, the difference between total income and total expenditure of the company for these five years is 1550.

Calculation:

Total discount on all the articles = 600 + 300 + 600 + 500 + 400 + 300 + 300 = 3000

Total marked price of all the articles = 1200 + 800 + 1000 + 700 + 500 + 600 + 1100 = 5900

Percentage of total discount to total marked price = 3000/5900 × 100 = 50.84%

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

∠YXZ = 90 degree

P is a point on side YZ such that XP is perpendicular to YZ.

XP = YP = 10 cm

Concept Used:

Similarity Rule is used.

Calculation:

In ΔXYZ,

∠YXZ = 90 degree

If ∠Y = θ , then

⇒ ∠Z = 90 - θ 

In ΔXPY,

⇒ ∠YPX = 90°      [Given]

⇒ ∠Y = ∠YXP = θ      [XP = PY]

In ΔXPZ,

⇒ ∠XPZ = 90°      [Given]

⇒ ∠PXZ = 90 - θ    

⇒ ∠Z = 90 - θ 

Since two angles are equal, ΔXPZ is isosceles triangle.

⇒ XP = PZ = 10 cm

∴ Value of PZ = 10 cm

Calculation:

$\frac{\frac{5}{3} \text { of } \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{24}{5}-\frac{1}{5} \text { of } \frac{25}{8} \times \frac{24}{5}}{\frac{5}{12} \text { of } \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{4}{3}+\frac{3}{4} \text { of } \frac{12}{5} \times \frac{5}{6}}$

$\frac{\frac{5}{3} \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{24}{5}-\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{25}{8} \times \frac{24}{5}}{\frac{5}{12}\times \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{4}{3}+\frac{3}{4}\times \frac{12}{5} \times \frac{5}{6}}$

$\frac{ 2-3}{\frac{5}{12}+\frac{3}{2}}$

$\frac{-1}{\frac{23}{12}}$

$\frac{-12}{23}$

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

According to the question:

20% : 18%

10 : 9

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

If K + 1/K = a, then K² + 1/K² = a² − 2 and K³ + 1/K³ = a³ − 3a.

Given K + 1/K = −3, so a = −3.

K² + 1/K² = (−3)² − 2 = 7.

K³ + 1/K³ = (−3)³ − 3(−3) = −27 + 9 = −18.

Required Expression = 2(K³ + 1/K³) + (K² + 1/K²) = 2(−18) + 7 = −29.

∴ The correct answer is −29.

Alternate Method

Given: K + 1/K = −3

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab and (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b)

⇒ Square the given equation: (K + 1/K)² = (−3)²

⇒ K² + 1/K² + 2 = 9

⇒ K² + 1/K² = 7

⇒ Cube the given equation: (K + 1/K)³ = (−3)³

⇒ K³ + 1/K³ + 3(K)(1/K)(K + 1/K) = −27

⇒ K³ + 1/K³ + 3(−3) = −27

⇒ K³ + 1/K³ = −18

⇒ [2((K⁶ + 1) / K³)] + ((K⁴ + 1) / K²) = 2(K³ + 1/K³) + (K² + 1/K²)

⇒ Value = 2(−18) + 7

⇒ Value = −36 + 7 = −29

∴ The correct answer is −29.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity for Power 2

For any variable x, x² + 1/x² = (x + 1/x)² − 2.

Algebraic Identity for Power 3

For any variable x, x³ + 1/x³ = (x + 1/x)³ − 3(x + 1/x).

Algebraic Identity for Power 4

x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = (x² + 1/x²)² − 2. This can be derived by squaring the power 2 identity.

Given

sin θ = 3/11

Concept:

Use the trigonometric identities sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 and cot θ = cos θ / sin $\frac{4 \sqrt{7}}{3}$

Solution:

⇒ First, find the value of cos θ: cos²θ = 1 - sin²θ = 1 - (3/11)² = 1 - 9/121 = 112/121

n, cos θ = √(112/121) = 4 √7 / 11

cot θ = cos θ / sin θ = (4 √7 / 11) / (3 / 11) = 4 √7 / 3

Hence, the value of cot θ is $\frac{4 \sqrt{7}}{3}$

Shortcut Trick

The reasoning involves determining the Cost Price using the given Selling Price and Profit Percentage, followed by calculating the Loss Percentage for the new Selling Price.

Initial SP = 110% of CP = 1056.

CP = 1056 ÷ 1.1 = 960.

New SP = 800.

Loss = 960 − 800 = 160.

Loss% = (160 ÷ 960) × 100 = 16.67%.

∴ The correct answer is 16.67 percent.

Alternate Method

Given → SP₁ = 1056, Profit₁ = 10%, SP₂ = 800. Formulas: CP = SP × 100 ÷ (100 + P%) | Loss% = (CP − SP) ÷ CP × 100.

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 1056 × 100 ÷ 110 = 960. ⇒ Loss = 960 − 800 = 160. ⇒ Loss Percentage = (160 ÷ 960) × 100. ⇒ Loss Percentage = 100 ÷ 6 = 16.666...% ≈ 16.67%.

∴ The correct answer is 16.67 percent.

Additional Information

Cost Price and Selling Price

The Cost Price is the base for calculating Profit or Loss unless specified otherwise. CP = SP − Profit or CP = SP + Loss.

Loss Percentage

Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. It indicates the amount of value lost relative to the original investment.

Shortcut Trick

Identify complementary angles: 42° + 48° = 90° and 32° + 58° = 90°.

Using the property: If A + B = 90°, then csc A / sec B = 1 and cos A / sin B = 1.

Expression = 3(1) − 5(1)

Expression = 3 − 5 = −2.

∴ The correct answer is -2.

Alternate Method

Given: (3 csc 42° / sec 48°) − (5 cos 32° / sin 58°)

Formula Used: csc θ = sec(90° − θ) and cos θ = sin(90° − θ)

⇒ csc 42° = sec(90° − 42°) = sec 48°

⇒ cos 32° = sin(90° − 32°) = sin 58°

⇒ Expression = [3 × sec 48° / sec 48°] − [5 × sin 58° / sin 58°]

⇒ Expression = 3(1) − 5(1)

⇒ Expression = 3 − 5 = −2

∴ The correct answer is -2.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles

Two angles are complementary if their sum is 90°. Basic identities include sin(90° − θ) = cos θ and tan(90° − θ) = cot θ.

Secant and Cosecant Relationship

The secant of an angle is equal to the cosecant of its complement: sec θ = csc(90° − θ).

Quotient Property for Complementary Angles

If A + B = 90°, then sin A / cos B = 1, tan A / cot B = 1, and sec A / csc B = 1.

Given

Principal (P) = Rs. 3000

Compound Interest (CI) = Rs. 1320

Time (t) = 2 years

Concept:

The compound interest formula is CI = P(1 + r/100)^t - P, where r is the rate of interest.

Solution:

Substitute the given values in the formula: 1320 = 3000(1 + r/100)^2 - 3000

Solve the equation for r: (1 + r/100)² = 4320/3000

r: (1 + r/100)² = 144/100

r = 20%

Hence, the annual rate of interest at which Rajeev invested his money is 20%.

Given

Percentage of runs for F = 18%, I = 24%, J = 6%; Total runs = 300

Concept:

The average of a quantity is the sum of all quantities divided by the number of quantities.

Solution:

Calculate runs for F, I, and J: F = 18% of 300 = 54, I = 24% of 300 = 72, J = 6% of 300 = 18

Calculate average: (F + I + J)/3 = (54 + 72 + 18)/3 = 48

Hence, the average runs scored in F, I and J is 48

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of dimensions Length (L) : Breadth (B) : Height (H) = 3 : 1 : 2

Given Breadth (1 unit) = 6 cm ⇒ Length = 18 cm and Height = 12 cm.

Total Surface Area = 2 × (LB + BH + LH)

Area = 2 × (18 × 6 + 6 × 12 + 12 × 18) = 2 × (108 + 72 + 216) = 2 × 396 = 792 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 792 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Breadth (b) of the cuboid = 6 cm

Length (l) = 3 × Breadth = 3 × 6 = 18 cm

Height (h) = 2 × Breadth = 2 × 6 = 12 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl)

Calculations:

⇒ TSA = 2 × (18 × 6 + 6 × 12 + 12 × 18)

⇒ TSA = 2 × (108 + 72 + 216)

⇒ TSA = 2 × 396

⇒ TSA = 792 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 792 cm².

Additional Information

Volume of a Cuboid

The space occupied by the cuboid is calculated as Volume = Length × Breadth × Height.

Lateral Surface Area (LSA)

The area of the four vertical faces (excluding top and bottom) is LSA = 2 × Height × (Length + Breadth).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The longest rod that can be placed inside a cuboid is the diagonal, given by √(l² + b² + h²).

Shortcut Trick

For two equal circles passing through each other's centers, the common chord length is given by: L = √3 × r.

⇒ 24 = √3 × r

⇒ r = 24 / √3 = 8√3 cm

⇒ Diameter of the circle (d) = 2 × r = 2 × 8√3

⇒ d = 16√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16√3 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the common chord = 24 cm

Calculation:

According to the figure,

⇒ AD = DB

Let,

⇒ O1O2 = 2x

Also,

⇒ O1A = O2A = 2x  [Radius of the circles]

⇒ ∠ADO1 = 90°

Therefore,

⇒ O1D = O2D = 2x ÷ 2 = x

Since AD = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm,

Using Pythagoras theorem:

⇒ 12 = √(4x2 − x2)

⇒ 122 = 4x2 − x2

⇒ 144 = 3x2

⇒ x2 = 48

⇒ x = 4√3

Therefore,

⇒ Radius = 2x

⇒ Radius = 2 × 4√3

⇒ Radius = 8√3 cm

Now,

⇒ Diameter = 8√3 × 2

⇒ Diameter = 16√3 cm

∴ The diameter of the circle is 16√3 cm.

Additional Information

Common Chord Property

The line joining the centers of two intersecting circles is the perpendicular bisector of their common chord.

Intersecting Equal Circles

When two equal circles pass through each other's centers, they form two equilateral triangles with the intersection points and the centers, all sides being equal to the radius r.

Common Chord Length Formula

If two circles of radii r₁ and r₂ have centers at distance d, the length of the common chord is 2 × √[r₁² − ((r₁² − r₂² + d²) ÷ 2d)²].

Given

A = a cosec θ + b cot θ

B = a cot θ + b cosec θ

Concept:

A trigonometric identity can be used here: cosec² θ - cot² θ = 1

Solution:

Substitute the given values into the formula: A² - B² = (a² - b²)(cosec² θ - cot² θ) = (a² - b²) × 1 = a² - b²

Hence, the value of A² - B² is a² - b².

Given:

2160 × 3 ÷ 144 + 13 - 2

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule given below to solve this question

Calculation:

2160 × 3 ÷ 144 + 13 - 2

45 + 11

56

Hence, the value of the expression is 56.

Given:

P can complete the work in 12 days.

Q can complete the work in 15 days.

R can complete the work in 20 days.

P left the work 8 days before it was completed.

Q left the work 5 days after P had left.

R completed the remaining work alone.

Concept:

The total work done by individuals working together is equal to the sum of their individual work done in the same time.

Solution:

Total work = LCM(12, 15, 20) = 60

Efficiency of P = 60/12 = 5

Efficiency of Q = 60/15 = 4

Efficiency of R = 60/20 = 3

Let the total work done in t days.

According to question,

⇒ 5(t - 8) + 4(t - 3) + 3t = 60

⇒ 5t - 40 + 4t - 12 + 3t = 60

⇒ 12t = 112

⇒ t = 112/12 = 28/3 days

∴ 28/3 days will be required to complete the whole work.

Shortcut Trick

The distance covered by the bus in (50 − 10) = 40 minutes is equal to the distance covered by Mohit in 10 minutes.

Since the distance is constant, Speed is inversely proportional to Time.

Ratio of Time (Bus : Mohit) = 40 : 10 = 4 : 1

Ratio of Speed (Bus : Mohit) = 1 : 4

Mohit's speed = 4 units ⇒ 50 km/hr, so Bus's speed = 1 unit ⇒ 50 ÷ 4 = 12.5 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 12.5 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Bus frequency time = 50 mins

Mohit's meeting time with each bus = 10 mins

Mohit's speed = 50 km/hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = S₁ + S₂

    Next Bus Mohit Meet in 10 mins    Bus travels for 10 mins Mohit travels for 10 mins     Initial Gap = Bus Speed × 50 mins

Calculations:

Let the speed of the bus be V km/hr.

⇒ Distance between two consecutive buses = V × (50/60) km

⇒ Relative speed of Bus and Mohit = (V + 50) km/hr

⇒ Time taken to meet = 10/60 hours

We know, Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

⇒ 10/60 = [V × (50/60)] ÷ (V + 50)

⇒ 1/6 = (5V/6) ÷ (V + 50)

⇒ (V + 50) / 6 = 5V / 6

⇒ V + 50 = 5V

⇒ 4V = 50

⇒ V = 12.5

∴ The correct answer is 12.5 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction)

When two bodies are moving in opposite directions towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Relative Speed (Same Direction)

When two bodies are moving in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their individual speeds (|S₁ − S₂|).

Distance in Periodic Events

If a bus or train departs periodically after every T interval, the constant distance maintained between any two consecutive vehicles on the route is D = Speed × T.

Given

Marked price is 150% of the cost price

Discount given is 20%

Concept:

Profit percentage is calculated as (Selling price - Cost price)/Cost price × 100%

Solution:

Selling price after discount = 150% - 20% of 150% = 150% - 30% = 120%

Profit percentage = (Selling price - Cost price)/Cost price × 100% = (120% - 100%)/100% × 100% = 20%

Therefore, the profit percentage is 20%.

Alternate MethodMP/CP = (100 + profit%)/(100 - loss%)

150/100 = (100 + p)/80 ⇒ P = 120 -100 = 20%

Given

Total amount = Rs. 12,029

P's share = 5Q

R's share = P/3

Concept:

The total amount is the sum of the shares of P, Q, and R.

Solution:

Express all shares in terms of Q: P = 5Q, R = 5Q/3

Total = P + Q + R = 5Q + Q + 5Q/3 = 12,029

Solving the above equation we get Q = Rs. 1569

Therefore, R's share = 5Q/3 = 5 × 1569/3 = Rs. 2615

Therefore, the share of R is Rs. 2615.

Shortcut Trick

The angle subtended by a chord at the centre is always twice the angle subtended by it on the major arc.

Ratio of Angle at Centre : Angle on Major Arc = 2 : 1

Total Ratio Units = 2 + 1 = 3 units

Given: 3 units = 225°

1 unit = 225° ÷ 3 = 75°

∴ The correct answer is 75 degree.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of angle at the centre and angle on the major arc = 225°.

Formula Used:

Angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle.

Calculations:

Let the angle subtended by the chord at the major arc be x.

⇒ Angle subtended at the centre = 2x

⇒ x + 2x = 225°

⇒ 3x = 225°

⇒ x = 225° ÷ 3

⇒ x = 75°

∴ The correct answer is 75 degree.

Additional Information

Inscribed Angle Theorem

The angle subtended by an arc at the center is exactly twice the angle subtended by the same arc at any point on the circle's circumference (major arc).

Angles in the Same Segment

Angles subtended by the same chord or arc at different points on the same segment (major or minor) of the circle are always equal.

Cyclic Quadrilateral Property

The sum of the angle at the major arc and the angle at the minor arc subtended by the same chord is 180°, as they form opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral.

Given

Average runs in 7 matches = 49

Average runs in 9 matches = 27

Concept:

The total average is the sum of all runs divided by the total number of matches.

Solution:

Total runs in 7 matches = 7 × 49 = 343

Total runs in 9 matches = 9 × 27 = 243

Total runs in 16 matches = 343 + 243 = 586

Average runs in 16 matches = 586/16 = 36.625

Therefore, the average runs scored by the batsman in these 16 matches is 36.625.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Refreshing'.

Key Points

• In this context, "refreshing" is the most suitable choice because it describes a common and pleasant experience associated with bathing (particularly when using a bath wash).
• A "refreshing" bath would be one that invigorates and revitalizes you.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Have you ever had a refreshing bath using a bath wash?

Additional Information

• Here is a brief explanation of the other options:
• Barbaric: This word typically describes something crude, uncivilized, or cruel, making it an unlikely descriptor for a bath.
• Extinguishing: This is usually used in the context of putting out a fire or ending something abruptly, so it doesn't fit well with describing a bath.
• Killing: This generally has negative connotations, and it's hard to imagine a context where a "killing bath" would be a common or enjoyable experience.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• "High and dry" means "Abandoned" (option 1).
• Example- "After the company went bankrupt, many employees were left high and dry without any severance pay or support."
• This idiom is often used to describe someone who has been left in a difficult situation without any assistance.(अकेला और निराश).

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Abandoned'.

Additional Information

• Occasionally (कभी-कभी) doesn't fit the meaning of this idiom.
• Perplexed (उलझन में) refers to a state of confusion, which is not what the idiom suggests.
• Failed (विफल) is not the precise meaning of this idiom.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Religious importance'.

Key Points

• The original sentence contains a grammatical error in the phrase "religiously importance."
• The correct construction should use the adjective "religious" to modify the noun "importance."
• Option 2 provides the correct answer by using the adjective "religious" in its correct form and pairing it with the noun "importance."
• This choice accurately conveys that the places mentioned have historical or religious significance.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: There are a number of places of historical or religious importance.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• In the original sentence, the speaker is explaining their feeling of not belonging in a particular place ("I don't belong here").
• In indirect speech, we need to use reporting verbs like "explained" to convey the speaker's words.
• In the indirect form, we make changes to the pronouns, verb tense, and word order.
• Here's an explanation of why option 2 is the correct answer:
• The reporting verb "explained" accurately conveys the speaker's action of providing an explanation.
• The pronoun "I" remains the same to maintain the first-person perspective.
• The verb "don't belong" changes to "did not belong" to reflect the past tense and indirect speech.
• The adverb "here" changes to "there" to indicate the change in location in the reported speech.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: "I explained that I did not belong there."

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'Guilefulness'.

Key Points

• The word "caginess" refers to the quality or state of being cautious, wary, or secretive.
• It describes someone who is reluctant to reveal their thoughts, feelings, or intentions, often due to a sense of suspicion or self-protection.
• Guilefulness: This word refers to the quality of being deceitful or crafty, often with an intention to manipulate or deceive others.(चालाकी)
• Although it shares some similarity with "caginess" in terms of being cautious, it differs in the underlying motivation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Guilefulness'.

Additional Information

• Let's examine the other options and provide their meanings:
• Desiccate: This word means to remove moisture or to dry out completely. (सूखाना)
• Dopiness: This word describes the state of being sluggish, sleepy, or lacking alertness.(सुस्ती)
• Ingenuous: This word means to be innocent, artless, or lacking in cunning or deceit. (सरलतापूर्ण)

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Quip'.

Key Points

• The word "jape" refers to a joke or a jest, often characterized by a sarcastic or mocking tone.
• Example-  "He is known for his ability to jape even in tense situations, which often diffuses the tension."
• It typically involves making a humorous comment or remark at someone's expense.
• Quip: This word means a clever or witty remark, often made in a humorous or sarcastic manner. (ताना)
• Example- "She made a clever quip that caused everyone in the room to laugh."
  

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Quip'.

Additional Information

• Let's examine the other options and provide their meanings:
• Quick: This word means to be fast or speedy. It does not carry the same meaning as "jape." (Hindi meaning: तेज)
• Quarrel: This word refers to a verbal argument or disagreement between individuals. It does not convey the sense of humor or light-heartedness associated with "jape." (Hindi meaning: झगड़ा)
• Quit: This word means to stop or cease doing something. It does not relate to the meaning of "jape." (Hindi meaning: छोड़ देना)

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Cadence'.

Key Points

• For the question "Rhythmic flow of sounds or words", the answer is Cadence.
• Cadence is a modulation or inflection of the voice or a sequence of notes or chords comprising the close of a musical phrase.(लय)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Cadence'.

Additional Information

• Credence (विश्वास) means belief in or acceptance of something as true.
• Crescents (अर्धचंद्राकार) means something shaped like a crescent, particularly the waxing or waning moon.
• Copious (प्रचुर) means abundant in supply or quantity.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• In this sentence, the verb "have" in the active sentence becomes "has been" in the passive form.
• "Has been" is the present perfect passive form, indicating an action that started in the past and is still relevant at the present moment.
• The word "rebuilt" remains the same because it is the past participle form of the verb "rebuild," which is used in the active sentence.
• The subject "the villagers" in the active sentence becomes the agent of the passive sentence, indicated by the preposition "by."
• It shows that the villagers are the ones who performed the action of rebuilding the hospital.

Therefore, the correct answer: 'The hospital has been rebuilt by the villagers'.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points 

• The sentence with no spelling error is: A well done introduction grabs the reader.
• Here are the correct versions and meanings of the incorrectly spelled words from the other sentences:
• Wel (Incorrectly spelled in sentence 2): Correct Spelling: Well: In a good or satisfactory way.(अच्छी तरह से)
• Grabbs (Incorrectly spelled in sentence 3):Correct Spelling: Grabs:  To quickly take hold of something.(पकड़ना)
• Intrudoction (Incorrectly spelled in sentence 4): Correct Spelling: Introduction: The action of introducing something.(परिचय)

Therefore, the correct sentence is:  A well done introduction grabs the reader.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• The sentence should begin with Q, which sets the context by stating that in the present international scenario, something is necessary and useful.
• Next, we have P, which introduces the idea of the Government utilizing the expertise and services of Members of Parliament effectively.
• S follows, providing the specific purpose for which these services are required, which is sensitizing.
• Finally, R concludes the sentence by explaining the outcome or goal of this utilization, which is winning over the support of counterparts in other countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'QPSR' . i.e. Revised sentence: In the present international scenario, it is necessary and useful for the Government to utilize the expertise and services of Members of Parliament effectively for sensitizing and winning over the support of their counterparts in other countries.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Everything'.

Key Points

• "The whole ball of wax" means "Everything" (सब कुछ).
• It's used when referring to the entirety of something.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Everything'.

Additional InformationSagacious (बुद्धिमान) means wise or shrewd, which is not related to the idiom.

Meagre (अल्प) refers to a small or inadequate amount, which is the opposite of the meaning of the idiom.

Complete disaster (संपूर्ण आपत्ति) is also not related to the idiom.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Unlikely'.

Key Points

• The word "credible" means believable, trustworthy, or reliable.
• It refers to something or someone that can be trusted or considered worthy of confidence or belief.
• Unlikely: This word refers to something that is improbable or not likely to happen. (असंभावित)
• It is not the opposite of "credible" but rather suggests a lower probability or likelihood.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Unlikely'.

Additional Information

• Now, let's examine the other options and provide their meanings:
• Unswerving: This word means unwavering, steadfast, or not deviating from a course or belief.(अटल)
• Conclusive: This word refers to something that is decisive, final, or settles an issue beyond doubt.(निर्णायक)
• Sheltered: This word describes being protected or shielded from harm or outside influences.(सुरक्षित)

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Tokan'.

Key Points

• The incorrect word among the given options is "Tokan."
• The correct spelling of this word could be "Token:  A thing serving as a visible or tangible representation of a fact, quality, feeling, etc.(प्रतीक)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Tokan'.

Additional Information

• Here are the correct versions and meanings of all the given words:
• Majestic: Having grandeur, dignity, or beauty; highly impressive.(शानदार)
• String:  A thin piece of cord or thread.(धागा)
• Lovable: Inspiring love or affection; endearing.(प्यारा)