SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 901–920 of 7100Page 46 of 100
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 901

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What distinguishes ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission from other solar observatories?

  1. AOption (a)

    It uses radar waves to study the Sun

  2. BOption (b)

    It orbits the Sun directly

  3. COption (c)

    It will study the solar corona from Lagrange Point 1

  4. DOption (d)

    It is placed in a lunar orbit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It will study the solar corona from Lagrange Point 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It will study the solar corona from Lagrange Point 1.

Key Points

  • Aditya-L1 Mission: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the Aditya-L1 mission as India's first dedicated solar observatory. It is designed to study the Sun's atmosphere, including its corona, chromosphere, and photosphere.
  • Lagrange Point 1 (L1): The spacecraft is positioned at Lagrange Point 1, which is located approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth. This unique location provides an uninterrupted view of the Sun without being affected by Earth's shadow.
  • Study of Solar Corona: The Aditya-L1 mission focuses on studying the solar corona, the outermost layer of the Sun. The corona plays a critical role in understanding solar activities such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections, which can impact Earth's climate and satellite communications.
  • Scientific Instruments: The mission carries a suite of seven payloads designed to observe various layers of the Sun and analyze its magnetic field, solar wind, and particle behavior. These instruments aim to provide comprehensive data for solar physics research.
  • Significance of L1 Point: Lagrange Point 1 is strategically chosen for its ability to provide a stable vantage point to continuously monitor the Sun, making Aditya-L1 unique compared to other solar observatories that either orbit Earth or study the Sun from different perspectives.

Additional Information

  • Lagrange Points:
  • Lagrange Points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of two large celestial bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, balance the centripetal force felt by a smaller object.
  • There are five Lagrange points (L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Aditya-L1 is placed at L1, offering a stable location for continuous solar observations.
  • Spacecraft positioned at L1 can maintain their position with minimal fuel consumption, making it ideal for long-term missions.
  • Solar Corona:
  • The solar corona is the outermost layer of the Sun's atmosphere, extending millions of kilometers into space.
  • It is characterized by extremely high temperatures, reaching up to 1-3 million Kelvin, much hotter than the surface of the Sun.
  • Studying the corona is crucial for understanding space weather phenomena that affect satellites, power grids, and communication systems on Earth.
  • Payloads on Aditya-L1:
  • The mission includes instruments such as Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC), Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT), and Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA).
  • These payloads are designed to measure the Sun's magnetic fields, study solar winds, and capture high-resolution images of the solar atmosphere.
  • Impact of Solar Studies:
  • Understanding solar activities helps scientists predict geomagnetic storms and their effects on Earth's environment.
  • Solar research contributes to advancements in space exploration, satellite technology, and the protection of communication networks.
  • Global Solar Observatories:
  • Aditya-L1 joins the ranks of other solar observatories like NASA's Parker Solar Probe and the European Space Agency's Solar Orbiter.
  • While Parker Solar Probe approaches closer to the Sun, Aditya-L1's focus on the corona from L1 adds a unique dimension to global solar research.

Important Points

  • India's First Solar Mission: Aditya-L1 marks India's entry into solar exploration, showcasing ISRO's capabilities in space science.
  • Launch Details: The mission was launched aboard the PSLV-C57 rocket from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
  • Collaborations: The mission benefits from collaborations with scientific institutions like the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) and the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
  • Long-Term Goals: Data from Aditya-L1 will aid in developing predictive models for solar activities and their impact on space weather, benefiting both scientific research and practical applications.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 902

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The primary focus of the Quad is in which region?

  1. AOption (a)

    Europe

  2. BOption (b)

    Africa

  3. COption (c)

    Indo-Pacific

  4. DOption (d)

    South America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Indo-Pacific

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indo-Pacific.

Key Points

  • The Quad, or the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, is a strategic partnership between four countries: India, the United States, Japan, and Australia.
  • The Quad's primary focus is on the Indo-Pacific region, emphasizing a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific that is rules-based and respects sovereignty.
  • The Quad seeks to address challenges such as maritime security, freedom of navigation, and countering coercive tactics in the Indo-Pacific, particularly in response to the growing influence of China in the region.
  • Key initiatives under the Quad include infrastructure development, climate change mitigation, cybersecurity, and vaccine distribution to strengthen regional cooperation.
  • The Indo-Pacific is a vital region as it hosts some of the world's busiest shipping lanes, facilitating a significant portion of global trade and energy supplies.

Additional Information

  • Indo-Pacific Region:
  • The Indo-Pacific spans from the east coast of Africa to the west coast of the United States, covering the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
  • It is home to some of the world's most dynamic economies, including India, China, Japan, and the ASEAN nations.
  • The region is critical for global trade, with key chokepoints such as the Strait of Malacca, the South China Sea, and the Indian Ocean.
  • The Indo-Pacific concept emphasizes the integration of both the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean into a single strategic space.
  • Quad Initiatives:
  • The Quad members have launched projects like the Quad Vaccine Partnership to ensure equitable vaccine distribution in the Indo-Pacific.
  • The Quad also focuses on climate resilience projects, such as clean energy development and disaster preparedness in the Indo-Pacific.
  • The Quad Cybersecurity Partnership works to enhance regional cybersecurity and counter cyber threats.
  • China and the Indo-Pacific:
  • China's growing military and economic influence in the Indo-Pacific, including its activities in the South China Sea, has raised concerns among Quad members.
  • China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is seen as a strategy to expand its influence in the Indo-Pacific through infrastructure development.
  • Other Relevant Regional Groupings:
  • The ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) is another critical grouping in the Indo-Pacific, promoting economic and security cooperation.
  • The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) focuses on maritime security, trade, and sustainable development in the Indian Ocean region.

Important Points

  • Strategic Importance of the Indo-Pacific:
  • The Indo-Pacific region accounts for 60% of the world's GDP and is a hub for global trade and innovation.
  • It connects the world's largest economies and emerging markets, making it a key driver of global growth.
  • Historical Development of the Quad:
  • The Quad was initially conceptualized in 2007 but gained momentum after 2017 as the four members renewed their commitment to regional security and cooperation.
  • It conducts regular high-level meetings, including the annual Quad Leaders' Summit.
  • Key Challenges:
  • Balancing economic ties with China while addressing security concerns remains a challenge for Quad members.
  • Maintaining unity among diverse members with different national interests is also a critical issue.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 903

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The "Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)" scheme has a focus on the energy sector within agriculture. What is the primary objective of this scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    To provide free electricity to all agricultural consumers.

  2. BOption (b)

    To promote the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides for higher yields.

  3. COption (c)

    To encourage the installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants in rural areas.

  4. DOption (d)

    To improve the rural electricity grid infrastructure for better power supply.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To encourage the installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants in rural areas.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To encourage the installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants in rural areas.

Key Points

  • The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme was launched by the Government of India to promote the use of renewable energy in the agricultural sector.
  • The primary focus of the scheme is to encourage the installation of solar-powered pumps and grid-connected solar power plants in rural areas.
  • It aims to provide energy security to farmers by reducing their dependence on expensive diesel or unreliable electricity grids.
  • Under this scheme, farmers can install solar irrigation pumps and even sell surplus electricity generated from solar plants to the grid, thus generating additional income.
  • The scheme is divided into three components:
  • Component A: Setting up 10,000 MW of decentralized grid-connected renewable energy plants.
  • Component B: Installation of 20 lakh standalone solar pumps.
  • Component C: Solarization of 15 lakh existing grid-connected agricultural pumps.
  • The scheme also aligns with the government’s vision of achieving 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2022.

Additional Information

  • Benefits of PM-KUSUM Scheme:
  • Reduces dependency on fossil fuels and promotes the use of clean energy.
  • Provides an alternative source of income for farmers by enabling them to sell surplus power to the grid.
  • Improves access to reliable energy for irrigation, boosting agricultural productivity.
  • Helps in achieving the government’s climate goals by reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Key Features of Solar Pumps:
  • Solar pumps are powered by energy from the sun, which is a renewable and sustainable energy source.
  • Standalone solar pumps eliminate the need for grid electricity or diesel, reducing operational costs.
  • They are ideal for remote areas where electricity supply is unreliable or unavailable.
  • Implementation and Funding:
  • The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
  • It provides a combination of Central Financial Assistance (CFA), state government subsidies, and farmer contributions.
  • The central government provides up to 30% subsidy, while the state government contributes another 30%, and the farmer bears the remaining cost.
  • Global Perspective:
  • Globally, solar-powered irrigation systems are gaining popularity as a sustainable solution to water and energy challenges in agriculture.
  • Countries like India, Kenya, and Bangladesh have embraced solar irrigation to support smallholder farmers and reduce reliance on traditional energy sources.

Important Points

  • The PM-KUSUM scheme contributes significantly to the government’s goal of doubling farmers’ income by 2022.
  • It also supports the National Solar Mission, which aims to increase the share of solar energy in India’s energy mix.
  • By replacing diesel pumps with solar pumps, the scheme can save approximately 1.2 billion liters of diesel annually, reducing the import burden and foreign exchange expenditure.
  • The scheme has a potential to generate employment opportunities in the renewable energy sector, particularly in rural areas.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 904

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The rock-cut Kailasa temple at Ellora was carved out of how many rocks?

  1. AOption (a)

    One single rock

  2. BOption (b)

    Cement blocks

  3. COption (c)

    Three adjoining rocks

  4. DOption (d)

    A cluster of stones

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One single rock

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is One single rock.

Key Points

  • The Kailasa Temple at Ellora, located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, India, is a remarkable example of ancient Indian rock-cut architecture.
  • This temple is unique as it was carved out of a single monolithic rock, making it one of the largest monolithic structures in the world.
  • It was constructed during the reign of the Rashtrakuta dynasty under the rule of King Krishna I in the 8th century CE.
  • The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is designed to resemble Mount Kailash, the mythical abode of Lord Shiva in Hindu mythology.
  • The excavation and carving process involved the removal of approximately 200,000 tons of rock, showcasing the advanced engineering and artistic skills of the time.

Additional Information

  • Architectural Features:
  • The Kailasa Temple features intricate carvings, including sculptures of deities, mythical creatures, and scenes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • The temple has a multi-tiered structure with a central shrine, a Nandi pavilion, and a series of mandapas (halls).
  • The intricate details of the carvings reflect the Dravidian style of architecture.
  • Historical Significance:
  • The Kailasa Temple represents the culmination of centuries of rock-cut architecture in India.
  • It is believed to have taken nearly 20 years to complete, involving thousands of laborers and artisans.
  • The temple stands as a testament to the technological and artistic prowess of ancient India.
  • Other Notable Rock-Cut Structures at Ellora:
  • Ellora is home to 34 rock-cut caves, which include Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain temples and monasteries.
  • The site is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and attracts tourists and scholars from around the globe.
  • Comparison with Other Rock-Cut Temples:
  • The Kailasa Temple is often compared to the rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram and Ajanta, showcasing the evolution of rock-cut techniques.
  • Unlike the Ajanta caves, which are primarily Buddhist, the Kailasa Temple is distinctly Hindu in theme and symbolism.

Important Points

  • The construction of the Kailasa Temple involved a unique top-down excavation method, starting from the top of the rock and working downward, which prevented structural collapse.
  • The temple aligns with the principles of Vastu Shastra, an ancient Indian architectural science.
  • The site of Ellora demonstrates the religious harmony of ancient India, as it includes structures representing Hinduism, Buddhism, and Jainism.
  • The Kailasa Temple is often regarded as one of the seven wonders of India due to its architectural brilliance and historical significance.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 905

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Nigerian author received the 2021 PEN Pinter Prize for their "unflinching" exploration of identity, gender, and migration?

  1. AOption (a)

    Teju Cole

  2. BOption (b)

    Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

  3. COption (c)

    Ben Okri

  4. DOption (d)

    Tsitsi Dangarembga

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie.

Key Points

  • Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie, a renowned Nigerian author, was awarded the 2021 PEN Pinter Prize for her exceptional literary contributions.
  • The PEN Pinter Prize is presented annually by English PEN in memory of Nobel laureate Harold Pinter, recognizing writers who show a "fierce intellectual determination to define the real truth of our lives and our societies."
  • Adichie was recognized for her "unflinching" exploration of themes such as identity, gender, and migration in her literary works, which have earned international acclaim.
  • Some of her most celebrated works include "Half of a Yellow Sun," "Purple Hibiscus," "Americanah," and the essay "We Should All Be Feminists." These works delve deeply into issues like Nigerian history, feminism, and the immigrant experience.
  • The judges of the prize highlighted Adichie’s ability to address complex societal issues with a profound and evocative literary style, making her a voice of global relevance.

Additional Information

  • About Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie:
  • Born on September 15, 1977, in Enugu, Nigeria, Adichie grew up in Nsukka, where the University of Nigeria is located.
  • She has received numerous accolades, including the Orange Prize for Fiction in 2007 for "Half of a Yellow Sun."
  • Adichie's TED Talk "We Should All Be Feminists" became a global phenomenon and was later adapted into a book.
  • Her works often draw on her personal experiences as a Nigerian and explore the intersections of culture, identity, and history.
  • The PEN Pinter Prize:
  • Established in 2009, the PEN Pinter Prize is awarded annually to a writer of outstanding literary merit.
  • It honors the memory of Harold Pinter, a Nobel Prize-winning British playwright and poet known for his outspoken activism and distinct literary style.
  • The award also emphasizes the role of literature in shedding light on social injustices and advocating for human rights.
  • Previous winners include notable literary figures such as Margaret Atwood, Salman Rushdie, and Linton Kwesi Johnson.
  • Other Options:
  • Teju Cole: A Nigerian-American writer, art historian, and photographer, best known for his novel "Open City." He has not received the PEN Pinter Prize.
  • Ben Okri: A Nigerian poet and novelist who won the Booker Prize in 1991 for his novel "The Famished Road." While a celebrated writer, he is not the recipient of the 2021 PEN Pinter Prize.
  • Tsitsi Dangarembga: A Zimbabwean author and filmmaker, known for her novel "Nervous Conditions." She was shortlisted for the 2020 Booker Prize but did not receive the 2021 PEN Pinter Prize.

Important Points

  • Relevance of Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie's Work:
  • Adichie’s novels and essays provide a critical lens on global issues, especially from the perspective of an African woman.
  • Her exploration of colonial history, gender inequalities, and cultural identity has made her a prominent advocate for social change.
  • Her writings serve as a bridge between African experiences and global audiences, fostering cross-cultural understanding.
  • Significance of the PEN Pinter Prize:
  • The award underscores the importance of literature in addressing pressing societal challenges.
  • It highlights writers who use their platform to advocate for truth, justice, and human rights.
  • The prize serves as a reminder of the power of words in shaping public discourse and inspiring positive change.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 906

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which sport is the term "zugzwang" associated with?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kabaddi

  2. BOption (b)

    Chess

  3. COption (c)

    Shooting

  4. DOption (d)

    Table Tennis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chess

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

  • Zugzwang is a term specifically associated with the game of Chess.
  • The term originates from the German language, where "zug" means "move" and "zwang" means "compulsion," translating to "compulsion to move."
  • In Chess, Zugzwang refers to a situation where a player is forced to make a move, but any move they make will worsen their position.
  • It often occurs in endgames and is used as a strategic tool to pressurize the opponent into making unfavorable moves.
  • Examples of Zugzwang often involve pawn moves or king positioning that limit the options available to the opponent.

Additional Information

  • Origin of the Term:
  • The term Zugzwang was first documented in Chess literature in the 19th century.
  • It became popular in Chess theory due to its pivotal role in high-level games and studies.
  • Applications in Chess:
  • It is commonly seen in endgame scenarios where limited moves are available.
  • Players often aim to create Zugzwang situations to gain a decisive advantage.
  • Examples in Chess History:
  • Famous Chess players such as Paul Morphy and Jose Raul Capablanca have used Zugzwang in their games.
  • Notable Zugzwang positions are documented in historical matches and Chess problem compositions.
  • Importance:
  • Understanding Zugzwang helps players improve their endgame strategy and foresee potential threats.
  • It is a critical concept taught in Chess coaching and is analyzed in tournaments worldwide.

Important Points

  • Chess Terminologies:
  • Other key terms in Chess include checkmate, stalemate, pin, fork, and skewer.
  • These terminologies are essential for understanding the intricacies of Chess strategy and gameplay.
  • Global Impact:
  • Chess is a globally recognized sport and has been included in events like the World Chess Championship and Olympiad Chess tournaments.
  • Famous Chess players include Magnus Carlsen, Viswanathan Anand, and Garry Kasparov.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 907

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Government of India Act of 1935 primarily aimed to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Grant complete independence to India.

  2. BOption (b)

    Establish a Dominion status for India.

  3. COption (c)

    Provide for a federal structure with provincial autonomy.

  4. DOption (d)

    Introduce universal adult suffrage.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Provide for a federal structure with provincial autonomy.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Provide for a federal structure with provincial autonomy.

Key Points

  • The Government of India Act, 1935 was a significant step towards the establishment of a federal structure in India by providing for a federation of Indian provinces and princely states.
  • It introduced provincial autonomy, making provinces largely autonomous in their internal administration. This was a major shift from the earlier system of governance under the Government of India Act, 1919.
  • Under this Act, the Governor's role in provinces was largely ceremonial, while elected provincial legislatures and ministries held significant powers. Hence, provincial autonomy was a key feature.
  • This Act also proposed a bicameral legislature at the Centre, consisting of the Federal Assembly and the Council of States.
  • It did not grant complete independence to India but laid the groundwork for a more decentralized and representative government. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • It did not establish Dominion status for India, as the British government retained control over defense and foreign affairs. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The Act did not introduce universal adult suffrage. Voting rights were still limited to a small proportion of the population based on property, tax, or education qualifications. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Federal Structure:
  • The Government of India Act, 1935, was the first attempt to introduce a federal structure in India. While the federation was never fully implemented due to the lack of agreement among princely states, it laid the foundation for the federal system in the Constitution of India (1950).
  • The Act divided powers between the Centre and the provinces into three lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. This division of powers influenced the Indian Constitution.
  • Provincial Autonomy:
  • Provincial autonomy allowed elected representatives in provinces to take charge of their respective ministries and administrative functions without interference from the Centre.
  • This autonomy was a step towards self-governance and gave Indians some experience in running their own government.
  • Key Features of the Act:
  • The Act abolished the diarchy introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919, at the provincial level, but introduced it at the Centre.
  • It extended the system of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Scheduled Castes, women, and laborers.
  • Limitations of the Act:
  • The Act did not grant India independence or Dominion status, as ultimate power still rested with the British Crown.
  • The Governor-General retained control over defense, foreign affairs, and certain reserved subjects, limiting the autonomy of the federal government.

Important Points

  • Background:
  • The Act was a result of deliberations at the Round Table Conferences held in London (1930-32), where Indian leaders demanded greater autonomy.
  • It was the longest and most detailed legislation enacted by the British Parliament for India, consisting of 321 sections and 10 schedules.
  • Influence on Indian Constitution:
  • Many features of the Government of India Act, 1935, were adopted in the Indian Constitution, including the federal structure, division of powers, and the concept of a bicameral legislature.
  • The Concurrent List and the provision for emergency powers were also inspired by this Act.
  • Impact:
  • The Act was criticized for not granting full independence but was significant in providing Indians with experience in governance, which played a crucial role in preparing for independence.
  • It marked a shift in British policy, indicating a gradual transfer of power to Indians, even though it was limited in scope.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 908

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is a cybercrime related to identity theft under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Using public Wi-Fi to access online accounts

  2. BOption (b)

    Stealing personal details to create fake identities and commit fraud

  3. COption (c)

    Downloading free music from unofficial websites

  4. DOption (d)

    Posting harmless pictures on a social media profile

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stealing personal details to create fake identities and commit fraud

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stealing personal details to create fake identities and commit fraud.

Key Points

  • Identity theft is a cybercrime where someone steals another individual's personal information, such as their name, date of birth, Aadhaar number, or financial details, to impersonate them for fraudulent purposes. This is explicitly covered under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
  • The act of stealing personal details to create fake identities is used to commit crimes such as financial fraud, obtaining unauthorized access to services, or engaging in illegal activities, making it a punishable offense under the new legal framework.
  • Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, identity theft is categorized as a serious offense. It is dealt with under provisions that aim to safeguard individuals' personal and digital information.
  • Cybercriminals often exploit stolen identities to commit crimes like phishing, applying for loans fraudulently, or making unauthorized transactions. Such activities have a high impact on victims, both financially and emotionally.
  • Other options such as using public Wi-Fi, downloading free music from unofficial websites, or posting harmless pictures on social media do not constitute identity theft or fall under serious cybercrime categories unless they involve illegal intent or misuse. Hence, these statements are incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
  • This act has been introduced to modernize India's criminal laws, replacing outdated provisions of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860.
  • The act emphasizes the protection of citizens' rights in the digital era by addressing new-age crimes like cyber fraud, identity theft, and other digital offenses.
  • Stringent penalties and punishments have been outlined for crimes involving data breaches and identity misuse.
  • Key Characteristics of Identity Theft:
  • Age Group: Anyone can be a victim of identity theft, but individuals with a high online presence are at greater risk.
  • Methods Used: Phishing emails, social engineering tactics, hacking, and data breaches are common techniques used by cybercriminals.
  • Impact: Victims may face financial losses, damage to their credit score, and legal issues if their identity is used in illegal activities.
  • Prevention: Using strong passwords, avoiding public Wi-Fi for sensitive transactions, and being cautious about sharing personal information online are effective preventive measures.
  • Other Cybercrimes Addressed Under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
  • Phishing: Deceptive attempts to acquire sensitive information like usernames, passwords, or credit card details.
  • Hacking: Unauthorized access to computer systems to steal or manipulate data.
  • Cyberstalking: Persistent harassment of an individual through digital platforms.
  • Data breaches: Unauthorized access to and exposure of sensitive data stored in digital systems.
  • Implications of Identity Theft:
  • Victims may take years to recover from the financial and reputational damage caused by identity theft.
  • Law enforcement agencies face challenges in tracking cybercriminals due to their use of advanced technologies and anonymity tools.

Important Points

  • Public Awareness: Educating people about the risks of sharing personal information online and how to identify phishing attempts is crucial in preventing identity theft.
  • Legal Recourse: Victims can approach the cybercrime cell or file a complaint under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, for swift action.
  • Technological Safeguards: Implementation of two-factor authentication (2FA), encryption, and other digital security measures can significantly reduce the risk of identity theft.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 909

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who is the 20th governor of Uttar Pradesh since 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anandiben Patel

  2. BOption (b)

    Satya Pal Malik

  3. COption (c)

    Ram Naresh Yadav

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Anandiben Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anandiben Patel.

Key Points

  • Anandiben Patel became the 20th Governor of Uttar Pradesh in 2019. She assumed office on July 29, 2019, succeeding Ram Naik.
  • She is the first woman to serve as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh, the most populous state in India.
  • Before her appointment as Governor of Uttar Pradesh, Anandiben Patel served as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh (January 2018 - July 2019) and held additional charge of Chhattisgarh for a brief period.
  • Anandiben Patel is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and was previously the Chief Minister of Gujarat from May 2014 to August 2016.
  • She has been recognized for her contributions to women's empowerment, education, and rural development during her political career.

Additional Information

  • Governorship in India:
  • The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India, appointed by the President of India under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Governor serves a term of five years, but they hold office at the pleasure of the President.
  • The primary duties of a Governor include administering the oath of office to the Chief Minister and other state ministers, approving bills passed by the state legislature, and overseeing the state's administration.
  • Anandiben Patel's Career:
  • Anandiben Patel was born on November 21, 1941, in Gujarat, India.
  • She has been a prominent leader in the BJP and began her political career in 1987.
  • She is known for her work in the fields of education, women's empowerment, and rural development.
  • As Chief Minister of Gujarat, she focused on initiatives like Gatisheel Gujarat and improving maternal health through Chiranjeevi Yojana.
  • Other Governors of Uttar Pradesh:
  • Notable Governors of Uttar Pradesh include Ram Naik (2014–2019), Banwari Lal Joshi (2009–2014), and Motilal Vora (1993–1996).
  • Each Governor played a significant role in the administration and governance of the state.
  • Functions of the Governor:
  • Acts as the constitutional head of the state and ensures compliance with the Constitution of India.
  • Appoints the Chief Minister and other members of the Council of Ministers.
  • Has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly and recommend President's Rule in case of administrative failure.
  • Gives assent to bills, withholds assent, or reserves bills for the President's consideration.

Important Points

  • Significance of Women Governors:
  • Anandiben Patel's appointment as the first female Governor of Uttar Pradesh symbolizes progress toward gender equality in Indian politics.
  • Other prominent women Governors in India include Sarojini Naidu, the first woman Governor of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh, 1947), and Margaret Alva (Governor of Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Goa, and Gujarat).
  • Governance in Uttar Pradesh:
  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, with a population of over 200 million, making the role of the Governor particularly significant.
  • The state plays a crucial role in Indian politics, with the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha (80) and Rajya Sabha (31).
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 910

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which among the following is NOT a Vedanga, or the limbs of the Veda?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kalpa

  2. BOption (b)

    Vaisheshika

  3. COption (c)

    Vyakarana

  4. DOption (d)

    Jyotisha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vaisheshika

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vaisheshika.

Key Points

  • The Vedangas are six auxiliary disciplines associated with the study and understanding of the Vedas. They are intended to help in the proper recitation, interpretation, and application of the Vedic texts.
  • The six Vedangas are Shiksha (phonetics), Kalpa (rituals), Vyakarana (grammar), Nirukta (etymology), Chandas (meter), and Jyotisha (astronomy).
  • Vaisheshika is a school of Indian philosophy that deals with metaphysics and natural philosophy, focusing on the categories of reality such as substance, quality, activity, and universals. It is not considered one of the Vedangas, as it is a separate philosophical system unrelated to the Vedic auxiliary disciplines.
  • Kalpa pertains to rituals and procedures mentioned in the Vedas, covering topics like sacrifices, rites, and rules for performing rituals.
  • Vyakarana is the study of Sanskrit grammar and language structure, essential for understanding the precise meaning of Vedic texts.
  • Jyotisha relates to astronomy and astrology, helping in determining the timing for performing rituals and sacrifices as mentioned in the Vedas.
  • Hence, Vaisheshika is not a Vedanga.

Additional Information

  • Vedangas:
  • Shiksha: Focuses on phonetics and pronunciation, ensuring accurate recitation of Vedic hymns.
  • Kalpa: Provides guidelines on rituals, ceremonies, and sacrificial practices mentioned in the Vedas.
  • Vyakarana: Addresses grammar and linguistic rules for understanding and interpreting Vedic texts.
  • Nirukta: Explores the etymology and meaning of difficult Vedic words.
  • Chandas: Deals with the study of poetic meter and structure found in Vedic hymns.
  • Jyotisha: Examines astronomical calculations and astrological interpretations for determining auspicious timings for rituals.
  • Vaisheshika Philosophy:
  • One of the six classical schools of Indian philosophy, founded by Acharya Kanada.
  • Focuses on categories like Dravya (substance), Guna (quality), Karma (action), Samanya (universals), Vishesha (particulars), and Abhava (non-existence).
  • Deals with metaphysical principles and the nature of reality, independent of the Vedic auxiliary sciences.
  • Significance of Vedangas:
  • Vedangas serve as tools for preserving, interpreting, and applying the Vedic knowledge across generations.
  • They enable accurate performance of rituals and ensure the integrity of Vedic traditions.
  • Important Distinction:
  • Vedangas are strictly related to Vedic studies, while Vaisheshika is categorized under Indian philosophical thought, focusing on metaphysics and logic.

Important Points

  • Historical Context:
  • The Vedangas were developed between 1200 BCE and 600 BCE during the late Vedic period.
  • They were essential for safeguarding the oral tradition of Vedic literature.
  • Philosophical Contributions of Vaisheshika:
  • Vaisheshika’s atomic theory proposed that matter is composed of indivisible particles known as anu (atoms).
  • It emphasizes the concept of cause and effect, which influenced later Indian philosophical thought.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 911

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the given statements is/are CORRECT regarding solar power production?

  1. Solar power is a renewable energy source with low operational costs and minimal environmental impact.

  2. Kamuthi Solar Power Project is one of the largest single-location solar power plants in India, with a capacity of 648 MW.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Statement 1: Solar power is a renewable energy source with low operational costs and minimal environmental impact.
  • Correct: Solar power is considered a renewable energy source because it harnesses the energy of the sun, which is inexhaustible.
  • It has low operational costs as it does not require fuel and involves minimal maintenance after installation.
  • Solar energy has a minimal environmental footprint, producing no emissions during electricity generation, unlike fossil fuels.
  • Statement 2: Kamuthi Solar Power Project is one of the largest single-location solar power plants in India, with a capacity of 648 MW.
  • Correct: The Kamuthi Solar Power Project, located in Tamil Nadu, India, is one of the largest single-location solar power plants in the country.
  • It boasts a capacity of 648 MW and covers an area of approximately 2,500 acres.
  • It was commissioned by Adani Green Energy and contributes significantly to India's renewable energy targets.

Additional Information

  • Solar Power in India:
  • India ranks among the top countries in the world for solar energy production, owing to its geographical location and abundant sunlight.
  • The government has set ambitious targets under the National Solar Mission, aiming for 100 GW of solar energy capacity by 2022.
  • Advantages of Solar Power:
  • It is a clean energy source, reducing greenhouse gas emissions and combating climate change.
  • Solar panels can be installed on rooftops, reducing the need for large-scale infrastructure.
  • Solar energy contributes to energy independence by reducing reliance on imported fuels.
  • Kamuthi Solar Power Project - Key Details:
  • Location: Kamuthi, Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu, India.
  • Area covered: Approximately 2,500 acres.
  • It was completed in 2016, with the ability to power approximately 150,000 homes.
  • The plant is equipped with advanced robotic cleaning technology to maintain efficiency.
  • India's Renewable Energy Initiatives:
  • India has made significant progress in renewable energy, ranking among the top five nations globally.
  • The government has launched schemes like KUSUM (for solar pumps) and PM KUSUM to promote solar energy adoption.

Important Points

  • Global Solar Power Leader: India is one of the largest producers of solar power in the world, with its solar capacity growing exponentially in recent years.
  • International Commitments: India is a founding member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), which promotes solar energy adoption globally.
  • Environmental Impact: Solar energy contributes significantly to reducing carbon footprints and ensures sustainable development.
  • Future Prospects: With government initiatives and private investments, India is expected to achieve greater milestones in solar energy production.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 912

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following about population growth in India:

Statement-I: The population pyramid in India is broad at the base and top and narrow in the middle.

Statement-II: India has a large proportion of young population due to high birth rates and declining death rates.

Which one of the following is CORRECT in respect of the above statements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement -II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Key Points

  • Statement-I: "The population pyramid in India is broad at the base and top and narrow in the middle."

  • This statement is incorrect. The population pyramid in India is typically characterized by a broad base, which reflects a large proportion of young people due to high birth rates. However, the top of the pyramid is narrow, indicating a smaller proportion of elderly individuals. The middle of the pyramid is wider, not narrow, as it represents the working-age population.

  • Statement-II: "India has a large proportion of young population due to high birth rates and declining death rates."

  • This statement is correct. India has historically experienced high birth rates and declining death rates due to improvements in healthcare, sanitation, and living conditions. This has resulted in a significant proportion of the population being young.

  • The correct explanation of India's population pyramid is that it reflects a youthful demographic structure, with a high dependency ratio due to a large number of children and relatively fewer elderly people.

  • Thus, the correct answer is that Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Additional Information

  • Population Pyramid:
  • A population pyramid is a graphical representation of the age and sex structure of a population.
  • It typically has two sides: one for males and the other for females, divided into different age cohorts.
  • India's population pyramid is triangular or expansive, indicating a high proportion of young people and a high birth rate.
  • Demographic Transition in India:
  • India is in the third stage of demographic transition, characterized by declining birth rates and death rates.
  • The decline in death rates is attributed to advancements in medical care, immunization, and public health measures.
  • While birth rates have also declined due to family planning initiatives, they remain relatively high compared to developed nations.
  • Characteristics of India's Population:
  • India has a significant youth population, with around 66% of the population below the age of 35 (as per Census 2011).
  • The working-age group (15-59 years) constitutes a large proportion of the population, contributing to the "demographic dividend."
  • The dependency ratio is high due to a large number of children and fewer elderly people.
  • Implications of Population Structure:
  • A youthful population creates opportunities for economic growth through a larger workforce.
  • However, it also poses challenges in terms of providing education, healthcare, and employment for a large number of young people.
  • Proper policies and investments are required to harness the demographic dividend effectively.

Important Points

  • Dependency Ratio:
  • The dependency ratio is the ratio of dependents (people younger than 15 or older than 64) to the working-age population (15-64 years).
  • India's dependency ratio is gradually decreasing, indicating a larger working-age population and potential for economic growth.
  • Challenges of a Young Population:
  • India faces challenges such as unemployment, underemployment, and the need for skill development among its youth.
  • High population growth puts pressure on resources such as healthcare, education, and infrastructure.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • Programs such as Skill India, Make in India, and Start-up India aim to enhance employment opportunities and skill development.
  • Family planning and awareness campaigns have been implemented to control population growth.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 913

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is NOT a type of raga-based performance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thumri

  2. BOption (b)

    Dhrupad

  3. COption (c)

    Prabandha

  4. DOption (d)

    Sonata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sonata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sonata.

Key Points

  • Raga-based performances are integral to Indian classical music, where compositions are structured around specific melodic frameworks called ragas.
  • Thumri: A semi-classical vocal form in Indian music, known for its romantic or devotional themes and expressive melodic improvisation. It is a type of raga-based performance.
  • Dhrupad: The oldest form of Indian classical vocal music, characterized by its meditative and austere style. It is also a type of raga-based performance.
  • Prabandha: An ancient form of Indian classical composition that predates Dhrupad and involves fixed lyrics and melodies. It is raga-based as well.
  • Sonata: A Western classical music composition, usually written for solo instruments or small ensembles, structured in movements and not based on ragas. Hence, it is NOT a type of raga-based performance.

Additional Information

  • Thumri:
  • Originated in the courts of North India during the 18th century.
  • Emphasizes emotion (bhava) and features a romantic or devotional theme.
  • Instruments like the tabla, harmonium, and sarangi often accompany Thumri performances.
  • It is closely associated with dance forms like Kathak.
  • Dhrupad:
  • Dates back to the medieval period and is considered the oldest surviving form of Indian classical music.
  • Performed in a slow and meditative style, focusing on purity of raga.
  • Often accompanied by the pakhawaj and tanpura.
  • It is traditionally sung in praise of deities or royal patrons.
  • Prabandha:
  • An ancient compositional form that predates Dhrupad.
  • Involves a fixed structure of lyrics and melody.
  • It was a precursor to later forms like Dhrupad and Khayal.
  • Sonata:
  • A form of Western classical music composition.
  • Typically consists of three or four movements with contrasting tempos and moods.
  • Developed in Europe during the Classical period (18th century).
  • Prominent composers of sonatas include Beethoven, Mozart, and Haydn.

Important Points

  • Raga:
  • A raga is a melodic framework in Indian classical music used to express specific emotions.
  • Each raga is associated with a particular time of day, season, or mood (rasa).
  • It serves as the foundation for composition and improvisation in both Hindustani and Carnatic music traditions.
  • Comparison with Western Classical Music:
  • Western music relies on harmonic structures and fixed compositions, while Indian music emphasizes melody and improvisation.
  • Forms like the sonata, symphony, and concerto dominate Western classical music.
  • Indian music uses instruments such as sitar, tabla, and veena, whereas Western music uses piano, violin, and flute.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 914

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements most accurately describes a key difference between the Mathura and Gandhara schools of art, as broadly understood in Indian architectural history?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mathura art primarily used green phyllite, while Gandhara art used spotted red sandstone.

  2. BOption (b)

    Gandhara art developed on purely indigenous lines, whereas Mathura art showed foreign influences

  3. COption (c)

    Mathura art predominantly focused on Buddhist themes, while Gandhara focused on Hindu deities

  4. DOption (d)

    Mathura art depicted Buddha in an indigenous Yaksha-like style, whereas Gandhara art reflected Hellenistic (Greco-Roman) features.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mathura art depicted Buddha in an indigenous Yaksha-like style, whereas Gandhara art reflected Hellenistic (Greco-Roman) features.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mathura art depicted Buddha in an indigenous Yaksha-like style, whereas Gandhara art reflected Hellenistic (Greco-Roman) features..

Key Points

  • Mathura School of Art developed during the Kushan Period (1st to 3rd century CE) in and around Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. It is characterized by its indigenous style of sculpting, which evolved from earlier Yaksha and Yakshi imagery.
  • The Buddha images in Mathura art have a more iconic Indian appearance, depicting him with a smiling face, wide eyes, and a robust physique resembling Yaksha figures. The drapery is closely clinging and transparent.
  • Gandhara School of Art flourished in the northwestern region of the Indian subcontinent (modern-day Pakistan and Afghanistan), particularly during the Kushan and Indo-Greek periods. It is heavily influenced by Hellenistic (Greco-Roman) artistic traditions.
  • The Buddha images in Gandhara art are marked by Greco-Roman features, such as wavy hair, a well-defined musculature, and draped robes resembling a Roman toga. The use of symmetry and realism is evident.
  • While Mathura art focused on portraying Indian sensibilities and symbolic meanings, Gandhara art emphasized realistic and aesthetic representation influenced by classical Western art. Hence, this option is correct.

Additional Information

  • Distinct Features of the Mathura School:
  • The material used in Mathura art was red sandstone, which is locally available in the Mathura region.
  • The style exhibits symbolism, such as the depiction of Buddha with a chakra (wheel of law) on his feet and lions symbolizing Buddha’s teachings.
  • It primarily focused on Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain themes, though it retained an indigenous style.
  • Distinct Features of the Gandhara School:
  • The material used was mainly schist stone, which allowed for intricate carvings.
  • The art reflects strong Hellenistic influence due to Alexander the Great's conquest and subsequent interaction with Greek culture.
  • Key characteristics include realistic human features, curly hair, and detailed drapery.
  • The focus was predominantly on Buddhist art, producing exquisite sculptures of Buddha and Bodhisattvas.
  • Option-Specific Details:
  • Option 1: Incorrect. Mathura art primarily used red sandstone, while Gandhara art used schist stone, not green phyllite or spotted red sandstone.
  • Option 2: Incorrect. Gandhara art reflects foreign influences (Hellenistic and Roman), while Mathura art developed on indigenous lines.
  • Option 3: Incorrect. Both Mathura and Gandhara schools focused predominantly on Buddhist themes, though Mathura also explored Hindu and Jain deities.
  • Option 4: Correct. Mathura art depicted Buddha in an indigenous Yaksha-like style, while Gandhara art adopted Greco-Roman characteristics.

Important Points

  • Time Period: Mathura art flourished during the Kushan dynasty, while Gandhara art flourished under the Kushan and Indo-Greek rule.
  • Geographical Influence: Mathura art developed in the Gangetic plains, whereas Gandhara art was influenced by Northwest Indian and Greco-Roman cultures.
  • Artistic Contributions: Mathura contributed to the evolution of Indian iconography, while Gandhara served as a bridge for cultural exchange between India and the West.
  • Key Sites: Mathura art examples can be seen in Sarnath and Mathura, whereas Gandhara art is prominent in Taxila and Swat Valley.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 915

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about India's National and Institutional Sports Competitions is/are correct?

  1. National Games began in 1924 at Lahore and were renamed from the IX Games in Bombay.

  2. SGFI holds nationals only for boys under 17 in contact sports like Wrestling and Kabaddi.

  3. Inter-University tournaments use knockout or league formats and allow one team per university.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2 are Correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3 are Correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 are Correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1 and 3 are Correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 3 are Correct.

Key Points

  • Statement 1: The National Games began in 1924 at Lahore (then in British India) and were later renamed from the IX Games in Bombay (Mumbai). This statement is correct as the National Games were initially known as the Indian Olympic Games before being renamed in 1940.
  • Statement 2: The School Games Federation of India (SGFI) organizes national-level school sports for boys and girls under various age groups, including under 17. However, it does not restrict itself to boys only or exclusively to contact sports like Wrestling and Kabaddi. This statement is incorrect.
  • Statement 3: Inter-University tournaments in India follow either a knockout or league format, and they allow one team per university to participate. This organizational structure ensures fair competition and representation. This statement is correct.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Only 1 and 3 are Correct.

Additional Information

  • National Games of India:
  • The National Games are a prestigious multi-sport event held periodically in India.
  • It was initially called the Indian Olympic Games and was modeled after the Olympics.
  • The event aims to promote sports culture, identify talent, and provide a platform for athletes to compete at the national level.
  • The modern format of the National Games involves participation from states and union territories across various sports.
  • School Games Federation of India (SGFI):
  • SGFI is responsible for organizing sports competitions at the school level in India.
  • It conducts tournaments across multiple disciplines and age categories, including under 14, under 17, and under 19.
  • Both boys and girls participate in a wide range of sports like athletics, hockey, basketball, kabaddi, and more.
  • SGFI aims to promote grassroots-level sports and develop young athletes for national and international competitions.
  • Inter-University Sports Tournaments:
  • The Association of Indian Universities (AIU) oversees inter-university sports in India.
  • Tournaments are conducted in a knockout or league format to ensure fair play and competitiveness.
  • Each university is allowed to send one team per discipline, ensuring equal representation.
  • These events serve as a platform for university-level athletes to showcase their skills and secure opportunities for higher-level competitions.
  • Key Objectives of National and Institutional Sports Competitions:
  • To promote sports and physical fitness across all age groups.
  • To identify and nurture talent at the grassroots level.
  • To provide platforms for athletes to compete and gain exposure.
  • To foster a sense of unity and sportsmanship among participants.

Important Points

  • Historical Background:
  • The first edition of the Indian Olympic Games was held in 1924 in Lahore.
  • The event was renamed the National Games in 1940 to reflect its broader scope.
  • Modern National Games:
  • The event is now organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
  • It features participation from all Indian states, union territories, and sports boards.
  • Role of SGFI:
  • SGFI is recognized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and works to promote school-level sports.
  • Its tournaments are a stepping stone for young athletes aiming to represent India in international sports.
  • Inter-University Sports:
  • AIU ensures the smooth conduct of inter-university sports events.
  • These tournaments are a critical part of India's sports ecosystem, bridging the gap between school and professional sports.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 916

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following works was composed by the Vijayanagara ruler Krishnadevaraya and is renowned for its poetic richness and devotion to Lord Vishnu?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ramacharitam

  2. BOption (b)

    Amuktamalyada

  3. COption (c)

    Gita Govinda

  4. DOption (d)

    Manimekalai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amuktamalyada

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Amuktamalyada.

Key Points

  • Amuktamalyada was composed by the Vijayanagara ruler Krishnadevaraya, one of the most celebrated monarchs of the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Written in the Telugu language, the work is renowned for its poetic richness and deep devotional themes dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
  • The title Amuktamalyada translates to "The Giver of the Worn Garland" and narrates the story of the devotee Andal, who offered garlands to Lord Vishnu after wearing them herself.
  • The work reflects Krishnadevaraya's literary genius and devotion to Hindu deities, particularly Lord Vishnu, and is considered one of the greatest Telugu literary works.
  • Krishnadevaraya, apart from being a great ruler, was also a patron of arts and literature, and his reign is often referred to as the Golden Age of Telugu literature.

Additional Information

  • About Krishnadevaraya:
  • He was the ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire during the early 16th century (reigned from 1509 to 1529).
  • He was a patron of art, culture, and literature, encouraging writers in Telugu, Kannada, Sanskrit, and Tamil.
  • His court was adorned with the Ashtadiggajas, the eight great poets of Telugu literature.
  • Other Literary Contributions:
  • Krishnadevaraya himself wrote several works, including Jambavati Kalyanam, a Sanskrit drama.
  • He fostered the growth of literature across multiple languages, making his court a hub for cultural development.
  • Analysis of Amuktamalyada:
  • The work is considered a spiritual allegory, blending devotional fervor with intricate poetic style.
  • It conveys moral and spiritual teachings through the story of Andal and her devotion to Lord Vishnu.
  • The text also emphasizes the importance of righteous rule and the duty of a king to serve his people.
  • Key Characteristics of Other Options:
  • Ramacharitam: Written by Sandhyakar Nandi in Sanskrit, it is a biographical work about the Pala king Rampala, not related to Krishnadevaraya.
  • Gita Govinda: Composed by Jayadeva in Sanskrit, it is a devotional poem dedicated to Lord Krishna, not associated with Krishnadevaraya.
  • Manimekalai: A Tamil Buddhist epic, part of the Sangam literature, unrelated to the Vijayanagara Empire or Krishnadevaraya.

Important Points

  • Golden Age of Telugu Literature:
  • Krishnadevaraya's reign is often termed as the Golden Age of Telugu literature.
  • He encouraged the composition of works in multiple languages, ensuring cultural and intellectual development.
  • Andal's Story in Amuktamalyada:
  • The story emphasizes the intense devotion of Andal, a Tamil poet-saint, towards Lord Vishnu.
  • It also highlights the concept of surrender (prapatti) to the divine, a central theme in Vaishnavism.
  • Legacy of Krishnadevaraya:
  • His contributions to art, literature, and administration have immortalized his rule in Indian history.
  • He remains a symbol of a just and capable ruler who balanced military prowess with cultural patronage.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 917

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Fill in the blank: The final match of the 133rd Durand Cup, held between 26 July and 31 August 2024, featured Northeast United FC competing against _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bengaluru FC

  2. BOption (b)

    East Bengal FC

  3. COption (c)

    Mohun Bagan SG

  4. DOption (d)

    FC Goa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mohun Bagan SG

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3) Mohun Bagan SG.

Key Points

  • The 133rd Durand Cup is one of the oldest and most prestigious football tournaments in India, held annually to showcase the nation's top football clubs.
  • The final match of the 2024 Durand Cup was played between Northeast United FC and Mohun Bagan SG, two highly competitive teams in Indian football.
  • Mohun Bagan SG is one of India's oldest and most successful football clubs, known for its rich legacy and passionate fanbase.
  • The tournament was held from 26 July to 31 August 2024, featuring several high-intensity matches and drawing large crowds.
  • The Durand Cup serves as a platform for clubs to prepare for major domestic and international tournaments, fostering competitive spirit and showcasing emerging talent.

Additional Information

  • Durand Cup History:
  • The Durand Cup was first held in 1888, making it one of the oldest football tournaments in the world.
  • It is named after Mortimer Durand, the then Foreign Secretary of British India, who initiated the tournament as a recreational activity for British troops in India.
  • Over the years, the tournament has evolved to include professional football clubs, becoming a cornerstone of Indian football history.
  • Mohun Bagan SG:
  • Founded in 1889, Mohun Bagan SG is one of Asia's oldest football clubs.
  • The club has won numerous domestic and international titles, including the IFA Shield, Federation Cup, and Indian Super League.
  • It is celebrated for its historic victory over the East Yorkshire Regiment in the 1911 IFA Shield final, a moment considered a milestone in Indian sports history.
  • Northeast United FC:
  • Established in 2014, Northeast United FC is a professional football club representing the northeastern region of India in the Indian Super League (ISL).
  • The club is known for its focus on promoting young talent from the region and fostering grassroots football development.
  • Despite being a relatively new club, it has made its mark in Indian football with competitive performances.
  • Significance of the Durand Cup:
  • The tournament acts as a curtain-raiser for the Indian football season, providing clubs an opportunity to test their squads and strategies.
  • It serves as a platform to identify and promote emerging talent, contributing to the growth of football in India.
  • The Durand Cup is also a symbol of India's football heritage, connecting modern football with its historical roots.

Important Points

  • Key Records:
  • Mohun Bagan SG has won the Durand Cup multiple times, solidifying its legacy as one of the most successful clubs in the tournament's history.
  • The tournament has seen participation from top Indian clubs, including East Bengal FC, Bengaluru FC, and FC Goa, making it highly competitive.
  • Future Prospects:
  • The Durand Cup is expected to grow further in stature with increased sponsorships, media coverage, and participation from international clubs.
  • Efforts are being made to align the tournament with global standards, ensuring its relevance in the modern football landscape.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 918

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The color order in a secondary rainbow is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Same as primary rainbow

  2. BOption (b)

    Reversed compared to primary rainbow

  3. COption (c)

    Random and variable

  4. DOption (d)

    Depends on humidity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reversed compared to primary rainbow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reversed compared to primary rainbow.

Key Points

  • A secondary rainbow occurs due to double reflection of sunlight inside water droplets, unlike the primary rainbow, which happens due to a single reflection.
  • The color order in the secondary rainbow is reversed compared to the primary rainbow. In the primary rainbow, the sequence is red on the outer edge and violet on the inner edge, while the secondary rainbow has violet on the outer edge and red on the inner edge.
  • The reversing of colors in the secondary rainbow is caused by the additional internal reflection within the raindrop, which changes the direction of light rays and flips the color sequence.
  • Secondary rainbows are generally fainter than primary rainbows because of the double reflection, which results in more light being lost during the process.
  • The secondary rainbow appears higher in the sky than the primary rainbow and forms at an angle of approximately 50–53 degrees from the direction opposite to the sun.

Additional Information

  • Primary Rainbow:
  • Formed due to single internal reflection of sunlight within raindrops.
  • The color sequence is red (outer edge) to violet (inner edge).
  • The angle of formation is typically 40–42 degrees from the direction opposite to the sun.
  • Secondary Rainbow Characteristics:
  • Formed due to two internal reflections of sunlight within raindrops.
  • Color sequence is reversed, with violet on the outer edge and red on the inner edge.
  • Appears fainter than the primary rainbow due to additional light dispersion.
  • Light Dispersion and Reflection:
  • Rainbows are created due to dispersion of light, where white sunlight splits into its component colors when passing through water droplets.
  • Reflection and refraction within the raindrops lead to the bending and focusing of light to form the rainbow.
  • Supernumerary Rainbow:
  • In rare cases, supernumerary rainbows may form as additional faint and closely spaced bands inside the primary rainbow.
  • These are caused by wave interference of light rather than simple refraction and reflection.
  • Important Facts:
  • Rainbows only appear when the sun is low in the sky, typically early morning or late afternoon.
  • Rainbows are always seen in the direction opposite to the sun.
  • Rainbows are circular, but only the upper portion is visible due to the horizon; a full circle can be seen from higher altitudes, such as in an airplane.

Important Points

  • Scientific Explanation:
  • The reversal of colors in the secondary rainbow is explained by Snell’s law, which governs refraction of light.
  • The additional internal reflection leads to more light scattering, causing the secondary rainbow to appear dimmer.
  • Historical Observations:
  • The phenomenon of rainbows has been studied since ancient times by scientists like René Descartes and Isaac Newton, who explained the principles of light dispersion.
  • Newton’s prism experiments demonstrated how light splits into its constituent colors.
  • Applications:
  • Rainbows are used in teaching concepts of optics and light behavior, including refraction, reflection, and dispersion.
  • The study of rainbows helps understand weather patterns and the formation of raindrops in the atmosphere.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 919

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Fill in the Blank: Thoda combines martial art with ______ in Himachal Pradesh.

  1. AOption (a)

    Archery

  2. BOption (b)

    Swordplay

  3. COption (c)

    Stick-fighting

  4. DOption (d)

    Wrestling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Archery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Archery.

Key Points

  • Thoda is a traditional martial art form originating from the state of Himachal Pradesh, India. It is believed to have roots in ancient warfare techniques practiced in the region.
  • Thoda uniquely combines elements of martial arts with Archery techniques. Participants use wooden sticks to simulate combat in a stylized and controlled manner.
  • The practice of Thoda involves precision, agility, and coordination. Fighters aim to showcase their skills by hitting specific targets on their opponent's body while avoiding being hit themselves.
  • This martial art is performed as a part of cultural celebrations and festivals in Himachal Pradesh, highlighting the region's rich heritage and history.
  • Thoda also reflects the traditional warrior spirit of the local communities and has evolved into a sport that emphasizes discipline, respect, and teamwork.

Additional Information

  • Other Options in the Context:
  • Archery: While archery is another traditional activity practiced in several regions of India, it is not a component of Thoda. Archery in Himachal Pradesh is often seen in separate cultural or recreational contexts.
  • Swordplay: Sword-fighting is a prominent martial art in other cultures and regions, such as Kalaripayattu in Kerala. However, it is not a part of Thoda's traditional practice.
  • Wrestling: Wrestling has a rich history in India and is practiced in forms like Kushti. However, wrestling is not associated with Thoda, as Thoda strictly involves stick-fighting techniques.
  • Origin and History of Thoda:
  • Thoda has its origins in the Mahabharata, where archery and combat skills were prominent among warriors. Over time, it evolved into its current form as a cultural martial art.
  • It is primarily practiced in the districts of Himachal Pradesh, such as Shimla, Sirmaur, and Solan.
  • Rules and Gameplay:
  • Participants are divided into two teams: Pashi (defenders) and Sathi (attackers).
  • Each player uses a stick and aims to strike specific target points on their opponent's body while protecting themselves from counterattacks.
  • The game emphasizes accuracy and control, as strikes are required to be precise and within designated zones.
  • Cultural Significance:
  • Thoda is performed during local festivals and fairs, reflecting the cultural identity and heritage of Himachal Pradesh.
  • It serves as a medium to preserve ancient martial traditions and instill a sense of pride and community among locals.

Important Points

  • Thoda's Modern Relevance:
  • Efforts are being made to promote Thoda as a sport and cultural event on national and international platforms to preserve its legacy.
  • Local governments and cultural organizations in Himachal Pradesh play an active role in supporting Thoda practitioners and organizing competitions.
  • Traditional Attire and Equipment:
  • Participants wear traditional clothing that reflects the region's cultural identity, often paired with protective gear for safety during matches.
  • The wooden sticks used in Thoda are crafted with precision and are considered sacred, symbolizing the warrior spirit.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 24 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 920

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Index of Economic Freedom 2025 is published by which conservative think tank?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cato Institute

  2. BOption (b)

    Heritage Foundation

  3. COption (c)

    American Enterprise Institute

  4. DOption (d)

    Brookings Institution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Heritage Foundation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Heritage Foundation.

Key Points

  • The Index of Economic Freedom is an annual index and ranking created to measure the degree of economic freedom in the world's nations.
  • The Index of Economic Freedom is published by the Heritage Foundation, a prominent conservative think tank based in Washington, D.C., USA.
  • The index was first introduced in 1995 and is designed to track the progress of economic policies and practices worldwide.
  • It evaluates countries based on 12 quantitative and qualitative factors, grouped into four broad categories of economic freedom: Rule of Law, Government Size, Regulatory Efficiency, and Open Markets.
  • The data for this index is primarily sourced from institutions such as the World Bank, International Monetary Fund (IMF), and World Economic Forum.

Additional Information

  • Heritage Foundation:
  • The Heritage Foundation was founded in 1973 and is one of the most influential conservative think tanks in the United States.
  • It focuses on research and advocacy in areas such as economy, foreign policy, and social issues.
  • Its mission is to formulate and promote conservative public policies based on principles of free enterprise, limited government, individual freedom, traditional American values, and a strong national defense.
  • Key Features of the Index of Economic Freedom:
  • Countries are scored on a scale of 0 to 100, with higher scores indicating greater levels of economic freedom.
  • The 12 indicators include property rights, fiscal health, trade freedom, investment freedom, and financial freedom.
  • Each indicator is weighted equally, and the overall score is an average of these indicators.
  • Other Think Tanks Mentioned:
  • Cato Institute: A libertarian think tank based in Washington, D.C., focusing on individual liberty, limited government, and free markets.
  • American Enterprise Institute (AEI): A public policy think tank conducting research on government, politics, economics, and social welfare.
  • Brookings Institution: A liberal-leaning think tank based in Washington, D.C., focusing on economic and social policy issues.
  • Importance of the Index:
  • It helps governments, businesses, and policymakers assess the economic environment of different nations.
  • The index is often used to identify strengths and weaknesses in economic policies and to recommend reforms.
  • It acts as a guide for foreign investors to understand the economic climate of a country.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.