SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 641–660 of 7100Page 33 of 100
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 641

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Why is generative-design software used in launch vehicle (LV) structural engineering?

  1. AOption (a)

    To increase the mass of structural components

  2. BOption (b)

    To reduce structural weight while maintaining performance

  3. COption (c)

    To simplify 2D CAD drafting in mission drawings

  4. DOption (d)

    To boost overall mission cost through advanced algorithms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To reduce structural weight while maintaining performance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To reduce structural weight while maintaining performance.

Key Points

  • Generative-design software is extensively used in launch vehicle (LV) structural engineering to reduce the structural weight of components while ensuring that they meet the required performance, strength, and safety standards.
  • It utilizes advanced algorithms and artificial intelligence to explore a wide range of design possibilities, aiming to identify the most efficient and lightweight structures.
  • This software can simulate and analyze stress, load distribution, and other mechanical properties of a structure to ensure that it can withstand extreme conditions during launch and space travel.
  • By minimizing weight, generative design contributes to improving the payload capacity of the launch vehicle, allowing for more equipment, satellites, or scientific instruments to be carried.
  • Generative design also plays a critical role in optimizing material usage, leading to cost savings and environmentally sustainable practices in aerospace manufacturing.

Additional Information

  • What is Generative Design?
  • Generative design is an advanced design methodology that uses AI algorithms and computational models to create optimized structures based on specific parameters like weight, material strength, and performance.
  • It is widely employed in industries such as aerospace, automotive, and architecture, where weight and efficiency are critical.
  • Importance of Weight Reduction in Launch Vehicles:
  • Reducing weight is crucial in aerospace engineering, as every extra kilogram adds to the cost of launching and reduces payload capacity.
  • Lightweight structures improve fuel efficiency and enable the inclusion of additional scientific instruments or payloads.
  • Applications of Generative Design in Aerospace:
  • It is used for designing rocket fins, fuel tanks, brackets, and other critical components of launch vehicles.
  • Generative design ensures that these components can handle high stress, extreme temperatures, and dynamic forces during launch and space travel.
  • Example of Generative Design in Aerospace:
  • NASA has used generative design techniques to develop lightweight and durable brackets for the Mars Rover, optimizing for strength and cost efficiency.
  • SpaceX uses such technologies to create high-performance components for its Falcon and Starship programs.

Important Points

  • Key Features of Generative Design in Structural Engineering:
  • Ability to generate multiple design iterations based on input constraints like weight, material, and load capacity.
  • Integration with simulation tools to analyze real-world performance under various conditions.
  • Reduction in design time by automating the initial concept generation.
  • Limitations and Challenges:
  • Requires high computational power and advanced software tools.
  • Designs may require specialized manufacturing techniques, such as 3D printing, which can increase initial costs.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 642

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements regarding State Funds under the Indian Constitution is/are correct?

  1. The Consolidated Fund of the State is defined under Article 266.

  2. The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by the Governor in accordance with rules made by the State Legislature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Consolidated Fund of the State:
  • The Consolidated Fund of the State is defined under Article 266(1) of the Indian Constitution.
  • All revenues received by the State Government, loans raised, and money received in repayment of loans form part of this fund.
  • No money can be withdrawn from this fund without the prior approval of the State Legislature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Contingency Fund of the State:
  • The Contingency Fund of the State is defined under Article 267(2) of the Constitution.
  • It is a fund used to meet unforeseen expenditures, and it is placed at the disposal of the Governor.
  • Expenditure from this fund is made in accordance with the rules prescribed by the State Legislature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Public Account of the State:
  • Defined under Article 266(2), the Public Account includes transactions where the government acts as a banker, such as provident funds, small savings collections, and deposits.
  • Money from the Public Account does not require legislative approval for withdrawal.
  • Structure of State Funds:
  • The funds of the State are divided into three parts: the Consolidated Fund, the Contingency Fund, and the Public Account.
  • Each fund serves a specific purpose and operates under distinct constitutional provisions.
  • Role of the Governor:
  • The Governor plays a pivotal role in managing the Contingency Fund, ensuring that unforeseen expenditures are met promptly.
  • However, the legislative assembly must approve replenishment of this fund.
  • Legislative Oversight:
  • Funds such as the Consolidated Fund require legislative approval, ensuring transparency and accountability in financial management.
  • The State Legislature has the authority to regulate the operation of these funds through appropriate laws and rules.

Important Points

  • Key Articles:
  • Article 266: Consolidated Fund and Public Account of the State.
  • Article 267: Contingency Fund of the State.
  • Examples of Usage:
  • The Consolidated Fund is used for routine expenditures such as salaries, pensions, and development activities.
  • The Contingency Fund is used during emergencies like natural disasters or unforeseen expenses.
  • Key Features:
  • Both funds ensure financial discipline and accountability in the State's governance.
  • They are managed as per the constitutional framework, maintaining a balance between executive action and legislative oversight.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 643

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Why is it more difficult to walk on sand than on a concrete pavement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sand has a higher coefficient of static friction than concrete.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sand is less dense than concrete, causing less gravitational pull.

  3. COption (c)

    Sand displaces, reducing pushback

  4. DOption (d)

    Sand particles are magnetic, creating an opposing force.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sand displaces, reducing pushback

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sand displaces, reducing pushback.

Key Points

  • Sand displaces under pressure: When you walk on sand, the particles beneath your feet shift and move apart. This displacement reduces the ability of the sand to provide a firm surface for pushback, making walking more difficult. Hence, this explains the correct answer.
  • Concrete provides a rigid surface: Unlike sand, concrete is a solid, immovable surface. It does not shift or deform under pressure, allowing for greater pushback and making walking easier.
  • Lack of resistance on sand: Sand does not offer as much resistance as concrete because it is composed of loose particles that can easily rearrange. This lack of resistance makes walking on sand more effort-intensive.
  • Energy dissipation on sand: When you walk on sand, much of the energy you exert is absorbed by the shifting particles. This energy dissipation requires you to exert more force to propel yourself forward.
  • Weight distribution: On sand, your weight causes localized displacement of particles, leading to instability and a need for constant adjustments in your gait. This does not occur on a solid surface like concrete.

Additional Information

  • Coefficient of static friction:
  • The coefficient of static friction is the measure of how much frictional force exists between two surfaces before motion begins.
  • Sand typically has a lower coefficient of static friction compared to concrete, meaning it provides less grip. This makes walking on sand less stable compared to concrete.
  • Density of sand vs. concrete:
  • Sand is less dense than concrete, but this has no direct impact on gravitational pull. Gravitational pull depends on the mass of the Earth and the individual walking, not the density of the surface.
  • Magnetic properties of sand:
  • Sand particles are not inherently magnetic under normal conditions. Hence, there is no opposing magnetic force affecting your ability to walk on sand.
  • Energy efficiency on different surfaces:
  • Walking on sand requires 2–2.5 times more energy compared to walking on a hard surface like concrete due to the loose nature of sand and its energy-absorbing properties.
  • Practical examples:
  • Walking along a beach is more tiring than walking on a sidewalk due to the reasons outlined above.
  • Sports like beach volleyball are more challenging than their court-based counterparts due to the added effort required to move on sand.

Important Points

  • Concrete pavements: Concrete pavements are designed to offer high stability, firmness, and resistance to pressure. This makes them easier to walk on compared to natural, loose surfaces like sand.
  • Energy transfer and mechanics: The mechanics of walking involve transferring energy to the surface for pushback. On sand, this energy is absorbed and dissipated due to particle displacement, while on concrete, it is efficiently transferred back for forward motion.
  • Biomechanics of walking: Walking on sand requires adjustments in stride length and gait to maintain balance, leading to increased muscular effort and fatigue.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 644

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The dance form Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem is a thanks giving dance of which community?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khasi

  2. BOption (b)

    Ao

  3. COption (c)

    Apatani

  4. DOption (d)

    Adi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Khasi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Khasi.

Key Points

  • Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem is a traditional dance of the Khasi tribe, a major indigenous community of Meghalaya in Northeast India.
  • This dance is performed as a thanksgiving ceremony to the divine power for blessings received during the past year.
  • The term "Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem" translates to "Dance of the Happy Heart" in the Khasi language, symbolizing joy, gratitude, and harmony.
  • The dance is usually performed during the spring season, marking the beginning of the sowing season and celebrating the bounties of nature.
  • The event is characterized by traditional attire: men wear dhotis, sleeveless coats, and turbans, while women wear elegant silk dresses with gold and silver ornaments, reflecting their cultural heritage.
  • The dance is accompanied by the rhythmic beats of the drums and pipes, creating a spiritual ambiance.

Additional Information

  • Khasi Tribe:
  • The Khasi tribe is one of the three major tribes of Meghalaya, along with the Jaintia and Garo tribes.
  • The Khasi people are known for their matrilineal society, where lineage and inheritance are traced through the mother.
  • Their traditional religion, called Niam Khasi, revolves around nature worship and ancestral reverence.
  • Traditional Dances of Meghalaya:
  • Other notable dance forms of Meghalaya include Wangala Dance of the Garo tribe and Behdienkhlam Dance of the Jaintia tribe.
  • These dances are deeply rooted in agricultural practices, spiritual beliefs, and the socio-cultural life of the communities.
  • Spring Festivals in India:
  • Spring is celebrated across various parts of India with different festivals and dances, such as Bihu in Assam, Baisakhi in Punjab, and Holi in North India.
  • These celebrations often include traditional dances, music, and rituals, symbolizing gratitude for nature’s bounties.
  • Meghalaya's Cultural Significance:
  • Known as the "Abode of Clouds," Meghalaya is celebrated for its rich cultural heritage, biodiversity, and scenic landscapes.
  • The state hosts several festivals and events that showcase the unique traditions of its indigenous communities.

Important Points

  • Cultural Preservation:
  • Efforts have been made to preserve the Khasi traditions, including dances like Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem, through government programs, tourism, and local community initiatives.
  • These dances are not just cultural expressions but also a way to pass on values, history, and identity to future generations.
  • Tourism and Recognition:
  • Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem and other traditional dances attract both domestic and international tourists, boosting Meghalaya’s cultural tourism sector.
  • The dance has gained recognition for its aesthetic appeal and spiritual significance, often performed at cultural events and festivals.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 645

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:

Assertion (A): The Human Development Index can increase even if income drops.

Reason (R): Improvements in life expectancy and education can offset income decline.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Human Development Index (HDI): The HDI is a composite index used to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions. It combines three key dimensions: life expectancy at birth (health), mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling (education), and Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (income).
  • Assertion (A) - The Human Development Index can increase even if income drops: This statement is true as the HDI is a composite measure. Even if the income component declines, improvements in life expectancy or education can compensate for the income drop, resulting in a net increase in HDI.
  • Reason (R) - Improvements in life expectancy and education can offset income decline: This statement is also true. In the HDI calculation, all three components (health, education, and income) are weighted equally. A significant improvement in life expectancy or education can balance or even outweigh the adverse effects of a decline in income.
  • R is the correct explanation of A: Since the HDI is calculated using a weighted approach, any improvement in one or more dimensions (like health or education) can counterbalance a drop in income, validating that Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

Additional Information

  • Components of HDI:
  • Health: Measured by life expectancy at birth, it reflects the ability to lead a long and healthy life.
  • Education: Calculated using two indicators – mean years of schooling (average number of years of education received by people aged 25 and older) and expected years of schooling (years of education a child entering school can expect).
  • Income: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (adjusted for purchasing power parity), reflecting the standard of living.
  • Calculation of HDI: HDI is calculated as the geometric mean of normalized indices for each of the three dimensions (health, education, and income).
  • Weightage of Dimensions: Each dimension contributes equally (one-third weightage) to the overall HDI value. This ensures that no single dimension dominates the calculation.
  • Country Comparison: HDI enables the comparison of development levels between countries, focusing on human well-being rather than just economic growth.
  • Global Trends: Countries like Norway, Switzerland, and Ireland often top the HDI rankings due to their strong performance in health, education, and income indicators.

Important Points

  • Criticism of HDI: HDI does not capture inequality, poverty, or environmental sustainability. To address these gaps, the Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI) was introduced.
  • HDI vs GDP: While GDP focuses solely on economic output, HDI provides a broader perspective, incorporating health and education dimensions.
  • India’s HDI Rank: As per the latest Human Development Report, India ranks 132 among 191 countries, with significant improvements in life expectancy and education over the years.
  • Example of Offset: In countries with declining income but improving healthcare and education (e.g., post-communist nations), HDI values may still rise.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 646

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct option:

Assertion (A): In macroeconomics, treating a single commodity as representative of all goods allows simplification of aggregate analysis.

Reason (R): This is because all individual goods always behave identically under inflationary trends.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A is true, but R is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A): In macroeconomics, treating a single commodity as representative of all goods allows simplification of aggregate analysis.
  • This statement is true because macroeconomics often uses a representative commodity to analyze aggregate trends, such as inflation, output, or consumption.
  • Using a single representative good or aggregate measure simplifies the complexities of dealing with numerous individual goods.
  • For example, the concept of an "aggregate price level" is used to study inflation, even though it combines the prices of multiple goods and services.
  • Reason (R): This is because all individual goods always behave identically under inflationary trends.
  • This statement is false because different goods behave differently under inflationary trends.
  • For instance, luxury goods, essential goods, and non-essential goods may show varied price elasticity and responses during inflation.
  • The demand and supply dynamics of individual goods are influenced by factors such as consumer preferences, production costs, and market conditions, which do not always align uniformly under inflation.
  • Since the assertion is correct but the reason provided does not justify the assertion, the correct option is A is true, but R is false.

Additional Information

  • Macroeconomics and Aggregation:
  • Macroeconomics studies the economy as a whole, focusing on aggregate indicators like GDP, inflation, and unemployment.
  • To simplify analysis, macroeconomics often uses aggregate variables like "aggregate demand," "aggregate supply," and "price levels."
  • The concept of treating a single commodity as representative is a methodological tool to make the analysis of complex economies more manageable.
  • Inflationary Trends:
  • Inflation refers to the general increase in prices of goods and services over a period of time.
  • Not all goods are affected equally by inflation; for example, prices of necessities like food and fuel may rise faster compared to luxury items.
  • Inflation impacts consumer purchasing power, but the degree of impact varies across different sectors and goods.
  • Representative Commodity:
  • The use of a representative commodity or index (e.g., Consumer Price Index) helps study the overall behavior of the economy.
  • Indices like CPI and GDP Deflator are examples of aggregate measures created by combining data from multiple goods and services.
  • Micro vs. Macro Behavior:
  • In microeconomics, the behavior of individual goods is studied, which often varies based on market structure, demand elasticity, and other factors.
  • In macroeconomics, the focus shifts to aggregate behavior, which is a summary of the entire economy, rather than individual goods.

Important Points

  • Consumer Price Index (CPI):
  • CPI measures changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.
  • It is widely used as an indicator of inflation and cost of living.
  • Price Elasticity of Demand:
  • Price elasticity measures how sensitive the quantity demanded of a good is to a change in its price.
  • Essential goods tend to have low elasticity, while luxury goods often have higher elasticity.
  • Inflation Types:
  • Demand-pull inflation occurs when demand outpaces supply.
  • Cost-push inflation arises due to increased production costs, such as raw materials and wages.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 647

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What was the primary aim of import substitution policy in India's early planning era?

  1. AOption (a)

    Promote export-led industrialisation

  2. BOption (b)

    Encourage foreign capital inflow

  3. COption (c)

    Replace foreign imports with domestic production

  4. DOption (d)

    Liberalise trade barriers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Replace foreign imports with domestic production

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Replace foreign imports with domestic production.

Key Points

  • Import substitution policy was a strategy adopted by India during its early planning era, particularly under the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), to promote self-reliance by reducing dependence on foreign imports.
  • The primary objective was to develop domestic industries to produce goods that were previously imported, thereby fostering economic self-sufficiency.
  • This policy involved the use of high tariffs and quotas on imports to protect nascent domestic industries from foreign competition.
  • It was part of a larger strategy aimed at achieving industrialization and reducing India's reliance on foreign products, particularly in the wake of its colonial history.
  • Import substitution was also aligned with the idea of creating a planned economy where the state played a central role in directing industrial and economic growth.
  • Examples include the development of industries such as steel, chemicals, textiles, and heavy machinery, which were prioritized to replace imports.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of Import Substitution Policy:
  • The policy aimed at creating a self-reliant economy by reducing dependence on foreign goods and focusing on domestic production.
  • It involved the use of protectionist measures such as import tariffs, quotas, and bans to restrict imports.
  • Encouraged the growth of public sector enterprises in key industries like steel, heavy machinery, and energy production.
  • Promoted the development of indigenous industries, particularly in the areas of manufacturing and capital goods.
  • Focused on reducing the outflow of foreign exchange by minimizing imports of consumer goods.
  • Outcomes of Import Substitution:
  • India successfully developed a strong base in heavy industries and infrastructure during the early planning years.
  • However, the policy led to reduced competition, resulting in low-quality goods and inefficiency in production.
  • It created a license raj system, which involved complex bureaucratic controls and regulations, often stifling private sector growth.
  • The policy contributed to technological stagnation and limited innovation in the industrial sector due to a lack of competition from foreign firms.
  • Transition from Import Substitution:
  • By the early 1990s, India shifted its focus from import substitution to export-oriented industrialization as part of economic liberalization and globalization policies.
  • The 1991 economic reforms marked a significant shift in trade policy, reducing tariffs, removing import quotas, and promoting foreign direct investment (FDI).
  • This transition was aimed at integrating India into the global economy, increasing competitiveness, and fostering economic growth.

Important Points

  • Historical Context:
  • India’s focus on import substitution was influenced by its colonial experience, during which the country was highly dependent on foreign goods and lacked a strong industrial base.
  • The strategy was inspired by the Soviet model of planned economic development, emphasizing state control and self-reliance.
  • Examples of Import Substitution in India:
  • The establishment of Bhilai Steel Plant in collaboration with the Soviet Union in 1955 was a key milestone in building India’s industrial base.
  • The indigenous production of goods like fertilizers, cement, and pharmaceuticals reduced dependency on imports significantly during the planned economy era.
  • The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) was set up to manufacture aircraft domestically, reducing reliance on foreign technology.
  • Criticism of Import Substitution:
  • Critics argue that the policy led to inefficiency, lack of innovation, and limited competitiveness in the global market.
  • The restrictive trade policies also resulted in a lack of foreign exchange reserves and foreign investment.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 648

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following correctly describes a heavy industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    It uses light raw materials like cotton.

  2. BOption (b)

    It produces light consumer goods.

  3. COption (c)

    Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.

  4. DOption (d)

    It manufactures cosmetics and toiletries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uses bulky inputs to produce heavy goods.

Key Points

  • Heavy industries are characterized by their use of bulky raw materials and heavy machinery to produce large-scale and heavy goods such as steel, machinery, and vehicles.
  • These industries often require large capital investments and involve significant industrial processes, including mining, metallurgy, and production of heavy engineering equipment.
  • The raw materials used, such as iron ore, coal, and limestone, are bulky and require extensive transportation and handling.
  • The products of heavy industries are typically used as inputs for other industries, such as construction, automobile manufacturing, and shipbuilding, making them foundational to industrial development.
  • Examples of heavy industries include the steel industry, oil refining, shipbuilding, and machinery manufacturing.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Heavy Industries:
  • They produce capital goods rather than consumer goods, such as machinery, tools, and construction materials.
  • They require a large workforce and create significant employment opportunities in related sectors.
  • Often located near raw material sources or transportation hubs to reduce costs.
  • They play a critical role in a country’s infrastructure development and economic growth.
  • Examples of Heavy Industries:
  • The steel industry, which produces steel used in construction and manufacturing.
  • Automobile and shipbuilding industries, which create large vehicles and ships for transportation and trade.
  • The mining industry, which extracts and processes raw materials like coal and iron ore.
  • The chemical industry, which produces industrial chemicals, fertilizers, and other heavy goods.
  • Difference between Heavy and Light Industries:
  • Heavy industries use bulky raw materials and produce goods that are often used in further industrial processes.
  • Light industries, on the other hand, use light raw materials and produce consumer goods such as textiles, cosmetics, and electronics.
  • Global Importance:
  • Countries like China, the USA, Germany, and India have invested heavily in heavy industries to boost their economic infrastructure and industrial growth.
  • Heavy industries form the backbone of export economies, contributing significantly to a nation’s GDP.

Important Points

  • The Industrial Revolution of the 18th and 19th centuries marked the rapid growth of heavy industries, particularly in Europe and North America.
  • Many heavy industries are considered energy-intensive and contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions, making sustainability a key concern in the modern era.
  • Policies such as Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat aim to promote the growth of heavy industries in India to reduce dependence on imports and boost self-reliance.
  • Technological advancements, such as the use of automation and AI in heavy industries, are improving efficiency and reducing production costs.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 649

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements on the PRITHvi Vigyan Mission:

  1. It aims to unify ocean, weather, and geoscience observations.

  2. It supports India's early warning systems for tsunamis and cyclones.

  3. It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1 and 2 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

  • PRITHvi Vigyan Mission is an initiative aimed at unifying ocean, weather, and geoscience observations under a single framework to improve India's scientific capabilities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The mission plays a pivotal role in supporting India's early warning systems for natural disasters like tsunamis, cyclones, and extreme weather events, enhancing disaster preparedness and response. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The mission is implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This makes statement 3 incorrect.
  • The PRITHvi Vigyan Mission is designed to integrate data from various disciplines, including oceanography, meteorology, and geophysics, to boost India's environmental and disaster management systems.
  • The focus is on using advanced technologies such as artificial intelligence, data analytics, and high-resolution modeling for better predictions and understanding of natural phenomena.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES):
  • The PRITHvi Vigyan Mission is spearheaded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, which oversees India's initiatives in oceanography, meteorology, and geosciences.
  • The ministry is responsible for programs like the Indian Tsunami Early Warning System, which has successfully monitored and predicted tsunamis in the Indian Ocean region.
  • Early Warning Systems:
  • India has developed advanced early warning systems for disasters like cyclones and tsunamis, supported by missions like PRITHvi Vigyan.
  • The system uses data from satellites, ocean buoys, and seismic sensors to provide real-time alerts and minimize the loss of life and property.
  • Applications of Geosciences:
  • Geoscience plays a vital role in disaster management, exploration of natural resources, and environmental preservation.
  • PRITHvi Vigyan integrates geoscience with meteorological data to improve climate predictions and resource management.
  • Technological Integration:
  • The mission uses cutting-edge technology like AI and machine learning to process large datasets for accurate weather and ocean predictions.
  • High-performance computing systems are also employed to run complex models for climate and disaster forecasting.

Important Points

  • Key Objectives: The mission aims to enhance the understanding of the Indian Ocean region, improve disaster forecasting, and strengthen India's preparedness for environmental challenges.
  • Significant Achievements: The Indian Tsunami Early Warning System and cyclone prediction models have significantly reduced the impact of natural disasters in India.
  • Global Collaborations: The mission aligns with international efforts like the United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021–2030).
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 650

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which international organizations played a crucial role in triggering the 1991 economic reforms in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    UN and WHO

  2. BOption (b)

    World Bank and IMF

  3. COption (c)

    WTO and UNESCO

  4. DOption (d)

    ADB and WTO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

World Bank and IMF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is World Bank and IMF.

Key Points

  • The 1991 Economic Reforms in India were a result of a severe balance of payments crisis. To address this, India approached the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) for financial assistance.
  • The IMF provided a loan of $2.2 billion in exchange for implementing structural reforms, including liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG model).
  • World Bank supported India’s structural adjustment programs by recommending policies to deregulate industries, reduce trade barriers, and encourage foreign investment.
  • The reforms introduced in 1991 under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh included industrial deregulation, financial sector reforms, tax reforms, and trade liberalization.
  • The role of the World Bank and IMF was instrumental in shaping India’s economic liberalization, enabling the country to stabilize its economy and initiate growth-oriented policies.

Additional Information

  • World Bank:
  • The World Bank is an international financial institution established in 1944 and headquartered in Washington, D.C.
  • Its primary goals include reducing poverty and fostering sustainable development through financial and technical assistance to developing countries.
  • The World Bank provides low-interest loans, interest-free credits, and grants to support projects in education, healthcare, infrastructure, agriculture, and environmental protection.
  • India is one of the largest beneficiaries of the World Bank’s assistance, particularly for infrastructure and poverty alleviation programs.
  • IMF:
  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in 1944 and is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
  • Its primary objective is to ensure global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment, and reduce poverty.
  • The IMF provides short-term financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments issues to stabilize their economies.
  • India has been a member of the IMF since its inception, and the institution played a pivotal role in assisting India during the 1991 economic crisis.
  • 1991 Economic Reforms:
  • The reforms introduced in 1991 are often referred to as the LPG reforms, representing Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization.
  • Liberalization: Reduced government control over industries, removed licensing requirements, and encouraged private sector participation.
  • Privatization: Disinvestment in public sector enterprises and promotion of private ownership in key industries.
  • Globalization: Reduced trade barriers, encouraged foreign direct investment (FDI), and integrated the Indian economy with global markets.
  • Impact of Reforms:
  • The reforms led to an increase in GDP growth rates, higher foreign investments, and a significant expansion of the services sector.
  • India became one of the world’s fastest-growing economies, with a focus on sectors like IT, telecom, and pharmaceuticals.
  • However, challenges like income inequality, unemployment, and agrarian distress remain critical issues to address$.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 651

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Indian satellite is used for weather forecasting?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aryabhata

  2. BOption (b)

    INSAT - 3D

  3. COption (c)

    Cartosat

  4. DOption (d)

    Mangalyaan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

INSAT - 3D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is INSAT - 3D.

Key Points

  • INSAT-3D is a dedicated meteorological satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for weather forecasting and disaster warning services.
  • Launched on 26th July 2013 by the Ariane-5 VA-214 rocket from Kourou, French Guiana, it is equipped with advanced weather monitoring instruments.
  • The satellite is fitted with a 6-channel imager and a 19-channel sounder to provide detailed information on atmospheric conditions such as temperature, humidity, and cloud patterns.
  • INSAT-3D enables accurate cyclone prediction, rainfall estimation, and fog detection, making it a cornerstone of India's meteorological services.
  • The satellite operates in the geostationary orbit and provides continuous coverage over the Indian Ocean region, enhancing disaster preparedness and response systems.

Additional Information

  • Aryabhata:
  • Launched on 19th April 1975, Aryabhata was India's first satellite developed by ISRO.
  • It was primarily designed for conducting experiments in space science and communication technology.
  • Aryabhata was not equipped for weather forecasting and was focused on scientific research.
  • Cartosat:
  • The Cartosat series comprises remote sensing satellites designed for earth observation, especially for cartographic applications.
  • It provides high-resolution imagery for urban planning, infrastructure development, and disaster management.
  • While essential for geographical mapping, it does not perform weather forecasting tasks.
  • Mangalyaan:
  • Also known as the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), this satellite was launched on 5th November 2013 by ISRO.
  • Mangalyaan focuses on exploring Mars and studying its atmosphere and surface, not weather forecasting.
  • It was a landmark mission, making India the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit and the first nation globally to achieve this feat in its maiden attempt.
  • INSAT Series:
  • The INSAT (Indian National Satellite System) series is a group of multipurpose geostationary satellites developed by ISRO.
  • These satellites are employed for telecommunications, television broadcasting, meteorology, and disaster warning services.
  • INSAT-3D and its successor, INSAT-3DR, are specifically focused on weather monitoring and climate studies.
  • Key Features of INSAT-3D:
  • It provides day and night imaging capabilities for weather monitoring.
  • The 19-channel sounder helps in atmospheric profiling, providing data on temperature and humidity at different altitudes.
  • INSAT-3D is also equipped with a Data Relay Transponder (DRT) for data collection from unattended meteorological platforms and a Satellite Aided Search and Rescue (SAS&R) transponder for locating distress signals.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 652

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of these important trade routes passes through the Indian Ocean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Panama Canal

  2. BOption (b)

    Suez Canal

  3. COption (c)

    Bering Strait

  4. DOption (d)

    Drake Passage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Suez Canal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Suez Canal.

Key Points

  • The Suez Canal is a crucial maritime trade route located in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea. It allows ships to pass between Europe and Asia without navigating around the southern tip of Africa (Cape of Good Hope).
  • The canal plays a pivotal role in the global shipping industry, facilitating the transit of significant volumes of cargo, including oil, natural gas, and goods.
  • It is one of the most strategic waterways in the Indian Ocean region, enabling quicker transportation of goods and reducing shipping costs significantly.
  • The Suez Canal is approximately 193 km long, and its importance has grown due to its ability to handle some of the world's largest ships, including container ships and oil tankers.
  • It is operated by the Suez Canal Authority and contributes significantly to Egypt's economy through transit fees.

Additional Information

  • Panama Canal:
  • The Panama Canal is located in Central America and connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It does not pass through the Indian Ocean.
  • It is approximately 82 km long and plays a key role in facilitating maritime trade between the Americas and Asia.
  • Bering Strait:
  • The Bering Strait is a narrow passage located between Russia and Alaska, connecting the Arctic Ocean with the Bering Sea. It is not connected to the Indian Ocean.
  • This strait is significant for Arctic navigation but is not a major global trade route.
  • Drake Passage:
  • The Drake Passage is a waterway connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, located between South America and Antarctica. It does not pass through the Indian Ocean.
  • It is known for its rough seas and is primarily used for scientific expeditions and Antarctic exploration.
  • Importance of Indian Ocean Trade Routes:
  • The Indian Ocean serves as a hub for global maritime trade, with critical routes connecting Asia, Africa, and Europe.
  • Major chokepoints in the Indian Ocean include the Strait of Malacca, Strait of Hormuz, and the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.
  • Approximately 80% of global oil trade passes through the Indian Ocean, highlighting its strategic importance.

Important Points

  • The Suez Canal significantly reduces the distance between major ports. For example, the route between London and Mumbai is reduced by approximately 7,000 km compared to the route around the Cape of Good Hope.
  • The canal is a vital link in the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) promoted by China, emphasizing its role in global geopolitics.
  • In 2021, the blockage of the Ever Given ship in the Suez Canal disrupted global trade, underscoring its importance in international shipping.
  • Key commodities transported through the canal include crude oil, LNG, coal, fertilizers, and consumer goods.
  • The canal contributes billions of dollars annually to Egypt's economy, making it a critical asset for the country.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 653

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which law replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uniform Civil Code

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

  3. COption (c)

    Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.

Key Points

  • The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita is the proposed law introduced to replace the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which was a colonial-era legislation enacted during British rule.
  • This new legislation aims to modernize the criminal justice system in India by making it more aligned with contemporary societal needs, values, and constitutional principles.
  • The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, along with two others (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita Bill and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam Bill), was introduced in August 2023 in the Indian Parliament.
  • One of its key objectives is to eliminate colonial influences and ensure a more victim-centric and citizen-friendly approach to justice delivery.
  • The bill incorporates provisions for speedy trials, stringent punishment for crimes against women and children, and promotes the use of technology in the judicial process.

Additional Information

  • Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860:
  • The Indian Penal Code was enacted in 1860 and came into force in 1862 during British rule in India.
  • It served as the primary criminal code in India, defining various crimes and their corresponding punishments.
  • The IPC was drafted by the first Law Commission of India under the chairmanship of Lord Macaulay.
  • Key Features of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita:
  • It abolishes outdated provisions that were irrelevant in the current legal context.
  • It introduces stringent punishments for crimes such as mob lynching, sexual crimes, and crimes against children.
  • The bill promotes the use of modern technology in investigations and trials, such as video recordings and electronic evidence.
  • It also emphasizes the protection of the rights of victims and witnesses in the legal process.
  • Other Related Bills:
  • Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita: Replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, focusing on procedural reforms to ensure speedier justice.
  • Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam: Replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, aiming to update laws related to evidence gathering and admissibility in court proceedings.
  • Rationale Behind the New Laws:
  • The purpose of these reforms is to remove the colonial legacy and align the laws with the democratic ethos of modern India.
  • It seeks to reduce delays in the justice delivery system and ensure transparency and accountability.

Important Points

  • Need for Reform: The IPC was enacted in colonial times and contains outdated laws that are no longer relevant in modern India. The new laws aim to address these gaps.
  • Victim-Centric Approach: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita introduces provisions to make the justice system more focused on the rights and needs of victims of crimes.
  • Use of Technology: The new law encourages the use of technology in judicial processes, such as electronic communication and digital evidence.
  • Recent Example: The introduction of these new laws in 2023 marks a significant step toward legal modernization in India, replacing three key colonial-era laws.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 654

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who is the chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways as of September 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Satish Kumar

  2. BOption (b)

    Ravneet Kaur

  3. COption (c)

    Vasudha Gupta

  4. DOption (d)

    Jaya Varma Sinha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Satish Kumar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1: Satish Kumar.

Key Points

  • Satish Kumar became the Chairperson and CEO of the Railway Board in August 2024.
  • He became the first person from the Indian Railway Service of Mechanical Engineers (IRSME) to hold the post of Chairman and CEO of the Railway Board.
  • He took charge from Jaya Varma Sinha, who was the first woman to serve as the Chairman and CEO of the Railway Board.
  • Satish Kumar assumed charge on 1 September 2024.
  • Therefore, as of September 2024, the Chairperson of the Railway Board was Satish Kumar.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 – Satish Kumar.

Additional Information

  • Satish Kumar: An officer of the Indian Railways who served in several important positions before becoming Chairman and CEO of the Railway Board.
  • Jaya Varma Sinha: She became the first woman Chairperson and CEO of the Railway Board in August 2023 and held the position until August 2024.
  • Ravneet Kaur: She is an Indian Administrative Service officer and has served as Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), not the Railway Board.
  • Vasudha Gupta: She is an IAS officer who has held various government positions but was not the Chairperson of the Railway Board in September 2024.

Important Points

  • Railway Board Chairperson & CEO → Satish Kumar
  • Assumed charge → 1 September 2024
  • Predecessor → Jaya Varma Sinha
  • Jaya Varma Sinha → First woman Chairperson & CEO of Railway Board
  • Service → Indian Railway Service of Mechanical Engineers (IRSME)
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 655

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The rock at Dhauli (Orissa) has been sculpted to resemble which animal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lion

  2. BOption (b)

    Bull

  3. COption (c)

    Elephant

  4. DOption (d)

    Horse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Elephant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Elephant.

Key Points

  • The rock at Dhauli, located near Bhubaneswar, Odisha, has been sculpted into the shape of an elephant.
  • This elephant sculpture is located near the famous Dhauli Shanti Stupa and is associated with the ancient rock edicts of Emperor Ashoka, which were inscribed after the Kalinga War (circa 261 BCE).
  • The elephant symbolizes Buddha and his teachings, as elephants are revered in Buddhism for their strength, wisdom, and calm demeanor.
  • The Dhauli rock edicts are among the earliest examples of Indian rock-cut architecture and inscriptions, written in the Brahmi script and Prakrit language.
  • These edicts reflect Emperor Ashoka's transformation after the Kalinga War, where he adopted Buddhism and promoted peace, non-violence, and Dharma (righteousness).

Additional Information

  • Kalinga War:
  • The Kalinga War was fought in 261 BCE between Emperor Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire and the kingdom of Kalinga (present-day Odisha).
  • This war caused immense destruction and led to the death of thousands, which profoundly impacted Ashoka, prompting him to embrace Buddhism.
  • After the war, Ashoka focused on spreading the message of peace, non-violence, and compassion.
  • Ashoka's Edicts:
  • The rock edicts of Ashoka are a collection of inscriptions carved on rocks and pillars across the Indian subcontinent.
  • They serve as historical records of Ashoka's policies, governance, and efforts to propagate Buddhism.
  • These inscriptions emphasize ethical principles such as respect for all life, non-violence, and religious tolerance.
  • Dhauli Shanti Stupa:
  • The Dhauli Shanti Stupa, also known as the Peace Pagoda, was built in 1972 by the Kalinga Nippon Buddha Sangha and the Japanese Buddha Sangha.
  • It is a symbol of peace and commemorates Ashoka's transformation after the Kalinga War.
  • Symbolism of the Elephant in Buddhism:
  • The elephant is a significant symbol in Buddhist culture, representing qualities such as strength, wisdom, and tranquility.
  • It is also associated with the birth of Buddha, as it is believed that Queen Maya dreamed of a white elephant before giving birth to Siddhartha Gautama (Buddha).
  • Other Important Edicts:
  • There are 33 inscriptions in the form of Major Rock Edicts, Minor Rock Edicts, and Pillar Edicts spread across India.
  • Examples include the Rock Edicts at Girnar (Gujarat), the Pillar Edicts at Sarnath, and the Rock Edicts at Junagadh.

Important Points

  • The elephant sculpture at Dhauli is considered one of the earliest instances of rock art in Indian history.
  • It is believed to have been commissioned by Emperor Ashoka himself after his transformation post the Kalinga War.
  • The location of Dhauli is significant as it is associated with Ashoka's renunciation of violence and his adoption of the Buddhist path of Dharma.
  • The inscriptions in the Dhauli rock edicts provide insights into Mauryan governance and Ashoka's commitment to ethical and moral values.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 656

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following best reflects the symbolic core of the Jawa Festival celebrated by tribal girls in Jharkhand?

  1. AOption (a)

    It marks the return of ancestral spirits and involves fasting for marital harmony.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is performed to honour forest spirits through grain fermentation and bonfire rituals.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a fertility rite where sprouted seeds and melons symbolize fertility and offspring.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is celebrated after harvest to appease the rain deity through dance and drum rituals.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is a fertility rite where sprouted seeds and melons symbolize fertility and offspring.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is a fertility rite where sprouted seeds and melons symbolize fertility and offspring.

Key Points

  • The Jawa Festival is primarily celebrated by tribal girls in Jharkhand and certain regions of Bihar and Odisha.
  • The festival is a fertility rite that symbolizes the desire for fertility, prosperity, and offspring among young women.
  • Sprouted seeds (such as barley or wheat) and melons are central to the festival's rituals, representing fertility and the potential for new life.
  • The festival involves a unique tradition where sprouted seeds are sown and nurtured by young girls, symbolizing their prayers for a fruitful future and harmonious marital life.
  • Rituals also include songs and dances performed in groups, where participants pray for blessings of fertility and good harvests, ensuring prosperity in the community.

Additional Information

  • Cultural Significance:
  • The Jawa Festival is deeply rooted in tribal traditions and reflects their connection with nature, fertility, and agrarian life.
  • It underscores the importance of community participation and collective prayers for prosperity and well-being.
  • Ritual Practices:
  • During the festival, young girls prepare small clay pots filled with soil and sprouted seeds, which are then worshiped.
  • The sprouted seeds are seen as symbols of fertility, and their growth signifies the fulfillment of prayers for offspring and prosperity.
  • Symbolism of Melons:
  • Melons are a key part of the rituals and are considered a symbolic representation of fertility and offspring.
  • These are offered during prayers and later distributed among family members, signifying shared prosperity.
  • Community Involvement:
  • The festival fosters a sense of unity among the tribal communities, as people come together to celebrate through singing, dancing, and sharing rituals.
  • It also provides an opportunity for young girls to learn and pass down cultural traditions to future generations.

Important Points

  • Tribal Festivals in Jharkhand:
  • Jharkhand is home to many tribal festivals, such as Sarna Puja, Karam Festival, and Jawa Festival, which are deeply tied to nature and agrarian life.
  • These festivals highlight the importance of maintaining harmony with the environment and ancestral traditions.
  • Connection with Agrarian Society:
  • The Jawa Festival reflects the agrarian lifestyle of tribal communities, emphasizing the cyclical nature of life and the importance of fertility in sustaining livelihoods.
  • Celebration Period:
  • The festival is typically celebrated during the post-monsoon period, marking the end of the sowing season and the hope for a bountiful harvest.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 657

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who visits the forest in the Tamil epic Silappadikaram?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cheran

  2. BOption (b)

    Cholan

  3. COption (c)

    Senguttuvan

  4. DOption (d)

    Ilango

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Senguttuvan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Senguttuvan.

Key Points

  • Senguttuvan, a famous Chera king, is a central figure in the Tamil epic Silappadikaram (The Tale of the Anklet), authored by Ilango Adigal.
  • In the epic, Senguttuvan is depicted as an ideal king, known for his virtues, justice, and commitment to upholding dharma.
  • Senguttuvan is renowned for his journey to the Himalayas, where he visits the forest to bring a special stone to create an idol for Kannagi, the heroine of Silappadikaram, who is worshipped as the goddess of chastity.
  • This expedition symbolizes Senguttuvan's dedication to honoring Kannagi and his role in spreading Tamil culture and values.
  • The journey to the forest also signifies the cultural connection between the southern and northern parts of India, as Senguttuvan interacts with northern kings and brings back the stone from the Himalayas.

Additional Information

  • Silappadikaram:
  • Silappadikaram is one of the five great Tamil epics, written by Ilango Adigal, a Jain monk and the brother of Senguttuvan.
  • The epic narrates the story of Kannagi, a chaste woman, and her husband Kovalan, highlighting themes of love, betrayal, and justice.
  • The epic is a rich source of information about the culture, society, and governance of the ancient Tamil kingdoms.
  • It is divided into three parts: Puhar Kandam, Madurai Kandam, and Vanchi Kandam, each describing different phases of the story.
  • Senguttuvan:
  • King Senguttuvan is celebrated as an ideal ruler in Tamil literature and is believed to have ruled the Chera Kingdom during the Sangam period.
  • He is credited with the introduction of the worship of Kannagi as the goddess of chastity, known as Pattini Devi.
  • Senguttuvan's Himalayan expedition is considered a historical and cultural symbol of his commitment to Tamil values and traditions.
  • The Chera Kingdom:
  • The Cheras were one of the prominent Tamil dynasties that ruled the present-day state of Kerala and parts of Tamil Nadu.
  • The Chera rulers were known for their maritime trade and cultural contributions, particularly to Tamil literature.
  • They had significant trade links with the Roman Empire and other ancient civilizations.
  • Kannagi:
  • Kannagi is the central figure in Silappadikaram, revered for her unwavering loyalty and devotion to her husband, even after his wrongful execution.
  • She is worshipped as a goddess in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, embodying virtues like chastity, justice, and righteousness.
  • The story of Kannagi highlights the injustices faced by women and the power of truth and moral integrity.

Important Points

  • The journey to the Himalayas undertaken by Senguttuvan is considered a significant event, as it demonstrates the cultural and political interactions between southern and northern India during ancient times.
  • The creation of the Kannagi idol is symbolic of the reverence for women’s virtue and justice in Tamil culture.
  • Silappadikaram is a key literary work that provides insights into the socio-economic and political life during the Sangam era, including trade, art, and governance.
  • The story emphasizes the importance of justice, morality, and the concept of dharma, which were central to Tamil society.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 658

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which statement(s) about Kabaddi's history is/are correct?

  1. 'Kabaddi' comes from Kaundada, denoting an early defensive formation.

  2. Rules were framed in 1918, printed in 1923, and used in a Baroda tournament.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 is Correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 is Correct

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 is Correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 2 is Correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2 is Correct.

Key Points

  • Statement 1: The claim that 'Kabaddi' comes from Kaundada, denoting an early defensive formation, is incorrect. There is no reliable historical or linguistic evidence to support this origin. The term "Kabaddi" is believed to have derived from Tamil words "kai" (hand) and "pidi" (to hold), referring to the game's physical aspect of holding or grappling.
  • Statement 2: The rules of Kabaddi were indeed framed in 1918, printed in 1923, and used in a tournament held in Baroda. This marks a significant step in formalizing the game and organizing it as a structured sport. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Baroda tournament was one of the earliest documented competitive events for Kabaddi, illustrating the game's transition from a traditional pastime to a regulated sport.
  • The development of standardized rules for Kabaddi was instrumental in its spread to different regions and its eventual recognition as a national and international sport.

Additional Information

  • History of Kabaddi:
  • Kabaddi is an ancient sport with roots in Indian mythology and history. It is believed to have been played for over 4,000 years, with references in the Mahabharata, where Abhimanyu's defensive tactics in a Chakravyuha formation are sometimes likened to the game.
  • The sport has various regional names, such as Chadukudu in Tamil Nadu, Hu-Tu-Tu in Maharashtra, and Ha-Do-Do in Bengal.
  • Modernization of Kabaddi:
  • The first attempt to codify and standardize the rules of Kabaddi was made in 1918, and these rules were officially printed in 1923.
  • The All India Kabaddi Federation was established in 1950 to promote the sport nationally.
  • Kabaddi became a part of the Asian Games for the first time in 1990.
  • Global Reach:
  • Kabaddi is now played internationally, with countries such as India, Iran, South Korea, Pakistan, and Bangladesh excelling in the sport.
  • The Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), launched in 2014, has increased the sport's popularity, blending traditional appeal with modern broadcasting techniques.
  • Key Variants:
  • Kabaddi has two main formats: Circle Style (popular in Punjab and neighboring regions) and Standard Style (used in international competitions).
  • Other variations include Gaminee and Santhosh, which are played in specific regions of India.

Important Points

  • Major Tournaments:
  • The Kabaddi World Cup is organized by the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF).
  • The Asian Kabaddi Championship and South Asian Games are other important events.
  • India's Dominance:
  • India has historically dominated the sport, winning all Kabaddi World Cups held so far in both men's and women's categories.
  • Indian players like Ajay Thakur, Rahul Chaudhari, and Anup Kumar are globally recognized.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 659

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the Vijayanagara rulers in the order of their reign periods?

  1. AOption (a)

    Krishnadeva Raya → Harihara I → Devaraya II

  2. BOption (b)

    Harihara I → Devaraya II → Krishnadeva Raya

  3. COption (c)

    Devaraya II → Krishnadeva Raya → Harihara I

  4. DOption (d)

    Devaraya II → Harihara I → Krishnadeva Raya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Harihara I → Devaraya II → Krishnadeva Raya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harihara I → Devaraya II → Krishnadeva Raya.

Key Points

  • Harihara I (1336–1356):
  • Harihara I was the founder of the Vijayanagara Empire along with his brother Bukka Raya I in 1336.
  • His reign marked the beginning of the Sangama dynasty in South India.
  • He established the empire to resist invasions from the Delhi Sultanate and to revive Hindu culture.
  • Devaraya II (1424–1446):
  • Devaraya II was one of the most prominent rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire from the Sangama dynasty.
  • He was known for his military campaigns and for expanding the empire’s territory significantly.
  • Devaraya II was a patron of art and culture, and his court was adorned with scholars and poets.
  • Krishnadeva Raya (1509–1529):
  • Krishnadeva Raya was the most celebrated ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, belonging to the Tuluva dynasty.
  • Under his rule, the empire reached its zenith of power and prosperity.
  • He is remembered for his military conquests, efficient administration, and patronage of literature and art.

Additional Information

  • Vijayanagara Empire:
  • The Vijayanagara Empire was established in 1336 in South India and lasted until 1646.
  • The empire was known for its strong military, efficient administration, and promotion of Hindu culture and religion.
  • Its capital, Vijayanagara (modern-day Hampi), was one of the largest and most prosperous cities of its time.
  • Key Dynasties of the Vijayanagara Empire:
  • Sangama Dynasty: The first dynasty, established by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I.
  • Saluva Dynasty: Briefly ruled the empire before the Tuluva dynasty.
  • Tuluva Dynasty: Reached its peak under Krishnadeva Raya.
  • Aravidu Dynasty: The last dynasty of the empire, which continued until its decline.
  • Contributions of the Vijayanagara Empire:
  • Promoted Indian art, architecture, and literature, including the construction of iconic temples like the Virupaksha Temple in Hampi.
  • Strengthened trade relations with the Portuguese and other foreign powers.
  • Developed irrigation systems and fostered agricultural growth.
  • Decline of the Vijayanagara Empire:
  • The empire began to decline after the Battle of Talikota in 1565, where it faced a decisive defeat by the Deccan Sultanates.
  • The capital city, Vijayanagara, was sacked and destroyed, leading to the empire's gradual disintegration.

Important Points

  • Harihara I and Bukka Raya I: Both brothers are considered the founders of the Vijayanagara Empire, establishing it as a Hindu kingdom in response to the Islamic invasions in South India.
  • Devaraya II’s Achievements: He strengthened the empire’s military by recruiting Muslim archers and maintained diplomatic relations with neighboring kingdoms.
  • Krishnadeva Raya’s Legacy: He authored the Telugu work ‘Amuktamalyada’ and promoted Hindu temple architecture, including the Vithala Temple in Hampi.
  • Battle of Talikota: This significant battle marked the beginning of the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire, leading to the fall of its glorious capital.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 20 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 660

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Fill in the blank: During World War I the Defence of India Act 1915 empowered the executive to ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    approve preventive detention

  2. BOption (b)

    enforce military recruitment

  3. COption (c)

    create provincial councils

  4. DOption (d)

    ban import of foreign rifles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

approve preventive detention

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is approve preventive detention.

Key Points

  • The Defence of India Act 1915 was enacted during World War I to provide the British Indian government with expansive powers to maintain security and public order in the region.
  • It allowed the government to approve the use of preventive detention, which enabled authorities to detain individuals without trial if they were suspected of anti-government activities.
  • The Act targeted individuals and groups involved in revolutionary activities or those suspected of plotting against the British colonial rule. Hence, the correct answer is "approve preventive detention."
  • Under this law, the government could censor the press, restrict freedom of speech and assembly, and take measures to suppress dissent during wartime.
  • This Act was a response to increasing revolutionary activities in India, including the Ghadar Movement, which was gaining momentum during the war.

Additional Information

  • Defence of India Act, 1915:
  • The Act was passed by the British government in India during 1915 amidst the backdrop of World War I to curb revolutionary activities and internal dissent.
  • It was intended to give the government powers to act swiftly in cases of suspected anti-colonial or revolutionary activities.
  • The Act allowed for the suspension of ordinary legal procedures, enabling the government to arrest and detain individuals without trials.
  • Revolutionary Activities During WWI:
  • The Ghadar Movement, led by Indian expatriates, aimed to overthrow British rule in India through an armed revolution.
  • Revolutionary leaders like Rash Behari Bose and Sachin Sanyal were active during this period, planning uprisings against the British.
  • The Defence of India Act was aimed at suppressing such revolutionary groups and their activities.
  • Preventive Detention:
  • Preventive detention refers to the act of detaining a person to prevent them from committing a possible offense.
  • This power has been criticized for being draconian, as it often bypasses the regular judicial process.
  • Although preventive detention laws existed during British rule, they have also been implemented in independent India under certain circumstances.
  • Impact of the Act:
  • The Act led to widespread criticism of British policies in India, as it curtailed fundamental freedoms such as free speech and assembly.
  • It also highlighted the growing resistance against British rule, which culminated in the independence movement in subsequent decades.

Important Points

  • Other wartime measures:
  • During World War I, the British government implemented several measures to maintain control over India, including censorship of the press and suppression of public dissent.
  • The Defence of India Act was one of the most significant legislative tools used during this period to stifle revolutionary activities.
  • Legacy of the Act:
  • The Defence of India Act, 1915, set a precedent for the use of preventive detention in India.
  • Similar laws were enacted during World War II and were later adopted by independent India in the form of the Preventive Detention Act, 1950.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.