General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Santosh Kumar Sarangi.

Key Points

• Santosh Kumar Sarangi was appointed as the Secretary of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in April 2025.
• He is a senior IAS officer from the Odisha cadre, known for his extensive administrative experience across various sectors.
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) plays a key role in promoting renewable energy sources like solar, wind, hydro, and biomass in India.
• Under Sarangi's leadership, the ministry aims to achieve India's ambitious renewable energy goals, including meeting its 2030 target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity.
• His appointment aligns with the government's focus on clean energy transitions, climate goals, and ensuring energy security for the nation.

Additional Information

• KK Pathak
• KK Pathak is a senior IAS officer known for his contributions to infrastructure development and urban governance reforms.
• He has held various important positions in government administration but was not appointed as the Secretary of MNRE in 2025.
• Rajesh Kumar Sinha
• Rajesh Kumar Sinha is a reputed civil servant recognized for his expertise in policy implementation and governance.
• He has served in multiple capacities but was not chosen for the MNRE Secretary role in April 2025.
• Abhishek Singh
• Abhishek Singh is an accomplished IAS officer with vast experience in digital governance and technology-led public service delivery.
• Despite his impactful work in other domains, he was not appointed as the Secretary of MNRE in 2025.
• Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
• The MNRE is the nodal agency for all matters related to renewable energy development in India.
• India's renewable energy initiatives include flagship programs like the National Solar Mission, National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy, and Waste to Energy Programme.
• India aims to achieve 50% of its installed energy capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030 under its climate commitments.
• The ministry also collaborates with international organizations and governments to foster renewable energy research and development.

The correct answer is Vimāna.

Key Points

• The Vimāna refers to the main sanctum tower of a Draviḍa-style temple, built directly above the garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum).
• It is a hallmark of South Indian temple architecture, especially in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, where the structure is pyramid-like and intricately carved.
• The Vimāna symbolizes Mount Meru, considered the sacred abode of the gods in Hindu cosmology.
• Unlike the Gopuram (gateway tower), the Vimāna is located over the central shrine and is often smaller but more ornately designed.
• The famous example of a Vimāna is the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, where the Vimāna stands at a height of 60 meters.

Additional Information

• Shikhara
• The Shikhara is the tower or spire found in Nāgara-style temples, common in North India.
• It is typically curvilinear in shape and rises vertically above the sanctum sanctorum (garbhagriha).
• The Shikhara represents the sacred mountain and is often adorned with intricate carvings and decorative motifs.
• Famous examples include the Shikharas of the Khajuraho Group of Monuments and the Konark Sun Temple.
• Vihāra
• Vihāra refers to a Buddhist monastery or dwelling place for monks.
• It generally consists of a courtyard surrounded by small cells for the monks, with a central hall used for congregational prayers or teachings.
• Vihāras were prominent during the Mauryan, Gupta, and post-Gupta periods in Indian history.
• Examples include the rock-cut Vihāras at Ajanta and Ellora.
• Gopuram
• The Gopuram is the ornamental gateway tower of Draviḍa-style temples, usually located at the entrance of the temple complex.
• It is a monumental structure adorned with intricate sculptures of deities, mythological scenes, and decorative elements.
• Gopurams are typically larger and more elaborate than the Vimāna, often serving as the temple's most striking feature.
• Famous examples include the towering Gopurams of the Meenakshi Temple in Madurai and the Ranganathaswamy Temple in Srirangam.
• Main Theme: Draviḍa-Style Temples
• Draviḍa-style temples are primarily found in South India and are characterized by pyramidal Vimānas, sprawling courtyards, and elaborate Gopurams.
• These temples are typically constructed using granite, sandstone, or other durable materials, with intricate carvings and inscriptions.
• The central shrine houses the deity, with circumambulatory paths and mandapas (halls) for rituals and gatherings.

The correct answer is "Chamkatja" includes prayers at Chaatam, Chamwangbong dance, and gunfire at the chief's house..

Key Points

• The Nocte tribe celebrates the Loku festival, a harvest festival that marks the end of the agricultural season.
• "Chamkatja" is one of the key components of the Loku festival where rituals and cultural practices are performed.
• The rituals include offering prayers at Chaatam (a sacred location) to invoke blessings from ancestral spirits.
• The Chamwangbong dance, a traditional dance unique to the Nocte tribe, is performed during the festival to celebrate unity and prosperity.
• Gunfire at the chief's house symbolizes the spirit of celebration and marks the official commencement of the festivities.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Famlam" involves omen-reading by elders to determine jhum plots before the buffalo slaughter begins.
• This statement refers to agricultural rituals but is not directly linked to the Loku festival.
• The practice of omen-reading is common among tribal communities to identify auspicious days for various activities.
• Option 3: "Thanglangja" features forest bonfires, rice-beer offerings, and blank firing by women elders.
• While this description aligns with certain tribal rituals, it does not represent a part of the Loku festival.
• Such practices may be observed in other festivals or ceremonies celebrated by the Nocte tribe or other neighboring tribes.
• Option 4: "Loku" derives from "Rang-Ku" meaning prosperity and is fixed by diviners on a lunar eclipse night.
• While Loku is indeed a festival symbolizing prosperity, the etymological derivation from "Rang-Ku" and its fixation on a lunar eclipse night is incorrect.
• The Loku festival is typically celebrated after the harvest season and does not depend on lunar eclipses for its scheduling.
• Main Theme - Loku Festival:
• The Loku festival is one of the most important festivals of the Nocte tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is celebrated with great fervor to mark the conclusion of the agricultural year and to pray for prosperity, unity, and good harvests in the coming year.
• The festival includes various rituals, dances, and communal feasts that showcase the rich cultural heritage of the Nocte tribe.

The correct answer is Magadha.

Key Points

• Magadha was one of the most prominent Mahājanapadas in ancient India, rising to political and military dominance between the 6^th and 4^th centuries BCE.
• The Magadha kingdom was located in present-day Bihar and parts of Jharkhand, with its initial capital at Rajagriha (modern Rajgir) and later at Pataliputra (modern Patna).
• Under rulers like Bimbisara and Ajatashatru of the Haryanka dynasty, Magadha expanded its territory and became the center of Indian politics and culture.
• Magadha played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism and Jainism; both Gautama Buddha and Mahavira spent considerable time in the region.
• The Magadhan empire laid the foundation for larger dynasties such as the Maurya Empire under Chandragupta Maurya and Ashoka, making it a critical hub of ancient Indian history.

Additional Information

• Avanti:
• Avanti was another important Mahājanapada located in present-day Madhya Pradesh, with its capitals at Ujjayini (modern Ujjain) and Mahishmati.
• It was a center of trade and commerce and known for its cultural and economic significance in ancient India.
• Avanti later became a part of the Magadhan empire under the rule of Chandragupta Maurya.
• Kuru:
• The Kuru Mahājanapada was located in present-day Haryana and Delhi regions, with its capital at Indraprastha (modern Delhi).
• The Kurus were known for their contributions to Vedic culture and rituals and were influential in the development of early Hinduism.
• However, Kuru's political significance declined after the rise of other powerful Mahājanapadas like Magadha.
• Gandhāra:
• Gandhāra was a Mahājanapada located in modern-day northern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan, with capitals at Takshashila (Taxila) and Pushkalavati.
• It was a prominent center of learning and trade, particularly known for the Taxila University, one of the oldest universities in the world.
• Gandhāra also played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism, as it was a major hub for Buddhist art and culture.

The correct answer is The lines on the backboard must be white and 50 mm wide.

Key Points

• According to the official basketball equipment specifications set by the International Basketball Federation (FIBA), the lines on the backboard must be white and 50 mm wide.
• The backboard markings include a rectangle above the basketball hoop, which helps players aim and measure their shots accurately.
• These specifications ensure uniformity across basketball courts worldwide, maintaining consistency for professional and amateur games.
• Such precise measurements for the lines are critical for adhering to international standards and ensuring fair play.
• The color white is chosen for the lines for maximum visibility against the standard backboard material, which is often transparent or dark-colored.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The backboard must be 1.05 meters wide and 1.80 meters tall.
• This statement is incorrect. As per FIBA regulations, the standard dimensions of the backboard are 1.80 meters wide and 1.05 meters tall, but the phrasing in the option reverses the dimensions.
• The backboard's dimensions are standardized to ensure uniformity in gameplay across courts globally.
• The backboard is typically made of a transparent material like tempered glass to allow visibility for spectators and players.
• Option 2: The diameter of the ring must be exactly 450 mm.
• This statement is incorrect. The official diameter of the basketball hoop (ring) is 450 mm to 459 mm, as per FIBA standards.
• The inner edge of the ring must have this precise measurement to ensure compatibility with the standard basketball size (No. 7 for men and No. 6 for women).
• The ring is made of steel and must be securely attached to the backboard to withstand the force of dunks and other game actions.
• Option 4: The net must be black with 10 loops to attach it to the ring.
• This statement is incorrect. The net used in basketball is typically made of white cord, not black, for better visibility during gameplay.
• The net is attached to the ring using 12 loops, not 10, ensuring it hangs evenly around the hoop.
• The net's primary function is to slow the ball down after a successful basket, making it easier to identify a score.
• Main Theme: Basketball Equipment Specifications
• Basketball equipment, including the backboard, hoop, net, and court lines, must adhere to precise specifications set by governing bodies like FIBA and the NBA.
• These regulations ensure consistency and fairness in the game, regardless of where it is played.
• Key elements like the dimensions of the backboard, the diameter of the hoop, and the visibility of court markings are all standardized for professional and amateur play.

The correct answer is Aman Sehrawat.

Key Points

• Aman Sehrawat won India's most recent Olympic medal in freestyle wrestling at the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• Competing in the men's freestyle wrestling category, he showcased exceptional skill and determination to claim a podium finish.
• Aman Sehrawat has been a rising star in Indian wrestling, previously winning accolades in international tournaments, including the Asian Wrestling Championships.
• He trains at the Chhatrasal Stadium in Delhi, a hub for producing elite wrestlers like Sushil Kumar and Bajrang Punia.
• His achievement at the Paris 2024 Olympics underscores the continued success and dominance of Indian wrestlers on the global stage.

Additional Information

• Ravi Kumar Dahiya
• Ravi Kumar Dahiya is an Indian freestyle wrestler who won a silver medal in the men's 57 kg category at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• He is known for his incredible stamina and technical skills, having also won multiple medals at the World Wrestling Championships and Asian Wrestling Championships.
• Bajrang Punia
• Bajrang Punia is one of India's most celebrated wrestlers, earning a bronze medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics in the men's 65 kg category.
• He has been a consistent performer in major international events, including the Commonwealth Games, Asian Games, and World Championships.
• Sakshi Malik
• Sakshi Malik made history by becoming the first Indian woman wrestler to win an Olympic medal, earning bronze in the 58 kg category at the Rio 2016 Olympics.
• Her achievement inspired a new generation of female wrestlers in India.
• Freestyle Wrestling in India
• Freestyle wrestling has a rich history in India, with wrestlers consistently bringing laurels from international competitions.
• India's wrestling tradition is deeply rooted in the 'akhada' system, which emphasizes rigorous training and discipline.
• Prominent training centers like the Chhatrasal Stadium and support from organizations like the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) have nurtured world-class talent.

The correct answer is Rayas were called Narapati; Sultans were Ashvapati.

Key Points

• The Vijayanagara Empire used specific terminologies to denote rulers and their characteristics.
• The term Narapati refers to the "Lord of Men" or king, a title attributed to the Rayas of Vijayanagara, emphasizing their role as protectors and leaders of their people.
• The term Ashvapati translates to "Lord of Horses," a title given to Sultans, highlighting their command over cavalry forces, which were a significant part of their military power.
• This distinction reflects how rulers in the Vijayanagara period and their contemporaries were categorized based on their military strengths and governance roles.
• These titles also showcase the cultural and political dynamics between the Hindu Vijayanagara kings and neighboring Islamic Sultanates.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Rayas were called Ashvapati; Sultans were Narapati
• This is incorrect because the term Ashvapati ("Lord of Horses") was used for Sultans, not Rayas. Similarly, the term Narapati ("Lord of Men") was used for the Rayas of Vijayanagara.
• The titles were based on the specific strengths and governance styles of these rulers, with Rayas emphasizing human governance and Sultans emphasizing military prowess through cavalry.
• Option 2: Rayas were called Gajapati; Sultans were Rajguru
• This is incorrect as the term Gajapati ("Lord of Elephants") was a title used by the rulers of Odisha, particularly from the Gajapati dynasty, and not the Vijayanagara Rayas.
• Rajguru refers to a royal spiritual advisor or teacher, a role in court but not a title for rulers.
• Option 4: Both Rayas and Sultans were called Rajadhiraj
• This is incorrect because Rajadhiraj ("King of Kings") was a title generally used by Hindu rulers to emphasize their sovereignty, but it was not used by both Rayas and Sultans together.
• Sultans had their distinct titles based on Islamic traditions, such as Sultan-ul-Islam or Shahenshah.
• The Vijayanagara Empire:
• The Vijayanagara Empire (1336–1646) was a South Indian empire known for its administration, military organization, and cultural achievements.
• It was founded by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty.
• The empire served as a stronghold of Hindu culture and traditions amidst the expansion of Islamic Sultanates in the Deccan and Northern India.
• The empire's rulers used titles and symbols that highlighted their role as protectors of dharma and their people.

The correct answer is 10 to 12 years.

Key Points

• The Age of Consent Act, 1891, was enacted during British rule in India to address the issue of child marriages and improve the condition of women.
• It raised the minimum age of consent for marital relations for girls from 10 years to 12 years.
• It was introduced following the tragic death of an 11-year-old girl, Phoolmoni Dasi, due to marital rape, which led to widespread outrage and calls for reform.
• The Act aimed to protect young girls from forced sexual relations and exploitation within marriage.
• Though the Act faced opposition from orthodox sections of society, it marked a significant step in the social reform movement of colonial India.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 10 to 11 years
• This option is incorrect as the Age of Consent Act, 1891, did not increase the minimum age by just one year.
• The Act was a significant reform aimed at providing better protection for young girls, raising the age limit to 12 instead of 11.
• Option 3: 10 to 13 years
• This option is incorrect because the Act specifically raised the minimum age to 12 years, not 13.
• No legislation under the Age of Consent Act, 1891, mentioned raising the age to 13 years during its enactment.
• Option 4: 10 to 14 years
• This option is incorrect as the Act did not raise the age to 14 years.
• Raising the age to 14 years was not part of the provisions of the Age of Consent Act, 1891.
• Main Theme: The Age of Consent Act, 1891
• The Act was one of the earliest attempts by the British government to introduce social reforms related to the rights of women and girls in India.
• It was a response to increasing awareness and activism by social reformers like Behramji Malabari and others who highlighted the plight of child brides.
• Despite its limitations, the Act paved the way for future legislation aimed at improving the conditions of women and children in India.
• It also sparked debates about the intersection of law, culture, and religion during colonial rule.

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

• Assertion (A): True - India and Nepal continue to face unresolved border tensions in regions like Kalapani and Susta, even though they have finalized over 90% of their boundary strip maps.
• The Kalapani dispute involves territorial claims by both nations over an area of approximately 35 square kilometers. It stems from differing interpretations of the origin of the Kali River, which serves as the boundary according to the 1816 Treaty of Sugauli.
• The Susta region dispute arises due to shifting river courses caused by the Gandak River, which has led to encroachments and conflicting territorial claims between the two countries.
• Both nations have sought to address these issues through diplomatic negotiations and bilateral mechanisms, but no final resolution has been reached to date.
• Reason (R): False - The Susta dispute does not primarily arise due to encroachments by Nepalese villagers. Instead, it is a result of natural changes in the course of the Gandak River, which marks the boundary between India and Nepal. These changes have led to overlapping claims of territory by both nations.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
• This option is incorrect because, while both the assertion and reason are individually true, the reason provided (R) does not correctly explain the assertion (A).
• The Susta dispute arises due to the shifting course of the Gandak River, not because of encroachments by Nepalese villagers.
• Option 2: Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
• This option is also incorrect because the reason (R) is false. The Susta dispute is rooted in natural geographical changes, not encroachments by villagers.
• Option 4: A is false, but R is true
• This option is incorrect because the assertion (A) is true. India and Nepal indeed face unresolved border tensions in regions like Kalapani and Susta.
• However, the reason (R) is false, as discussed earlier.
• Kalapani and Susta Dispute: Main Theme
• Kalapani: The disagreement originates from differing interpretations of the location of the Kali River's source, which forms the border according to the Treaty of Sugauli (1816). India considers the Kalapani area as part of Uttarakhand, while Nepal claims it as part of its Darchula district.
• Susta: The dispute in this region is caused by the shifting course of the Gandak River, which serves as a natural boundary. This has led to overlapping claims by both nations over certain tracts of land.
• Both disputes remain a subject of bilateral discussions and diplomatic engagement, with no conclusive resolution as of now.

The correct answer is A global history centered on cultural and political exchanges along the Silk Road regions.

Key Points

• Peter Frankopan's book, "The Silk Roads: A New History of the World," focuses on the interconnectedness of civilizations through cultural, political, and economic exchanges along the Silk Road regions.
• It emphasizes the importance of the Silk Roads as a central axis in the development of global history, challenging the traditional Eurocentric narrative.
• The book highlights how trade routes facilitated the spread of religions, technologies, goods, and ideas across Europe, Asia, and Africa, reshaping the world.
• Frankopan explores historical events and their impact on modern globalization, demonstrating how the Silk Roads have shaped geopolitics over centuries.
• The work provides a comprehensive view of the interactions among diverse cultures, kingdoms, and empires, making it a pivotal contribution to understanding world history.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The colonization of the Americas by European powers
• This topic primarily focuses on the exploration, conquest, and colonization of the Americas by European nations such as Spain, Portugal, France, and Britain between the 15^th and 18^th centuries.
• It involves the exploitation of indigenous peoples, the transatlantic slave trade, and the establishment of colonial economies based on agriculture, mining, and trade.
• While significant in shaping modern history, this subject is distinct from the Silk Roads' focus on Eurasian interconnectivity.
• Option 2: The trade disputes between ancient Rome and China
• Trade disputes between Rome and China are not a central theme in Frankopan's book.
• Historical interactions between Rome and China were limited, mainly through intermediaries like the Parthians, and focused on goods such as silk and spices.
• The book examines broader patterns of cultural and political exchange rather than specific bilateral trade disputes.
• Option 4: The history of Western Europe from the Renaissance to the Industrial Revolution
• This option pertains to the transformation of Western Europe during the Renaissance (14^th–17^th centuries) and the subsequent Industrial Revolution (18^th–19^th centuries).
• While important, this period is Eurocentric and does not capture the global scope of Frankopan's work, which centers on the Silk Roads as a worldwide phenomenon.
• Main Theme: The Silk Roads
• The Silk Roads were ancient trade routes connecting East Asia, Central Asia, the Middle East, and Europe, facilitating the exchange of goods, ideas, and culture.
• They played a crucial role in shaping civilizations, fostering trade networks, and driving cultural diffusion across continents.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• The Northern Plains of India are among the most agriculturally productive regions due to their fertile alluvial soil, formed by deposits from rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Brahmaputra.
• The region has a favorable climate, characterized by adequate rainfall and a long growing season, which supports the cultivation of diverse crops such as wheat, rice, sugarcane, and pulses.
• The availability of water for irrigation from perennial rivers in the region reduces dependence on monsoons, ensuring consistent agricultural output.
• The fertile plains are supported by a dense population, which provides a readily available workforce for farming and facilitates infrastructure development for agricultural activities.
• These factors—fertile soil, favorable climate, and sufficient water supply—are the primary reasons behind the high agricultural productivity of the Northern Plains, directly explaining Assertion (A).

Additional Information

• Option 2: Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
• This option is incorrect because the reason (R)—fertile alluvial soil, favorable climate, and adequate water supply—is the direct explanation of why the Northern Plains are agriculturally productive, making it the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
• Option 3: A is true, but R is false
• This option is incorrect as both the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. The Northern Plains are agriculturally productive, and the factors mentioned in R are valid and accurate explanations for this productivity.
• Option 4: A is false, but R is true
• This option is incorrect because the Assertion (A) is true. The Northern Plains are indeed one of the most agriculturally productive regions in India, supported by the factors stated in the Reason (R).
• Main Theme: The Northern Plains of India
• The Northern Plains of India, also known as the Indo-Gangetic Plains, are formed by the deposition of sediments brought by Himalayan rivers and their tributaries.
• These plains span several states, including Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.
• The region is divided into three main sections: the Punjab Plains, the Ganga Plains, and the Brahmaputra Plains.
• Due to their fertile soil and abundant water resources, the Northern Plains play a crucial role in India's agriculture, contributing significantly to the production of staple crops like wheat and rice.
• The region's dense population and well-developed infrastructure facilitate efficient agricultural practices and the distribution of produce across the country.

The correct answer is 2035, 2040.

Key Points

• India's Space Vision 2047 outlines ambitious goals for the country's space exploration capabilities, including setting up the Bharatiya Antariksha Station in orbit by 2035.
• The Bharatiya Antariksha Station is envisioned to be India's indigenous space station, enabling long-term human space missions and international collaborations.
• Another milestone in this vision is to land Indian astronauts on the Moon by 2040 using technologies developed entirely within India.
• This initiative aims to enhance India's status as a spacefaring nation, advancing research, technology, and innovation in space exploration.
• The Space Vision 2047 aligns with India's broader goals of self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) and technological leadership in the global space domain.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 2030, 2035
• While ambitious, the timeline of establishing a space station by 2030 is considered unrealistic given the current pace of development and required investment.
• India's human spaceflight program, Gaganyaan, is still in its early stages, and achieving such milestones by 2030 would require significant advancements in technology, infrastructure, and resources.
• Option 3: 2040, 2047
• This timeline extends the goals significantly and may not align with the strategic objectives of Space Vision 2047.
• India aims to achieve these milestones earlier to maintain competitiveness in global space exploration and scientific advancements.
• Option 4: 2027, 2035
• The timeline of 2027 for setting up a space station is impractical given the current stage of India's space program.
• Such a timeframe would require unprecedented acceleration in research, development, and international collaboration, which is unlikely in the short term.
• Main Theme: India's Space Vision 2047
• India's Space Vision 2047 is a long-term strategic roadmap for advancing the nation's space capabilities.
• It emphasizes self-reliance in developing cutting-edge technologies, including human spaceflight, lunar exploration, and interplanetary missions.
• The vision includes fostering international collaborations, boosting scientific research, and contributing to global space exploration efforts.
• Key components of this vision involve indigenous spacecraft development, advanced propulsion systems, and space station construction.
• ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) plays a pivotal role in executing this ambitious plan, supported by private sector participation and global partnerships.

The correct answer is Sarabjot Singh - Swimming.

Key Points

• Sarabjot Singh is an Indian athlete specializing in shooting, not swimming.
• He competes in the 10m Air Pistol event and has achieved remarkable success in this discipline, including winning gold medals at international shooting competitions.
• Shooting is governed by the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF), and Sarabjot Singh represents India in ISSF events.
• He is considered one of India's promising young shooters and has contributed significantly to the country's medal tally in shooting sports.
• The pairing of Sarabjot Singh with swimming in the question is incorrect, as he is not associated with this sport.

Additional Information

• Lovlina Borgohain - Boxing
• Lovlina Borgohain is an Indian boxer who specializes in the welterweight category.
• She won a bronze medal in boxing at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, becoming the third Indian boxer to achieve this feat.
• Lovlina is a recipient of the prestigious Arjuna Award and has participated in several international tournaments, representing India in boxing.
• Her inclusion as a boxer in the question is correct, as she is widely recognized for her achievements in this sport.
• Tajinderpal Singh Toor - Shot Put
• Tajinderpal Singh Toor is an Indian athlete who specializes in the shot put event.
• He holds the Asian record in shot put and has won gold medals at the Asian Games and Asian Athletics Championships.
• Shot put involves throwing a heavy spherical object (shot) as far as possible, governed by rules set by the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF).
• Tajinderpal Singh Toor's pairing with shot put in the question is correct, as he is renowned for his achievements in this discipline.
• Jyothi Yarraji - 100m hurdles
• Jyothi Yarraji is an Indian track and field athlete who specializes in the 100m hurdles event.
• She is known for breaking the national record in the women's 100m hurdles multiple times and has earned accolades for her performances in national and international competitions.
• Hurdling is a track and field event that involves running and jumping over obstacles (hurdles) placed at regular intervals.
• Her pairing with 100m hurdles in the question is accurate, as she is a prominent athlete in this sport.
• Main Theme: National Games 2025
• The National Games are a multi-sport event held in India, where athletes from various states compete in different sports disciplines.
• They are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and serve as a platform to identify and nurture sporting talent across the country.
• The National Games promote sportsmanship, unity, and a healthy competitive spirit among athletes.
• The 2025 edition of the National Games is expected to feature numerous sports, showcasing India's best athletes.

The correct answer is 1983.

Key Points

• The Sarkaria Commission was established by the Government of India in 1983 to examine and review the working of existing arrangements between the Central and State governments.
• The commission was chaired by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, a former judge of the Supreme Court of India.
• Its primary objective was to recommend changes to improve the relationship and distribution of powers between the Centre and States.
• The Sarkaria Commission submitted its report in 1988, providing detailed recommendations on various issues concerning federal governance in India.
• The commission emphasized cooperative federalism and suggested ways to strengthen the autonomy of states while maintaining the unity of the nation.

Additional Information

• Option 2: 1990
• This year does not align with the establishment of the Sarkaria Commission.
• However, during the early 1990s, significant political changes occurred in India, including the rise of coalition governments which further highlighted the importance of Centre-State relations.
• Option 3: 1992
• 1992 marks the introduction of the 73^rd and 74^th Constitutional Amendments, which provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions and urban local bodies.
• These amendments focused on decentralization and strengthening grassroots governance but are unrelated to the Sarkaria Commission.
• Option 4: 2000
• In 2000, India witnessed administrative reforms such as the formation of new states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Uttarakhand.
• While these changes impacted Centre-State relations, they are not connected to the establishment of the Sarkaria Commission.
• Main Theme: Centre-State Relations in India
• India has a quasi-federal structure, where powers are distributed between the Centre and States as per the Constitution.
• The Sarkaria Commission was a landmark initiative to address challenges in this arrangement and recommend measures for effective governance.
• Key recommendations included guidelines for the imposition of President’s Rule, principles for the appointment of Governors, and the role of the Inter-State Council.
• Many of its recommendations continue to influence debates and policies on federalism in India.

The correct answer is 9 units.

Key Points

• Electric energy consumption is measured in kilowatt-hours (kWh), also referred to as "units."
• To calculate the energy consumed, the formula is Energy (kWh) = Power (kW) × Time (hours).
• The power of the lamp is given as 60 W, which is equivalent to 0.06 kW (since 1 kW = 1000 W).
• Daily usage is 5 hours, so the daily energy consumption is 0.06 × 5 = 0.3 kWh.
• For 30 days, the total energy consumed is 0.3 × 30 = 9 kWh.

The correct answer is Religious personal laws (e.g., Hindu Marriage Act, Muslim Personal Law).

Key Points

• The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposal to replace personal laws based on religious scriptures and customs with a common set governing every citizen.
• Personal laws in India differ for various religious communities, covering marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption, and maintenance.
• The UCC aims to ensure equality and secularism by providing a single legal framework applicable to all citizens, regardless of religion.
• India’s personal laws are currently governed by religious texts and practices, such as the Hindu Marriage Act, Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, and Christian Marriage Act.
• The implementation of the UCC is mentioned in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution under the Directive Principles of State Policy, which states that the state shall endeavor to secure a uniform civil code for all citizens.

Additional Information

• Criminal Laws
• Criminal laws in India are uniform and codified under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), and other related legislations.
• These laws govern crimes such as theft, murder, fraud, and other acts punishable under Indian law.
• Unlike personal laws, criminal laws are applicable to every citizen equally, irrespective of religion or community.
• Property Laws
• Property laws in India are governed by statutes like the Transfer of Property Act, Indian Succession Act, and state-specific land laws.
• While inheritance laws are partially influenced by religious personal laws, the general property laws are secular and uniformly applicable.
• The UCC is not aimed at replacing these general property laws but addresses issues of inheritance governed by religious practices.
• Environmental Laws
• Environmental laws in India, such as the Environment Protection Act, 1986, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, are secular and uniformly applicable.
• These laws aim to safeguard natural resources, reduce pollution, and ensure sustainable development.
• Environmental laws are not related to the UCC, which focuses on personal laws governing family and societal relationships.
• Main Theme: Uniform Civil Code
• The UCC is a subject of debate in India, balancing the ideals of secularism and cultural diversity.
• Its proponents argue that it ensures gender equality and national integration, while critics view it as an encroachment on religious freedoms.

The correct answer is Assess nutrient status.

Key Points

• The Soil Health Card Scheme was launched by the Government of India in February 2015 to promote sustainable agriculture.
• The primary objective is to assess the nutrient and health status of soil across the country.
• The scheme provides farmers with soil health cards that include detailed information on soil nutrients, deficiencies, and recommendations for improving soil fertility.
• The soil health card suggests crop-specific fertilizers and integrated nutrient management practices to enhance productivity.
• By promoting scientific soil management, the scheme aims to reduce dependency on chemical fertilizers and ensure sustainable agricultural practices.

Additional Information

• Improve seed quality
• Improving seed quality refers to providing farmers with high-yielding, pest-resistant, and drought-tolerant seed varieties.
• Although improving seed quality is important for increasing agricultural productivity, it is not the direct focus of the Soil Health Card Scheme.
• Other government programs, such as the National Seed Policy, cater to the development and distribution of quality seeds.
• Promote organic farming
• Organic farming involves the use of natural inputs like compost, green manure, and biological pest control to enhance soil and crop health.
• While the Soil Health Card Scheme indirectly supports organic farming by reducing chemical fertilizer use, its primary focus is on soil nutrient assessment.
• Initiatives like the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) are specifically designed to promote organic farming practices in India.
• Prevent land acquisition
• Preventing land acquisition refers to safeguarding agricultural land from being acquired for non-agricultural purposes.
• This is not related to the Soil Health Card Scheme, as the scheme focuses on soil health and nutrient management, not land ownership or acquisition issues.
• Land acquisition laws and policies are governed under the Land Acquisition Act, 2013, which is unrelated to this scheme.
• Main Theme: Soil Health Card Scheme
• The Soil Health Card Scheme is a flagship program by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare to address declining soil fertility and productivity.
• It involves soil testing, preparation of soil health cards for individual farmers, and providing recommendations for efficient nutrient management.
• By ensuring balanced fertilizer use, the scheme helps reduce input costs for farmers and promotes sustainable agricultural practices.

The correct answer is He assassinated a government approver.

Key Points

• Baikuntha Shukla played a key role in the Indian freedom struggle by assassinating Phanindranath Ghosh, a government approver who betrayed revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev.
• Phanindranath Ghosh had turned into a British informant, leading to the arrest and execution of several revolutionary leaders.
• Shukla carried out the assassination on 9 November 1932 to uphold the revolutionary spirit and discourage betrayal within the freedom movement.
• He was associated with the revolutionary organization Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), which was instrumental in fighting British colonial rule through armed resistance.
• Baikuntha Shukla was arrested, tried, and eventually hanged on 14 May 1934, making him one of the youngest martyrs of the Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

• Champaran Satyagraha (Option 1):
• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was led by Mahatma Gandhi and marked his first significant involvement in the Indian freedom struggle.
• It was initiated to address the grievances of farmers in Bihar who were forced to grow indigo under oppressive conditions imposed by British landlords.
• This non-violent movement resulted in the abolition of the exploitative tinkathia system and marked Gandhi's emergence as a mass leader in India.
• Protest against Simon Commission (Option 2):
• The Simon Commission, formed in 1927, was a British initiative to review constitutional reforms in India, but it lacked Indian representation.
• The commission was met with widespread protests, and the slogan "Simon Go Back" became popular.
• Lala Lajpat Rai suffered fatal injuries during a protest against the commission in 1928, further igniting nationalist sentiments.
• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) (Option 4):
• The HSRA was a revolutionary organization formed in 1928 by leaders like Chandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev.
• The group aimed to overthrow British rule through direct action, including armed resistance and political assassinations.
• HSRA members carried out significant actions, such as the assembly bombing in 1929 and the assassination of British police officer J.P. Saunders in 1928.
• Baikuntha Shukla and the Revolutionary Movement:
• Baikuntha Shukla's actions reflect the dedication and sacrifices of revolutionaries who believed in armed struggle as a means to achieve independence.
• His martyrdom serves as a reminder of the diverse strategies employed in India's fight against colonial oppression, ranging from non-violent satyagraha to armed resistance.

The correct answer is Only 1 correct.

Key Points

• Dangi dance is performed by the Dangi Adivasi community primarily from the Dang district of Gujarat, India.
• This traditional dance is deeply rooted in the cultural practices and social life of the Dangi Adivasis.
• The dance involves synchronized group movements and is often performed during festivals and community gatherings.
• It is characterized by vibrant costumes and rhythmic steps, showcasing the rich tribal heritage of Gujarat.
• The second statement, which claims that the dance is a solo narrative mimicking farm tools, is incorrect as Dangi is not a solo performance, nor does it mimic farm tools.

Additional Information

• Statement 1:
• Statement 1 is correct as it accurately identifies the Dangi dance as a traditional art form of the Dangi Adivasis in Gujarat's Dang district.
• The Dangi community is known for its vibrant culture and unique tribal art, including dance forms that often depict stories and celebrate their way of life.
• Statement 2:
• Statement 2 is incorrect since Dangi is a group dance rather than a solo performance.
• It does not involve mimicking farm tools, unlike some other tribal or folk dances that depict agricultural activities.
• About Dangi Community:
• The Dangi Adivasis are an indigenous tribal group residing in the Dang district of Gujarat and parts of Maharashtra.
• Their cultural practices include music, dance, and rituals that are integral to their festivals and social ceremonies.
• Other Tribal Dances of Gujarat:
• Tippani Dance: Performed by women, this dance involves the use of wooden sticks to create rhythmic sounds.
• Garba: A popular folk dance of Gujarat often performed during Navratri, involving circular movements and clapping.
• Raas: A traditional dance form using dandiya sticks, often associated with Lord Krishna's Raas Leela.

The correct answer is The next best alternative foregone.

Key Points

• Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative that is foregone when a choice is made.
• It represents the benefits or value that could have been gained if the resources had been utilized in the next best alternative.
• The concept is a fundamental principle in economics and helps in decision-making where resources are scarce and trade-offs are inevitable.
• Opportunity cost is not always expressed in monetary terms; it can also include time, effort, or other non-monetary factors.
• This principle underlines the importance of evaluating all possible options before committing resources to a specific decision.

Additional Information

• The cost of production
• This refers to the total expenditure incurred by a business to produce goods or services, including costs of raw materials, labor, and overheads.
• It is used to determine the selling price and profitability of a product or service.
• Unlike opportunity cost, this focuses only on the monetary aspect of production and does not consider foregone alternatives.
• The cost of labor
• This is a specific component of production cost and refers to the wages, salaries, and benefits paid to employees for their work.
• It can be divided into direct labor costs (workers directly involved in production) and indirect labor costs (support staff, management, etc.).
• It does not encompass the broader concept of trade-offs like opportunity cost.
• The total money spent
• This phrase typically refers to the sum of all expenses made by an individual, organization, or government in a particular context.
• It is a straightforward accounting measure and does not account for the value of forgone alternatives.
• While it helps in budgeting and tracking expenditures, it does not address the economic implications of resource allocation like opportunity cost does.