General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Square base with curving walls.

Key Points

• The Nagara-style shikhara is a distinct feature of Hindu temple architecture, predominantly found in northern India.
• The simplest form of the Nagara-style shikhara is characterized by a square base, which serves as the foundation of the structure.
• The walls of the shikhara are curving inwards as they rise, creating a pyramidal or tower-like appearance.
• These curving walls give the structure its unique aesthetic, symbolizing a mountain or the cosmic axis (axis mundi).
• The Nagara-style is often adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures, representing deities, motifs, and mythological stories.
• This architectural style is most commonly associated with temples such as the Khajuraho Group of Monuments and other northern Indian temple complexes.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Circular base with domes
• This design is not characteristic of Nagara-style architecture but is more closely associated with Islamic architecture.
• Domes and circular bases are prominent features in structures like mosques and mausoleums, such as the Taj Mahal.
• Option 3: Triangular base with garden
• Triangular bases are not a feature of traditional Indian temple architecture.
• The inclusion of a garden is typically associated with Mughal architecture, which emphasizes symmetry and landscaping, as seen in structures like Humayun’s Tomb and the Taj Mahal.
• Option 4: Rectangular base with domes
• Rectangular bases with domes are associated with Indo-Islamic architecture rather than Nagara-style temples.
• This style is often seen in palaces, mosques, and forts built during the Mughal and Sultanate periods.
• Main Theme: Nagara-Style Architecture
• The Nagara style is one of the three main types of temple architecture in India, alongside Dravidian and Vesara styles.
• It is characterized by the vertical elevation of the shikhara and the absence of elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
• Nagara-style temples often have mandapas (pillared halls) leading to the garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum), where the main deity resides.
• This style is widely prevalent in northern and central India, with notable examples including the Sun Temple at Konark and temples in Khajuraho.

The correct answer is Veneration of indigenous tribal deities.

Key Points

• The Kharchi festival is a significant cultural and religious festival in Tripura, primarily dedicated to the veneration of 14 indigenous tribal deities, collectively referred to as the "Chaturdasha Devata."
• It is observed annually at the Chaturdasha Devata Temple, located in Old Agartala, Tripura.
• The festival involves elaborate rituals, including the ceremonial bathing of the deities in the sacred river followed by their worship with traditional offerings like flowers, fruits, and animal sacrifices.
• The Kharchi Puja is deeply rooted in tribal traditions and signifies the cleansing of sins and the offering of gratitude to the deities for protecting the community and ensuring prosperity.
• The festival is celebrated over a period of seven days and attracts a large number of devotees, both tribal and non-tribal, symbolizing communal harmony and cultural integration in the state.

Additional Information

• Worship of Lord Jagannath:
• The worship of Lord Jagannath is associated with the famous Rath Yatra festival, primarily celebrated in Puri, Odisha.
• Rath Yatra involves the grand chariot procession of Lord Jagannath, his brother Balabhadra, and sister Subhadra, attracting millions of devotees.
• Lord Jagannath is a revered deity in Hinduism and is considered an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
• Commemoration of Tripura's Statehood Day:
• Tripura's statehood day is celebrated on 21^st January every year, marking the day Tripura became a full-fledged state in 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.
• It is an occasion of pride for the people of Tripura, highlighting the state's rich cultural heritage and socio-economic progress.
• Worship of River Goddess Yamuna:
• The worship of Goddess Yamuna is commonly associated with the festival of Yamuna Jayanti or Yam Dwitiya, celebrated in certain parts of India.
• Yamuna is considered a sacred river goddess and the sister of Yama, the god of death, according to Hindu mythology.
• On this occasion, devotees perform rituals and offer prayers along the banks of the Yamuna River, seeking blessings for prosperity and purification of sins.

The correct answer is Devaputra.

Key Points

• The Kushana rulers adopted the title Devaputra, which translates to "Son of God," to assert their divine status and legitimacy as rulers.
• This title reflects their attempt to link their authority to divine origins, thereby elevating their status in the eyes of their subjects.
• The Kushanas were known for their syncretic culture, combining elements of Greek, Persian, Indian, and Central Asian traditions. The use of divine titles was part of this cultural synthesis.
• The title "Devaputra" was prominently used by rulers like Kanishka, who was one of the greatest Kushana emperors and is also known for his contributions to Buddhism.
• The adoption of divine titles helped the Kushana rulers to consolidate their empire and establish a sense of unity among diverse populations under their rule.

Additional Information

• Rajadhiraja:
• This term means "King of Kings" and was used by various Indian rulers to signify their paramount status among other rulers.
• It was a title often adopted by rulers of the Chola dynasty and other South Indian kingdoms to assert their dominance in the region.
• While the Kushanas were known for adopting titles with divine connotations, "Rajadhiraja" emphasized political supremacy rather than divine association.
• Chakravartin:
• The term "Chakravartin" refers to an ideal universal ruler or "one who rules the wheel" (symbolizing the wheel of dharma or sovereignty).
• It was a title used in ancient Indian texts to describe rulers who controlled vast territories and upheld dharma (moral law).
• Famous Mauryan emperor Ashoka is often referred to as a Chakravartin for his efforts to spread Buddhism and establish moral governance.
• The Kushana rulers, however, focused more on divine legitimacy rather than the concept of universal sovereignty implied by "Chakravartin."
• Maharajadhiraja:
• Maharajadhiraja means "Great King of Kings" and was a title used to denote supreme political authority in ancient India.
• It was commonly used by Gupta rulers, who were known for their administrative prowess and cultural achievements.
• While the Kushanas did use grand titles, their emphasis was on divine association through titles like "Devaputra" rather than political supremacy implied by "Maharajadhiraja."
• Main Theme:
• The Kushanas were a Central Asian dynasty that ruled over large parts of northern India, Central Asia, and Afghanistan during the 1^st to 3^rd centuries CE.
• Their rulers were known for adopting titles and practices that reflected their syncretic culture and political aspirations.
• The title "Devaputra" exemplifies their strategy of using divine legitimacy to strengthen their rule and create a unified empire.
• The Kushanas also played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism, with Kanishka convening the Fourth Buddhist Council and contributing to the development of Mahayana Buddhism.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• In Judo, a match ends immediately if a player scores an Ippon, which is equivalent to a full point, or receives a Hansoku-make, which signifies disqualification.
• Ippon is awarded when a player executes a perfect technique, such as a throw where the opponent lands on their back with force and control, or achieves a successful pin for 20 seconds.
• Hansoku-make refers to a serious violation of Judo rules, such as prohibited actions or dangerous techniques, which results in the immediate disqualification of the player.
• This rule ensures safety and adherence to the principles of Judo, emphasizing respect, discipline, and fair play during the match.
• The immediate termination of the match upon Ippon or Hansoku-make is a fundamental aspect of Judo competitions and aligns with the sport’s emphasis on decisive outcomes.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Shime-Waza are arm locks targeting the elbows
• This statement is incorrect. Shime-Waza refers to choking techniques in Judo, which involve restricting the opponent’s airflow or blood flow to induce submission.
• The arm locks targeting the elbows in Judo are categorized under Kansetsu-Waza, not Shime-Waza.
• Kansetsu-Waza techniques are designed to apply pressure on joints, particularly the elbows, forcing the opponent to submit.
• Option 3: Judoka can strike and kick but cannot attack joints other than elbows
• This statement is incorrect. Strikes and kicks are strictly prohibited in Judo as it is a grappling martial art focused on throws, pins, joint locks, and chokeholds.
• Judoka are allowed to attack joints only within the scope of Kansetsu-Waza, and even then, only the elbow joint is targeted.
• The prohibition of strikes and kicks reflects Judo’s emphasis on technique, control, and safety rather than brute force or aggression.
• Option 4: Hansoku-make is a minor penalty in Judo
• This statement is incorrect. Hansoku-make is not a minor penalty; it is the most severe penalty in Judo and leads to immediate disqualification.
• Minor penalties in Judo are referred to as Shido, which are warnings for less severe rule violations, such as passivity or improper gripping.
• Hansoku-make is awarded for major rule violations, such as dangerous techniques, unsportsmanlike behavior, or repeated minor penalties.
• Main Theme: Judo Techniques and Rules
• Judo is a modern martial art and Olympic sport developed by Jigoro Kano in Japan. It focuses on techniques such as throws (Nage-Waza), ground techniques (Ne-Waza), pins (Osaekomi-Waza), joint locks (Kansetsu-Waza), and chokes (Shime-Waza).
• The rules of Judo are designed to ensure fairness and safety, with penalties for violations and clear criteria for scoring.
• The emphasis is on skill, precision, and the use of an opponent’s energy and movement to execute techniques effectively.

The correct answer is Bhira.

Key Points

• Babur’s first conquest in India was the region of Bhira, located in Punjab, which was strategically important for establishing his foothold in India.
• This conquest occurred in 1519, during Babur’s early expeditions into the Indian subcontinent.
• Bhira provided Babur a base to secure his operations and enabled further campaigns in northern India.
• It was a well-fortified town, and its capture demonstrated Babur’s military strategy and organizational skills.
• The conquest of Bhira was part of Babur’s initial efforts to expand his empire and was a precursor to his later victories, such as the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.

Additional Information

• Panipat
• The First Battle of Panipat was fought on 21 April 1526, between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi.
• It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India and was one of the earliest battles to use gunpowder firearms and field artillery in the subcontinent.
• Panipat was not Babur’s first conquest in India but was the decisive battle that established his dominance.
• Lahore
• Babur’s campaign in Lahore occurred later as part of his efforts to consolidate his empire after the First Battle of Panipat.
• Lahore was an important cultural and political center and played a significant role in the Mughal Empire’s administration.
• Sialkot
• Sialkot was another important city in Punjab, but it was not Babur’s first conquest during his campaigns in India.
• It became part of the Mughal Empire as Babur expanded his influence in the region.

The correct answer is By winning three repechage bouts after losing his opening match.

Key Points

• Sushil Kumar won the bronze medal in the 66 kg freestyle wrestling category at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• After losing his opening match to Andriy Stadnik of Ukraine, he entered the repechage round due to Stadnik advancing to the final.
• In the repechage round, Sushil Kumar secured victories in three consecutive bouts against Doug Schwab (USA), Albert Batyrov (Belarus), and Leonid Spiridonov (Kazakhstan).
• He defeated Leonid Spiridonov in the bronze medal match, making history as the first Indian wrestler to win an Olympic medal since Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav’s bronze in 1952.
• This achievement brought wrestling back into the spotlight in India and inspired a new generation of wrestlers.

Additional Information

• Option 1: By winning all his bouts consecutively without any loss
• This option is incorrect as Sushil Kumar lost his opening match against Andriy Stadnik. He did not have an undefeated run in the tournament.
• Winning all bouts consecutively is a rare occurrence in wrestling, especially at the Olympic level, due to tough competition.
• Option 3: By defeating the reigning champion in the finals
• This option is incorrect because Sushil Kumar did not compete in the final match of the tournament; he competed in the bronze medal bout.
• He faced Leonid Spiridonov in the repechage round for the bronze medal and not the reigning champion in the finals.
• Option 4: By receiving a walkover in the semifinals
• This option is incorrect as Sushil Kumar did not participate in the semifinals. He advanced through the repechage round after losing his first match.
• In Olympic wrestling, a walkover occurs when an opponent is unable to compete due to injury or other reasons, but this scenario did not apply to Sushil Kumar in the 2008 Olympics.
• Main Theme: Repechage System in Wrestling
• The repechage system gives wrestlers who lose to a finalist a second chance to compete for a bronze medal.
• This system ensures that wrestlers who face strong opponents early in the tournament still have a fair chance at securing a medal.
• It is commonly used in wrestling tournaments, including the Olympics, to maintain competitive fairness.

The correct answer is Banu Mushtaq & Deepa Bhasthi.

Key Points

• Banu Mushtaq & Deepa Bhasthi won the International Booker Prize in 2025 for their collaborative work, which has been recognized as a significant contribution to global literature.
• The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a book translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland, with the prize money shared equally between the author and translator.
• The winning work by Banu Mushtaq & Deepa Bhasthi explores themes of identity, displacement, and cultural resilience, resonating with readers across linguistic and cultural boundaries.
• The jury for the International Booker Prize comprises prominent authors, critics, and literary figures who assess the shortlisted works based on originality, literary merit, and global impact.
• This recognition highlights the growing influence of South Asian authors and translators in international literary circles.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Samantha Harvey
• Samantha Harvey is a British author renowned for her works such as "The Wilderness" and "The Western Wind."
• Her novels often delve into themes of memory, morality, and existential questions, earning her several literary accolades but not the International Booker Prize in 2025.
• Option 3: Geetanjali Shree
• Geetanjali Shree, an Indian author, won the International Booker Prize in 2022 for her novel "Tomb of Sand," translated by Daisy Rockwell.
• This historic win marked the first time a work originally written in Hindi received this prestigious award.
• Her works explore themes of feminism, partition, and post-colonial identity, but she did not win the prize in 2025.
• Option 4: Vincenzo Latronico
• Vincenzo Latronico is an Italian author and translator known for his literary and philosophical works.
• While his contributions to literature are notable, he did not win the International Booker Prize in 2025.
• Main Theme: The International Booker Prize
• The International Booker Prize celebrates translated works of fiction, promoting cross-cultural understanding and appreciation.
• It underscores the importance of translators in bringing literary masterpieces to a global audience.
• The prize has significantly contributed to the recognition of diverse voices in literature from around the world.

The correct answer is Option 1: 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• The 73^rd Inter Services Water Polo Championship is an annual event conducted to foster sportsmanship and excellence among armed forces personnel.
• The event is organized by the Eastern Naval Command, which is responsible for promoting aquatic sports within the armed forces.
• In the 2024-25 edition, Visakhapatnam, a major naval base and city in Andhra Pradesh, served as the host city.
• The championship brings together top teams and athletes from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force, showcasing their skill and teamwork in water polo.
• There is no evidence or reliable source confirming that the tournament took place in April 2025, aligning with the armed forces' annual aquatic events calendar, making statement 3 incorrect.

Additional Information

• Statement 1: The Eastern Naval Command is a major formation of the Indian Navy that is headquartered in Visakhapatnam. It often takes the lead in hosting aquatic championships, such as the Inter Services Water Polo Championship, to encourage participation and excellence in water sports.
• Statement 2: Visakhapatnam is a significant location for the Indian Navy, hosting several naval facilities and events. Its infrastructure and proximity to the Eastern Naval Command headquarters make it an ideal venue for aquatic events.
• Statement 3: The claim that the tournament occurred in April 2025 is not substantiated. The annual events calendar of the armed forces typically schedules aquatic championships at various times during the year, but specific dates vary. Thus, this statement lacks confirmation and is incorrect.
• Importance of the Championship:
• The Inter Services Water Polo Championship provides a platform for armed forces personnel to demonstrate their physical endurance, teamwork, and strategic skills in water sports.
• Such events promote camaraderie and foster a sense of unity among the different branches of the armed forces.

The correct answer is Provides Inter-State Council framework.

Key Points

• Article 263 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears to him that the public interests would be served by such a council.
• The primary role of the Inter-State Council is to facilitate coordination between the Union and State governments, ensuring harmonious decision-making.
• The Council can inquire into and discuss disputes or subjects of common interest between states or between the Union and one or more states.
• It provides a forum for discussing administrative issues and suggesting better methods for policy and implementation of decisions affecting Union-State relations.
• The Inter-State Council is an advisory body and does not have executive powers; its recommendations are not binding.

Additional Information

• Settles taxation disputes (Option 1)
• Taxation disputes between states or between the Union and states are primarily resolved through institutions such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, set up under Article 279A of the Constitution.
• The GST Council is responsible for making recommendations to the Union and States on issues related to GST, including tax rates and exemptions.
• Article 263 does not directly deal with settling taxation disputes.
• Creates Zonal Councils (Option 2)
• Zonal Councils are established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and are not directly linked to Article 263.
• These councils aim to promote cooperation and coordination between states in each zone and with the Union government.
• There are five Zonal Councils: Northern, Southern, Eastern, Western, and Central, and they address regional issues like economic development, infrastructure, and border disputes.
• Enforces Emergency Provisions (Option 4)
• Emergency provisions are governed by Articles 352, 356, and 360 of the Constitution and are unrelated to Article 263.
• These provisions empower the President to declare a National Emergency, President’s Rule in a state, or a Financial Emergency under specific circumstances.
• Article 263 is focused on coordination and cooperation between the Union and states and does not deal with emergencies.

The correct answer is 2) 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Statement 2: The efficiency of an ideal heat engine depends only on the reservoir temperatures. This is in accordance with the Carnot theorem, which states that the efficiency of a reversible heat engine operating between two thermal reservoirs is solely a function of their absolute temperatures (T_H and T_C). The efficiency is given by the formula: η = 1 - (T_C/T_H).
• Statement 3: Heat flows from a colder body to a hotter body only when external work is applied. This is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics, which states that natural heat flow occurs from hot to cold, and reversing this process requires work (e.g., in refrigeration systems).
• The second law of thermodynamics governs both the efficiency of heat engines and the heat flow direction, ensuring these statements are scientifically accurate and interrelated.
• Both statements are fundamental principles in thermodynamics and are universally accepted in physics and engineering applications.
• Hence, both statements 2 and 3 are correct, making option 2 the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Statement 1: "Work done in irreversible expansion is greater than in quasi-static expansion."
• This statement is incorrect. In irreversible processes, work done is generally less than in quasi-static (reversible) processes because of factors like dissipation, friction, and rapid changes. Quasi-static processes maximize work output by maintaining equilibrium throughout the process.
• For example, in an isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas, the work done (W = nRT ln(V_f/V_i)) is higher compared to an irreversible expansion under similar conditions.
• Thermodynamic Processes:
• A thermodynamic process refers to the path through which a system changes its state (e.g., pressure, volume, temperature) due to interactions with its surroundings.
• Examples include isothermal, adiabatic, isobaric, and isochoric processes.
• Heat Engines:
• A heat engine is a device that converts heat energy into mechanical work by operating between two thermal reservoirs.
• Key components of a heat engine include the source (hot reservoir), the working substance, and the sink (cold reservoir).
• The Carnot cycle is the most efficient theoretical heat engine cycle, but real engines operate at efficiencies lower than Carnot efficiency due to irreversibilities.
• Second Law of Thermodynamics:
• The second law establishes the direction of natural processes, stating that entropy (disorder) in an isolated system tends to increase over time.
• It also explains why perpetual motion machines of the second kind are impossible, as no engine can be 100% efficient.

The correct answer is Arms.

Key Points

• Jhora dance is a traditional folk dance performed in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
• The dance is typically performed during festivals, marriages, and other celebratory occasions, symbolizing joy and unity.
• Participants form a circle and hold each other by the arms, moving rhythmically to the beats of traditional music.
• Jhora dance involves synchronized movements and vibrant attire, reflecting the cultural heritage of the region.
• This dance is often accompanied by folk songs sung in the Kumaoni dialect, enhancing its cultural significance.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Shoulders
• While holding by the shoulders is a common style in various group dances globally, it is not a feature of the Jhora dance.
• In some folk dances, such as certain tribal dances, participants may hold each other by the shoulders to maintain formation and rhythm.
• Option 3: Waist
• Holding by the waist is typically seen in dances that require closer physical coordination, such as ballroom dancing or certain traditional couple dances.
• In Jhora dance, participants maintain a bit more distance by holding arms rather than the waist.
• Option 4: Wrists
• Holding by the wrists is common in some forms of folk dances and ceremonial dances where participants form chains or circles.
• However, the Jhora dance emphasizes holding by the arms for better movement synchronization.
• Main Theme: Jhora Dance
• Jhora is a significant cultural expression of the Kumaon region, showcasing the traditional values and festive spirit of the community.
• The dance fosters a sense of belonging and togetherness among participants and spectators alike.
• It is a reflection of the vibrant culture and traditions of Uttarakhand.

The correct answer is It uses over 60 factors including logistics and geography to calculate the PowerIndex.

Key Points

• The Global Firepower (GFP) review is an annual military strength ranking that evaluates nations based on their military capabilities.
• The PowerIndex (PwrIndx) score is calculated using over 60 individual factors, encompassing categories like manpower, equipment, natural resources, financial stability, and geography.
• The ranking methodology emphasizes diversity over quantity; for instance, having a balanced mix of naval assets is more favorable than having a large fleet of a single type.
• Geography plays a crucial role, as nations with strategic locations or extensive coastlines may gain an advantage in specific areas.
• Nuclear stockpiles are considered but do not dominate the ranking system, ensuring non-nuclear nations can also rank competitively.

Additional Information

• Option 1: It considers only the number of active military personnel
• This statement is incorrect because the GFP ranking is not solely based on manpower but evaluates a comprehensive range of factors.
• While active military personnel is an important component, other elements like reserve forces, equipment, and logistics are equally significant.
• Focusing only on manpower would ignore critical aspects like training, technology, and operational readiness.
• Option 2: It ranks nations solely based on nuclear capabilities
• This is incorrect as nuclear capability is only one of the factors considered in the GFP ranking.
• The review includes nuclear stockpiles but ensures that non-nuclear powers are not unfairly disadvantaged.
• The methodology focuses on overall military potential rather than singular factors like nuclear weapons.
• Option 4: It ranks countries alphabetically within continents
• This option is incorrect as the GFP ranking is based on calculated PowerIndex scores and not alphabetical or regional order.
• Countries are ranked globally, with their position determined by overall military strength rather than their location or name.
• Global Firepower (GFP) Overview
• The GFP review is widely recognized for its thorough and unbiased assessment of military strength.
• The ranking includes data from 145 nations, providing a comprehensive analysis of global military power.
• The PowerIndex score is inversely proportional, meaning a lower score indicates a stronger and more capable military.
• It excludes political or current conflict considerations, focusing purely on measurable military factors.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• India's first Green Hydrogen Hub is planned in Andhra Pradesh, which aims to lead the country's transition to clean energy.
• This initiative aligns with India’s National Hydrogen Mission, launched in 2021 to make India a global hub for green hydrogen production.
• Andhra Pradesh has been chosen due to its strategic location, abundant renewable energy resources, and proximity to ports, making it ideal for green hydrogen production and export.
• The state government is collaborating with private players and investors to establish facilities for green hydrogen production, focusing on decarbonizing industries like steel, cement, and transportation.
• The project is expected to promote sustainability, reduce carbon emissions, and enhance the energy security of India while boosting the regional economy.

Additional Information

• Punjab
• Punjab is a leading agricultural state in India but is not currently at the forefront of green hydrogen production.
• The state is, however, exploring renewable energy opportunities, particularly in solar and biomass energy, to reduce its carbon footprint.
• West Bengal
• West Bengal is an industrial hub with a strong focus on coal-based industries and thermal power plants.
• Efforts are being made to transition to cleaner energy sources, but the state is not a planned location for India's first Green Hydrogen Hub.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra, being an industrially advanced state, is actively working on renewable energy projects, including solar and wind energy.
• It has not yet been designated as a site for a Green Hydrogen Hub, but the state is exploring hydrogen-based technologies for decarbonization.
• Green Hydrogen and Its Importance
• Green hydrogen is produced using renewable energy sources like solar and wind power through electrolysis, making it environmentally friendly.
• It plays a vital role in decarbonizing sectors such as transportation, heavy industries, and energy storage.
• India aims to become a global leader in green hydrogen production under its National Hydrogen Mission, reducing dependence on fossil fuels and lowering greenhouse gas emissions.

The correct answer is Chandrayaan-1.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-1, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in October 2008, was India’s first lunar mission.
• The mission made a significant breakthrough by discovering lunar hydration (water molecules) on the Moon’s surface using NASA’s Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3) instrument onboard.
• This discovery confirmed the presence of hydroxyl (OH) and water (H2O) molecules in the polar regions of the Moon.
• Chandrayaan-1 provided evidence of water ice in permanently shadowed craters near the Moon's poles, revolutionizing our understanding of lunar resources.
• The mission successfully functioned for 312 days and significantly contributed to lunar science, including creating a detailed 3D atlas of the Moon's surface.

Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-2
• Launched in July 2019, Chandrayaan-2 aimed to explore the Moon’s south polar region for water ice and other resources.
• It consisted of an orbiter, a lander named Vikram, and a rover named Pragyan.
• While the lander lost communication during its descent, the orbiter continues to function, sending valuable data about the Moon’s surface and exosphere.
• Chandrayaan-2 further refined the findings of Chandrayaan-1 regarding the presence of water molecules.
• Chandrayaan-3
• As of October 2023, Chandrayaan-3 is ISRO’s latest lunar mission and focuses on demonstrating safe landing and roving capabilities.
• It is a follow-up mission to Chandrayaan-2, consisting of a lander and rover but no orbiter.
• The primary goal is to ensure a successful soft landing on the Moon and study its surface composition and seismic activity.
• Chandrayaan-4
• Chandrayaan-4 is not an officially announced mission by ISRO as of now. It is speculated to be a potential future lunar mission.
• ISRO is currently focusing on Chandrayaan-3 and other interplanetary missions like Gaganyaan and Aditya-L1.
• Lunar Hydration Discovery
• The discovery of water on the Moon is crucial for future human exploration, as it can support life, act as a resource for producing oxygen, and be used as rocket fuel.
• This finding has reshaped strategies for lunar exploration, making the Moon a potential hub for space missions.

The correct answer is Only 2.

Key Points

• Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offense under certain circumstances, including in cases of death sentences.
• The Governor, under Article 161, has similar powers but does not have the authority to pardon a death sentence. The power to pardon a death sentence is exclusively vested in the President under Article 72.
• The second statement, "The Governor cannot pardon in cases of death sentence," is correct as the Governor can only commute or remit such sentences but cannot grant a full pardon.
• The first statement, "Both President and Governor can grant pardons under Article 72," is incorrect because the Governor does not exercise powers under Article 72. The Governor's pardoning power is provided under Article 161.
• Thus, the correct answer is Only 2.

Additional Information

• President's Pardoning Powers (Article 72):
• The President has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, or commutations of punishments for offenses under:
• Union law.
• Matters concerning the executive power of the Union.
• Death sentences (exclusive power).
• This power is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• Governor's Pardoning Powers (Article 161):
• The Governor can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, or commutations for offenses under:
• State law.
• The Governor cannot pardon a death sentence, as this power is exclusively reserved for the President.
• Key Differences Between Article 72 and 161:
• While both the President and Governor can grant pardons and similar reliefs, only the President can pardon death sentences.
• The jurisdiction of the President's power extends to offenses under Union laws, while the Governor's power is limited to State laws.

The correct answer is guardian divinities.

Key Points

• The sacred masked dances performed at the Hemis Monastery are known as Cham dances and are integral to the Buddhist festivals celebrated in Ladakh.
• These dances symbolize various guardian divinities of the Drugpa lineage, who are believed to protect the Buddhist teachings and practitioners.
• The guardian divinities are often depicted in elaborate masks and costumes, showcasing their wrathful and protective nature in Buddhist iconography.
• These performances are deeply spiritual and are conducted as a form of meditation and ritual to ward off negative energies and invoke blessings.
• The Hemis Festival, celebrated annually at the Hemis Monastery, is dedicated to Lord Padmasambhava, a major figure in Tibetan Buddhism, and features these sacred dances.

Additional Information

• Reincarnated Lamas
• Reincarnated lamas, also known as tulkus, are spiritual leaders believed to be the rebirths of enlightened beings or teachers in Tibetan Buddhism.
• These individuals play a pivotal role in guiding and preserving Buddhist teachings, but they are not directly related to the Cham dances at Hemis.
• Examples include the Dalai Lama and Panchen Lama, who are significant figures in Tibetan Buddhism.
• Ancient Kings
• Ancient kings, while often revered in cultural and historical contexts, are not the focus of the sacred dances performed at Hemis.
• The dances are more centered around spiritual themes like divinities, protection, and enlightenment rather than historical figures.
• However, Tibetan and Ladakhi history do include stories of kings who supported Buddhism, such as King Songtsen Gampo of Tibet.
• Ancestral Spirits
• Ancestral spirits are often venerated in various cultures and religions, including shamanistic practices, but they do not play a role in the Cham dances at Hemis.
• Buddhist rituals at Hemis focus on deities and divinities rather than ancestral spirits.
• The concept of spirits in Buddhism is more aligned with karmic cycles and the realms of existence rather than familial ancestors.
• Main Theme: Drugpa Lineage and Cham Dance
• The Drugpa lineage is one of the major schools of Tibetan Buddhism, known for its emphasis on tantric practices and meditation.
• The Cham dances are a significant part of Buddhist rituals, representing stories and teachings through symbolic movements and masks.
• These dances are performed to honor protector deities, ensure the spiritual welfare of the community, and celebrate the teachings of Buddhism.

The correct answer is Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.

Key Points

• Statement 1: The amalaka is a distinctive, circular, ribbed stone disk that sits atop the shikhara (tower) of Nagara-style temples. This is a defining feature of the Nagara temple architecture.
• The amalaka symbolizes the celestial world and serves as a crowning feature of the shikhara, emphasizing verticality and spiritual connection.
• Statement 2: In Drāviḍa-style temples, the vimana refers to the tower or superstructure directly above the sanctum (garbhagriha), not the gateway tower (gopuram). The gopuram refers to the ornate gateway towers found predominantly in Drāviḍa temples.
• The confusion arises because both the vimana and gopuram are tall structures, but their functions and locations within the temple complex differ.
• Therefore, Statement 1 is correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Nagara Style of Temple Architecture:
• The Nagara style is primarily found in northern India and is characterized by its curvilinear shikhara (tower).
• The amalaka and kalasha are prominent features atop the shikhara.
• The temples have a square base and are often built on a raised platform called a jagati.
• Examples include the Kandariya Mahadev Temple in Khajuraho and the Sun Temple in Konark.
• Drāviḍa Style of Temple Architecture:
• The Drāviḍa style is predominant in southern India and is known for its pyramidal vimanas above the sanctum.
• The gopurams, or gateway towers, are a unique feature of this style and are often more prominent than the vimana itself.
• The temples are enclosed within walls, with multiple gopurams marking the entrances.
• Examples include the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur and the Meenakshi Temple in Madurai.
• Key Differences Between Nagara and Drāviḍa Styles:
• The Nagara style emphasizes verticality with curvilinear shikharas, while the Drāviḍa style has tiered and pyramidal vimanas.
• Gopurams are a hallmark of the Drāviḍa style, but they are absent in the Nagara style.
• The Nagara temples are relatively smaller and lack boundary walls, unlike the enclosed complexes of Drāviḍa temples.
• Additional Terminologies:
• Shikhara: The tower or spire above the sanctum in Nagara-style temples.
• Amalaka: The circular, ribbed stone disk atop the shikhara, symbolizing the divine.
• Vimana: The pyramidal structure above the sanctum in Drāviḍa-style temples.
• Gopuram: Ornate gateway towers, typically found in Drāviḍa temple complexes.
• Garbhagriha: The innermost sanctum of a temple where the deity resides.

The correct answer is Adeya - "that which is to be surrendered" (tribute/dues).

Key Points

• The term Adeya was used during the Gupta dynasty to signify tribute or dues that were to be surrendered by the vassals or conquered territories to the ruling authority.
• It reflects the system of taxation and the relationship between the Gupta rulers and their subordinate rulers or territories.
• The tribute or dues (Adeya) were often in the form of cash, kind, or labor, and they formed an integral part of the revenue system during this period.
• Under the Gupta administration, land revenue was the primary source of income, and Adeya supplemented it through contributions from allied or conquered regions.
• This system demonstrates the hierarchical and feudal nature of governance in the Gupta period, emphasizing the economic and political dependency of subordinate rulers on the central authority.

Additional Information

• Vaishtthika - enjoyment tax
• The term "Vaishtthika" does not appear in the historical records of the Gupta dynasty, and there is no reference to it as an "enjoyment tax."
• However, the Gupta administration did impose various types of taxes like Bali (customary tribute), Bhaga (share of produce), and Kara (land revenue).
• The term provided in this option is incorrect in the context of the question.
• Bhaga - forced-labour levy
• Bhaga refers to a share of agricultural produce collected as tax from farmers during the Gupta dynasty.
• It was one of the most important sources of revenue for the state and was typically one-sixth of the produce.
• Bhaga was not a forced-labor levy, making this option incorrect.
• Dasaparadha - grain tithe
• There is no historical evidence of the term "Dasaparadha" being used to refer to a grain tithe during the Gupta period.
• The administration during this era primarily relied on taxes like Bali, Bhaga, and Kara for revenue collection.
• This option is historically inaccurate and unrelated to the Gupta taxation system.

The correct answer is Folk Songs.

Key Points

• The term 'Ragam' in Haryana refers specifically to folk songs, which are an integral part of the region's cultural heritage.
• These folk songs are distinct from classical music and do not follow the Raga-Ragint system of Indian classical music.
• Haryanvi folk songs often narrate tales of love, valor, and devotion, reflecting the social and cultural fabric of the region.
• Such songs are performed during festivals, celebrations, and other communal gatherings, emphasizing their role in fostering community bonding.
• Examples of popular Haryanvi folk songs include 'Phag', 'Ragini', and 'Chaupai', which are performed in various traditional contexts and are unique to Haryana.

Additional Information

• Seasonal Songs
• Seasonal songs are folk songs that are linked to specific seasons or agricultural activities.
• They are sung to celebrate the changing seasons, harvests, or festivals like Basant and Teej in Haryana.
• These songs often convey themes of gratitude to nature and a celebration of life associated with the seasons.
• Marriage Ritual Songs
• Marriage ritual songs in Haryana are an important part of wedding ceremonies and are sung to mark different stages of the rituals.
• Examples include songs sung during 'Haldi', 'Mehndi', and 'Bidaai' ceremonies.
• These songs often express emotions of joy, humor, and sadness associated with weddings and are an essential part of the cultural tradition.
• Lullabies
• Lullabies are soft and melodious songs sung to soothe and put infants to sleep.
• In Haryana, lullabies often carry messages of love, blessings, and hopes for the child's future.
• These songs are generally passed down orally from generation to generation and are a cherished part of the region's musical heritage.

The correct answer is 20 meters.

Key Points

• In a relay race, the baton exchange zone is a standardized area where runners must pass the baton to ensure a smooth and efficient transition.
• The standard length of the baton exchange zone is 20 meters, as per regulations established by the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF).
• The exchange zone starts 10 meters before and ends 10 meters after the designated start point of the next runner's leg in the relay.
• The proper exchange of the baton within this 20-meter zone is critical; any exchange outside the zone results in disqualification.
• The rules are designed to ensure fairness and maintain the integrity of the competition, as well as to avoid accidents during the exchange process.

Additional Information

• 10 meters:
• 10 meters is the length of the "acceleration zone" provided to the incoming runner before they enter the baton exchange zone.
• It is a preparatory area in which the next runner can build momentum before receiving the baton.
• However, the baton must still be passed within the 20-meter exchange zone, not the acceleration zone.
• 15 meters:
• There is no official rule in athletics that specifies a 15-meter exchange zone.
• This option is incorrect and does not align with IAAF regulations for relay races.
• 30 meters:
• 30 meters is not associated with the baton exchange zone in relay races.
• This length is much longer than the standardized exchange zone, which is strictly set at 20 meters.
• Allowing a 30-meter exchange zone would disrupt the uniformity and timing required in professional relay events.
• Main Theme:
• The baton exchange zone is a crucial component of relay races, ensuring an even playing field and smooth transitions between runners.
• Proper adherence to the 20-meter exchange zone rule is essential for teams to avoid disqualification and maintain competitive performance.
• Relay races, particularly the 4x100m and 4x400m events, are some of the most thrilling athletic competitions, requiring speed, precision, and teamwork.