Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2024 Tier-II Official Paper-I (Held On: 18 Jan, 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

ΔABC is inscribed in a circle with Centre O. If AB = 21 cm, BC = 20 cm and AC = 29 cm, then what is the length of the circumradius of the triangle?

  1. AOption (a)

    13.5 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    21.5 cm

  3. COption (c)

    32.5 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    14.5 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14.5 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Check for a Pythagorean triplet: 202 + 212 = 400 + 441 = 841, and 292 = 841.

Since AB2 + BC2 = AC2, ΔABC is a right-angled triangle.

The circumcentre of a right-angled triangle always lies exactly at the midpoint of its hypotenuse.

⇒ Circumradius = Hypotenuse ÷ 2

⇒ Circumradius = 29 ÷ 2 = 14.5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14.5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

In ΔABC:

⇒ AB = 21 cm, BC = 20 cm, and AC = 29 cm

Formula Used:

⇒ Circumradius (R) = (a × b × c) ÷ (4 × Area)

⇒ Semi-perimeter (s) = (a + b + c) ÷ 2

⇒ Area = √[s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)]

A C B O 21 cm 20 cm 29 cm R

Calculations:

First, find the semi-perimeter (s) of the triangle:

⇒ s = (21 + 20 + 29) ÷ 2 = 70 ÷ 2 = 35 cm

Calculate the area using Heron's formula:

⇒ Area = √[35 × (35 − 21) × (35 − 20) × (35 − 29)]

⇒ Area = √[35 × 14 × 15 × 6]

⇒ Area = √44100 = 210 cm2

Substitute the values into the circumradius formula:

⇒ R = (21 × 20 × 29) ÷ (4 × 210)

⇒ R = 12180 ÷ 840

⇒ R = 14.5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14.5 cm.

Additional Information

Circumcentre of a Triangle

It is the point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides. The distance from the circumcentre to all vertices is equal to the circumradius (R).

Location of Circumcentre

For an acute triangle, it lies inside. For an obtuse triangle, it lies outside. For a right-angled triangle, it lies exactly at the midpoint of the hypotenuse.

Inradius of a Right Triangle

The inradius (r) can be directly found using the formula: r = (a + b − c) ÷ 2, where a and b are perpendicular sides and c is the hypotenuse.

Question 2

On a 2200 m long circular track, Sarita and Kavita drove their cycles from the same point but in opposite direction with the speeds 20 km/hr and 16 km/hr, respectively. After how much time will they meet again for the first time?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 minutes 40 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    3 minutes 20 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    2 minutes 50 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    2 minutes 20 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3 minutes 40 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Since they move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.

Relative Speed = 20 + 16 = 36 km/hr

Convert relative speed to m/s: 36 × (5 ÷ 18) = 10 m/s

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 2200 ÷ 10 = 220 seconds

220 seconds = 3 minutes 40 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 3 minutes 40 seconds.

Alternate Method

Given:

Track length (Distance) = 2200 m

Speed of Sarita = 20 km/hr

Speed of Kavita = 16 km/hr

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (when moving in opposite directions) = S1 + S2

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Relative Speed = 20 + 16 = 36 km/hr

⇒ Speed in m/s = 36 × (5 ÷ 18) = 10 m/s

⇒ Time taken to meet = 2200 ÷ 10

⇒ Time = 220 seconds

⇒ Convert seconds into minutes: 220 ÷ 60 = 3 minutes and 40 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 3 minutes 40 seconds.

Additional Information

Meeting in Same Direction

When moving in the same direction on a circular track, Relative Speed = |S1 − S2|. Time to meet = Distance ÷ |S1 − S2|.

Meeting at Starting Point

To find when multiple runners meet exactly at the starting point again, calculate the LCM of the times taken by each individual to complete one full round.

Conversion Factor

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by (5 ÷ 18). To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by (18 ÷ 5).

Question 3

In a triangle HJK, HJ = HK. G is a point on HJ such that HG = GK = JK. What is the degree measure of two-third of (∠HGK + ∠GKJ)?

  1. AOption (a)

    84°

  2. BOption (b)

    136°

  3. COption (c)

    90°

  4. DOption (d)

    96°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

96°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let ∠H = x. In isosceles ΔHGK (HG = GK), ∠GKH = x, making exterior ∠JGK = 2x.

In isosceles ΔGKJ (GK = JK), ∠GJK = 2x. Since HJ = HK, ∠HKJ = ∠HJK = 2x.

Angle sum of ΔHJK: x + 2x + 2x = 180° ⇒ x = 36°.

∠HGK = 180° − 2x = 108° and ∠GKJ = 180° − 4x = 36°.

Required value = 2⁄3 × (108° + 36°) = 2⁄3 × 144° = 96°.

∴ The correct answer is 96°.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ HJ = HK

⇒ HG = GK = JK

Calculations:

⇒ Let ∠H = x.

⇒ HG = GK ⇒ ∠GKH = ∠H = x.

⇒ Exterior ∠JGK = ∠H + ∠GKH = 2x.

⇒ GK = JK ⇒ ∠GJK = ∠JGK = 2x ⇒ ∠HJK = 2x.

⇒ HJ = HK ⇒ ∠HKJ = ∠HJK = 2x.

⇒ ΔHJK angle sum: ∠H + ∠HJK + ∠HKJ = 180°

⇒ x + 2x + 2x = 180° ⇒ 5x = 180° ⇒ x = 36°.

⇒ ∠HGK = 180° − 2x = 180° − 72° = 108°.

⇒ ∠GKJ = 180° − 4x = 180° − 144° = 36°.

⇒ 2⁄3 × (∠HGK + ∠GKJ) = 2⁄3 × (108° + 36°)

⇒ 2⁄3 × 144° = 96°.

∴ The correct answer is 96°.

Additional Information

Isosceles Triangle Property

In a triangle, angles opposite to equal sides are always equal in measure.

Exterior Angle Theorem

The measure of an exterior angle of a triangle equals the sum of the two opposite non-adjacent interior angles.

Angle Sum Property

The sum of all interior angles in any type of triangle is always exactly 180°.

Question 4

Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.5% per annum rate of interest for the period from 14 February 2023 to 28 April 2023

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total time from 14 Feb to 28 Apr = 14 + 31 + 28 = 73 days.

Convert days to years: 73 ÷ 365 = 1/5 years.

SI = P × R × T ÷ 100

SI = 2000 × 6.5 × (1/5) ÷ 100 = 20 × 1.3

SI = 26

∴ The correct answer is ₹26.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2000

Rate of interest (R) = 6.5% per annum

Time period = 14 February 2023 to 28 April 2023

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

where T is time in years.

Calculations:

⇒ Count the exact number of days from 14 Feb 2023 to 28 Apr 2023.

⇒ Since 2023 is not a leap year, February has 28 days.

⇒ Days in February (excluding the starting day) = 28 − 14 = 14 days

⇒ Days in March = 31 days

⇒ Days in April = 28 days

⇒ Total days = 14 + 31 + 28 = 73 days

⇒ Time in years (T) = 73 ÷ 365 = 1/5 years

⇒ Substitute values into the Simple Interest formula:

⇒ SI = (2000 × 6.5 × 1) ÷ (100 × 5)

⇒ SI = (20 × 6.5) ÷ 5

⇒ SI = 130 ÷ 5 = 26

∴ The correct answer is ₹26.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI) vs Compound Interest (CI)

Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal amount, whereas Compound Interest is calculated on the principal as well as the accumulated interest from previous periods.

Time Calculation Rule

When calculating simple interest between two exact dates, it is standard practice to exclude the first date and include the last date (or vice versa), such that the total number of days strictly equals the mathematical difference between dates.

Converting Days to Years

If the time period is given in days, T is obtained by dividing the total number of days by 365. Frequent standard test values include 73 days (1/5 years) and 146 days (2/5 years).

Question 5

The population of a place increased to 50,000 from 2016 to 2018 at the rate of 6% per annum, and continued the same trend for the next 3 years. If A is the population in 2016 and B is the population in 2020, both are approximated to the next possible integers, then the value of B - A is:

  1. AOption (a)

    11680

  2. BOption (b)

    13220

  3. COption (c)

    16270

  4. DOption (d)

    12850

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11680

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective % increase for 2 years at 6% p.a. = 6 + 6 + (6 × 6)/100 = 12.36%

Multiplying factor for 2 years = 1.1236

Population in 2020 (B) = 50,000 × 1.1236 = 56,180

Population in 2016 (A) = 50,000 ÷ 1.1236 ≈ 44,500 (approximated to next integer)

Difference B − A = 56,180 − 44,500 = 11,680

∴ The correct answer is 11680.

Alternate Method

Given:

Population in 2018 = 50,000

Rate of increase = 6% per annum

A = Population in 2016, B = Population in 2020

Formula Used:

Population after n years = Initial Population × (1 + R/100)n

Calculation:

⇒ Time period from 2016 to 2018 = 2 years

⇒ 50,000 = A × (1 + 6/100)2

⇒ A = 50,000 ÷ 1.1236 = 44499.82 ≈ 44,500

⇒ Time period from 2018 to 2020 = 2 years

⇒ B = 50,000 × (1 + 6/100)2

⇒ B = 50,000 × 1.1236 = 56,180

⇒ Value of B − A = 56,180 − 44,500 = 11,680

∴ The correct answer is 11680.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes successively by a% and then b%, the effective percentage change is calculated as: a + b + (a × b) / 100.

Population Growth Formula

If the initial population is P and it grows at a compound rate of R% per annum, the population after n years is given by: P × (1 + R/100)n.

Depreciation Formula

If the value or population decreases at R% per annum, the value after n years is given by: P × (1 − R/100)n.

Question 6

If the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is 121 : 225, then find the ratio of their corresponding sides.

  1. AOption (a)

    15 : 13

  2. BOption (b)

    11 : 15

  3. COption (c)

    9 : 11

  4. DOption (d)

    11 : 13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11 : 15

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The ratio of corresponding sides of similar triangles is exactly equal to the square root of the ratio of their areas.

⇒ Ratio of corresponding sides = √121 : √225

⇒ Ratio of corresponding sides = 11 : 15

∴ The correct answer is 11 : 15.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of the areas of two similar triangles = 121 : 225

Formula Used:

For any two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides: Area1 / Area2 = (Side1 / Side2)2

Area = 121 Side 1

Area = 225 Side 2

Calculations:

Let the areas of the two similar triangles be A1 and A2, and their corresponding sides be S1 and S2 respectively.

⇒ A1 / A2 = 121 / 225

⇒ (S1 / S2)2 = 121 / 225

Taking the square root on both sides,

⇒ S1 / S2 = √(121 / 225)

⇒ S1 / S2 = 11 / 15

⇒ S1 : S2 = 11 : 15

∴ The correct answer is 11 : 15.

Additional Information

Ratio of Perimeters

The ratio of the perimeters of two similar triangles is directly equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Ratio of Medians and Altitudes

The ratio of the corresponding medians, corresponding altitudes, and corresponding angle bisectors of two similar triangles is exactly equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Volumes of Similar Solid Figures

If two solid geometric figures are similar, the ratio of their volumes is equal to the cube of the ratio of their corresponding linear dimensions (V1 / V2 = (S1 / S2)3).

Question 7

Find the value of Y, if X - 2Y + 2Z = 16, X - Y + Z = 9 and 2X - 3Y - Z = 9.

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    -4

  4. DOption (d)

    -3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Multiply the second equation by 2 to get: 2X − 2Y + 2Z = 18.

Subtract the first equation from this result: (2X − 2Y + 2Z) − (X − 2Y + 2Z) = 18 − 16 ⇒ X = 2.

Substitute X = 2 into equations 2 and 3 to get: −Y + Z = 7 and −3Y − Z = 5.

Add these two new equations to eliminate Z: (−Y + Z) + (−3Y − Z) = 7 + 5 ⇒ −4Y = 12 ⇒ Y = −3.

∴ The correct answer is -3.

Alternate Method

Given:

X − 2Y + 2Z = 16   --- (1)

X − Y + Z = 9   --- (2)

2X − 3Y − Z = 9   --- (3)

Calculations:

⇒ From equation (2), express Z in terms of X and Y: Z = 9 − X + Y

⇒ Substitute the value of Z in equation (1):

⇒ X − 2Y + 2(9 − X + Y) = 16

⇒ X − 2Y + 18 − 2X + 2Y = 16

⇒ −X + 18 = 16

⇒ X = 2

⇒ Substitute X = 2 in equation (2):

⇒ 2 − Y + Z = 9

⇒ −Y + Z = 7   --- (4)

⇒ Substitute X = 2 in equation (3):

⇒ 2(2) − 3Y − Z = 9

⇒ 4 − 3Y − Z = 9

⇒ −3Y − Z = 5   --- (5)

⇒ Adding equations (4) and (5):

⇒ (−Y + Z) + (−3Y − Z) = 7 + 5

⇒ −4Y = 12

⇒ Y = −3

∴ The correct answer is -3.

Additional Information

System of Linear Equations

A set of two or more linear equations with the same variables. Finding the solution involves calculating the values for the variables that make all equations true simultaneously.

Elimination Method

This technique solves a system of equations by multiplying equations by constants and then adding or subtracting them to cancel out one of the variables, making the system easier to solve.

Substitution Method

A systematic method where one equation is algebraically solved for one variable, and that result is plugged into the other equations to reduce the number of unknown variables.

Question 8

Rani and Adya, working separately, can finish a task in 12 days and 16 days, respectively. They work in stretches of one day alternately. If Rani starts working first, then the task will be completed in

  1. AOption (a)

    121312 \frac{1}{3} days

  2. BOption (b)

    122312 \frac{2}{3} days

  3. COption (c)

    132313 \frac{2}{3} days

  4. DOption (d)

    131313 \frac{1}{3} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

132313 \frac{2}{3} days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(12, 16) = 48 units.

Efficiencies: Rani = 48 ÷ 12 = 4 units/day, Adya = 48 ÷ 16 = 3 units/day.

Work done in 2 days (Rani + Adya) = 4 + 3 = 7 units.

Work in 12 days (6 cycles) = 6 × 7 = 42 units. Remaining work = 48 − 42 = 6 units.

Day 13: Rani does 4 units. Remaining = 2 units. Day 14: Adya takes 2/3 day to finish.

∴ The correct answer is 13 2/3 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Rani = 12 days

Time taken by Adya = 16 days

They work in stretches of one day alternately, starting with Rani.

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Rani12484
Adya163

Calculations:

⇒ Work done in 1st day by Rani = 4 units

⇒ Work done in 2nd day by Adya = 3 units

⇒ Work done in a 2-day cycle = 4 + 3 = 7 units

⇒ Number of complete 2-day cycles in 48 units = 48 ÷ 7 = 6 cycles

⇒ Work done in 12 days (6 cycles) = 6 × 7 = 42 units

⇒ Remaining work = 48 − 42 = 6 units

⇒ On the 13th day, Rani does 4 units of work.

⇒ Work done in 13 days = 42 + 4 = 46 units

⇒ Remaining work = 48 − 46 = 2 units

⇒ On the 14th day, Adya completes the remaining work.

⇒ Time taken by Adya = Remaining work ÷ Efficiency = 2/3 day

⇒ Total time taken = 13 days + 2/3 day = 13 2/3 days

∴ The correct answer is 13 2/3 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Days Work

When individuals work on alternate days, find the total work done in one complete cycle (usually 2 days) and use it to find the maximum possible full cycles before calculating the leftover work.

Work and Efficiency Ratio

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If the time taken ratio is A : B, then the efficiency ratio is B : A.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to Time and Work, an inlet pipe has a positive efficiency (filling) while an outlet pipe has a negative efficiency (emptying).

Question 9

Let A and B be two players who are playing the game to hit the target. The probabilities of hitting the target by A and B is 23\frac{2}{3} and 34\frac{3}{4}, respectively. What is the probability that exactly one of them hit the target?

  1. AOption (a)

    712\frac{7}{12}

  2. BOption (b)

    14\frac{1}{4}

  3. COption (c)

    512\frac{5}{12}

  4. DOption (d)

    112\frac{1}{12}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

512\frac{5}{12}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula for the exact occurrence of one event out of two independent events:

P(Exactly one) = P(A) + P(B) − 2 × P(A) × P(B)

⇒ P = 2/3 + 3/4 − 2 × (2/3 × 3/4)

⇒ P = 17/12 − 12/12 = 5/12

∴ The correct answer is 5/12.

Alternate Method

Given:

Probability that player A hits the target, P(A) = 2/3

Probability that player B hits the target, P(B) = 3/4

Formula Used:

P(Exactly one hits) = [P(A hits) × P(B misses)] + [P(A misses) × P(B hits)]

Start A Hits A Misses

2/3 1/3

3/4 1/4 3/4 1/4

B Hits (Both hit) B Misses → P = 2/12 B Hits → P = 3/12 B Misses (Both miss)

Calculations:

⇒ P(A misses) = P(A') = 1 − 2/3 = 1/3

⇒ P(B misses) = P(B') = 1 − 3/4 = 1/4

⇒ P(Exactly one hits) = [P(A) × P(B')] + [P(A') × P(B)]

⇒ P(Exactly one hits) = (2/3 × 1/4) + (1/3 × 3/4)

⇒ P(Exactly one hits) = 2/12 + 3/12

⇒ P(Exactly one hits) = 5/12

∴ The correct answer is 5/12.

Additional Information

Independent Events

Two events are considered independent if the occurrence of one does not affect the probability of the other. The key formula used is: P(A and B) = P(A) × P(B).

Mutually Exclusive Events

Events that cannot occur at the same time are mutually exclusive. For such events, the probability of both occurring is zero. The key formula used is: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).

Probability of 'At Least One' Event

The probability that at least one of the independent events occurs is easily calculated by subtracting the probability of none occurring from 1. Formula: P(At least one) = 1 − P(None).

Question 10

On the occasion of Republic Day, a retail store offers a scheme where customers can avail a discount of 26% on their total purchase. If Manish buys items worth ₹2,050, how much money (in ₹) will he save through the scheme discount?

  1. AOption (a)

    522

  2. BOption (b)

    511

  3. COption (c)

    533

  4. DOption (d)

    544

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

533

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Savings = Discount % × Total Purchase Value

Savings = 26% of 2050

Savings = 26 × 20.5 = 533

∴ The correct answer is ₹533.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total purchase amount = ₹2,050

Discount percentage = 26%

Formula Used:

Discount Amount = (Discount % ÷ 100) × Total Value

Calculations:

⇒ Savings = (26 ÷ 100) × 2050

⇒ Savings = 0.26 × 2050

⇒ Savings = 26 × 20.5

⇒ Savings = 533

∴ The correct answer is ₹533.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP) and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price or the initial Total Value. Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the effective net discount % = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100.

Percentage Base Change

When calculating savings, the original purchase amount always acts as the 100% base value.

Question 11

Vessel A contains milk and water in the ratio 4 : 5. Vessel B contains milk and water in the ratio 2 : 1. If x litres mixture of A is mixed with y litres mixture of B, then the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 8 : 5. Find the ratio x : y.

  1. AOption (a)

    5 : 6

  2. BOption (b)

    3 : 10

  3. COption (c)

    2 : 5

  4. DOption (d)

    3 : 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 : 10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Fraction of milk in A = 4/9, B = 2/3, and Final Mixture = 8/13.

By Alligation cross-multiplication on the fraction of milk:

Ratio of A to B = (2/3 − 8/13) : (8/13 − 4/9)

⇒ Ratio = 2/39 : 20/117

⇒ Ratio = (2 × 117) : (39 × 20) = 234 : 780

⇒ x : y = 3 : 10

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of milk to water in vessel A = 4 : 5

Ratio of milk to water in vessel B = 2 : 1

Ratio of milk to water in the final mixture = 8 : 5

Formula Used:

The rule of alligation is applied on the fraction of milk to find the required ratio of mixtures.

Calculations:

⇒ Fraction of milk in Vessel A = 4 / (4 + 5) = 4/9

⇒ Fraction of milk in Vessel B = 2 / (2 + 1) = 2/3

⇒ Fraction of milk in the final mixture = 8 / (8 + 5) = 8/13

⇒ Ratio of x to y = (Fraction in B − Mean Fraction) : (Mean Fraction − Fraction in A)

⇒ x : y = (2/3 − 8/13) : (8/13 − 4/9)

⇒ x : y = [(26 − 24) / 39] : [(72 − 52) / 117]

⇒ x : y = (2 / 39) : (20 / 117)

⇒ x : y = (2 / 39) × (117 / 20)

⇒ x : y = 117 / (39 × 10)

⇒ x : y = 3 : 10

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 10.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

When two ingredients of different prices or concentrations are mixed, the ratio of their quantities is given by: (Quantity of Cheaper) / (Quantity of Dearer) = (Price of Dearer − Mean Price) / (Mean Price − Price of Cheaper).

Concentration in Mixtures

The fraction of any specific component in a mixture is calculated as the quantity of that component divided by the total volume of all components present in the mixture.

Replacement Method

If V is the total volume and x quantity is removed and replaced by water n times, the remaining quantity of pure liquid = V × (1 − x/V)n.

Question 12

The average of first 91 even numbers is

  1. AOption (a)

    91

  2. BOption (b)

    90

  3. COption (c)

    92

  4. DOption (d)

    93

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

92

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The average of the first n even natural numbers is directly given by the formula: (n + 1).

Here, the total number of even numbers given is n = 91.

Average = 91 + 1 = 92

∴ The correct answer is 92.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of terms (n) = 91

The series of the first 91 even numbers is 2, 4, 6, 8, ..., 182

Formula Used:

Since the given series is in an Arithmetic Progression, Average = (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2

2 1st term

4 2nd term

...

Average 92

...

180 90th term

182 91st term

Average = (2 + 182) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ First term (a) = 2

⇒ Last term (l) = 91 × 2 = 182

⇒ Average = (2 + 182) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 184 ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 92

∴ The correct answer is 92.

Additional Information

Average of first n natural numbers

The average of the first n natural numbers is calculated as: (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Average of first n odd numbers

The average of the first n consecutive odd numbers is always exactly equal to n.

Average of squares of first n natural numbers

The average of squares of first n natural numbers is: (n + 1)(2n + 1) ÷ 6.

Average of cubes of first n natural numbers

The average of cubes of first n natural numbers is: n(n + 1)2 ÷ 4.

Question 13

Find the volume (in cm3, rounded off to 2 decimal places) of a right circular cone of diameter 12 cm and height 5 cm. [Use π=227\pi=\frac{22}{7}]

  1. AOption (a)

    197.25

  2. BOption (b)

    156.39

  3. COption (c)

    188.57

  4. DOption (d)

    147.23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

188.57

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Radius (r) = Diameter ÷ 2 = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 cm.

Volume of Cone = (1/3) × π × r2 × h

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × 62 × 5

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 12 × 5 = 1320 ÷ 7

⇒ Volume = 188.5714... ≈ 188.57 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 188.57 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the base (d) = 12 cm

Height of the cone (h) = 5 cm

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Radius (r) = d ÷ 2

Volume of a right circular cone = (1/3) × π × r2 × h

Calculations:

⇒ Radius (r) = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 cm

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × (6)2 × 5

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × 36 × 5

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 12 × 5

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 60

⇒ Volume = 1320 ÷ 7

⇒ Volume = 188.5714... cm3

⇒ Rounding off to 2 decimal places, Volume ≈ 188.57 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 188.57 cm3.

Additional Information

Slant Height of a Cone

The slant height (l) is calculated using Pythagoras theorem: l = √(r2 + h2).

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The area of the curved surface of a cone is given by: CSA = π × r × l.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The sum of the curved surface area and the base area: TSA = π × r × (r + l).

Volume of a Cylinder

For a given radius and height, the volume of a cylinder is exactly three times the volume of a cone: V = π × r2 × h.

Question 14

6859312964×357×42=?\frac{\sqrt[3]{6859}}{\sqrt[4]{1296}} \times \frac{3}{57} \times 42=?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    -3

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

6859312964×357×42=?\frac{\sqrt[3]{6859}}{\sqrt[4]{1296}} \times \frac{3}{57} \times 42=?

Formula used:

193 = 6859

64 = 1296

Calculation:

6859312964×357×42=?\frac{\sqrt[3]{6859}}{\sqrt[4]{1296}} \times \frac{3}{57} \times 42 = ?

⇒ 196×357×42=?\frac{19}{6} \times \frac{3}{57} \times 42 = ?

⇒ 196×119×42=?\frac{19}{6} \times \frac{1}{19} \times 42 = ?

⇒ 16×42=?\frac{1}{6} \times 42 = ?

⇒ ? = 7

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 15

If x = 8 + √5 and y = 8 - √5 then the value of x2 + y2 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    138

  2. BOption (b)

    143

  3. COption (c)

    140

  4. DOption (d)

    124

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

138

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For conjugate surds of the form x = a + √b and y = a − √b, the sum of their squares is given directly by: x2 + y2 = 2(a2 + b)

Here, a = 8 and b = 5.

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2(82 + 5)

⇒ x2 + y2 = 2(64 + 5) = 2 × 69 = 138

∴ The correct answer is 138.

Alternate Method

Given:

x = 8 + √5

y = 8 − √5

Formula Used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

(a − b)2 = a2 + b2 − 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ x2 = (8 + √5)2 = 82 + (√5)2 + 2 × 8 × √5

⇒ x2 = 64 + 5 + 16√5 = 69 + 16√5

⇒ y2 = (8 − √5)2 = 82 + (√5)2 − 2 × 8 × √5

⇒ y2 = 64 + 5 − 16√5 = 69 − 16√5

Adding the expanded values of x2 and y2:

⇒ x2 + y2 = (69 + 16√5) + (69 − 16√5)

⇒ x2 + y2 = 69 + 69 = 138

∴ The correct answer is 138.

Additional Information

Algebraic Expansion Identity

The sum of the squares of the sum and difference of two numbers directly simplifies to: (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(a2 + b2).

Difference of Squares

The product of the sum and difference of two numbers yields the difference of their squares: (a + b)(a − b) = a2 − b2.

Properties of Surds

When multiplying a square root by itself, the root sign is removed: √x × √x = x. The conjugate of an irrational number a + √b is a − √b.

Question 16

A sum of money is to be distributed among 3 friends P, Q and R in the proportion of 5 : 3 : 4. If P gets ₹1,500 more than R, what is Q's share?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹4,500

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹4,950

  3. COption (c)

    ₹5,100

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹4,680

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹4,500

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Difference in ratio parts of P and R = 5 − 4 = 1 part.

Given difference = ₹1,500, so 1 part = ₹1,500.

Q's share is 3 parts.

Q's share = 3 × 1,500 = ₹4,500.

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of shares of P, Q, and R = 5 : 3 : 4

P gets ₹1,500 more than R.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the individual shares of P, Q, and R be 5x, 3x, and 4x respectively.

⇒ According to the condition, P's share − R's share = 1500

⇒ 5x − 4x = 1500

⇒ x = 1500

⇒ Q's share = 3x

⇒ Q's share = 3 × 1500 = 4500

∴ The correct answer is ₹4,500.

Additional Information

Properties of Ratio

Multiplying or dividing all terms of a ratio by the same non-zero number does not change the ratio. It is universally used to scale down or parameterise given quantities.

Sum of Shares in Proportion

If the total sum is given and needs to be divided in the ratio A : B : C, an individual share (e.g., A's share) is calculated directly as: (A ÷ (A + B + C)) × Total Sum.

Difference Between Shares

When the difference between two parts is known, the numeric value of 1 ratio part is equal to the given difference amount divided by the difference in their ratio parts. This skips algebraic variables.

Question 17

If tan (x + y) tan (x - y) = 1, then find the value of tanx.

  1. AOption (a)

    3\sqrt{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    123\frac{1}{2 \sqrt{3}}

  4. DOption (d)

    13\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If tan A × tan B = 1, then A + B = 90°.

Given: tan (x + y) × tan (x − y) = 1

⇒ (x + y) + (x − y) = 90°

⇒ 2x = 90° ⇒ x = 45°

⇒ tan x = tan 45° = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

tan (x + y) tan (x − y) = 1

Formula Used:

tan (A + B) = (tan A + tan B) ÷ (1 − tan A tan B)

tan (A − B) = (tan A − tan B) ÷ (1 + tan A tan B)

Calculations:

⇒ [(tan x + tan y) ÷ (1 − tan x tan y)] × [(tan x − tan y) ÷ (1 + tan x tan y)] = 1

⇒ (tan2x − tan2y) ÷ (1 − tan2x tan2y) = 1

⇒ tan2x − tan2y = 1 − tan2x tan2y

⇒ tan2x + tan2x tan2y = 1 + tan2y

⇒ tan2x (1 + tan2y) = 1 + tan2y

⇒ tan2x = 1

⇒ tan x = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Complementary Angle Properties

If A + B = 90°, then sin A = cos B, tan A = cot B, and sec A = cosec B.

Important Trigonometric Rules

If tan A × tan B = 1, then A + B = 90°. Similarly, if sin A × sec B = 1, then A + B = 90°.

Double Angle Formulas

tan 2A = (2 tan A) ÷ (1 − tan2A)

Question 18

Using empirical formula, calculate the mode for the following data.

17, 20, 21, 18, 25, 28, 24, 22, 16, 24, 25, 24

  1. AOption (a)

    25.8

  2. BOption (b)

    30.6

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Total terms (n) = 12 and Sum of data = 264 Mean = 264 ÷ 12 = 22 For 12 sorted items, Median = average of 6th and 7th term = (22 + 24) ÷ 2 = 23 Empirical formula: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean Mode = 3 × 23 − 2 × 22 = 69 − 44 = 25 ∴ The correct answer is 25.

Alternate Method Given: Data set: 17, 20, 21, 18, 25, 28, 24, 22, 16, 24, 25, 24 Formula Used: Mean = Sum of terms ÷ Total number of terms Median = Average of (n ÷ 2)th and ((n ÷ 2) + 1)th terms for even 'n' Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean

Empirical Formula

Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean

Mean 22

Median 23

Calculated Mode 25

< <

Calculations: ⇒ Arranging data in ascending order: 16, 17, 18, 20, 21, 22, 24, 24, 24, 25, 25, 28 ⇒ Total number of terms (n) = 12 ⇒ Sum of all terms = 16 + 17 + 18 + 20 + 21 + 22 + 24 + 24 + 24 + 25 + 25 + 28 = 264 ⇒ Mean = 264 ÷ 12 = 22 ⇒ The data has an even number of terms, so the median lies between the 6th and 7th terms. ⇒ Median = (22 + 24) ÷ 2 = 23 ⇒ Applying empirical formula: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean ⇒ Mode = 3 × 23 − 2 × 22 ⇒ Mode = 69 − 44 = 25 ∴ The correct answer is 25.

Additional Information Mean The mean represents the average value of a dataset. It is calculated by dividing the sum of all observations by the total number of observations. Median The median is the middle value of a sorted dataset. If the dataset has an odd number of observations, it is the exact middle value. For an even number of observations, it is the average of the two central values. Mode The mode is the most frequently occurring value in a dataset. In cases of moderate skewness, it can be approximated using the empirical relationship: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean. Skewness When Mean < Median < Mode, the data distribution is negatively skewed (left-skewed). When Mean > Median > Mode, it is positively skewed (right-skewed).

Question 19

If sec⁡θ−tan⁡θsec⁡θ+tan⁡θ=19\frac{\secθ - \tanθ}{\secθ + \tanθ} = \frac{1}{9}, θ lies in the first quadrant, then the value of sin⁡θ−tan⁡2θsin⁡θ+tan⁡2θ\frac{\sinθ - \tan^2θ}{\sinθ + \tan^2θ} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    −1327-\frac{13}{27}

  2. BOption (b)

    1327\frac{13}{27}

  3. COption (c)

    1129\frac{11}{29}

  4. DOption (d)

    −1129-\frac{11}{29}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

−1129-\frac{11}{29}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Using Componendo and Dividendo on (secθ + tanθ) / (secθ − tanθ) = 9 / 1:

⇒ secθ / tanθ = (9 + 1) / (9 − 1) ⇒ 1 / sinθ = 10 / 8 = 5 / 4 ⇒ sinθ = 4/5

Since sinθ = 4/5, in a right-angled triangle, Opposite = 4, Hypotenuse = 5, Adjacent = 3. Thus, tanθ = 4/3.

⇒ Value = (sinθ − tan2θ) / (sinθ + tan2θ) = (4/5 − 16/9) / (4/5 + 16/9)

⇒ (−44 / 45) ÷ (116 / 45) = −44 / 116 = −11/29

∴ The correct answer is −11/29.

Alternate Method

Given:

(secθ − tanθ) / (secθ + tanθ) = 1/9

Formula Used:

secθ = 1 / cosθ, tanθ = sinθ / cosθ

Calculations:

⇒ [(1/cosθ) − (sinθ/cosθ)] / [(1/cosθ) + (sinθ/cosθ)] = 1/9

⇒ (1 − sinθ) / (1 + sinθ) = 1/9

⇒ 9 × (1 − sinθ) = 1 + sinθ

⇒ 9 − 9sinθ = 1 + sinθ

⇒ 10sinθ = 8

⇒ sinθ = 8/10 = 4/5

Since θ lies in the first quadrant, we can visualize this using a right-angled triangle:

⇒ Opposite = 4, Hypotenuse = 5

⇒ Adjacent = √(Hypotenuse2 − Opposite2) = √(52 − 42) = √(25 − 16) = √9 = 3

⇒ tanθ = Opposite / Adjacent = 4/3

⇒ tan2θ = (4/3)2 = 16/9

Now, substituting the values into the required expression:

⇒ (sinθ − tan2θ) / (sinθ + tan2θ)

⇒ (4/5 − 16/9) / (4/5 + 16/9)

⇒ [(36 − 80) / 45] / [(36 + 80) / 45]

⇒ (−44 / 45) / (116 / 45)

⇒ −44 / 116

⇒ −11/29

∴ The correct answer is −11/29.

Additional Information

Componendo and Dividendo

If a/b = c/d, then (a+b)/(a−b) = (c+d)/(c−d). This algebraic property is highly effective for rapidly simplifying equations that consist of sum and difference pairs in the numerator and denominator.

Pythagorean Triplets

A set of integers satisfying a2 + b2 = c2 is called a triplet. Remembering fundamental sets like (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17) significantly improves speed in geometry and trigonometry problems.

Trigonometric Quadrant Rules (ASTC Rule)

In the 1st Quadrant, All trigonometric functions are positive. In the 2nd Quadrant, only Sine is positive. In the 3rd Quadrant, only Tangent is positive. In the 4th Quadrant, only Cosine is positive. Since θ lies in the first quadrant here, tanθ and sinθ are both positive.

Question 20

(a7×b8×c7)(a9×b5×c4)\frac{\left(a^7 × b^8 × c^7\right)}{\left(a^9 × b^5 × c^4\right)} in simplified form is:

  1. AOption (a)

    (a-5) × (b-8) × (c0)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a-7) × (b2) × (c-4)

  3. COption (c)

    (a-2) × (b3) × (c3)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a0) × (b2) × (c1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a-2) × (b3) × (c3)

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a7×b8×c7a9×b5×c4\frac{a^7 \times b^8 \times c^7}{a^9 \times b^5 \times c^4}

Formula used:

xmxn=xm−n\frac{x^m}{x^n} = x^{m-n}

Calculation:

a7×b8×c7a9×b5×c4\frac{a^7 \times b^8 \times c^7}{a^9 \times b^5 \times c^4}

⇒ a7-9 × b8-5 × c7-4

⇒ a-2 × b3 × c3

⇒ (a-2) × (b3) × (c3)

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 21

By how much is 60% of 75 greater than 15\frac{1}{5} of 25?

  1. AOption (a)

    37

  2. BOption (b)

    34

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    38

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

60% is equal to the fraction 3/5.

First value = 3/5 × 75 = 45

Second value = 1/5 × 25 = 5

Difference = 45 − 5 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given:

First expression = 60% of 75

Second expression = 1/5 of 25

Method Used:

Convert the percentage to a fraction and apply the BODMAS rule, where 'Of' is treated as multiplication.

Calculations:

⇒ First expression = (60 ÷ 100) × 75

⇒ First expression = (3 ÷ 5) × 75 = 3 × 15 = 45

⇒ Second expression = (1 ÷ 5) × 25

⇒ Second expression = 5

⇒ Difference = 45 − 5 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

In mathematical expressions, 'Of' signifies multiplication and is resolved before standard division and multiplication, according to the BODMAS sequence (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

Converting percentages to standard fractions speeds up calculations. Common fraction equivalents include 20% = 1/5, 40% = 2/5, 60% = 3/5, and 80% = 4/5.

Base Value in Percentages

The term 'Percentage' means 'per hundred'. Thus, an expression like x% of y is mathematically calculated as (x ÷ 100) × y.

Question 22

If the average age of three persons is 56 years and their ages are in the ratio 2 : 5 : 7, then find the age of the youngest person.

  1. AOption (a)

    24 years

  2. BOption (b)

    20 years

  3. COption (c)

    22 years

  4. DOption (d)

    26 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Average of ratio parts = (2 + 5 + 7) ÷ 3 = 14/3 parts

14/3 parts → 56 years

1 part → (56 × 3) ÷ 14 = 12 years

Youngest person's age = 2 parts = 2 × 12 = 24 years

∴ The correct answer is 24 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average age of 3 persons = 56 years

Ratio of their ages = 2 : 5 : 7

Formula Used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of observations

Calculations:

⇒ Total age of the three persons = 56 × 3 = 168 years

⇒ Let the ages of the persons be 2x, 5x, and 7x respectively.

⇒ Sum of ages = 2x + 5x + 7x = 14x

⇒ 14x = 168

⇒ x = 168 ÷ 14

⇒ x = 12

⇒ Age of the youngest person = 2x = 2 × 12 = 24 years

∴ The correct answer is 24 years.

Additional Information

Sum and Average Relation

The sum of all values in a dataset is always equal to the average multiplied by the total number of values. Sum = Average × N.

Proportional Distribution

When a total quantity is divided among multiple parts in a given ratio (a : b : c), the share of the first part is calculated as (a ÷ (a + b + c)) × Total Quantity.

Question 23

A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere. The radius of the hemisphere and that of the cone is 36 cm and height of the cone is 105 cm . The total surface area (in cm2) of the toy is:

  1. AOption (a)

    6025 π 

  2. BOption (b)

    6588 π

  3. COption (c)

    5799 π

  4. DOption (d)

    5240 π

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6588 π

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Surface Area (TSA) of the toy = CSA of cone + CSA of hemisphere = πr(l + 2r)

Slant height, l = √(r2 + h2) = √(362 + 1052) = √(1296 + 11025) = √12321 = 111 cm

TSA = π × 36 × (111 + 2 × 36)

TSA = π × 36 × (111 + 72)

TSA = π × 36 × 183 = 6588π cm2

∴ The correct answer is 6588π cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of hemisphere and cone, r = 36 cm

Height of the cone, h = 105 cm

Formula Used:

Slant height of cone, l = √(r2 + h2)

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of cone = πrl

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of hemisphere = 2πr2

Calculation:

⇒ First, let's find the slant height (l) of the conical portion.

⇒ l = √(362 + 1052)

⇒ l = √(1296 + 11025)

⇒ l = √12321 = 111 cm

⇒ CSA of the cone = π × 36 × 111 = 3996π cm2

⇒ CSA of the hemisphere = 2 × π × (36)2

⇒ CSA of the hemisphere = 2 × π × 1296 = 2592π cm2

⇒ Total Surface Area = CSA of cone + CSA of hemisphere

⇒ Total Surface Area = 3996π + 2592π

⇒ Total Surface Area = 6588π cm2

∴ The correct answer is 6588π cm2.

Additional Information

Volume of Cone

The volume of a cone is calculated as one-third of the volume of a cylinder with the same base radius and height: V = (1 ÷ 3)πr2h.

Volume of Hemisphere

Since a hemisphere is exactly half of a full sphere, its volume is given by the formula V = (2 ÷ 3)πr3.

Total Surface Area of Solid Hemisphere

If the hemisphere stands alone as a solid body, its total surface area includes the curved surface and the flat circular base: TSA = 3πr2.

Question 24

Anil and Beena are friends, and the difference between their ages is 5 years. Anil's father Dinesh is three times as old as Anil, and Beena is twice as old as her sister Charu. The ages of Dinesh and Charu differ by 45 years. If Beena is older than Anil, then find the sum of the present ages of both Dinesh and Charu.

  1. AOption (a)

    100 years

  2. BOption (b)

    91 years

  3. COption (c)

    69 years

  4. DOption (d)

    78 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

69 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Anil's age be A.

Dinesh = 3A and Charu = (A + 5) ÷ 2.

Given difference: 3A − (A + 5) ÷ 2 = 45

⇒ 6A − A − 5 = 90 ⇒ A = 19

Dinesh = 57 years, Charu = 12 years ⇒ Sum = 69 years.

∴ The correct answer is 69 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference between Beena and Anil's age = 5 years (Beena is older)

Dinesh's age = 3 × Anil's age

Beena's age = 2 × Charu's age

Difference between Dinesh and Charu's age = 45 years

Calculations:

Let Anil's age be A.

⇒ Beena's age (B) = A + 5

⇒ Dinesh's age (D) = 3 × A = 3A

⇒ Charu's age (C) = B ÷ 2 = (A + 5) ÷ 2

Since Dinesh is Anil's father, his age is evidently greater than Charu's age.

⇒ D − C = 45

⇒ 3A − (A + 5) ÷ 2 = 45

Multiply the entire equation by 2 to remove the fraction:

⇒ 6A − (A + 5) = 90

⇒ 5A − 5 = 90

⇒ 5A = 95

⇒ A = 19 years

Now, substitute the value of A back to find Dinesh and Charu's ages:

⇒ Dinesh's age (D) = 3 × 19 = 57 years

⇒ Charu's age (C) = (19 + 5) ÷ 2 = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 years

⇒ Sum of their ages = 57 + 12 = 69 years

∴ The correct answer is 69 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The age difference between two individuals is always constant throughout their lives. If person A is 5 years older than person B today, A will always remain 5 years older than B in the future.

Linear Equations in Ages

When a question states relationships like "X is three times as old as Y", it translates directly into a linear equation (X = 3Y). Solving simultaneous linear equations is the primary method to find exact current ages.

Handling Fractional Ages

Statements like "A is twice as old as B" can be written as A = 2B or B = A ÷ 2. It is often mathematically easier to multiply the entire equation by the denominator to avoid working with fractions, as done in the solution step: 6A − (A + 5) = 90.

Question 25

The height of a right circular cone is 63 cm and the area of its curved surface is five times the area of its base. What is the volume (in cm3) of the cone? (Use π = 22/7)

  1. AOption (a)

    12589.10

  2. BOption (b)

    11234.65

  3. COption (c)

    10914.75

  4. DOption (d)

    13540.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10914.75

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Given CSA = 5 × Base Area ⇒ πrl = 5πr2 ⇒ l = 5r.

Using l2 = r2 + h2 ⇒ 25r2 = r2 + h2 ⇒ 24r2 = h2.

Since h = 63, r2 = 632 ÷ 24 = 3969 ÷ 24 = 1323/8.

Volume = (1/3)πr2h = (1/3) × (22/7) × (1323/8) × 63

Volume = 22 × 441 × 9 ÷ 8 = 43659 ÷ 4 = 10914.75 cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 10914.75 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of the cone (h) = 63 cm

Curved Surface Area = 5 × Base Area

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area of a cone = πrl

Base Area of a cone = πr2

Volume of a cone = (1/3)πr2h

l2 = r2 + h2 (where l is slant height)

Calculations:

⇒ πrl = 5 × πr2

⇒ l = 5r

⇒ l2 = 25r2

We know that, l2 = r2 + h2

⇒ 25r2 = r2 + 632

⇒ 24r2 = 3969

⇒ r2 = 3969 ÷ 24 = 1323 ÷ 8 cm2

Now, Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × r2 × h

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × (22/7) × (1323/8) × 63

⇒ Volume = 22 × 441 × 9 ÷ 8

⇒ Volume = 11 × 3969 ÷ 4

⇒ Volume = 43659 ÷ 4 = 10914.75 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 10914.75 cm3.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cone

The total surface area includes the curved surface area and the flat base area: TSA = πr(l + r).

Frustum of a Cone

When a right circular cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base, the lower part is called a frustum. Volume = (1/3)πh(R2 + r2 + Rr).

Slant Height Relationship

The slant height (l), radius (r), and vertical height (h) always form a right-angled triangle where l2 = r2 + h2.

Question 26

A man buys 10 identical articles for a total of ₹15. If he sells each of them for ₹1.7, then his profit percentage will be _______%(rounded off to two decimal place).

  1. AOption (a)

    14.33

  2. BOption (b)

    13.33

  3. COption (c)

    12.76

  4. DOption (d)

    11.76

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13.33

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price (CP) of 1 article = 15 ÷ 10 = &rupee;1.5

Selling Price (SP) of 1 article = &rupee;1.7

Profit = 1.7 − 1.5 = &rupee;0.2

Profit % = (0.2 ÷ 1.5) × 100 = 13.33%

∴ The correct answer is 13.33%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Cost Price (CP) of 10 articles = &rupee;15

Selling Price (SP) of 1 article = &rupee;1.7

Formula Used:

Total SP = SP of 1 article × Total articles

Profit = Total SP − Total CP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Total SP of 10 articles = 1.7 × 10 = &rupee;17

⇒ Total CP of 10 articles = &rupee;15

⇒ Profit = 17 − 15 = &rupee;2

⇒ Profit % = (2 ÷ 15) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 200 ÷ 15 = 13.33%

∴ The correct answer is 13.33%.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When Cost Price is greater than Selling Price, a loss occurs. Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Successive Percentage Change

If there are successive changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by: a + b + (a × b ÷ 100).

Question 27

Find the median of the following data. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places.)

Class interval 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35

Frequency 3 5 4 2 7 6 5

  1. AOption (a)

    18.64

  2. BOption (b)

    20 .53

  3. COption (c)

    21.43

  4. DOption (d)

    23 .40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21.43

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Total frequency N = 32 → N/2 = 16. Cumulative frequency just > 16 is 21, so median class is 20-25. L = 20, CF = 14, f = 7, h = 5. Median = 20 + [(16 − 14) ÷ 7] × 5 = 20 + 10/7 ≈ 21.43. ∴ The correct answer is 21.43. Alternate Method Given: Total frequency (N) = 3 + 5 + 4 + 2 + 7 + 6 + 5 = 32 Cumulative frequencies (CF) for classes: 3, 8, 12, 14, 21, 27, 32 Formula Used: Median = L + [(N/2 − CF) ÷ f] × h Calculations: ⇒ N/2 = 32 ÷ 2 = 16 ⇒ The CF just greater than 16 is 21, which corresponds to the class interval 20-25. ⇒ Lower limit of median class (L) = 20 ⇒ CF of preceding class (CF) = 14 ⇒ Frequency of median class (f) = 7 ⇒ Class size (h) = 5 ⇒ Median = 20 + [(16 − 14) ÷ 7] × 5 ⇒ Median = 20 + (2 ÷ 7) × 5 ⇒ Median = 20 + 10 ÷ 7 ⇒ Median = 20 + 1.428... ⇒ Median ≈ 21.43 ∴ The correct answer is 21.43. Additional Information Mode of Grouped Data Mode = L + [(f1 − f0) ÷ (2f1 − f0 − f2)] × h, where f1 is frequency of modal class, f0 and f2 are frequencies of preceding and succeeding classes. Mean of Grouped Data Direct method formula: Mean = Σfixi ÷ Σfi, where xi represents the class mark (midpoint) of each class interval. Empirical Relationship The empirical relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode is given by: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Question 28

Let ABC be a right-angled triangle with a right angle at B. If tan A = √3, then find the value of sin A cos C + cos A sin C and cos A cos C - sin A sin C.

  1. AOption (a)

    √32,√32\frac{√{3}}{2}, \frac{√{3}}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    12,12\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    1,0

  4. DOption (d)

    √32,12 \frac{√{3}}{2}, \frac{1}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1,0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In right-angled ΔABC with ∠B = 90°, the acute angles A and C must sum to 90° (∠A + ∠C = 90°).

We can directly apply compound angle formulas without needing the exact angle values:

⇒ sin A cos C + cos A sin C = sin(A + C) = sin 90° = 1

⇒ cos A cos C − sin A sin C = cos(A + C) = cos 90° = 0

∴ The correct answer is 1, 0.

Alternate Method

Given: In right-angled ΔABC, ∠B = 90° and tan A = √3.

⇒ Since tan 60° = √3, we have ∠A = 60°.

⇒ The sum of angles in a triangle is 180°, so ∠C = 180° − (90° + 60°) = 30°.

Calculating the first expression (sin A cos C + cos A sin C):

⇒ sin 60° cos 30° + cos 60° sin 30°

⇒ (√3/2) × (√3/2) + (1/2) × (1/2)

⇒ 3/4 + 1/4 = 4/4 = 1

Calculating the second expression (cos A cos C − sin A sin C):

⇒ cos 60° cos 30° − sin 60° sin 30°

⇒ (1/2) × (√3/2) − (√3/2) × (1/2)

⇒ √3/4 − √3/4 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 1, 0.

Additional Information

Compound Angle Formulas

sin(A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

cos(A + B) = cos A cos B − sin A sin B

Complementary Angles

In a right-angled triangle, the two acute angles are complementary, meaning their sum is always equal to 90°.

Standard Trigonometric Values

sin 30° = cos 60° = 1/2

sin 60° = cos 30° = √3/2

Question 29

Simplify (5z - 12y)2 + (12z + 5y)2 - 144z2

  1. AOption (a)

    25z2 + 169y2

  2. BOption (b)

    23z2 + 177y2

  3. COption (c)

    23z2 + 174y2

  4. DOption (d)

    30z2 + 170y2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25z2 + 169y2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct algebraic identity: (ax − by)2 + (bx + ay)2 = (a2 + b2)(x2 + y2)

Here, a = 5, b = 12, x = z, and y = y.

⇒ (5z − 12y)2 + (12z + 5y)2 = (52 + 122)(z2 + y2)

⇒ (25 + 144)(z2 + y2) = 169z2 + 169y2

Now, simply subtract 144z2: 169z2 + 169y2 − 144z2 = 25z2 + 169y2

∴ The correct answer is 25z2 + 169y2.

Alternate Method

Given:

(5z − 12y)2 + (12z + 5y)2 − 144z2

Formula Used:

(a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

Calculations:

⇒ (5z − 12y)2 = (5z)2 − 2 × 5z × 12y + (12y)2 = 25z2 − 120yz + 144y2

⇒ (12z + 5y)2 = (12z)2 + 2 × 12z × 5y + (5y)2 = 144z2 + 120yz + 25y2

Adding both squared expressions together:

⇒ (25z2 − 120yz + 144y2) + (144z2 + 120yz + 25y2)

⇒ 25z2 + 144z2 + 144y2 + 25y2 − 120yz + 120yz

⇒ 169z2 + 169y2

Now, substitute this result back into the complete original expression by subtracting 144z2:

⇒ 169z2 + 169y2 − 144z2

⇒ 25z2 + 169y2

∴ The correct answer is 25z2 + 169y2.

Additional Information

Sum and Difference of Squares

(a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(a2 + b2). This is useful for quickly simplifying expressions with identical terms.

Brahmagupta-Fibonacci Identity

(a2 + b2)(x2 + y2) = (ax − by)2 + (bx + ay)2. This identity shows that the product of two sums of two squares is itself a sum of two squares.

Difference of Squares

a2 − b2 = (a + b)(a − b). This is extensively used in algebraic factorisation and rapid calculation.

Question 30

The value of 43 - 02 + (222)2\left(\frac{22}{2}\right)^2  - 8 + 7 × 6 = ________

  1. AOption (a)

    218

  2. BOption (b)

    224

  3. COption (c)

    219

  4. DOption (d)

    229

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

219

Why this answer is correct

Given:

43 - 02 + (222)2\left(\frac{22}{2}\right)^2 - 8 + 7 × 6 = ?

Formula used:

BODMAS

Calculation:

43 - 02 + (222)2\left(\frac{22}{2}\right)^2 - 8 + 7 × 6

⇒ 64 - 0 + 112 - 8 + 42

⇒ 64 - 0 + 121 - 8 + 42

⇒ 185 - 8 + 42

⇒ 219

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 31

In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely true, based on the given statements.

Statements:

A < B ≥ C > D 

C > E ≥ F = G

  1. AOption (a)

    A < E

  2. BOption (b)

    D < F

  3. COption (c)

    G > C

  4. DOption (d)

    B > G

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B > G

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

A < B ≥ C > D

C > E ≥ F = G

Condition needs to be checked, 

Option 1) A < E

A < B ≥ C > D

C > E ≥ F = G

No direct relation between A and E can be determined.

Option 2) D < F

A < B ≥ C > D

C > E ≥ F = G

No direct relation between D and F can be determined.

Option 3) G > C

A < B ≥ C > D

C > E ≥ F = G

The given statement shows C > E ≥ F = G which means G ≤ C, not G > C.

Option 4) B > G

A < B ≥ C > D

C > E ≥ F = G

Given B ≥ C and C > E ≥ F = G, so B ≥ C > G. Therefore, B > G is definitely true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 32

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.

Question:

In a certain code language, 'fire in mountain' is coded as 'si ph bo'. What is code for 'fire'?

Statements:

(I) 'mountain' is coded as 'bo'.

(II) 'ice and fire' is coded as 'si yu ca'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question

  3. COption (c)

    Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not

Why this answer is correct

Question:

In a certain code language, 'fire in mountain' is coded as 'si ph bo'. What is code for 'fire'?

Statements:

(I) 'mountain' is coded as 'bo'.

(II) 'ice and fire' is coded as 'si yu ca'.

Solution:

Statement I:

'mountain' is coded as 'bo'.

This statement alone tells us the code for 'mountain' but does not provide enough information to determine the code for 'fire'.

Statement II:

'ice and fire' is coded as 'si yu ca'.

From the original statement, 'fire in mountain' is coded as 'si ph bo'.

Comparing the two statements, 'fire' is common in both. 'si' is common in both.

Therefore, 'fire' is coded as 'si'.

Conclusion:

Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while Statement I is not.

Hence, the correct answer is 4) Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not.

Question 33

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The figure embedded will be,

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 34

Given below is a statement (Cause) followed by possible effects numbered I, II and III. Read the 'Cause' carefully and decide which of the three can be possible effect/s.

Cause - Many people in City X have reported receiving two electricity bills this month, instead of one.

Effect I - The Electricity Board has published the details of areas where power shutdowns are expected tomorrow in City X.

Effect II - The municipal commissioner of City X has clarified that the technical glitch which led to multiple electricity bills being generated would be resolved within 48 hours.

Effect III - Long queues were seen outside the electricity board offices in many localities.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II is a possible effect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II are possible effects .

  3. COption (c)

    Only I is a possible effect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both II and III are possible effects.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only II is a possible effect.

Why this answer is correct

Cause:

Many people in City X have reported receiving two electricity bills this month, instead of one.

Effect I:

The Electricity Board has published the details of areas where power shutdowns are expected tomorrow in City X.

Effect I is not a direct effect of the cause. Power shutdowns are often planned maintenance or due to other issues, not necessarily related to billing errors.

Effect II:

The municipal commissioner of City X has clarified that the technical glitch which led to multiple electricity bills being generated would be resolved within 48 hours.

Effect II is a direct effect of the cause. The clarification from the municipal commissioner directly addresses the issue of multiple bills and assures a resolution.

Effect III:

Long queues were seen outside the electricity board offices in many localities.

Effect III is too general as it does not specify the localities belong to City X, which is a standard requirement for such logical reasoning questions in SSC exams.

Conclusion:

Only Effect II is a possible effect of the given cause.

Hence, the answer is 'Only II is a possible effect'.

Question 35

In a certain code language, 'POSE' is coded as '3517' and 'SILK' is coded as '4638'. What is the code for 'S' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is,

S is common in both languages and 3 is common in both codes.

So, the code for S is 3.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 36

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image is:

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 37

Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is:

Logic: The first image is rotated 90° in the clockwise direction to make the second figure.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2"

Question 38

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The completion of the incomplete figure will be,

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2"

Question 39

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(215, 185, 135)

(276, 246, 196)

  1. AOption (a)

    (255, 235, 205)

  2. BOption (b)

    (294, 264, 224)

  3. COption (c)

    (269, 229, 199)

  4. DOption (d)

    (238, 208, 158)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(238, 208, 158)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number - 30 = Second number and Second number - 50 = Third number.

Here,

For (215, 185, 135):

215 - 30 = 185

185 - 50 = 135

For (276, 246, 196):

276 - 30 = 246

246 - 50 = 196

Similarly, for Option 4: (238, 208, 158)

238 - 30 = 208

208 - 50 = 158

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 40

How many meaningful English words can be formed using first, third, sixth and seventh letters of the word RECOGNIZE (when counted from left to right) using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given Letters:

The word is RECOGNIZE.

First letter: R

Third letter: C

Sixth letter: N

Seventh letter: I

The letters are R, C, N, I.

Meaningful English Words:

CRIN: It means a horsehair or stiff fabric, though not widely used in everyday language.

From the above letters, the English word 'CRIN" can be formed.

So, the number of meaningful English words is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 41

The following contains two pairs of words which are related to each other in a certain way. Three of the following four word-pairs are alike as these have the same relationship and thus form a group. Which word-pair does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word).

  1. AOption (a)

    Park - Swim

  2. BOption (b)

    Restaurant - Dinner

  3. COption (c)

    Temple - Pray

  4. DOption (d)

    Theatre - Movies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Park - Swim

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Word pairs: Park - Swim, Restaurant - Dinner, Temple - Pray, Theatre - Movies

We need to find the word pair that does NOT belong to the group.

  1. Park - Swim:

Swim is an activity that can not be done in a park.

  1. Restaurant - Dinner:

Dinner is an activity that can be done in a restaurant.

  1. Temple - Pray:

Pray is an activity that can be done in a temple.

  1. Theatre - Movies:

Movies are shown in a theatre.

The relationship in options 2, 3, and 4 is that the second word is an action performed at the first location.

But in option 1, the second word is an action not performed at the first location.

∴ The word pair that does NOT belong to the group is Park-Swim.

Question 42

Read the following information and answer the question which follows.

"Similar to expert puzzle solvers, Solver S employs systematic problem solving approaches, ensuring efficient and accurate resolutions to complex challenges."

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be derived from the given facts/information in the statement)

  1. The efficiency and accuracy of Solver S in resolving complex challenges may be attributed to their systematic problem-solving methods.
  2. Solver S utilizes systematic problem-solving approaches, similar to expert puzzle solvers.
  1. AOption (a)

    Both (I) and (II) can be inferred.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (I) can be inferred.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither (I) nor (II) can be inferred.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (II) can be inferred.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only (I) can be inferred.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The statement mentions that Solver S employs systematic problem-solving approaches, similar to expert puzzle solvers, ensuring efficiency and accuracy in resolving complex challenges.

Inference:

Statement 1: "The efficiency and accuracy of Solver S in resolving complex challenges may be attributed to their systematic problem-solving methods."

⇒ This is a valid inference because the given statement suggests that Solver S ensures efficiency and accuracy through systematic problem-solving.

Statement 2: "Solver S utilizes systematic problem-solving approaches, similar to expert puzzle solvers."

⇒ This is directly stated in the given information, so it is not an inference but a restatement.

∴ The correct inference is Statement I only.

Question 43

U is the father of N. N is the sister of T. T is the wife of I. I is son of L. How is U related to L?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son's wife's father

  2. BOption (b)

    Son's wife

  3. COption (c)

    Son's wife's sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Son's wife's mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Son's wife's father

Why this answer is correct

Family Chart:

Given:

U is the father of N.

N is the sister of T.

T is the wife of I.

I is son of L.

Family Tree:

So, U is the 'Son's wife's father' of L

Hence, the relation is 'Option 1'.

Question 44

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Design
  2. Test
  3. Conceptualize
  4. Develop
  5. Implement
  1. AOption (a)

    3, 5, 2, 4, 1

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 4, 5, 3, 2

  3. COption (c)

    3, 1, 4, 2, 5

  4. DOption (d)

    3, 1, 5, 4, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3, 1, 4, 2, 5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Words: Design, Test, Conceptualize, Develop, Implement

We need to arrange the given words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Conceptualize - This is the first step, where the idea is formed.
  2. Design - After conceptualization, the plan is designed.
  3. Develop - Based on the design, the product is developed.
  4. Test - The developed product is then tested.
  5. Implement - Finally, the product is implemented.

So, the order would be: 3, 1, 4, 2, 5.

Hence, the correct answer is the "Option 3"

Question 45

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Delivery
  2. Finished Paper
  3. Dry
  4. Pulp
  5. Press
  1. AOption (a)

    4, 5, 3, 2, 1

  2. BOption (b)

    4, 1, 2, 5, 3

  3. COption (c)

    2, 5, 4, 3, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    5, 4, 2, 3, 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4, 5, 3, 2, 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Words: Delivery, Finished Paper, Dry, Pulp, Press

We need to arrange the given words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Pulp - This is the raw material used to make paper.
  2. Press - The pulp is pressed to form a sheet.
  3. Dry - The pressed sheet is dried.
  4. Finished Paper - The dried sheet becomes finished paper.
  5. Delivery - The finished paper is then delivered.

So, the order would be: 4, 5, 3, 2, 1.

Hence, the correct answer is the "option 1"

Question 46

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

9, 5, 6, 10.5, 23, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    80

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

60

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is,

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 47

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Q has the exam on Saturday. Only two people have exams between S and Q. R has the exam before S, but after P. U has the exam immediately after T. On which of the following days does V have the exam?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saturday

  2. BOption (b)

    Thursday

  3. COption (c)

    Sunday

  4. DOption (d)

    Friday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sunday

Why this answer is correct

Given: Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

  1. Q has the exam on Saturday.
DayPerson
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
SaturdayQ
Sunday

 

  1. Only two people have exams between S and Q.

  2. R has the exam before S, but after P.

DayPerson
MondayP
TuesdayR
WednesdayS
Thursday
Friday
SaturdayQ
Sunday
  1. U has the exam immediately after T.

V's exam is on the remaining day.

DayPerson
MondayP
TuesdayR
WednesdayS
ThursdayT
FridayU
SaturdayQ
Sundayv

Therefore, V's exam is on Sunday.

So, V's exam is on 'Sunday'.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 48

In a certain code language,

A + B means 'A is the mother of B',

A - B means 'A is the brother of B',

A × B means 'A is the wife of B' and

A ÷ B means 'A is the father of B'.

Based on the above, how is U related to Z if 'U + V ÷ W - Y × Z'

  1. AOption (a)

    Wife's Mother's Sister

  2. BOption (b)

    Wife's Father's Mother

  3. COption (c)

    Wife's Mother's Mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Wife's Father's Sister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wife's Father's Mother

Why this answer is correct

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Symbol+-×÷
MeaningMotherBrotherWifeFather

 

Given: U + V ÷ W - Y × Z

It means:

U is the mother of V.

V is the father of W.

W is the brother of Y.

Y is the wife of Z.

Family Tree:

So, U is the grandmother of W and Y. Therefore, U is the Wife's Father's Mother of Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 49

Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    D

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is,

Odd one is Figure C.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 50

Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is 

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 51

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. In three of the four pairs, the same pattern is applied and hence they form a group. Select the number-pair that does NOT belong to this group.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    13-144

  2. BOption (b)

    31-341

  3. COption (c)

    18-198

  4. DOption (d)

    22-242

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13-144

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is:

First number × 11 = Second number

Check each option,

Option 1: 13-144

13 × 11 = 143

⇒ 143 ≠ 144

Option 2: 31-341

31 × 11 = 341

⇒ 341 = 341

Option 3: 18-198

18 × 11 = 198

⇒ 198 = 198

Option 4: 22-242

22 × 11 = 242

⇒ 242 = 242

∴ The number pair that does NOT belong to the group is 13-144.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 52

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.

Question:

Arvind has blue, green and white marbles. What is the percentage of white marbles out of all the marbles he has?

Statements:

(I) The sum of blue and green marbles he has is 7.

(II) He has 3 white marbles out of 10 marbles.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not

  3. COption (c)

    Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Arvind has blue, green, and white marbles.

Question: What is the percentage of white marbles out of all the marbles he has?

Statement I: The sum of blue and green marbles he has is 7.

Statement II: He has 3 white marbles out of 10 marbles.

Statement I alone:

Blue marbles + Green marbles = 7

We do not know the number of white marbles or the total number of marbles.

Therefore, Statement I alone is not sufficient.

Statement II alone:

White marbles = 3

Total marbles = 10

Percentage of white marbles = (3 / 10) × 100

⇒ Percentage = 30%

Therefore, Statement II alone is sufficient.

∴ Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 53

Six letters P, Q, S, T, U and V are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find the letter on the face opposite to T.

  1. AOption (a)

    S

  2. BOption (b)

    U

  3. COption (c)

    V

  4. DOption (d)

    P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

P

Why this answer is correct

For find the opposite surface of 'T', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

From both dices, T is common and on the same surface. So, all remaining surface will be opposite to each other.

S is opposite to V.

U is opposite to Q.

So, P will be opposite to T.

Hence, the correct answer is "P".

Question 54

If 'A' stands for '÷', 'B' stands for 'x', 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '-', what will be come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

55 B 5 D 13 B 2 C 1 4 A 7 D 15 B 5 C 102 A 2 C 15 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    203

  2. BOption (b)

    242

  3. COption (c)

    291

  4. DOption (d)

    177

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

242

Why this answer is correct

Given Equation: 55 B 5 D 13 B 2 C 1 4 A 7 D 15 B 5 C 102 A 2 C 15 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCD
Meaning÷×+−

Now replacing the signs from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 55 × 5 - 13 × 2 + 14 ÷ 7 - 15 × 5 + 102 ÷ 2 + 15 

⇒ 275 - 26 + 2 - 75 + 51 + 15 

⇒ 249 + 2 - 75 + 51 + 15 

⇒ 251 - 75 + 51 + 15 

⇒ 176 + 51 + 15 

⇒ 227 + 15 = 242 

Hence, the answer is "Option 2"

Question 55

Each of the digits in the number 5238641 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that/those in the original number?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given number: '5238641'

After arranged in ascending order:

Digits5238641
Ascending order1234568

Now,

There is two digit "2, 3" will remain unchanged if each of the digits in the number '5238641' is arranged in ascending order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 56

A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Read the statement and the arguments carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given options.

Statement:

Hydroelectricity is a cleaner and greener energy than other forms of power generation.

Arguments:

(I) Hydroelectric plants almost have nil CO2 emissions.

(II) Hydroelectric power projects submerge huge amounts under water thereby affecting local flora and fauna.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II weaken the statement.

  2. BOption (b)

    II weakens while I strengthens the statement.

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II strengthen the statement.

  4. DOption (d)

    I weakens while II strengthens the statement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

II weakens while I strengthens the statement.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Statement :

Hydroelectricity is a cleaner and greener energy than other forms of power generation.

Now,

Arguments :

I. Hydroelectric plants almost have nil CO2 emissions - True (This supports the statement by highlighting a cleaner aspect of hydroelectricity).

II. Hydroelectric power projects submerge huge amounts under water thereby affecting local flora and fauna - True (This weakens the statement by pointing out a negative environmental impact).

So, II weakens while I strengthens the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 57

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of : : is the same as that on the right side of : :?

: XAF : : SVA : %

  1. AOption (a)

    = BEJ % = QRW

  2. BOption (b)

    = BEJ % = ORW

  3. COption (c)

    = BEJ % = ORP

  4. DOption (d)

    = BBJ % = ORW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

= BEJ % = ORW

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is,

First code is decreased by 4 to make the second code.

Calculations:

Let's check each option:

Option 1: #BEJ % = QRW

Does not follow the same logic so, this option is incorrect.

Option 2: #BEJ % = ORW

⇒ Follow the same logic so, this option is correct.

Option 3: #BEJ % = ORP

⇒ Does not follow the same logic so, this option is incorrect.

Option 4: #BBJ % = ORW

⇒ Does not follow the same logic so, this option is incorrect.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2"

Question 58

O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). P sits second to the left of T. S sits third to the right of Q. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. O sits second to the right of S. Which of the following represents the position of O with respect of R?

  1. AOption (a)

    Third to the left

  2. BOption (b)

    Second to the left

  3. COption (c)

    Immediate right

  4. DOption (d)

    Third to the right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Second to the left

Why this answer is correct

Given, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order).

S sits third to the right of Q.

O sits second to the right of S.

Q is not an immediate neighbour of P.

P sits second to the left of T.

R sits at the remaining place.

So, the position of O is Second to the left of R.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2"

Question 59

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s).

Statements:

All sheeps are cows.

Some cows are horses.

All horses are jackals.

Conclusion:

(I) Some jackals are cows.

(II) Some horses are sheeps.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion (II) follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither Conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Conclusion (I) follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only Conclusion (I) follows.

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements:

All sheeps are cows.

Some cows are horses.

All horses are jackals.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

 

Conclusions:

I. Some jackals are cows - True (Since all horses are jackals and some cows are horses, it logically follows that some jackals are cows).

II. Some horses are sheeps - False (There is no direct relationship or overlap shown between sheep and horses in the given statements or the Venn diagram).

 

So, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 60

In a certain code language, 'she gardens daily' is coded as 'ak jb mp' and 'where is she' is coded as 'mp pt kt'. How is 'she' coded in the given language?

  1. AOption (a)

    mp

  2. BOption (b)

    pt

  3. COption (c)

    ak

  4. DOption (d)

    kt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

mp

Why this answer is correct

Logic followed here is,

Common word: she

Common code: mp

⇒ she = mp

∴ The code for 'she' is 'mp'.

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The trainer tried to guage the learners' understanding of the subject by asking several new questions.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gaage

  2. BOption (b)

    Gaaug

  3. COption (c)

    Gaugg

  4. DOption (d)

    Gauge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gauge

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "gauge" means to measure the size, amount, or degree of something. (मापना)
  • Example: The company uses surveys to gauge customer satisfaction.
  • The word "guage" is incorrectly spelled and should be corrected to "gauge". (गौज)
  • Example: The trainer tried to gauge the learners' understanding of the subject by asking several new questions.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Gaage (गैज): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
  • Example: N/A
  • Gaaug (गाउग): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
  • Example: N/A
  • Gaugg (गॉग): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
  • Example: N/A

Question 62

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

He walked leisurely towards the entrance.

  1. AOption (a)

    without haste

  2. BOption (b)

    reassuringly

  3. COption (c)

    with a kickstart

  4. DOption (d)

    hastily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

without haste

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "leisurely" means without haste, in a relaxed and unhurried manner. (बिना जल्दी के)
  • Example: They enjoyed a leisurely walk in the park on Sunday afternoon.
  • "Without haste" indicates doing something slowly and calmly, taking one's time. (बिना जल्दी के)
  • Example: She completed the task without haste, ensuring everything was perfect.
  • Hence, we can infer that the meaning of 'leisurely' is 'without haste'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Reassuringly (आश्वस्त करते हुए): In a way that removes someone’s doubts and fears.
  • Example: He spoke reassuringly to calm her nerves before the interview.
  • With a kickstart (एकदम से): To start something energetically or suddenly.
  • Example: The team began their project with a kickstart, full of enthusiasm.
  • Hastily (जल्दी में): Doing something quickly, often with little thought or planning.
  • Example: She packed her bags hastily, eager to catch the early morning train.

Question 63

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It consists of a terracotta army of approximately 8000 life-sized men and horses.

B. Each of the horses and men is individually sculpted by a 3-inch-thick terracotta clay and looks unique.

C. Shi Huangdi was the founder of Qin Dynasty and was the first ruler of unified China in 221 BC.

D. His mausoleum was recently discovered in 1974 by Chinese peasants who were drilling a well.

  1. AOption (a)

    CADB

  2. BOption (b)

    CABD

  3. COption (c)

    CBAD

  4. DOption (d)

    CDAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CDAB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph describes the discovery and details of Shi Huangdi's mausoleum.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it introduces Shi Huangdi and gives historical context:
  • "Shi Huangdi was the founder of Qin Dynasty and was the first ruler of unified China in 221 BC."
  • Sentence D follows as it talks about the recent discovery of his mausoleum:
  • "His mausoleum was recently discovered in 1974 by Chinese peasants who were drilling a well."
  • Sentence A is the third as it describes the contents of the mausoleum:
  • "It consists of a terracotta army of approximately 8000 life-sized men and horses."
  • Sentence B is the fourth as it provides more details about the individual sculptures:
  • "Each of the horses and men is individually sculpted by a 3-inch-thick terracotta clay and looks unique."
  • The correct sequence is CDAB.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Shi Huangdi was the founder of Qin Dynasty and was the first ruler of unified China in 221 BC. His mausoleum was recently discovered in 1974 by Chinese peasants who were drilling a well. It consists of a terracotta army of approximately 8000 life-sized men and horses. Each of the horses and men is individually sculpted by a 3-inch-thick terracotta clay and looks unique."

Question 64

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence to form a meaningful sentence.

a. it requires constant sustenance

b. in order for life to be liveable,

c. that enable it to grow and develop

d. and favourable circumstances

  1. AOption (a)

    a, b, c, d

  2. BOption (b)

    b, a, d, c

  3. COption (c)

    b, d, a, c

  4. DOption (d)

    d, c, b, a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b, a, d, c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Sentence B comes first as it sets up the context of making life liveable:
  • "In order for life to be liveable,"
  • Sentence A follows as it adds the requirement of constant sustenance:
  • "it requires constant sustenance"
  • Sentence D follows next as it specifies the need for favourable circumstances:
  • "and favourable circumstances"
  • Sentence C comes last as it explains what these circumstances enable:
  • "that enable it to grow and develop"

 

Coherent sentence after rearrangement:

"In order for life to be liveable, it requires constant sustenance and favourable circumstances that enable it to grow and develop."

Question 65

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

No other book in the series captivated readers as __________ as the final installment.

  1. AOption (a)

    many

  2. BOption (b)

    more

  3. COption (c)

    most

  4. DOption (d)

    much

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

much

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'much'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "as much as" is used to compare the extent or degree of something between two objects or events.
  • In this context, the sentence is comparing how captivating the final installment was in comparison to other books in the series.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as they do not fit the structure of the comparative phrase "as much as".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "No other book in the series captivated readers as much as the final installment."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "many" is incorrect because "many" is used with countable nouns and does not fit the structure "as much as".
  • Option 2: "more" is incorrect because "more" would be used in the structure "more than" rather than "as much as".
  • Option 3: "most" is incorrect because "most" would imply the superlative form and does not fit the comparative "as much as".

Question 66

A sentence has been split up into segments and given below in jumbled order. While the first and the last segments of the sentence (1 and 6) are in the correct order, the segments in between are jumbled up. Arrange the segments in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent sentence.

  1. India has been a land

P) and the learned man has been held in higher esteem

Q) of learning through the ages

R) but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued

S) not indeed in the sense that education has been universal

  1. than the warrior or the administrator.
  1. AOption (a)

    P, S, Q, R

  2. BOption (b)

    Q, S, R, P

  3. COption (c)

    R, Q, S, P

  4. DOption (d)

    S, R, Q, P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Q, S, R, P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph discusses the idea of India being a land of learning and the esteem given to learned men.
  • Segment Q follows the first part as it logically continues describing India as a land of learning through the ages:
  • "India has been a land of learning through the ages."
  • Segment S is next because it describes that this learning is not because education has been universal:
  • "Not indeed in the sense that education has been universal,"
  • Segment R follows as it further explains this point:
  • "But in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued,"
  • Segment P is the fourth as it concludes by stating the esteem held for learned men:
  • "And the learned man has been held in higher esteem,"
  • The correct sequence is QSRP.

 

Coherent sentence after rearrangement:

"India has been a land of learning through the ages, not indeed in the sense that education has been universal, but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued, and the learned man has been held in higher esteem than the warrior or the administrator."

Question 67

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

'I am determined to publish my findings,' the scientist asserted confidently.

  1. AOption (a)

    The scientist confidently asserted that she is determined to publish her findings.

  2. BOption (b)

    The scientist confidently asserted that she had determined to publish her findings.

  3. COption (c)

    The scientist confidently asserted that she would be determined to publish her findings.

  4. DOption (d)

    The scientist confidently asserted that she was determined to publish her findings.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The scientist confidently asserted that she was determined to publish her findings.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: The scientist confidently asserted that she was determined to publish her findings.
  • Direct to Indirect Speech:
  • Pronoun Change:
  • "I" is changed to "she" to match the subject of the reporting verb.
  • "my" is changed to "her" to align with the perspective of the scientist.
  • Tense Change:
  • "am" is changed to "was" to reflect the past tense in reported speech.
  • Assertion Description:
  • The phrase "asserted confidently" is kept intact to preserve the manner of the assertion.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • No quotation marks are used in indirect speech.
  • The reporting clause "The scientist confidently asserted that..." starts the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The scientist confidently asserted that she was determined to publish her findings."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The scientist confidently asserted that she is determined to publish her findings."
  • Fails to change "is" to "was," which is necessary to reflect the past tense in reported speech.
  • Option 2: "The scientist confidently asserted that she had determined to publish her findings."
  • Changes "am determined" to "had determined," which alters the meaning of the original sentence.
  • Option 3: "The scientist confidently asserted that she would be determined to publish her findings."
  • Changes "am determined" to "would be determined," which incorrectly suggests a future determination rather than an ongoing or past resolved intention.

Question 68

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who cannot make a mistake

  1. AOption (a)

    Impregnable

  2. BOption (b)

    Inevitable

  3. COption (c)

    Inimitable

  4. DOption (d)

    Infallible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Infallible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Infallible" means incapable of making mistakes or being wrong. (अचूक)
  • Example: The scientist’s method was considered infallible until new data disproved it.
  • "Infallible" refers to someone or something that is flawless and cannot fail. (अचूक)
  • Example: The CEO’s infallible judgment led the company to great success.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Impregnable (अजेय): Incapable of being taken by assault; unconquerable.
  • Example: The fortress was considered impregnable due to its strong walls and defenses.
  • Inevitable (अपरिहार्य): Certain to happen; unavoidable.
  • Example: Death is an inevitable part of life.
  • Inimitable (अद्वितीय): So good or unusual as to be impossible to copy; unique.
  • Example: Her inimitable style of writing has won her many fans.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate homophone from the options to fill in the blank.

We should _________ away all prejudices to live in harmony.

  1. AOption (a)

    caste

  2. BOption (b)

    coast

  3. COption (c)

    cast

  4. DOption (d)

    cost

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cast

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "cast" means to throw something forcefully or to discard something. (फेंकना या हटाना)
  • Example: They cast their nets into the sea to catch fish.
  • "Cast" in the context of the sentence means to discard or get rid of prejudices. (हटाना)
  • Example: We should cast away all prejudices to live in harmony.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Caste (जाति): A hereditary social class in Hindu society.
  • Example: The caste system has been a part of Indian society for centuries.
  • Coast (तट): The part of the land near the sea; the edge of the land.
  • Example: They took a trip to the coast to enjoy the beach.
  • Cost (लागत): The amount of money required to buy, do, or make something.
  • Example: The cost of living in the city is quite high.

Question 70

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. As cost of raw materials cannot be reduced, exporters try to cut labour costs.

B. Large MNCs in the garment industry in Europe and America order their products from Indian exporters.

C. These large MNCs with worldwide network look for the cheapest goods in order to maximise their profits.

D. To get these large orders, Indian garment exporters try hard to cut their own costs.

E. Where earlier a factory used to employ workers on a permanent basis, now they employ workers only on a temporary basis so that they do not have to pay workers for the whole year.

  1. AOption (a)

    BCDAE

  2. BOption (b)

    CDAEB

  3. COption (c)

    DCABE

  4. DOption (d)

    ADECB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BCDAE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Sentence B should be the first as it introduces the context of Indian garment exporters catering to large MNCs in Europe and America.
  • Sentence C should follow as it explains the nature of these large MNCs looking for cheap goods to maximize their profits:
  • "These large MNCs with worldwide network look for the cheapest goods in order to maximize their profits."
  • Sentence D comes next as it describes how Indian garment exporters attempt to fulfill large orders from MNCs:
  • "To get these large orders, Indian garment exporters try hard to cut their own costs."
  • Sentence A follows explaining the means which exporters use to reduce costs:
  • "As cost of raw materials cannot be reduced, exporters try to cut labour costs."
  • Sentence E concludes the paragraph describing the change in employment practices to cut costs:
  • "Where earlier a factory used to employ workers on a permanent basis, now they employ workers only on a temporary basis so that they do not have to pay workers for the whole year."
  • The correct order is BCDAE.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Large MNCs in the garment industry in Europe and America order their products from Indian exporters. These large MNCs with worldwide network look for the cheapest goods in order to maximize their profits. To get these large orders, Indian garment exporters try hard to cut their own costs. As cost of raw materials cannot be reduced, exporters try to cut labour costs. Where earlier a factory used to employ workers on a permanent basis, now they employ workers only on a temporary basis so that they do not have to pay workers for the whole year."

Question 71

Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

All criminal attitudes must be niped at the bud.

  1. AOption (a)

    Niiped

  2. BOption (b)

    Nipped

  3. COption (c)

    Nipeed

  4. DOption (d)

    Nipedd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nipped

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "niped" is incorrectly spelt. It should be spelt as "nipped". (गलत वर्तनी)
  • "Nipped" means to pinch, squeeze, or bite sharply. (चुटकी लेना, काटना)
  • Example: The cold wind nipped at their faces as they walked through the snow.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Niiped (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling and not a correct word.
  • Nipeed (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling and not a correct word.
  • Nipedd (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling and not a correct word.

Question 72

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The teacher informed that the exam had been postponed.

  1. AOption (a)

    The teacher informs, "The exam had been postponed."

  2. BOption (b)

    The teacher informed, "The exam was being postponed."

  3. COption (c)

    The teacher informs, "The exam has been postponed."

  4. DOption (d)

    The teacher informed, "The exam has been postponed."

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The teacher informed, "The exam has been postponed."

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Direct Speech: The teacher informed, "The exam has been postponed."
  • Indirect to Direct Speech:
  • Tense Change:
  • "had been postponed" in indirect speech is often derived from "has been postponed" in direct speech. Therefore, it should be changed back to "has been postponed."
  • Quotation Marks:
  • Direct speech requires the use of quotation marks to enclose the exact words spoken.
  • Reporting Verb:
  • "informed" remains unchanged as it correctly signifies the reporting of information.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The teacher informed, 'The exam has been postponed.'"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The teacher informs, 'The exam had been postponed.'"
  • Incorrectly uses "informs" instead of "informed," and "had been postponed" instead of "has been postponed."
  • Option 2: "The teacher informed, 'The exam was being postponed.'"
  • Incorrectly changes the tense to "was being postponed," which alters the meaning of the original sentence.
  • Option 3: "The teacher informs, 'The exam has been postponed.'"
  • Incorrectly uses "informs" instead of "informed."

Question 73

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Psychotherapy is a voluntary relationship between the one seeking treatment or the client and the one who treats or the therapist.

B. The relationship is conducive for building the trust of the client so that problems may be freely discussed.

C. The purpose of the relationship is to help the client to solve the psychological problems being faced by her or him.

D. Psychotherapies aim at changing the maladaptive behaviours, decreasing the sense of personal distress and helping the client to adapt better to her/his environment.

E. Inadequate marital, occupational and social adjustment also requires that major changes be made in an individual's personal environment.

  1. AOption (a)

    DCABE

  2. BOption (b)

    EDACB

  3. COption (c)

    ACBDE

  4. DOption (d)

    CDEBA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ACBDE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Sentence A should be the first as it introduces the core concept of psychotherapy and defines the relationship between the client and the therapist:
  • "Psychotherapy is a voluntary relationship between the one seeking treatment or the client and the one who treats or the therapist."
  • Sentence C follows as it explains the purpose of this relationship:
  • "The purpose of the relationship is to help the client to solve the psychological problems being faced by her or him."
  • Sentence B comes next as it describes how the relationship builds trust, which is essential for discussing problems freely:
  • "The relationship is conducive for building the trust of the client so that problems may be freely discussed."
  • Sentence D follows as it elaborates on the goals of psychotherapies:
  • "Psychotherapies aim at changing the maladaptive behaviours, decreasing the sense of personal distress and helping the client to adapt better to her/his environment."
  • Sentence E concludes by pointing out that changes might be required in the individual's environment due to inadequate adjustments:
  • "Inadequate marital, occupational and social adjustment also requires that major changes be made in an individual's personal environment."
  • The correct sequence is ACBDE.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Psychotherapy is a voluntary relationship between the one seeking treatment or the client and the one who treats or the therapist. The purpose of the relationship is to help the client to solve the psychological problems being faced by her or him. The relationship is conducive for building the trust of the client so that problems may be freely discussed. Psychotherapies aim at changing the maladaptive behaviours, decreasing the sense of personal distress and helping the client to adapt better to her/his environment. Inadequate marital, occupational and social adjustment also requires that major changes be made in an individual's personal environment."

Question 74

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Rashid was not able to __________ the pain after the accident.

  1. AOption (a)

    beer

  2. BOption (b)

    buyer

  3. COption (c)

    bear

  4. DOption (d)

    bare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

bear

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'bear'.

 

Key Points

  • The verb "to bear" means to endure or tolerate something difficult or unpleasant.
  • In this context, Rashid is trying to endure the pain after the accident.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect in this context as they do not convey the correct meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Rashid was not able to bear the pain after the accident."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "beer" is incorrect because "beer" refers to an alcoholic beverage and is unrelated to enduring pain.
  • Option 2: "buyer" is incorrect because "buyer" refers to a person who purchases something and is unrelated to enduring pain.
  • Option 4: "bare" is incorrect because "bare" means uncovered or exposed and is unrelated to enduring pain.

Question 75

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Did you hear that noise?

  1. AOption (a)

    Was that noise heard by you?

  2. BOption (b)

    Is that noise heard by you?

  3. COption (c)

    Wasn't that noise heard by you?

  4. DOption (d)

    Has that noise been heard by you?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Was that noise heard by you?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "Did you hear that noise?"
  • To convert this to the passive voice, we use the structure "was/were + object + past participle + by + subject."
  • In this case, the object is "that noise".
  • The verb "hear" in the passive voice becomes "heard".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Was that noise heard by you?"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "Is that noise heard by you?" – Incorrect tense, the sentence should be in the past simple tense.
  • Option 3: "Wasn't that noise heard by you?" – Incorrect for the given sentence in the affirmative form, this one is negative and changes the meaning.
  • Option 4: "Has that noise been heard by you?" – Incorrect tense, the sentence should be in the past simple tense, not present perfect.

Question 76

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The District Magistrate ordered the police to work all night and put an end to those riots.

  1. AOption (a)

    The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put to end these riots."

  2. BOption (b)

    The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put an end to these riots."

  3. COption (c)

    The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put an end to their riots."

  4. DOption (d)

    The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night to put an end these riots."

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put an end to these riots."

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Direct Speech: The District Magistrate told the police, "Work all night and put an end to these riots."
  • Indirect to Direct Speech:
  • Reporting Verb:
  • "ordered" is converted to "told" to frame the direct speech appropriately.
  • Imperative Mood:
  • The sentence is in imperative mood which is used for commands, instructions, or requests.
  • The command "work all night and put an end to those riots" is appropriately framed in direct speech.
  • Pronoun Change:
  • "those" changes to "these" to reflect the point of view of the speaker.
  • Quotation Marks:
  • Direct speech requires the use of quotation marks to enclose the exact words spoken.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The District Magistrate told the police, 'Work all night and put an end to these riots.'"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The District Magistrate told the police, 'Work all night and put to end these riots.'"
  • Contains the phrase "put to end," which is grammatically incorrect.
  • Option 3: "The District Magistrate told the police, 'Work all night and put an end to their riots.'"
  • Changes "these riots" to "their riots," which alters the intended meaning.
  • Option 4: "The District Magistrate told the police, 'Work all night to put an end these riots.'"
  • Incorrectly omits "to" after "put an end."

Question 77

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The team decided to pull out all the stops for their upcoming presentation.

  1. AOption (a)

    Keep things simple and straightforward

  2. BOption (b)

    Wait patiently for a more favourable time

  3. COption (c)

    Give up easily and without thinking much

  4. DOption (d)

    To do everything to make something successful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To do everything to make something successful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The idiom "pull out all the stops" means to do everything you can to make something successful. (हर संभव प्रयास करना)
  • Example: The team decided to pull out all the stops for their upcoming presentation.
  • Option 4 implies doing everything possible to ensure success. (हर संभव प्रयास करना)
  • Example: The organizers pulled out all the stops to make the event memorable.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: Keep things simple and straightforward (साधारण और सीधा रखना): To not complicate things.
  • Example: For the initial phase, we decided to keep things simple and straightforward.
  • Option 2: Wait patiently for a more favourable time (एक और अनुकूल समय के लिए धैर्यपूर्वक प्रतीक्षा करना): To delay action until a better opportunity arises.
  • Example: They decided to wait patiently for a more favourable time before making their move.
  • Option 3: Give up easily and without thinking much (आसानी से हार मान लेना और ज्यादा नहीं सोचना): To stop trying without putting in much effort.
  • Example: It's unlike him to give up easily and without thinking much.

Question 78

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

Everyone was surprised at his speech.

  1. AOption (a)

    His speech surprised everyone.

  2. BOption (b)

    His speech surprise everyone.

  3. COption (c)

    His speech was surprising to everyone.

  4. DOption (d)

    His speech is surprising everyone.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

His speech surprised everyone.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • In the passive voice, the sentence is: "Everyone was surprised at his speech."
  • To convert this to the active voice, "his speech" (the object) becomes the subject, "surprised" (the verb) stays in the same form but we need to make sure it agrees with the new subject, and "everyone" (the subject) becomes the object.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "His speech surprised everyone."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "His speech surprise everyone." – Incorrect subject-verb agreement; "surprise" should be "surprised" to agree with "his speech".
  • Option 3: "His speech was surprising to everyone." – Incorrect structure; this sentence changes the verb tense and meaning.
  • Option 4: "His speech is surprising everyone." – Incorrect tense; it changes the verb into present continuous tense instead of past simple.

Question 79

Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom.

Person A: I am so nervous. I don't think I should make the speech tomorrow.

Person B: No. You are just getting __________. You have prepared for this.

  1. AOption (a)

    cold foot

  2. BOption (b)

    cold feet

  3. COption (c)

    cold hand

  4. DOption (d)

    hot feet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cold feet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'cold feet'.

 

Key Points

  • The idiom "getting cold feet" means experiencing nervousness or anxiety before a significant event.
  • In this context, Person B is reassuring Person A that their nervousness is normal and that they have prepared well.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they either modify the idiom in a non-standard way or use entirely incorrect phrases.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Dialogue: "Person A: I am so nervous. I don't think I should make the speech tomorrow. Person B: No. You are just getting cold feet. You have prepared for this."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "cold foot" is incorrect because the idiom uses the plural form "feet".
  • Option 3: "cold hand" is incorrect because it is not part of the recognized idiom.
  • Option 4: "hot feet" is incorrect because it is not a recognized idiom and does not convey the intended meaning.

Question 80

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend _________ our own efforts for success.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    upon

  3. COption (c)

    for

  4. DOption (d)

    at

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

upon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'upon'.

 

Key Points

  • The preposition "upon" is used to indicate dependence or reliance.
  • In this context, the sentence is indicating that we must rely on our own efforts for success.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect in this context as they do not convey the correct relationship of dependence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend upon our own efforts for success."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "in" is incorrect because "depend in" is not a standard collocation in English.
  • Option 3: "for" is incorrect because "depend for" is not a standard collocation in this context.
  • Option 4: "at" is incorrect because "depend at" is not a standard collocation in English.

Question 81

Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

a. beginning in the 19 th century,

b. was long a mystery, and

c. the origin of the Moon

d. three competing theories emerged to solve it

  1. AOption (a)

    dcab

  2. BOption (b)

    bdca

  3. COption (c)

    abdc

  4. DOption (d)

    cbad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

cbad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph logically presents the origin of the Moon and the theories that emerged to explain it.
  • Sentence C is the first sentence as it introduces the central topic: "the origin of the Moon."
  • Sentence B follows as it continues the thought, emphasizing that this origin was long a mystery: "was long a mystery, and"
  • Sentence A is the third sentence as it provides the time context: "beginning in the 19th century,"
  • Sentence D is the final sentence explaining the emergence of three competing theories: "three competing theories emerged to solve it."
  • The correct sequence is CBAD.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The origin of the Moon was long a mystery, and beginning in the 19th century, three competing theories emerged to solve it."

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The mango is the _______ fruit.

  1. AOption (a)

    sweet

  2. BOption (b)

    sweeter

  3. COption (c)

    sweetly

  4. DOption (d)

    sweetest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

sweetest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'sweetest'.

 

Key Points

  • Superlative adjectives like "sweetest" are used to describe an object that is at the upper or lower limit of a quality (e.g., the tallest, the smallest, the fastest, the highest).
  • In this context, the sentence is likely stating that among fruits, the mango is the one with the highest degree of sweetness.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect in this context as they do not convey the superlative degree required.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The mango is the sweetest fruit."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "sweet" is incorrect because it is a positive adjective, not a superlative.
  • Option 2: "sweeter" is incorrect because it is a comparative adjective, not a superlative.
  • Option 3: "sweetly" is incorrect because it is an adverb, not an adjective.

Question 83

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The explosion caused serious damage in Ukraine.

  1. AOption (a)

    In Ukraine, serious damage had been caused by the explosion.

  2. BOption (b)

    Serious damage has been caused by the explosion in Ukraine.

  3. COption (c)

    Serious damage in Ukraine has been caused by the explosion.

  4. DOption (d)

    Serious damage was caused by the explosion in Ukraine.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Serious damage was caused by the explosion in Ukraine.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "The explosion caused serious damage in Ukraine."
  • In the passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject, the subject becomes the object, and the verb is adjusted accordingly.
  • In this case, "serious damage" (the object) becomes the subject, "caused" (the verb) is adjusted to "was caused," and "the explosion" (the subject) becomes the object with "by" before it.
  • The remaining part "in Ukraine" is kept at the end.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Serious damage was caused by the explosion in Ukraine."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "In Ukraine, serious damage had been caused by the explosion." – Incorrect tense; changes the simple past to past perfect.
  • Option 2: "Serious damage has been caused by the explosion in Ukraine." – Incorrect tense; changes the simple past to present perfect.
  • Option 3: "Serious damage in Ukraine has been caused by the explosion." – Incorrect tense; changes the simple past to present perfect and changes the order of information.

Question 84

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given below.

Enhance

  1. AOption (a)

    Enrich

  2. BOption (b)

    Miracle

  3. COption (c)

    Impair

  4. DOption (d)

    Relevance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Impair

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "enhance" means to increase, improve, or make better the quality, value, or extent of something. (बढ़ाना)
  • Example: The new software update is designed to enhance the user experience.
  • "Impair" means to weaken or damage something. (नुकसान पहुंचाना)
  • Example: His vision was impaired due to the accident.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'enhance' is 'impair'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Enrich (समृद्ध करना): To improve or enhance the quality or value of something.
  • Example: Reading books can greatly enrich your vocabulary.
  • Miracle (चमत्कार): An extraordinary and welcome event that is not explicable by natural or scientific laws.
  • Example: The survival of the passengers in the plane crash was nothing short of a miracle.
  • Relevance (प्रासंगिकता): The quality or state of being closely connected or appropriate.
  • Example: The relevance of his argument was questionable.

Question 85

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A sudden and violent change or upheaval

  1. AOption (a)

    Tranquility

  2. BOption (b)

    Serenity

  3. COption (c)

    Equanimity

  4. DOption (d)

    Turbulence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Turbulence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Turbulence.

Key Points

  • The word "Turbulence" means a sudden and violent change or upheaval. (अशांति)
  • Example: The airplane experienced severe turbulence during the flight, causing the passengers to feel uneasy.
  • "Tranquility" refers to a state of peace and calm. (शांति)
  • Example: After the storm passed, a sense of tranquility settled over the lake.
  • "Serenity" refers to the state of being calm, peaceful, and untroubled. (शांत)
  • Example: The serenity of the mountain landscape was breathtaking.
  • "Equanimity" refers to mental calmness, composure, and evenness of temper, especially in difficult situations. (समता)
  • Example: She handled the crisis with remarkable equanimity.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Turbulence.

Question 86

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Generous

  1. AOption (a)

    Selfish

  2. BOption (b)

    Benevolent

  3. COption (c)

    Altruistic

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnanimous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Selfish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Selfish.

Key Points

  • The word "Generous" means showing a readiness to give more of something, especially money, than is strictly necessary or expected. (उदार)
  • Example: He was generous with his time and money, always helping those in need.
  • "Selfish" refers to someone who is primarily concerned with their own advantage, to the detriment of others. (स्वार्थी)
  • Example: Her selfish behavior alienated her friends, as she always put her needs first.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Generous' is 'Selfish'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Selfish.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Benevolent (दयालु): Well-meaning and kindly.
  • Example: The benevolent man donated a large sum to the charity.
  • Altruistic (परमार्थी ): Showing a disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being of others.
  • Example: Her altruistic actions during the crisis earned her widespread admiration.
  • Magnanimous (उदार): Very generous or forgiving, especially toward a rival or someone less powerful.
  • Example: In a magnanimous gesture, he forgave his rival's transgressions.

Question 87

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

It takes me an hour to get to work at the moment, but when the new road is finished it be much quicker.

  1. AOption (a)

    but when the new road is finished

  2. BOption (b)

    it be much quicker

  3. COption (c)

    at the moment

  4. DOption (d)

    It takes me an hour to get to work

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

it be much quicker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. it be much quicker .

Key Points

  • The error is in the phrase "it be much quicker".
  • This phrase lacks the correct form of the verb 'to be'.
  • It should be "will be much quicker" to properly indicate the future tense.

Additional Information

  • The future tense in English is often formed using "will" followed by the base form of the verb.
  • Examples:
  • Correct: "When the new road is finished, it will be much quicker."
  • Incorrect: "When the new road is finished, it be much quicker."

Question 88

Select the most appropriate pronoun to fill in the blank.

Mr. Amit Kumar, Proprietor of Xyling Pens is known for _______ honesty and decent behaviour in the business arena.

  1. AOption (a)

    his

  2. BOption (b)

    they

  3. COption (c)

    it

  4. DOption (d)

    her

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

his

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'his'.

 

Key Points

  • The pronoun "his" is used to refer to something belonging to or associated with a male person or animal previously mentioned or easily identified.
  • In this context, Mr. Amit Kumar is the subject, so the appropriate pronoun is "his."
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Mr. Amit Kumar, Proprietor of Xyling Pens is known for his honesty and decent behaviour in the business arena."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "they" is incorrect because the subject is singular and male.
  • Option 3: "it" is incorrect because "it" is generally used to refer to non-human entities.
  • Option 4: "her" is incorrect because the subject is male.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Accumulated

  1. AOption (a)

    Scattered

  2. BOption (b)

    Spared

  3. COption (c)

    Bunched

  4. DOption (d)

    Garnered

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Scattered

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Accumulated" means to gather together or acquire an increasing number or quantity of something. (संचित किया हुआ)
  • Example: Over the years, she had accumulated a vast collection of books.
  • "Scattered" refers to something that is spread out or distributed over a wide area, opposite of being gathered together. (बिखरा हुआ)
  • Example: The toys were scattered all over the room after the children finished playing.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Accumulated' is 'Scattered'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Spared (बचाया हुआ): To refrain from harming or destroying; saved.
  • Example: He was spared from the punishment because of his honest confession.
  • Bunched (गुच्छा): To form or cause to form into a tight group or cluster.
  • Example: The flowers were bunched together in a beautiful bouquet.
  • Garnered (इकट्ठा किया हुआ): To gather or collect something, especially information or approval.
  • Example: The research has garnered significant interest from the scientific community.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. 

Climate change (1) ...... an imminent threat to our planet, demanding urgent global action. The rise in greenhouse gas emissions, deforestation and unsustainable practices contribute to extreme weather events, rising sea levels and disruptions in ecosystems. To (2) ......... these effects, a collaborative international effort is essential. Nations (3) ......... commit to reducing carbon emissions, transitioning to renewable energy sources and implementing sustainable practices. Cooperation on technological advancements and sharing resources will foster a collective resilience against the impacts of climate change. The urgency of this issue calls for a united front, where governments, businesses and individuals work together to create a sustainable and resilient future for the (4) ......... to come.

Question 90

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    will pose

  2. BOption (b)

    poses

  3. COption (c)

    will be posing

  4. DOption (d)

    posed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

poses

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: poses.

"Poses" is grammatically correct as it uses the simple present tense, indicating a general, ongoing truth or fact that fits the context appropriately.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    widen

  2. BOption (b)

    maximise

  3. COption (c)

    mitigate

  4. DOption (d)

    inflate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

mitigate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: mitigate.

Mitigate means to reduce or lessen the severity of something. It fits the blank contextually because the sentence likely refers to alleviating or minimizing an issue or problem.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    must

  2. BOption (b)

    could

  3. COption (c)

    would

  4. DOption (d)

    might

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

must

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: must. "Must" indicates necessity or obligation, fitting grammatically and contextually to express a strong requirement or certainty in the blank number 3.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    backward nations

  2. BOption (b)

    generations

  3. COption (c)

    businessmen

  4. DOption (d)

    poor people

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

generations

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: generations.

Generations refer to successive groups of people born and living at the same time. Contextually, it fits the blank as the statement likely discusses societal or historical progression over time.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese. 

Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in having Bose's help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose's vision was to create a military force to fight against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with the slogan 'Jai Hind' (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia. They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II. Bose's leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The INA's campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers' role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose's vision of a socialist India with equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose's slogan of 'Jai Hind' became a rallying cry for the independence movement. However, the INA's military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What was the primary reason for the Japanese to support Subhas Chandra Bose and the formation of the INA?

  1. AOption (a)

    They believed in India's right to self-determination.

  2. BOption (b)

    They were looking for allies in their fight against the British Empire.

  3. COption (c)

    They believed in Bose's vision of a communist India.

  4. DOption (d)

    They wanted to expand their influence in Southeast Asia.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They wanted to expand their influence in Southeast Asia.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: option 4.

Japan supported Subhas Chandra Bose and the INA to expand their influence in Southeast Asia, aligning strategically against the British Empire during World War II.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What ultimately undermined the INA's efforts to free India from British rule?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gandhi's death

  2. BOption (b)

    The Japanese surrender in 1945

  3. COption (c)

    The inferior military tactics of the British forces

  4. DOption (d)

    The lack of support from the Indian and British people

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Japanese surrender in 1945

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: The Japanese surrender in 1945. This is correct because the INA relied heavily on Japanese support, and their surrender in World War II undermined the INA's efforts to free India from British rule.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What was the significance of Bose's slogan 'Jai Hind'?

  1. AOption (a)

    It symbolised the struggle against British colonialism.

  2. BOption (b)

    It was a call to arms for the Indian and British Army.

  3. COption (c)

    It manifests the vision of selected communities.

  4. DOption (d)

    It represented Bose's vision of a capitalist India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It symbolised the struggle against British colonialism.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1. Bose's slogan "Jai Hind" symbolised the struggle against British colonialism, uniting Indians across diverse communities to rally for independence and oppose colonial rule, reflecting patriotic resistance.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How did Subhas Chandra Bose view India's fight for independence?

  1. AOption (a)

    Through political negotiations

  2. BOption (b)

    Through economic sanctions

  3. COption (c)

    Through non-violent means

  4. DOption (d)

    Through military campaigns

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Through military campaigns

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Through military campaigns.

Subhas Chandra Bose believed that India's independence could be achieved through armed struggle and military campaigns, rejecting non-violent methods and political negotiations as insufficient.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and often bluegreen) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does the term 'multiphyletic group' mean in the context of algae?

  1. AOption (a)

    Having a common ancestor

  2. BOption (b)

    Being closely related species

  3. COption (c)

    No common ancestor, not closely related

  4. DOption (d)

    Having diverse morphoanatomical characteristics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No common ancestor, not closely related

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly defines a multiphyletic group (more commonly known in biology as polyphyletic) regarding algae.
  • According to the text, this classification "indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related."
  • The commonality among these organisms is functional (the presence of chlorophyll for photosynthesis) rather than ancestral or evolutionary.
  • Option 3 directly mirrors the definition provided in the middle of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect. Having a common ancestor would describe a monophyletic group, which the text explicitly says algae are not.
  • Option 2: Incorrect. The text states they are "not necessarily closely related," making this choice factually wrong based on the passage.
  • Option 4: Incorrect. While the passage mentions they lack vascular characteristics, this diverse anatomy is a result or a feature of the group, not the definition of the term "multiphyletic" as used in the context.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which statement accurately describes vascular plants based on the information in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vascular plants lack stems, roots and leaves.

  2. BOption (b)

    Vascular plants are unicellular in structure.

  3. COption (c)

    Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae.

  4. DOption (d)

    Algae and vascular plants share the same morphoanatomical characteristics.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage draws a clear structural distinction between algae and vascular plants. It states that algae "do not... have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants."
  • By logic, this means that vascular plants possess true stems, roots, and leaves, which serves as a defining difference between the two groups.
  • The text also mentions that algae lack other "morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants," highlighting that vascular plants have a more complex anatomy.
  • Option 3 is the only choice that correctly identifies this contrast based on the text provided.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "They [Algae] do not, however, have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect. The passage explicitly states that these structures are "found in vascular plants."
  • Option 2: Incorrect. The passage mentions algae can be unicellular, but it does not attribute this trait to vascular plants.
  • Option 4: Incorrect. The passage states that algae "do not have" the morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which is the main pigment in algae for photosynthesis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chlorophyll

  2. BOption (b)

    Melanin

  3. COption (c)

    Xanthophyll

  4. DOption (d)

    Carotenoid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chlorophyll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage describes algae as photosynthetic creatures that rely on specific pigments to capture light energy.
  • It explicitly identifies chlorophyll as the "principal pigment" that allows these organisms to perform photosynthesis.
  • The text states that even though algae are a diverse (multiphyletic) group, having chlorophyll is the "one thing in common" among them.
  • None of the other pigments listed (Melanin, Xanthophyll, or Carotenoid) are mentioned in the passage as the primary pigment for algae.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "They [algae] are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Melanin – This is a pigment found in humans and animals responsible for skin and hair color; it is not involved in photosynthesis.
  • Option 3 & 4: Xanthophyll and Carotenoid – While these are indeed accessory pigments found in many types of algae in real-world biology, they are not mentioned in the provided text, which identifies chlorophyll as the primary one.

Question 101

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae

  2. BOption (b)

    The anatomy of vascular plants

  3. COption (c)

    The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi

  4. DOption (d)

    The diversity and characteristics of algae

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The diversity and characteristics of algae

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The passage provides a broad overview of algae, covering their biological definition, structural variety, and habitat.
  • It highlights their diversity by mentioning they can be unicellular, multicellular, or colonial, and live in aquatic or terrestrial environments.
  • It describes their characteristics, such as being photosynthetic eukaryotes that use chlorophyll, while also distinguishing them from vascular plants by their lack of roots, stems, and leaves.
  • While the other options (lichens, vascular plants, prokaryotes) are mentioned, they serve as specific examples or points of comparison to explain the broader nature of algae.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Summary: The passage serves as a general introduction to the diversity and biological characteristics of algae, touching upon their classification, structure, and ecological roles.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae" – This is a specific detail mentioned at the end to explain a classification conflict, not the central theme.
  • Option 2: "The anatomy of vascular plants" – Vascular plants are only mentioned to provide a contrast to the simpler structure of algae.
  • Option 3: "The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi" – Lichens are used as an example of how algae coexist with other organisms, but it is not the focus of the whole text.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)_______ in 1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)__________ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants, manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'Inherent'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Artificial

  2. BOption (b)

    Borrowed

  3. COption (c)

    Incited

  4. DOption (d)

    Natural

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Natural

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The word 'inherent' means an essential characteristic that is a natural and permanent part of something or someone.
  • In the context of the passage, 'inherent' describes a power that is naturally part of the will of the people.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Answer: Natural.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (Artificial): This is the opposite of 'inherent' and is not a suitable synonym.
  • Option 2 (Borrowed): This implies something external and not an innate characteristic, making it incorrect.
  • Option 3 (Incited): This means to provoke or stimulate, which does not align with the meaning of 'inherent'.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the meaning of the phrase 'a clarion call' in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Declaration of war

  2. BOption (b)

    Beginning of a new phase

  3. COption (c)

    A call for forces

  4. DOption (d)

    A strongly expressed demand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A strongly expressed demand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase 'a clarion call' refers to a strongly expressed demand or an urgent, loud call for an action or change.
  • In the context of the passage, it indicates a strong demand for social reforms.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Answer: A strongly expressed demand.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (Declaration of war): This is a formal statement of conflict, not an urgent demand for social reforms.
  • Option 2 (Beginning of a new phase): This does not capture the urgency and demand implied by 'a clarion call.'
  • Option 3 (A call for forces): This implies a call for military or other groups of people, not a demand for social change.

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    fall

  2. BOption (b)

    pinnacle

  3. COption (c)

    foundation

  4. DOption (d)

    middle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

pinnacle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'pinnacle'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the significant events of the French Revolution and its critical period.
  • The appropriate noun should indicate the most important or peak moment of the revolution.
  • "Pinnacle" fits well as it denotes the highest or most important point of an event, which aligns with the critical period of the revolution in 1789.
  • Other options ("fall", "foundation", "middle") do not fit the context of describing the peak or most crucial moment of the French Revolution.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its pinnacle**in 1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was the rise**of bourgeoisie, who were merchants, manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

 

Additional Information

  • Fall (गिरावट): "Fall" means a downward movement or decline, which does not convey the peak or peak moment of the revolution.
  • Foundation (आधार): "Foundation" means the basis or groundwork of something, which does not fit the context of the peak moment of the revolution.
  • Middle (मध्य): "Middle" means the point or position at an equal distance from the sides, which does not align with describing the peak or peak moment of the French Revolution.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    killing

  2. BOption (b)

    hankering

  3. COption (c)

    sorrow

  4. DOption (d)

    joy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hankering

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'hankering'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the causes of the French Revolution and focuses on the desires and ambitions of the bourgeoisie.
  • The appropriate noun should indicate a strong desire or craving, which fits the context of the bourgeoisie's motivations.
  • "Hankering" fits well as it means a strong desire or craving for something, aligning with the ambitions of the bourgeoisie for social and political changes.
  • Other options ("killing", "sorrow", "joy") do not fit the context of describing the motivations that led to the revolution.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its pinnacle**in 1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was hankering**of bourgeoisie, who were merchants, manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

 

Additional Information

  • Killing (हत्या): "Killing" means causing death, which does not fit the context of discussing the motivations of the bourgeoisie.
  • Sorrow (दुःख): "Sorrow" means a feeling of deep distress, which does not align with describing the ambitions or motivations of the bourgeoisie.
  • Joy (खुशी): "Joy" means a feeling of great pleasure, which does not fit the context of the bourgeoisie's strong desire for social and political changes.

Question 106

Which of the following sentences is/are true?

i. All isoclines are expansion paths but all expansion paths are not isoclines.

ii. Short-run production functions involve adjusting all inputs, including fixed inputs like land or capital, to affect output.

iii. Stock resources are the resources which are not used in one period of production but can be stored for a later period.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only ii

  2. BOption (b)

    Only i

  3. COption (c)

    Only iii

  4. DOption (d)

    Only ii and iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only iii.

Key Points

  • Stock resources refer to those resources that are available for use but are not consumed during a single period of production.
  • These resources can be stored and utilized in future periods, ensuring availability over time.
  • Examples of stock resources include raw materials like minerals, fossil fuels, and long-lasting tools and machinery.
  • Stock resources are crucial for managing long-term production and ensuring sustainability in various industries.
  • Proper management and storage of stock resources can help mitigate resource scarcity and maintain steady production levels.

Additional Information

  • Isoclines and Expansion Paths
  • An isocline is a curve that represents combinations of inputs that yield the same level of output.
  • Expansion paths show the combination of inputs that minimize costs for different levels of output.
  • While all isoclines are considered expansion paths, not all expansion paths are isoclines.
  • Short-run Production Functions
  • In the short run, some inputs, such as capital and land, are fixed and cannot be adjusted.
  • Production can be altered by changing variable inputs like labor and raw materials.
  • Adjusting fixed inputs is characteristic of long-run production functions, not short-run.
  • Flow Resources
  • Flow resources are those that are used up in the process of production and cannot be stored for future use.
  • Examples include electricity, water, and labor.
  • These resources must be continuously available to maintain production.
  • Sustainability in Resource Management
  • Sustainable resource management involves using resources in a way that meets current needs without compromising future availability.
  • Both stock and flow resources must be managed carefully to ensure long-term ecological and economic stability.
  • Strategies include recycling, efficient usage, and investing in renewable resources.

Question 107

Which of the following is a monoatomic gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chlorine

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Xenon

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Xenon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Xenon.

Key Points

  • Xenon is a noble gas, which is typically found as a monoatomic gas in nature.
  • Xenon is chemically inert and does not readily form compounds with other elements.
  • It is one of the rare gases found in the Earth's atmosphere, with a concentration of about 0.0000087% by volume.
  • Being monoatomic means that Xenon exists as single atoms rather than molecules.

Additional Information

  • Noble Gases
  • Noble gases include Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), and Radon (Rn).
  • These gases are characterized by their lack of chemical reactivity due to having complete valence electron shells.
  • Monoatomic Gases
  • Monoatomic gases consist of single atoms not bonded to each other.
  • Examples include noble gases like Helium, Neon, and Argon, in addition to Xenon.
  • Uses of Xenon
  • Xenon is used in flash lamps, arc lamps, and as a general anesthetic.
  • It is also utilized in ion propulsion systems for spacecraft.
  • Chemical Inertness
  • The inertness of noble gases makes them ideal for use in conditions where reactions are undesirable.
  • This property is due to their filled outer electron shells, which make them stable and unreactive.

Question 108

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below regarding Census 2011.

Statement 1. The population of India has increased by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.

Statement 2. The percentage decadal growth during 2001-2011 has registered the sharpest decline since Independence.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement 1 is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement 2 is correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

  • According to the Census 2011, the population of India increased by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.
  • The total population of India as per Census 2011 is 1.21 billion.
  • The percentage decadal growth rate of India's population during 2001-2011 was 17.64%, which is the sharpest decline since Independence.
  • The decadal growth rate during the 1991-2001 period was 21.54%, showing a significant reduction in the growth rate in the subsequent decade.

Additional Information

  • Census 2011
  • The Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • It is a decennial exercise, meaning it is conducted every 10 years.
  • Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872.
  • It collects various demographic, socio-economic, and cultural data which is crucial for planning and policy-making.
  • Population Growth Rate
  • The population growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases in a given time period as a fraction of the initial population.
  • It can be expressed as a percentage.
  • Decadal Growth Rate
  • It refers to the growth rate of a population over a period of ten years.
  • It is calculated by the formula: (Population at the end of the decade - Population at the beginning of the decade) / Population at the beginning of the decade * 100
  • Demographic Transition
  • It is a model that describes population change over time.
  • It is based on an interpretation of population trends in terms of birth rate and death rate.
  • Countries move from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates through time.

Question 109

What is the name of the ion with a charge of -1?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cation

  2. BOption (b)

    Monovalent ion

  3. COption (c)

    Polyvalent ion

  4. DOption (d)

    Anion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Anion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anion.

Key Points

  • An ion with a charge of -1 is called an anion.
  • Anions are formed when an atom gains one or more electrons, resulting in a net negative charge.
  • Common examples of anions include chloride (Cl-), bromide (Br-), and iodide (I-).
  • Anions play crucial roles in various chemical reactions and are essential in maintaining the charge balance in compounds.

Additional Information

  • Cation
  • A cation is an ion with a positive charge.
  • Cations are formed when an atom loses one or more electrons.
  • Examples include sodium (Na+), calcium (Ca2+), and potassium (K+).
  • Monovalent Ion
  • A monovalent ion has a charge of +1 or -1.
  • Examples include hydrogen ion (H+) and fluoride ion (F-).
  • Polyvalent Ion
  • A polyvalent ion has a charge greater than +1 or -1.
  • Examples include sulfate (SO42-) and phosphate (PO43-).
  • Ions in Chemical Reactions
  • Ions are essential in the formation of ionic compounds.
  • Ionic bonds are formed through the electrostatic attraction between cations and anions.
  • Understanding ions is crucial for studying electrochemistry and various biological processes.

Question 110

In December 1991, which act was amended to bring public enterprises under the purview of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) as part of the country's economic reforms program?

  1. AOption (a)

    Industries Act

  2. BOption (b)

    Companies Act

  3. COption (c)

    Financial Rehabilitation Act

  4. DOption (d)

    Sick Industrial Companies Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sick Industrial Companies Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sick Industrial Companies Act.

Key Points

  • In December 1991, the Sick Industrial Companies Act (SICA) was amended to include public enterprises under the purview of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR).
  • The amendment was part of the broader economic reforms initiated by the Indian government to revitalize the industrial sector.
  • The primary objective of SICA was to detect sick and potentially sick companies at an early stage and to expedite their revival.
  • BIFR was established under SICA to address the problems of industrial sickness and to determine measures for their rehabilitation.

Additional Information

  • Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)
  • BIFR was set up in January 1987 under the Sick Industrial Companies Act (SICA).
  • Its purpose was to determine the preventive, ameliorative, remedial, and other measures which need to be taken concerning sick industrial companies.
  • The board was also empowered to consider measures for the revival and rehabilitation of potentially viable sick industrial companies.
  • It could also recommend the winding up of non-viable companies.
  • Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985 (SICA)
  • SICA was enacted to detect and deal with sick and potentially sick companies in India.
  • It aimed to provide timely detection and corrective actions to revive the sick industries.
  • The act provided for the constitution of the BIFR to perform such functions.
  • SICA was eventually repealed in 2003 with the introduction of the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Repeal Act, 2003.
  • Industrial Policy Reforms of 1991
  • The 1991 reforms marked a significant shift in the economic policy of India, moving towards liberalization, privatization, and globalization.
  • These reforms included deregulation of industries, reduction of import tariffs, and reforms in the financial sector.
  • The objective was to promote competitive efficiency and to integrate the Indian economy with the global market.
  • The reforms aimed to reduce the role of the public sector and encourage private sector participation in the economy.
  • Economic Reforms in India
  • The economic reforms of 1991 were initiated in response to a severe balance of payments crisis.
  • The reforms included measures to stabilize the economy and to create a more open and market-oriented economy.
  • Key reforms included fiscal consolidation, liberalization of trade and investment policies, and financial sector reforms.
  • The reforms have significantly contributed to the growth and development of the Indian economy over the past three decades.

Question 111

Which theory, independently introduced in 1923, led to the concept of acid base conjugate pairs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brønsted-Lowry theory

  2. BOption (b)

    Arrhenius theory

  3. COption (c)

    Davy's theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Lewi's theory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Brønsted-Lowry theory

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brønsted-Lowry theory.

Key Points

  • The Brønsted-Lowry theory was independently introduced in 1923 by Johannes Nicolaus Brønsted and Thomas Martin Lowry.
  • This theory defines acids as proton donors and bases as proton acceptors.
  • It led to the concept of conjugate acid-base pairs, where an acid and a base differ by the presence or absence of a proton.
  • Brønsted-Lowry theory expanded the definition of acids and bases beyond aqueous solutions.

Additional Information

  • Arrhenius Theory:
  • Proposed by Svante Arrhenius in 1887.
  • Defines acids as substances that increase the concentration of H3O+ ions in aqueous solution.
  • Bases are substances that increase the concentration of OH− ions in aqueous solution.
  • Lewis Theory:
  • Proposed by Gilbert N. Lewis in 1923.
  • Defines acids as electron pair acceptors and bases as electron pair donors.
  • Expands the concept of acids and bases to include reactions without protons.
  • Davy's Theory:
  • Proposed by Humphry Davy in the early 19th century.
  • Suggested that acids contain replaceable hydrogen atoms.
  • Davy's work helped to lay the groundwork for modern acid-base theories.
  • Conjugate Acid-Base Pairs:
  • In the Brønsted-Lowry theory, acids and bases form conjugate pairs.
  • When an acid donates a proton, it forms its conjugate base.
  • When a base accepts a proton, it forms its conjugate acid.

Question 112

Who mentioned ecosystem as 'the basic unit in ecology' in 1956?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aldo Leopold

  2. BOption (b)

    Rachel Carson

  3. COption (c)

    John Harper

  4. DOption (d)

    Francis Evans

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Francis Evans

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Francis Evans.

Key Points

  • Francis Evans, an eminent ecologist, mentioned the ecosystem as 'the basic unit in ecology' in 1956.
  • This concept emphasizes the interdependence of organisms within their physical environment.
  • Evans' definition helped in broadening the understanding of ecological interactions and energy flow within ecosystems.
  • It laid the foundation for further ecological research and environmental science studies.

Additional Information

  • Ecosystem: A biological community of interacting organisms and their physical environment.
  • Ecology: The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
  • Energy Flow: The flow of energy through a food chain, which is a sequence of organisms each dependent on the next as a source of food.
  • Biotic and Abiotic Factors: Ecosystems consist of biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) components.
  • Trophic Levels: Different levels in a food chain, representing the flow of energy and nutrients from primary producers to various consumers.

Question 113

Identify the naturally occurring aluminum oxide mineral that usually forms hexagonal barrel-shaped prisms.

  1. AOption (a)

    Corundum

  2. BOption (b)

    Dolomite

  3. COption (c)

    Olivine

  4. DOption (d)

    Chalcopyrite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Corundum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Corundum.

Key Points

  • Corundum is a naturally occurring aluminum oxide mineral (Al2O3).
  • It commonly forms hexagonal barrel-shaped prisms, which can be terminated by flat surfaces.
  • Corundum is renowned for its hardness, scoring a 9 on the Mohs scale of mineral hardness.
  • This mineral is the primary source of gem-quality sapphires and rubies.
  • Corundum is typically found in metamorphic rocks such as schist and marble.

Additional Information

  • Mohs Scale of Mineral Hardness:
  • It is a qualitative ordinal scale characterizing scratch resistance of various minerals.
  • Devised by the German geologist and mineralogist Friedrich Mohs in 1812.
  • It ranges from 1 (talc) to 10 (diamond).
  • Sapphires and Rubies:
  • Both are varieties of corundum distinguished by color.
  • Rubies are red due to the presence of chromium.
  • Sapphires can be blue, yellow, or even colorless.
  • Metamorphic Rocks:
  • Formed through the transformation of pre-existing rocks under high pressure and temperature.
  • Examples include schist, marble, and gneiss.
  • Industrial Uses of Corundum:
  • Used as an abrasive due to its hardness.
  • Employed in cutting tools and grinding wheels.
  • Also utilized in the manufacture of refractory materials.

Question 114

The Bharatmala project of the Government of India comes under which of the following Ministries of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Ports Shipping and Waterways

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Environment and Forest and Climate Change

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Home Affairs

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Key Points

  • The Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally-sponsored and funded road and highways project of the Government of India.
  • It aims to optimize the efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps.
  • This project was launched by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
  • The initiative focuses on improving connectivity in border and other areas, which have not been covered by the Golden Quadrilateral and North-South and East-West Corridors.

Additional Information

  • Golden Quadrilateral
  • It is a national highway network connecting many of the major industrial, agricultural, and cultural centres of India.
  • It forms a quadrilateral by connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.
  • The total length of the quadrilateral is about 5,846 km.
  • North-South and East-West Corridors
  • These corridors are part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP).
  • The North-South Corridor connects Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.
  • The East-West Corridor connects Silchar in the east to Porbandar in the west.
  • Setu Bharatam
  • Setu Bharatam is an ambitious program to make all national highways free of railway level crossings by 2019 to ensure safe and smooth travel.
  • Under this project, 208 rail over and under bridges are to be constructed at a cost of ₹20,800 crore.
  • Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
  • Launched in 2000, PMGSY aims to provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected villages.
  • The primary objective is to connect rural areas to the main road network to promote economic development and poverty reduction.

Question 115

Mathura was the second capital of _________ dynasty.

  1. AOption (a)

    Gupta

  2. BOption (b)

    Maurya

  3. COption (c)

    Kushana

  4. DOption (d)

    Maukhri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kushana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kushana.

Key Points

  • The Kushana dynasty was a prominent dynasty in ancient India, known for its significant role in the development of culture and trade.
  • Mathura served as the second capital of the Kushana dynasty, with the first capital being Purushapura (modern-day Peshawar).
  • Kanishka, one of the most notable rulers of the Kushana dynasty, played a crucial role in promoting Buddhism and patronizing art and culture.
  • The Kushanas are well-known for their contributions to the spread of Mahayana Buddhism across the Indian subcontinent and Central Asia.

Additional Information

  • Kanishka the Great:
  • Kanishka was a renowned emperor of the Kushana dynasty, ruling during the 2nd century CE.
  • He is credited with organizing the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir, which led to the formal adoption of Mahayana Buddhism.
  • Kanishka is also known for his patronage of art, architecture, and the establishment of the Silk Road.
  • Kushana Coinage:
  • The Kushanas introduced gold coinage in India, which featured the images of their kings and various deities.
  • Their coins played a significant role in facilitating trade and commerce in the region.
  • Gandhara Art:
  • The Kushana period saw the flourishing of Gandhara art, which is a unique blend of Indian and Greco-Roman artistic traditions.
  • This style is particularly noted for its exquisite Buddhist sculptures and stupas.
  • Silk Road:
  • The Kushanas played a pivotal role in the development of the Silk Road, which was a network of trade routes connecting the East and West.
  • This facilitated cultural exchanges and the spread of Buddhism across Asia.

Question 116

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statements:

  1. Ampere's Law describes the relationship between electric current and the magnetic field it produces.

  2. Maxwell's equations are a set of four fundamental equations governing electric and magnetic fields in the absence of charges and currents.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Statement 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither Statement 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statements 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Statement 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only Statement 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Ampere's Law describes the relationship between electric current and the magnetic field it produces.
  • According to Ampere's Law, the magnetic field in space around an electric current is proportional to the electric current which serves as its source.
  • Ampere’s Law is mathematically expressed as ∮B·dl = μ₀I, where B is the magnetic field, dl is a differential element of the path, μ₀ is the permeability of free space, and I is the current enclosed by the path.
  • Maxwell's equations govern electric and magnetic fields, but they also account for the presence of charges and currents, not just their absence.

Additional Information

  • Maxwell's Equations
  • Maxwell's equations consist of four fundamental laws: Gauss's law, Gauss's law for magnetism, Faraday's law of induction, and Ampere's law (with Maxwell's addition).
  • These equations describe how electric and magnetic fields are generated by charges, currents, and changes of the fields.
  • In the presence of charges and currents, Maxwell's equations provide a complete set of rules for the behavior of electric and magnetic fields.
  • Gauss's Law
  • Gauss's Law states that the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the charge enclosed by the surface.
  • Mathematically, it is expressed as ∮E·dA = Q/ε₀, where E is the electric field, dA is a differential area on the closed surface, Q is the total charge enclosed, and ε₀ is the permittivity of free space.
  • Faraday's Law of Induction
  • Faraday's Law of Induction states that a change in magnetic field within a closed loop induces an electromotive force (EMF) in the wire loop.
  • This is mathematically represented as ε = -dΦB/dt, where ε is the induced EMF and ΦB is the magnetic flux.
  • Permeability and Permittivity
  • The permeability of free space (μ₀) is a constant that characterizes the ability of a material to support the formation of a magnetic field within itself.
  • The permittivity of free space (ε₀) is a constant that characterizes the ability of a material to transmit an electric field within itself.

Question 117

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is caused by duplication of the peripheral myelin protein-22 (PMP22) gene on which chromosome?

  1. AOption (a)

    chromosome 21

  2. BOption (b)

    chromosome 15

  3. COption (c)

    chromosome 8

  4. DOption (d)

    chromosome 17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

chromosome 17

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is chromosome 17.

Key Points

  • Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT) is one of the most common inherited neurological disorders, affecting the peripheral nerves.
  • It is specifically caused by the duplication of the PMP22 gene located on chromosome 17.
  • The disease leads to the progressive loss of muscle tissue and touch sensation, primarily in the feet, legs, hands, and arms.
  • CMT can be classified into several types, with CMT1A being the most common form linked to the duplication of PMP22.
  • Diagnosis often involves genetic testing to identify the duplication of the PMP22 gene on chromosome 17.

Additional Information

  • PMP22 Gene:
  • The Peripheral Myelin Protein 22 (PMP22) gene plays a crucial role in the structure and function of myelin, the protective sheath around nerves.
  • Overexpression of PMP22 due to gene duplication disrupts the production of normal myelin, leading to nerve degeneration.
  • Symptoms of CMT:
  • Common symptoms include muscle weakness, decreased muscle size, decreased sensation in extremities, foot deformities, and difficulty walking.
  • Symptoms typically appear in adolescence or early adulthood.
  • Types of CMT:
  • CMT1: Caused by abnormalities in myelin.
  • CMT2: Caused by abnormalities in the axon of the peripheral nerve cell.
  • CMTX: X-linked inheritance pattern, often affecting males more severely.
  • Treatment and Management:
  • There is currently no cure for CMT; treatment focuses on managing symptoms.Physical therapy, occupational therapy, and orthopedic devices can help maintain mobility and function.
  • Regular monitoring and supportive care are essential for improving the quality of life for individuals with CMT.

Question 118

Which portal allowed stakeholders seamless access to information related to funding, documentation, project monitoring, and approval through four efficient ways of logging in for monitoring the implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Digital India Portal

  2. BOption (b)

    Viksit Bharat Portal

  3. COption (c)

    Nyaya Vikas Portal

  4. DOption (d)

    Pradhan Mantri Jan bhagidari Yojana Portal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nyaya Vikas Portal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nyaya Vikas Portal.

Key Points

  • The Nyaya Vikas Portal was introduced to facilitate stakeholders with seamless access to information related to funding, documentation, project monitoring, and approval.
  • This portal was created to enhance transparency and efficiency in the implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
  • It offers four efficient ways for users to log in and monitor the progress of various projects, ensuring real-time updates and accountability.
  • The portal is designed to streamline communication between different government departments and stakeholders involved in the execution of these schemes.
  • In 2023, the Nyaya Vikas Portal became a key tool in modernizing the governance of Centrally Sponsored Schemes, ensuring better oversight and management.

Additional Information

  • Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS)
  • These are schemes funded by the central government in collaboration with state governments.
  • CSS aim to address national priorities like health, education, and agriculture.
  • The central government usually funds a major part of the scheme, while the state government contributes a smaller share.
  • CSS are crucial for ensuring uniform development across the country and addressing socio-economic disparities.
  • Project Monitoring
  • Involves the continuous assessment of the progress of a project to ensure it is on track to meet its objectives.
  • Helps in identifying potential issues early and allows for corrective measures to be taken in a timely manner.
  • Utilizes various tools and techniques, including software portals, to track and report project performance.
  • Transparency in Governance
  • Refers to the openness and accountability of government activities and decisions.
  • Ensures that information is accessible to the public, promoting trust and engagement.
  • Transparency is key in preventing corruption and ensuring that resources are used efficiently and effectively.
  • Digital Governance
  • Involves the use of digital technologies to improve the delivery of government services.
  • Enhances the efficiency, effectiveness, and accessibility of government operations.
  • Includes tools like online portals, mobile apps, and digital databases to facilitate better interaction between the government and citizens.

Question 119

Who among the following was the first Home Minister of Independent India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

  2. BOption (b)

    Humayun Kabir

  3. COption (c)

    Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

  4. DOption (d)

    Baldev Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel.

Key Points

  • Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel served as the first Home Minister of Independent India.
  • He held office from 15 August 1947 to 15 December 1950.
  • Patel was also the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.
  • He played a crucial role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.

Additional Information

  • Integration of Princely States:
  • Sardar Patel successfully integrated over 560 princely states into the Indian Union post-independence.
  • He used diplomacy and, where necessary, force to ensure the states joined India.
  • Iron Man of India:
  • Sardar Patel is often referred to as the "Iron Man of India" for his strong leadership and decisive actions.
  • Bharat Ratna:
  • In recognition of his services to the nation, Sardar Patel was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, in 1991.
  • Statue of Unity:
  • The Statue of Unity, located in Gujarat, is dedicated to Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel and is the tallest statue in the world.
  • It was inaugurated on 31 October 2018 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Question 120

What was the status of the agricultural sector in India before the Green Revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure

  2. BOption (b)

    Use of advanced technology and high productivity

  3. COption (c)

    Use of advanced technology and dependency on rainfall

  4. DOption (d)

    Use of traditional technology and the abundance of required infrastructure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure.

Key Points

  • Before the Green Revolution, Indian agriculture relied heavily on traditional farming techniques that were not very efficient.
  • The yield per hectare was significantly low compared to other countries due to the use of outdated methods.
  • There was a lack of proper irrigation facilities, making agriculture highly dependent on monsoon rains.
  • The agricultural sector faced frequent crop failures and low productivity, leading to food shortages and economic instability.
  • Modern infrastructure such as cold storage and transportation facilities were largely absent, leading to significant post-harvest losses.

Additional Information

  • Green Revolution
  • The Green Revolution refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that took place between the 1940s and the late 1960s.
  • It involved the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, increased use of fertilizers and pesticides, and the development of better irrigation techniques.
  • Key figures like Norman Borlaug played a significant role in developing and promoting these agricultural innovations.
  • The Green Revolution resulted in a dramatic increase in food grain production, particularly in developing countries like India and Mexico.
  • Traditional Farming Techniques
  • These include practices such as manual plowing, seed sowing by hand, and the use of natural fertilizers like manure.
  • Traditional techniques are often labor-intensive and less efficient in terms of yield.
  • They are typically more sustainable and environmentally friendly compared to modern methods that rely heavily on chemical inputs.
  • Irrigation in Agriculture
  • Irrigation is the artificial application of water to the soil, usually for assisting in growing crops.
  • Efficient irrigation systems like drip and sprinkler irrigation can significantly enhance crop yields and water use efficiency.
  • The lack of proper irrigation infrastructure was a major hurdle for farmers before the Green Revolution.
  • Post-Harvest Losses
  • Post-harvest losses refer to the reduction in quantity and quality of agricultural produce from the time of harvest until it reaches the consumer.
  • Factors contributing to these losses include poor handling, inadequate storage facilities, and inefficient transportation systems.
  • Minimizing post-harvest losses can significantly improve food security and farmer income.

Question 121

In which year did Walter Fleming stain the chromosomes to see them clearly and describe the entire process of mitosis?

  1. AOption (a)

    1780

  2. BOption (b)

    1901

  3. COption (c)

    1882

  4. DOption (d)

    1956

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1882

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1882.

Key Points

  • Walter Fleming, a German biologist, is renowned for his pioneering work in cell division.
  • In 1882, he developed a technique to stain chromosomes, allowing them to be seen more clearly under a microscope.
  • Fleming meticulously described the entire process of mitosis, coining the term "mitosis" to describe this type of cell division.
  • His work laid the foundation for understanding the mechanisms of cell division and the behavior of chromosomes during this process.

Additional Information

  • Chromosomes: Thread-like structures located within the nucleus of animal and plant cells that contain DNA.
  • Mitosis: A type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
  • Staining Techniques: Methods used to enhance the contrast in samples, generally at the microscopic level, by using dyes.
  • Cell Division: The process by which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells, crucial for growth and development in living organisms.
  • Histology: The study of the microscopic structure of tissues, which was significantly advanced by Fleming's staining techniques.

Question 122

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made the president bound by the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister?

  1. AOption (a)

    40th

  2. BOption (b)

    46th

  3. COption (c)

    48th

  4. DOption (d)

    42nd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

42nd

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 42nd.

Key Points

  • The 42nd Amendment Act, also known as the "Mini-Constitution," was enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period.
  • This amendment made it mandatory for the President of India to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
  • The amendment added the words "shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice" to Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution.
  • This move was aimed at reducing the discretionary powers of the President and ensuring the supremacy of the parliamentary system of government.

Additional Information

  • 42nd Amendment Act
  • The 42nd Amendment Act is one of the most comprehensive amendments to the Indian Constitution, making significant changes to various parts of the document.
  • It attempted to reduce the independence of the judiciary and included provisions to curtail the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
  • This amendment also added words like "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
  • The 42nd Amendment is often criticized for its attempt to centralize power and limit the role of state governments.
  • Article 74
  • Article 74 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
  • Initially, the President had the discretion to reject the advice of the Council of Ministers.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act removed this discretion, making the President bound to act on the advice.
  • It ensures the President acts as a ceremonial head, with real executive power vested in the Council of Ministers.
  • Constitutional Amendments
  • Constitutional amendments are changes made to the Constitution to address emerging needs and challenges.
  • They require a special majority in both Houses of Parliament and, in certain cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
  • Amendments can be proposed by either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
  • Significant amendments often reflect major shifts in the country's political and social landscape.
  • Emergency Period (1975-1977)
  • The Emergency period in India was from 1975 to 1977, declared by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • It involved the suspension of elections, curtailment of civil liberties, and increased centralization of power.
  • The period is marked by widespread political repression and controversial constitutional changes.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act is one of the key legislative changes made during this period.

Question 123

Match the books in List 1 with their authors in List 2.

List 1List 2
A.The Philosophy of the Bomb1.Sachindranath Sanyal
B.Bandi Jiwan2.Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
C.Pather Dabi3.Bhagwati Charan Vohra
D.Anandmath4.Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The Philosophy of the Bomb is authored by Bhagwati Charan Vohra.
  • Bandi Jiwan is written by Sachindranath Sanyal.
  • Pather Dabi is a famous novel by Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay.
  • Anandmath is written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Additional Information

  • The Philosophy of the Bomb is a revolutionary pamphlet that argued for direct action and revolutionary terrorism against British rule in India.
  • Bandi Jiwan is an autobiography of Sachindranath Sanyal, detailing his life and contribution to the Indian freedom struggle.
  • Pather Dabi is a Bengali novel that portrays the revolutionary movement against British colonial rule.
  • Anandmath is a historical novel set during the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century and is known for its patriotic fervor.
  • Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's Anandmath also includes the famous song "Vande Mataram," which became a rallying cry for Indian independence.

Question 124

The rotating columns of air that occur over water bodies and are generally less severe than land tornadoes are known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    hurricanes

  2. BOption (b)

    waterspouts

  3. COption (c)

    squalls

  4. DOption (d)

    typhoons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

waterspouts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is waterspouts.

Key Points

  • Waterspouts are rotating columns of air and mist that form over a water body, commonly observed in tropical and subtropical regions.
  • They are typically less intense and smaller in scale compared to tornadoes that form over land.
  • Waterspouts are classified into two types: fair-weather waterspouts and tornadic waterspouts.
  • Fair-weather waterspouts develop in relatively calm conditions, while tornadic waterspouts are associated with severe thunderstorms.
  • Despite being less destructive, waterspouts can pose significant threats to small boats, swimmers, and coastal areas.

Additional Information

  • Hurricanes
  • Hurricanes are large, powerful tropical cyclones that form over warm ocean waters, primarily in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific.
  • They are characterized by strong winds, heavy rains, and can cause significant damage to coastal and inland areas.
  • Hurricanes are categorized on the Saffir-Simpson scale, ranging from Category 1 (least severe) to Category 5 (most severe).
  • Squalls
  • Squalls are sudden, sharp increases in wind speed, often accompanied by heavy rain, thunderstorms, or snow.
  • They can occur in various weather systems, including cold fronts and tropical storms.
  • Squalls can lead to hazardous conditions for marine and aviation activities.
  • Typhoons
  • Typhoons are the equivalent of hurricanes in the Northwest Pacific Ocean.
  • They exhibit similar characteristics, including strong winds, heavy rainfall, and potential for widespread destruction.
  • Typhoons are monitored and classified by the Japan Meteorological Agency (JMA) and other regional meteorological organizations.

Question 125

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court direct that, 'the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the fundamental rights for the Implementation of Directive Principles'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Minerva Mills Case, 1980

  2. BOption (b)

    Keshvanand Bharti Case, 1973

  3. COption (c)

    Indira Sawhney Case, 1992

  4. DOption (d)

    Golak Nath Case, 1967

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Golak Nath Case, 1967

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Golak Nath Case, 1967.

Key Points

  • The Golak Nath Case (1967) was a landmark ruling by the Supreme Court of India.
  • In this case, the Supreme Court held that the Parliament could not amend the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution.
  • The judgment stated that Fundamental Rights are transcendental and immutable, thus, they cannot be abridged or taken away by any amendment of the Constitution.
  • The decision in Golak Nath Case was later overruled by the Kesavananda Bharati Case in 1973, which introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine.

Additional Information

  • Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
  • This case is known for the Basic Structure Doctrine which asserts that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered by any amendment.
  • The judgment provided stability to the Constitution by ensuring its core values remain intact.
  • Minerva Mills Case (1980)
  • This case reinforced the Basic Structure Doctrine and further strengthened judicial review.
  • The Supreme Court ruled that the power of judicial review is an essential feature of the Constitution.
  • Indira Sawhney Case (1992)
  • This case is also known as the Mandal Commission Case, which addressed the issue of reservations in government jobs.
  • The Supreme Court upheld the 27% reservation for OBCs but excluded the creamy layer.
  • Directive Principles of State Policy
  • These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government, set out in Part IV of the Constitution.
  • They are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.

Question 126

Who urged political parties to engage in discussions that inspire unity rather than division and promote ideas instead of personal attacks in the address on the eve of National Voters Day in January 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prime Minister Narendra Modi

  2. BOption (b)

    Union Home Minister Amir Shah

  3. COption (c)

    Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar

  4. DOption (d)

    President Droupadi Murmu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar.

Key Points

  • Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar addressed the nation on the eve of National Voters Day in January 2024.
  • He urged political parties to engage in discussions that inspire unity rather than division.
  • His address emphasized the promotion of ideas over personal attacks.
  • Rajiv Kumar highlighted the importance of constructive political discourse for the health of democracy.

Additional Information

  • Role of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
  • The CEC heads the Election Commission of India, which is responsible for administering election processes in India at both the national and state levels.
  • The CEC ensures that elections are conducted in a free and fair manner.
  • The CEC's term is six years, or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
  • National Voters Day
  • Celebrated on January 25th every year, marking the foundation day of the Election Commission of India.
  • It aims to encourage more young voters to take part in the political process.
  • The day is used to spread awareness about the importance of voting in a democracy.
  • Election Commission of India (ECI)
  • Established on January 25, 1950, to supervise and conduct elections in India.
  • The ECI ensures the conduct of free and fair elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice President in India.
  • It is a permanent and independent body as per the provisions of the Constitution.
  • Unity and Democratic Engagement
  • Constructive political dialogue is essential for democratic governance.
  • Encouraging unity and addressing issues through dialogue helps in nation-building.
  • Personal attacks in politics can undermine public trust and affect democratic processes.

Question 127

Who won the title at the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event in April 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    D Gukesh

  2. BOption (b)

    P Harikrishna

  3. COption (c)

    Koneru Humpy

  4. DOption (d)

    Viswanathan Anand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

D Gukesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is D Gukesh.

Key Points

  • Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh won the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event held in April 2023.
  • Gukesh defeated Nodirbek Abdusattorov of Uzbekistan in the final match to secure the title.
  • The event was organized by the International Chess Federation (FIDE).
  • D Gukesh is one of the youngest and most promising chess talents from India, having achieved the title of Grandmaster at a very young age.

Additional Information

  • Armageddon Chess:
  • Armageddon is a type of tie-breaker used in chess where White is given more time on the clock than Black.
  • In exchange, Black only needs a draw to win the match.
  • This format is used to ensure a decisive result in tie-breaking situations.
  • FIDE (International Chess Federation):
  • FIDE is the international organization that connects various national chess federations and oversees international competitions.
  • It was founded in Paris, France, on July 20, 1924.
  • FIDE's motto is "Gens una sumus," which translates to "We are one people."
  • D Gukesh’s Achievements:
  • Gukesh earned his Grandmaster title in 2019 at the age of 12 years, 7 months, and 17 days, making him the second-youngest Grandmaster in history at the time.
  • He has since continued to perform strongly in both national and international tournaments.
  • Chess in India:
  • India has a rich history in chess, with the game having originated in the country in the form of Chaturanga.
  • Modern Indian chess has been greatly influenced by the achievements of Viswanathan Anand, a former World Chess Champion.
  • India continues to produce several young and talented chess players who are making their mark on the international stage.

Question 128

Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

A. The first battle of Panipat was one of the decisive battles of India.

R. It brought into power a new band of invaders called Mughals.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statements A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statements A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    R is true, but A is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is true, but R is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Statements A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statements A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

  • The first battle of Panipat was fought on 21 April 1526 between the forces of Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, the Sultan of Delhi.
  • This battle marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India, establishing Babur as the first Mughal ruler.
  • The victory of Babur in this battle was decisive and brought an end to the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Babur's use of modern artillery and tactics played a crucial role in his victory.
  • Hence, the battle is considered one of the most decisive battles in Indian history as it changed the political landscape of Northern India.

Additional Information

  • Babur
  • Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India.
  • He was a descendant of Timur on his father's side and Genghis Khan on his mother's side.
  • His full name was Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur.
  • Babur's memoirs, the Baburnama, are considered a significant source of historical information.
  • Delhi Sultanate
  • The Delhi Sultanate was a Muslim kingdom based in Delhi that ruled large parts of the Indian subcontinent for over three centuries.
  • It was founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1206.
  • The Sultanate was marked by a series of five dynasties: Mamluk, Khilji, Tughlaq, Sayyid, and Lodi.
  • Mughal Empire
  • The Mughal Empire was an early-modern empire that controlled much of South Asia between the 16th and 19th centuries.
  • It was known for its rich cultural contributions, including architecture, art, and literature.
  • The Mughal rulers were known for their efforts in administrative organization and the establishment of a centralized government.
  • Artillery in the First Battle of Panipat
  • Babur's artillery, commanded by Ustad Ali Quli, played a crucial role in his victory.
  • He used field guns and cannons, which were relatively new to Indian warfare at the time.
  • The effective use of these weapons helped Babur to break the enemy lines and secure a decisive victory.

Question 129

In the year 2020, National Digital Health Mission was launched on which of the following occasions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Independence Day

  2. BOption (b)

    Republic Day

  3. COption (c)

    Gandhi Jayanti

  4. DOption (d)

    Diwali

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Independence Day

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Independence Day.

Key Points

  • The National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • The launch took place on the occasion of Independence Day, 15th August 2020.
  • NDHM aims to create a national digital health ecosystem to support universal health coverage.
  • The mission involves the creation of unique health IDs for every citizen to ensure seamless access to health records.

Additional Information

  • National Digital Health Mission (NDHM)
  • NDHM aims to leverage technology to improve the efficiency, effectiveness, and transparency of health service delivery.
  • The mission is part of the Digital India initiative.
  • It includes key components such as Health ID, Personal Health Records, Digi Doctor, and Health Facility Registry.
  • NDHM aims to reduce the gap among stakeholders such as doctors, hospitals, and other healthcare providers through digitization.
  • Health ID
  • Each citizen will be provided with a unique Health ID.
  • This ID will store the individual's health records digitally.
  • It aims to ensure easy access to health data for both patients and healthcare providers.
  • Digi Doctor
  • It is a repository of all doctors practicing or teaching modern/traditional systems of medicine.
  • Doctors can enroll to get a unique identification number and digital signatures.
  • The initiative aims to facilitate telemedicine and digital consultations.
  • Health Facility Registry
  • It is a comprehensive repository of all health facilities in the country.
  • It includes both public and private health facilities.
  • The registry aims to provide essential information about various health facilities to patients and healthcare providers.

Question 130

Which Indian city experiences the LEAST difference in average temperature between its hottest and coldest months

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Srinagar

  3. COption (c)

    Bhopal

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mumbai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

  • Mumbai experiences a tropical climate with minimal variation in temperature throughout the year.
  • The city's average temperature ranges between 25°C to 30°C (77°F to 86°F) annually.
  • The coastal location of Mumbai results in high humidity and moderates temperature extremes.
  • Unlike cities like Srinagar or Delhi, Mumbai does not experience severe winters or extreme summers, leading to a small temperature variation.
  • The Arabian Sea significantly influences Mumbai's climate, keeping temperatures relatively stable throughout the year.

Additional Information

  • Climate Types in India:
  • India experiences various climate types including tropical, subtropical, arid, and mountainous climates.
  • Cities like Srinagar have an alpine climate, experiencing cold winters and moderate summers.
  • Delhi and Bhopal have a humid subtropical climate with hot summers and cool winters.
  • Factors Influencing Climate:
  • Geographical location, altitude, and proximity to water bodies significantly influence a region's climate.
  • Coastal cities generally have more moderate climates compared to inland areas due to the influence of nearby oceans or seas.
  • Temperature Variation:
  • Temperature variation refers to the difference between the highest and lowest temperatures recorded in a region over a specific period.
  • Regions near the equator or coastal areas tend to have lower temperature variations compared to inland or high-altitude regions.
  • Mumbai's Climate:
  • Mumbai's climate is categorized as tropical wet and dry, characterized by a distinct monsoon season.
  • The city receives most of its annual rainfall from June to September during the southwest monsoon.
  • Due to its coastal location, Mumbai enjoys relatively stable temperatures and high humidity year-round.

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

Which of the following technologies allows real-time communication over the Internet, such as voice and video calls, without requiring additional software or hardware beyond a web browser?

  1. AOption (a)

    FTP

  2. BOption (b)

    VoIP

  3. COption (c)

    WebRTC

  4. DOption (d)

    Email

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

WebRTC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is WebRTC.

Key Points

  • WebRTC (Web Real-Time Communication) is a free, open-source project that enables real-time communication (RTC) directly through web browsers.
  • It allows voice, video, and data-sharing capabilities without the need for plugins or additional software, using JavaScript APIs.
  • WebRTC was developed by the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) and the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).
  • It supports peer-to-peer (P2P) communication, making it ideal for applications such as video conferencing, file sharing, and instant messaging.
  • Major web browsers like Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Microsoft Edge support WebRTC, ensuring wide accessibility and compatibility.

Additional Information

  • VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol)
  • VoIP is a technology that allows voice communication and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol (IP) networks.
  • Unlike WebRTC, VoIP often requires additional software or hardware like IP phones or VoIP adapters.
  • VoIP services include popular applications such as Skype, WhatsApp, and Zoom.
  • FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
  • FTP is a standard network protocol used for transferring files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the Internet.
  • It is not related to real-time communication and typically requires FTP client software for file transfers.
  • Email
  • Email is a method of exchanging digital messages between people using email addresses.
  • It is asynchronous and does not support real-time communication features like voice or video calls.
  • WebRTC Key Components
  • GetUserMedia: Captures audio and video media.
  • RTCPeerConnection: Manages peer-to-peer connections.
  • RTCDataChannel: Transfers arbitrary data directly between peers.

Question 132

What is the primary advantage of being able to insert and delete slides in an MS PowerPoint presentation?

  1. AOption (a)

    To enable the addition of multimedia content

  2. BOption (b)

    To allow for dynamic content adjustment and organisation

  3. COption (c)

    To enhance slide transitions

  4. DOption (d)

    To apply different templates to individual slides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To allow for dynamic content adjustment and organisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To allow for dynamic content adjustment and organisation.

Key Points

  • Flexibility: Allows users to modify the presentation structure by adding or removing slides as needed.
  • Content Organisation: Helps in reorganizing the flow of information to enhance audience understanding.
  • Presentation Customization: Enables tailoring the presentation for different audiences by adjusting content.
  • Improving Clarity: Inserting and deleting slides ensures that the presentation remains clear and concise, avoiding information overload.
  • Efficiency: Allows rapid updates and changes, making the presentation process more efficient.

Additional Information

  • Slide Master:
  • A feature that controls the overall look of the presentation including fonts, colors, and background styles.
  • Changes made in the Slide Master apply to all slides in the presentation.
  • Templates:
  • Pre-designed slide layouts that provide a consistent appearance throughout the presentation.
  • Templates can be customized to fit the specific needs of the presentation.
  • Animations:
  • Visual effects applied to individual elements within slides such as text, shapes, or images.
  • Used to enhance the visual appeal and emphasize key points in the presentation.
  • Slide Transitions:
  • Effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a presentation.
  • Helps in maintaining audience engagement and providing a smooth flow of information.
  • Collaboration Tools:
  • Features that allow multiple users to work on the same presentation simultaneously.
  • Includes options for comments, tracking changes, and version history to facilitate team collaboration.

Question 133

Which method is used to protect sensitive information during data transmission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Decryption

  2. BOption (b)

    Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

  3. COption (c)

    Compression

  4. DOption (d)

    Hashing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Secure Socket Layer (SSL).

Key Points

  • SSL (Secure Socket Layer) is a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a server and a client.
  • It ensures that all data passed between the web server and browsers remain private and integral.
  • SSL is used to secure credit card transactions, data transfer, and logins, and it is now becoming a standard for securing browsing on social media sites.
  • SSL certificates can be identified by the “https” prefix in a URL and a padlock symbol in the browser's address bar.

Additional Information

  • Encryption
  • Encryption is the process of converting data into a code to prevent unauthorized access.
  • It ensures that only authorized parties can access the information.
  • Common encryption algorithms include AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), RSA, and DES (Data Encryption Standard).
  • Decryption
  • Decryption is the process of converting encrypted data back into its original form.
  • It is the reverse process of encryption and requires a key or password.
  • Hashing
  • Hashing is the process of converting data into a fixed-size string of characters, which is typically a hash code.
  • It is used in various applications like password storage and data integrity verification.
  • Data Compression
  • Data compression reduces the size of data to save space or transmission time.
  • It can be either lossless (no data loss) or lossy (some data loss).

Question 134

Which is the correct keyboard shortcut for adjusting the column width in MS Excel?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shift + H + O + W

  2. BOption (b)

    Alt + H + O + W

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + O + W + H

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl​ + H + O + W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Alt + H + O + W

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alt + H + O + W.

Key Points

  • Alt + H + O + W is the keyboard shortcut used in MS Excel to adjust the column width.
  • This shortcut is part of the Ribbon commands in MS Excel, which provides quick access to various functions.
  • Using this shortcut opens the "Column Width" dialog box, allowing users to specify the desired width for the selected columns.
  • This functionality helps in managing the layout of data in spreadsheets, ensuring that the content fits well within the columns.

Additional Information

  • Ribbon Interface:
  • The Ribbon interface was introduced in Microsoft Office 2007.
  • It organizes commands into a set of tabs, each related to specific tasks.
  • Keyboard shortcuts for Ribbon commands often involve the "Alt" key followed by a sequence of letters.
  • Column Width Management:
  • Setting the correct column width is crucial for data readability and presentation.
  • Users can also adjust column width by dragging the column borders in the header row.
  • Other Useful Shortcuts:
  • Alt + H + O + I: AutoFit Column Width.
  • Ctrl + Shift + L: Apply or remove filters.
  • Ctrl + T: Create a table.
  • Excel Customization:
  • Users can customize shortcuts and the Ribbon interface to suit their workflow.
  • Options for customization can be found under "File" > "Options" > "Customize Ribbon."

Question 135

Which action should be taken in Microsoft Outlook to send a received email to another person, while keeping the original message for your records?

  1. AOption (a)

    Use the 'Archive' option and create a new email.

  2. BOption (b)

    Open the email, click on 'Forward', and enter the recipient's email address.

  3. COption (c)

    Click on 'Reply' and add the new recipient's email address.

  4. DOption (d)

    Click on 'Reply All' and select 'Forward' from the options.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Open the email, click on 'Forward', and enter the recipient's email address.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Open the email, click on 'Forward', and enter the recipient's email address..

Key Points

  • Forwarding an email allows you to send a received email to another recipient while keeping the original message intact.
  • To forward an email, open the specific email you want to send.
  • Click on the 'Forward' button, which is typically located in the toolbar or menu options of the email.
  • Enter the recipient's email address in the 'To' field to whom you want to forward the email.
  • Ensure to check the content of the forwarded email before sending to maintain accuracy and relevance.

Additional Information

  • Reply vs. Forward:
  • 'Reply' sends your response to the original sender.
  • 'Forward' sends the email to a new recipient, allowing you to keep the original message.
  • Forwarding Options:
  • In addition to forwarding, you may also 'Reply All' to send a response to all original recipients.
  • Some email clients offer 'Forward as Attachment' to include the original email as an attachment.
  • Email Etiquette:
  • Always review the email content before forwarding to avoid sharing sensitive information unintentionally.
  • Provide context or a brief explanation when forwarding an email to ensure the recipient understands the relevance.
  • Outlook Features:
  • Microsoft Outlook offers additional features such as 'Quick Steps' to automate frequent actions like forwarding.
  • Rules and filters can be set up to automatically forward emails based on specific criteria.

Question 136

What security mechanism ensures that system updates are installed without user intervention?

  1. AOption (a)

    Patch management software

  2. BOption (b)

    Firewall

  3. COption (c)

    Secure Boot

  4. DOption (d)

    Intrusion Detection System

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Patch management software

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Patch management software.

Key Points

  • Patch management software automates the process of applying updates to systems without user intervention, ensuring systems remain secure and up-to-date.
  • It helps in identifying, acquiring, testing, and installing patches, hotfixes, and updates to software systems.
  • Automated patch management reduces the risk of vulnerabilities and potential security breaches by ensuring timely updates.
  • This software is crucial for maintaining compliance with regulatory standards and organizational policies regarding cybersecurity.
  • Patch management software often includes features for scheduling, reporting, and rollback options to manage and monitor the update process effectively.

Additional Information

  • Firewall
  • A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
  • It establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks, such as the internet.
  • Firewalls can be hardware-based, software-based, or a combination of both.
  • Secure Boot
  • Secure Boot is a security standard developed to ensure that a device boots using only software that is trusted by the original equipment manufacturer (OEM).
  • It helps prevent malicious code from running during the boot process by verifying the digital signature of the boot loader and other boot components.
  • Secure Boot is commonly used in modern systems to enhance security at the hardware level.
  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
  • An IDS is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations.
  • It can be classified as network-based (NIDS) or host-based (HIDS), depending on the data source it monitors.
  • IDSs alert administrators to potential security incidents but do not take direct action to block or mitigate threats.

Question 137

Which keyboard shortcut is used for adding bullets in MS Word 2010?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + Alt + L

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + L

  3. COption (c)

    Shift + L

  4. DOption (d)

     Ctrl + Shift + L

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 Ctrl + Shift + L

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + Shift + L.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + Shift + L is the keyboard shortcut used to add bullets in MS Word 2010.
  • This shortcut instantly converts the selected text into a bulleted list.
  • Bulleted lists are used to organize items or points clearly and concisely.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts like Ctrl + Shift + L can significantly enhance productivity and efficiency in document editing.

Additional Information

  • Bulleted Lists:
  • Bulleted lists are used to present information in an easy-to-read format.
  • They help in breaking down complex information into manageable points.
  • In MS Word, users can customize bullet styles using the "Bullets" option in the "Paragraph" group on the "Home" tab.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts:
  • Keyboard shortcuts are combinations of keys that perform specific commands quickly.
  • They help in improving efficiency by reducing the need to navigate through menus.
  • Common shortcuts in MS Word include Ctrl + C (copy), Ctrl + V (paste), and Ctrl + Z (undo).
  • MS Word 2010:
  • MS Word 2010 is a word processing application developed by Microsoft.
  • It is part of the Microsoft Office 2010 suite.
  • It offers various features such as text formatting, image insertion, and document collaboration.
  • Productivity Tips:
  • Learning and using keyboard shortcuts can save time and increase productivity.
  • Organizing text with bullet points or numbered lists can make documents clearer and more professional.
  • Regularly updating software ensures access to the latest features and security updates.

Question 138

Which device is commonly used to connect computers within a LAN?

  1. AOption (a)

    Modem

  2. BOption (b)

    Router

  3. COption (c)

    Switch

  4. DOption (d)

    Repeater

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Switch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Switch.

Key Points

  • A switch is a networking device that connects devices within a Local Area Network (LAN).
  • Switches operate at the Data Link Layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model, facilitating communication between connected devices.
  • They use MAC addresses to forward data to the correct destination, ensuring efficient and accurate data transmission.
  • Switches help in reducing network congestion by creating separate collision domains for each connected device.
  • They are essential for building scalable and manageable networks, providing better performance compared to hubs.

Additional Information

  • Router:
  • Routers operate at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.
  • They are used to connect multiple networks and route data packets between them.
  • Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data transmission.
  • They can provide functions such as Network Address Translation (NAT) and firewall capabilities.
  • Modem:
  • Modem stands for Modulator-Demodulator.
  • It converts digital data from a computer into analog signals for transmission over phone lines and vice versa.
  • Modems are used for connecting to the Internet via dial-up or broadband connections.
  • They operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model.
  • Repeater:
  • Repeaters operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model.
  • They are used to regenerate and amplify signals to extend the distance over which data can be transmitted.
  • Repeaters do not filter or route data; they simply boost the signal strength.
  • Hub:
  • Hubs operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model.
  • They connect multiple Ethernet devices, making them act as a single network segment.
  • Hubs broadcast data to all connected devices, leading to network congestion and collisions.
  • They are less efficient compared to switches and are rarely used in modern networks.

Question 139

What is the primary reason DRAM needs to be refreshed periodically?

  1. AOption (a)

    To prevent data corruption caused by magnetic fields

  2. BOption (b)

    To recharge the capacitors storing data bits

  3. COption (c)

    To clear unused data

  4. DOption (d)

    To allow the CPU to access new data

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To recharge the capacitors storing data bits

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To recharge the capacitors storing data bits.

Key Points

  • Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) stores each bit of data in a separate capacitor within an integrated circuit.
  • Capacitors in DRAM tend to leak charge over time, which can lead to data loss if not refreshed.
  • Refreshing DRAM involves recharging the capacitors to their original state to maintain the stored data.
  • This periodic refresh is necessary because capacitors in DRAM can only hold their charge for a short period, typically a few milliseconds.
  • The refresh operation is managed by the memory controller, which performs the refresh cycles automatically.

Additional Information

  • DRAM vs. SRAM:
  • DRAM (Dynamic RAM) requires periodic refreshing to maintain data, whereas SRAM (Static RAM) does not need refreshing.
  • SRAM is faster but more expensive and used for cache memory, while DRAM is cheaper and used for main memory.
  • Memory Controller:
  • A memory controller is a digital circuit that manages the flow of data to and from the memory.
  • It is responsible for issuing refresh commands to DRAM periodically.
  • Types of DRAM:
  • Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) synchronizes with the system clock for faster operation.
  • Double Data Rate (DDR) SDRAM transfers data on both the rising and falling edges of the clock signal.
  • Applications of DRAM:
  • DRAM is widely used in computers, laptops, and smartphones as the main system memory.
  • It is also used in graphics cards, gaming consoles, and other consumer electronics.

Question 140

Which type of virus infects the boot sector of floppy disks or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard disks?

  1. AOption (a)

    Direct Action Virus

  2. BOption (b)

    Resident Virus

  3. COption (c)

    Macro Virus

  4. DOption (d)

    Boot Sector Virus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Boot Sector Virus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Boot Sector Virus.

Key Points

  • A Boot Sector Virus infects the boot sector of floppy disks or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard disks.
  • These viruses are loaded into memory during the booting process of the computer, before the operating system is loaded.
  • Once in memory, the virus can infect any other disk that is accessed by the system.
  • Such viruses can prevent the computer from booting properly, leading to system failures and data loss.
  • Historically, they were more common when floppy disks were widely used for booting computers.

Additional Information

  • Direct Action Virus
  • Also known as non-resident viruses.
  • It attaches itself to a particular type of file (typically EXE or COM files).
  • It acts immediately and infects files when executed, but does not remain in memory.
  • It is easier to detect and remove compared to other types of viruses.
  • Resident Virus
  • Resides in a computer's RAM.
  • It can infect other files and programs while they are opened or run.
  • It can be harder to detect and remove since it remains active as long as the computer is on.
  • Macro Virus
  • Written in a macro language and typically infects documents and templates.
  • Commonly associated with Microsoft Office documents.
  • Activates when the infected document is opened.
  • Can spread rapidly via email attachments.

Question 141

Which feature in MS Word allows the user to apply a consistent look across text elements such as headings, titles and subtitles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Template

  2. BOption (b)

    Styles

  3. COption (c)

    Table

  4. DOption (d)

    Macros

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Styles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Styles.

Key Points

  • Styles in MS Word allow users to apply a consistent look to various text elements such as headings, titles, and subtitles.
  • Using Styles helps maintain uniform formatting across the document, ensuring a professional and cohesive appearance.
  • Styles can be customized and saved for future use, making it easier to apply the same formatting to different documents.
  • Styles are particularly useful for long documents, as they enable quick and easy changes to the overall formatting with just a few clicks.

Additional Information

  • Template
  • Templates are pre-designed documents that can be used as a starting point for new documents.
  • They include placeholders and formatted elements that can be customized according to the user's needs.
  • Templates are useful for creating standardized documents such as resumes, reports, and letters.
  • Table
  • Tables in MS Word are used to organize and present data in a structured format.
  • They consist of rows and columns, making it easy to compare and analyze information.
  • Tables can be customized with various formatting options, including borders, shading, and cell alignment.
  • Macros
  • Macros are sequences of instructions that automate repetitive tasks in MS Word.
  • They are created using the Macro Recorder or by writing VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) code.
  • Macros can save time and reduce the risk of errors by performing complex tasks quickly and consistently.

Question 142

What is the main purpose of using a template when creating a presentation in MS PowerPoint?

  1. AOption (a)

    To ensure consistency and professionalism

  2. BOption (b)

    To automatically insert multimedia content

  3. COption (c)

    To add complex animations easily

  4. DOption (d)

    To create interactive quizzes within slides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To ensure consistency and professionalism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To ensure consistency and professionalism.

Key Points

  • Templates provide a consistent layout, font, and color scheme, ensuring a professional look throughout the presentation.
  • They help maintain uniformity in design, making it easier for the audience to follow and understand the content.
  • Using templates saves time as they come with pre-designed slides that can be easily customized according to the user's needs.
  • Templates support branding efforts by incorporating company logos, colors, and other brand elements consistently.

Additional Information

  • PowerPoint Templates
  • Templates are pre-designed slide layouts that can be customized to fit the user's content and style requirements.
  • They often include a variety of slide types such as title slides, content slides, and section headers.
  • Templates can be downloaded from the internet or created from scratch within PowerPoint.
  • Templates help in maintaining a professional and cohesive design, especially in corporate or academic presentations.
  • Consistency in Presentations
  • Consistency in presentations helps in avoiding distractions and keeping the audience focused on the content.
  • A consistent design includes uniform use of fonts, colors, and layouts throughout the slides.
  • It ensures that the presentation looks polished and professional, enhancing the credibility of the presenter.
  • Benefits of Professional Design
  • Professional design helps in making a strong first impression and engaging the audience effectively.
  • It enhances the overall visual appeal, making the content more accessible and easier to understand.
  • Professional design can improve the retention of information by the audience.
  • Customization of Templates
  • Templates can be customized to suit specific presentation themes or company branding guidelines.
  • Customization options include changing colors, fonts, adding logos, and modifying layouts.
  • Flexibility in customization ensures that the presentation meets the specific needs and preferences of the user.

Question 143

Which of the following best describes Electronic Mail (E-mail)?

  1. AOption (a)

    A method of sending messages electronically over a computer network.

  2. BOption (b)

    A system for storing digital files on the cloud.

  3. COption (c)

    A type of secure online transaction system.

  4. DOption (d)

    A service used to make phone calls over the internet.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A method of sending messages electronically over a computer network.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A method of sending messages electronically over a computer network..

Key Points

  • Email is a method of sending messages and documents electronically via the internet or other computer networks.
  • It is widely used for both personal and professional communication.
  • Email services typically include features such as the ability to send and receive messages, attach files, and organize conversations into threads.
  • Popular email service providers include Gmail, Yahoo Mail, and Outlook.
  • Emails are often used for formal communication due to their ability to provide a written record of exchanges.

Additional Information

  • SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
  • It is the protocol used to send emails from a client to a server or between servers.
  • SMTP operates over the Internet and ensures reliable and secure email delivery.
  • IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)
  • It allows users to access and manage their email on the mail server in real-time.
  • IMAP synchronizes emails across multiple devices, providing a consistent view of the inbox.
  • POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
  • It is another protocol used to retrieve emails from a server.
  • Unlike IMAP, POP3 downloads emails to the local device and often deletes them from the server.
  • Spam and Phishing
  • Spam refers to unsolicited and often irrelevant emails sent in bulk.
  • Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers trick users into divulging sensitive information by pretending to be a trustworthy entity.
  • Encryption
  • Encryption is used to protect the contents of an email from being read by unauthorized individuals.
  • Common encryption protocols include SSL/TLS for secure email transmission.

Question 144

Match the Task Manager tabs in column A with their respective functionalities in column B.

Column AColumn B
1.Processesa)Monitors overall CPU, memory, disk, and network usage
2.Performanceb)Displays active applications and background processes
3.Startupc)Manages programs that run during system startup
4.App Historyd)Shows resource usage for Windows Store apps
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - c

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a

  3. COption (c)

    1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Processes - b, Performance - a, Startup - c, App History - d.

Key Points

  • Processes: Displays active applications and background processes, allowing users to monitor and manage the programs currently running on their system.
  • Performance: Monitors overall CPU, memory, disk, and network usage, providing a detailed overview of the system’s resource consumption.
  • Startup: Manages programs that run during system startup, enabling users to disable or enable startup items to improve boot times and system performance.
  • App History: Shows resource usage for Windows Store apps, providing insights into how much CPU time and network bandwidth these apps consume.

Additional Information

  • Task Manager:
  • The Task Manager is a system monitor program used to provide information about the processes and applications running on a computer, as well as the general status of the system.
  • It can be used to end processes and applications, view detailed performance graphs, and manage startup programs.
  • Resource Monitoring:
  • Resource monitoring involves tracking the utilization of various system resources such as CPU, memory, disk, and network.
  • This helps in identifying performance bottlenecks and ensuring optimal system performance.
  • Startup Management:
  • Managing startup programs is crucial for optimizing system boot times and ensuring that only necessary applications run when the system starts.
  • Disabling unnecessary startup items can significantly improve system performance.
  • App History Analysis:
  • App history analysis provides insights into the resource usage of various applications over time.
  • This can help in identifying resource-intensive applications and making informed decisions about their usage.

Question 145

Which operation can one directly perform using File Explorer in Windows?

  1. AOption (a)

    Run diagnostic tests

  2. BOption (b)

    Modify system settings

  3. COption (c)

    Move, copy, or delete files

  4. DOption (d)

    Manage user accounts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Move, copy, or delete files

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Move, copy, or delete files.

Key Points

  • File Explorer in Windows is primarily used for managing files and folders, allowing users to move, copy, and delete them efficiently.
  • It provides an intuitive graphical interface where users can access, organize, and manage their files and folders stored on their computer and connected drives.
  • File Explorer supports drag-and-drop functionality, enabling users to easily move files from one location to another.
  • Users can perform batch operations, such as selecting multiple files or folders to move, copy, or delete them simultaneously.
  • File Explorer also offers integration with cloud storage services like OneDrive, allowing users to manage files stored in the cloud.

Additional Information

  • File Explorer Features:
  • Provides a detailed view of file properties, such as size, type, and date modified.
  • Supports file search functionality, enabling users to quickly find specific files or folders.
  • Allows users to create new folders and rename existing files and folders for better organization.
  • Includes options for customizing the view, such as switching between list, details, and thumbnail views.
  • File Operations:
  • Move: Users can move files from one location to another within the same drive or across different drives.
  • Copy: Users can create duplicates of files or folders in a different location without affecting the original files.
  • Delete: Users can delete files or folders, either sending them to the Recycle Bin or permanently removing them.
  • Cut and Paste: This operation allows users to cut a file from one location and paste it into another, effectively moving it.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts:
  • Ctrl+C: Copy
  • Ctrl+X: Cut
  • Ctrl+V: Paste
  • Delete: Delete
  • Ctrl+Z: Undo
  • Integration with Other Tools:
  • File Explorer integrates with the Taskbar and Start Menu for quick access to frequently used folders and locations.
  • It also supports integration with third-party file management tools and cloud storage services.
  • Security Features:
  • Users can set file permissions to control access and modifications by other users.
  • Supports encryption options to secure sensitive files and folders.

Question 146

Which of the following statements about computer memory is/are correct?

  1. RAM is volatile memory, meaning it loses data when power is turned off.

2. ROM is used to store essential instructions required for the computer to boot.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of volatile memory, meaning it loses all stored data when the power is turned off.
  • RAM is used for storing data that is actively being accessed or processed by the computer’s CPU.
  • ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile and retains its data even when the computer is turned off.
  • ROM is used to store firmware, which is essential for the computer to boot and perform basic functions.
  • Typically, the data stored in ROM is written during the manufacturing process and cannot be modified easily.

Additional Information

  • Types of RAM:
  • DRAM (Dynamic RAM): Needs to be refreshed thousands of times per second.
  • SRAM (Static RAM): Faster and more reliable than DRAM but also more expensive.
  • Types of ROM:
  • PROM (Programmable ROM): Can be programmed once after manufacturing.
  • EPROM (Erasable Programmable ROM): Can be erased and reprogrammed using UV light.
  • EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM): Can be erased and reprogrammed using electrical charge.
  • Cache Memory:
  • A small-sized type of volatile memory that provides high-speed data access to the CPU.
  • It stores copies of frequently accessed data from the main memory.
  • Virtual Memory:
  • A memory management capability of an operating system that uses hardware and software to allow a computer to compensate for physical memory shortages.
  • It temporarily transfers data from random access memory (RAM) to disk storage.

Question 147

Select which of the given statement(s) is/are True or False for the Central Processing Unit (CPU) of the Computer Systems.

(i) The CPU's clock speed controls the timing and execution speed of instructions.

(ii) The CPU's cache memory provides high-speed access to frequently used instructions and data.

  1. AOption (a)

    (i) True, (ii) True

  2. BOption (b)

    (i) False, (ii) True

  3. COption (c)

    (i) False, (ii) False

  4. DOption (d)

    (i) True, (ii) False

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(i) True, (ii) True

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The CPU's clock speed indeed controls the timing and execution speed of instructions, measured in GHz (gigahertz).
  • The higher the clock speed, the more instructions the CPU can process per second, resulting in better performance.
  • CPU's cache memory is a small-sized type of volatile computer memory that provides high-speed data access to the processor.
  • Cache memory stores copies of frequently used data from the main memory, reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access this data.

Additional Information

  • CPU Cores:
  • Modern CPUs come with multiple cores, allowing them to perform multiple tasks simultaneously.
  • Each core can handle its own task independently of the others, which improves multitasking and overall performance.
  • Hyper-Threading:
  • Hyper-threading is a technology used in some CPUs to improve parallelization of computations.
  • It allows a single physical core to execute multiple threads, appearing as multiple logical cores to the operating system.
  • Instruction Set Architecture (ISA):
  • The ISA defines the set of instructions that a CPU can execute.
  • It acts as an interface between software and hardware, facilitating the execution of programs.
  • Thermal Design Power (TDP):
  • TDP indicates the amount of heat a CPU generates under maximum load.
  • Proper cooling solutions are needed to maintain optimal CPU performance and prevent overheating.

Question 148

Which of the following is an example of a type of ROM that can be electronically erased and reprogrammed multiple times?

  1. AOption (a)

    EEPROM

  2. BOption (b)

    PROM

  3. COption (c)

    EPROM

  4. DOption (d)

    Mask ROM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

EEPROM

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is EEPROM.

Key Points

  • EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory.
  • It can be erased and reprogrammed multiple times using an electrical charge.
  • EEPROM is used in computers and other devices to store small amounts of data that must be saved when power is removed, such as configuration settings.
  • It is non-volatile memory, meaning it retains data even when the power supply is turned off.
  • EEPROMs are widely used in applications like BIOS chips, microcontrollers, smart cards, and other programmable devices.

Additional Information

  • PROM (Programmable Read-Only Memory)
  • PROM is a type of ROM that can be programmed once after manufacturing.
  • It is used in applications where the data does not need to be changed.
  • Programming PROM is done using a special device called a PROM programmer.
  • EPROM (Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory)
  • EPROM can be erased and reprogrammed multiple times using ultraviolet light.
  • It is used in applications where data needs to be updated but not frequently.
  • Erasing EPROM involves exposing it to UV light for a specified duration.
  • Mask ROM
  • Mask ROM is a type of ROM where data is written during the manufacturing process.
  • It is used for storing firmware or data that does not require modification.
  • Mask ROM is cost-effective for high-volume production but cannot be modified after manufacturing.

Question 149

Match the file locating features in column A with their corresponding functionalities in column B.

Column AColumn B
1.Search Bara)Displays files and folders recently accessed
2.Quick Accessb)Allows grouping and sorting of files by attributes
3.Wildcardsc)Refines searches for files with partial names
4.File Sortingd)Locates files and folders by typing keywords
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - c

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d

  3. COption (c)

    1 - c, 2 - b,  3 - a, 4 - d

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - b

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • Search Bar: Locates files and folders by typing keywords.
  • Quick Access: Displays files and folders recently accessed.
  • Wildcards: Refines searches for files with partial names.
  • File Sorting: Allows grouping and sorting of files by attributes.

Additional Information

  • Search Bar:
  • A tool used in various operating systems and software to quickly locate files and folders by entering relevant keywords.
  • Improves productivity by reducing the time taken to find specific items.
  • Quick Access:
  • A feature in file management systems that shows recently accessed files and folders for quick retrieval.
  • Helps users easily access frequently used files and folders without navigating through multiple directories.
  • Wildcards:
  • Special symbols like '*' and '?' used in search queries to represent unknown characters or strings.
  • Enhances search capabilities by allowing searches for files with partially known names.
  • File Sorting:
  • A functionality in file systems that enables the arrangement of files based on various attributes such as name, date, size, and type.
  • Facilitates better organization and easier retrieval of files.

Question 150

What is the maximum length of characters that can be accommodated in a column in MS Excel 2003?

  1. AOption (a)

    512 characters

  2. BOption (b)

    65536 characters

  3. COption (c)

    1064 characters

  4. DOption (d)

    255 characters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

255 characters

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 255 characters.

Key Points

  • MS Excel 2003 has a maximum cell content length of 255 characters.
  • This limitation applies to both the data entered manually or imported from other sources.
  • Excel 2003 cells can display up to 255 characters, but they can store up to 32,767 characters.
  • Only the first 255 characters are visible in the cell; the rest can be viewed in the formula bar.

Additional Information

  • Excel 2003 Cell Limitations
  • Each worksheet contains 65,536 rows and 256 columns.
  • Each cell can contain up to 32,767 characters, but only 255 are displayed.
  • Excel 2003 File Size
  • The maximum file size for an Excel 2003 workbook is 2 GB.
  • Large datasets may impact performance and usability.
  • Excel Formulas and Functions
  • Excel 2003 supports a wide range of built-in functions for mathematical, financial, and statistical calculations.
  • Complex formulas can be created by combining multiple functions.
  • Excel 2003 Compatibility
  • Excel 2003 files use the .xls format, which is compatible with later versions of Excel, though some features may not be fully supported.
  • Newer versions of Excel offer more advanced features and higher limits.

150 questions in the full paper